1st National Level Online Quiz Competition 2019
Team Lex Research Hub is organizing “1st National Level Online Quiz Competition 2019”. It is an attempt to provide a platform to all the law students throughout the nation to boost their legal knowledge.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
On which date Constitution of India was adopted and enacted by the Constituent Assembley?
- A.
August 15, 1947
- B.
January 26, 1950
- C.
November 26, 1949
- D.
January 30, 1948
Correct Answer
C. November 26, 1949Explanation
The Constitution of India was adopted and enacted by the Constituent Assembly on November 26, 1949. This date is significant as it marks the completion of the drafting process and the formal adoption of the Constitution. However, it came into effect on January 26, 1950, when India officially became a republic.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Who of the following was the permanent Chairman of the Constituent Assembly
- A.
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
- B.
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
- C.
Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
- D.
Sarder Vallabhbhai Patel
Correct Answer
B. Dr. Rajendra PrasadExplanation
Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the permanent Chairman of the Constituent Assembly. He was elected as the Chairman on 11th December 1946. Dr. Prasad played a crucial role in the drafting and adoption of the Indian Constitution. He ensured that all members had equal opportunities to express their opinions and ideas during the assembly sessions. His leadership and impartiality helped in maintaining the decorum and smooth functioning of the Constituent Assembly. Dr. Prasad's contribution to the Constitution-making process makes him the correct answer for the permanent Chairman of the Constituent Assembly.Rate this question:
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- 3.
In the case of Golak Nath v. State of Punjab, it was remarked that our preamble contains in a nutshell its ideas and aspirations, the judge was
- A.
Subba Rao, J
- B.
Krishna Iyer, J
- C.
Mathew, J
- D.
H.R. Khanna, J
Correct Answer
A. Subba Rao, JExplanation
In the case of Golak Nath v. State of Punjab, it was remarked that our preamble contains in a nutshell its ideas and aspirations. This means that the preamble of the Indian Constitution encapsulates the fundamental principles and objectives of the Constitution. The judge who made this remark was Subba Rao, J.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Panchayati Raj, as introduced in 1959, operates at
- A.
Samiti and Block Levels
- B.
Block and District Levels
- C.
Samiti and District Levels
- D.
Village, Block and District Levels
Correct Answer
D. Village, Block and District LevelsExplanation
Panchayati Raj, introduced in 1959, operates at the Village, Block, and District Levels. This decentralized system of governance aims to empower local communities and promote grassroots democracy. At the village level, Gram Panchayats are responsible for local governance and development. At the block level, Panchayat Samitis oversee multiple villages and coordinate development activities. At the district level, Zilla Parishads are responsible for overall planning and coordination of development programs. This multi-tiered system ensures that decision-making power is distributed among different levels of government, allowing for effective and inclusive governance.Rate this question:
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- 5.
When constitution was framed, the number of Article, Parts and Scheduled were
- A.
Article- 444, Parts- 24 & Schedule- 12
- B.
Article- 448, Prats- 25 & Schedule- 12
- C.
Article- 395, Parts- 22 & Schedule- 8
- D.
Article- 396, Parts- 21 & Schedule- 10
Correct Answer
C. Article- 395, Parts- 22 & Schedule- 8Explanation
The correct answer is Article- 395, Parts- 22 & Schedule- 8. This is because when the constitution was framed, it consisted of 395 articles, 22 parts, and 8 schedules.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Part IV-A was added to the constitution of India by the __________ Amendment
- A.
44th
- B.
56th
- C.
57th
- D.
42nd
Correct Answer
D. 42ndExplanation
Part IV-A was added to the constitution of India by the 42nd Amendment.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which among the following pertains to National Anthem Case?
- A.
Vishak’s case
- B.
Bijoe Emamanual’s case
- C.
Shyam Narayan’s case
- D.
Both (B) & (C)
Correct Answer
B. Bijoe Emamanual’s caseExplanation
Bijoe Emmanuel's case pertains to the National Anthem Case.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Aadhar Act, 2016 was passed by parliament by the procedure under article:
- A.
Article 112
- B.
Article 113
- C.
Article 100
- D.
Article 109
Correct Answer
D. Article 109Explanation
The correct answer is Article 109. The Aadhar Act, 2016 was passed by parliament through the procedure outlined in Article 109 of the Constitution. This article deals with the special procedure for passing Money Bills, and the Aadhar Act was considered a Money Bill. This procedure requires that the Bill be introduced in the Lok Sabha (the lower house of parliament), and once it is passed by the Lok Sabha, it is sent to the Rajya Sabha (the upper house) for its recommendations. The Rajya Sabha can suggest amendments, but it is not mandatory for the Lok Sabha to accept them. Finally, the Bill is presented to the President for his assent.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The framers of the Indian Constitution borrowed the idea of judicial review from the constitution of:
- A.
France
- B.
USA
- C.
United Kingdom
- D.
None of the Above
Correct Answer
B. USAExplanation
The framers of the Indian Constitution borrowed the idea of judicial review from the constitution of the USA. Judicial review is the power of the judiciary to review and invalidate laws or actions that are deemed unconstitutional. The concept of judicial review was first established in the United States by the landmark case of Marbury v. Madison in 1803. This case established the principle that the Supreme Court has the authority to interpret the Constitution and declare laws unconstitutional. The framers of the Indian Constitution were influenced by this concept and included it as a fundamental feature of the Indian judicial system.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The source of “We the People” in the Preamble of Indian Constitution is:
- A.
United Sates
- B.
United Kingdom
- C.
United Nations
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. United NationsExplanation
The source of "We the People" in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution is the United Nations. The phrase "We the People" is inspired by the Preamble of the United Nations Charter, which begins with the words "We the Peoples of the United Nations." The framers of the Indian Constitution adopted this phrase to emphasize the democratic nature of the Indian state and the idea that the power lies with the people.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which one of the following is in correct order in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
- A.
Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic
- B.
Sovereign, Secular, Socialist, Democratic, Republic
- C.
Sovereign, Secular, Democratic, Secular, Republic
- D.
Sovereign, Secular, Democratic, Socialist, Republic
Correct Answer
A. Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, RepublicExplanation
The correct order in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution is "Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic." The term "Sovereign" signifies that India is an independent nation, free from any external control. "Socialist" emphasizes the commitment to social and economic equality. "Secular" denotes that India does not favor any particular religion and ensures equal treatment to all religions. "Democratic" signifies the system of government where power lies with the people. "Republic" signifies that the head of the state is an elected representative and not a hereditary monarch.Rate this question:
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- 12.
________________described the Part III of the Indian Constitution as “most criticized part of the Constitution”
- A.
Jawahar Lal Nehru
- B.
B.R. Ambedkar
- C.
Dr. Rajender Prasad
- D.
B.N. Rau
Correct Answer
B. B.R. AmbedkarExplanation
B.R. Ambedkar described the Part III of the Indian Constitution as the "most criticized part of the Constitution."Rate this question:
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- 13.
Right to Property in India is:
- A.
Fundamental Right
- B.
Legal Right
- C.
Constitutional Right
- D.
None of them
Correct Answer
B. Legal RightExplanation
The right to property in India is considered a legal right because it is protected and governed by various laws and regulations. While it was initially included as a fundamental right in the Indian Constitution, it was later removed and is now a legal right under Article 300A. This means that individuals have the legal right to acquire, own, and dispose of property, subject to certain restrictions and regulations imposed by the government.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Autre fois Acquit principle is related to
- A.
Self-incrimination
- B.
Ex-post facto law
- C.
Retrospective operation
- D.
Double jeopardy
Correct Answer
D. Double jeopardyExplanation
The Autrefois Acquit principle is related to double jeopardy. It states that a person cannot be tried or punished for the same offense more than once. This principle ensures that individuals are protected from being subjected to multiple prosecutions or punishments for the same crime, preventing double jeopardy and ensuring fairness in the legal system.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which one of the following cases is related to constitutionality of ‘Right to Death’, where it was held that “Right to Life” does not include “right to die”?
- A.
Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
- B.
Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab
- C.
A.K. Gopalan v. Union of India
- D.
Kharak Singh v. State of U.P
Correct Answer
B. Gian Kaur v. State of PunjabExplanation
In the case of Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab, it was held that the "Right to Life" does not include the "right to die". This case is related to the constitutionality of "Right to Death".Rate this question:
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- 16.
Law giving effect to Article 39(b) and (c) can override Article 14 and Article 19 vide Article 31(c) is brought through:
- A.
24th amendment
- B.
42nd amendment
- C.
39th amendment
- D.
44th amendment
Correct Answer
D. 44th amendmentExplanation
The 44th amendment brought the provision of Article 31(c) which states that a law enacted to give effect to the principles laid down in Article 39(b) and (c) can override the fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 14 (right to equality) and Article 19 (right to freedom). This means that if a law is enacted to implement the directive principles of state policy related to social and economic welfare, it can prevail over the fundamental rights of individuals.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Who of the following was elected President of India unanimously?
- A.
Dr. S. Radha Krishnan
- B.
V.V. Giri
- C.
N. Sanjiva Reddy
- D.
Gyani Zail Singh
Correct Answer
C. N. Sanjiva ReddyExplanation
N. Sanjiva Reddy was elected President of India unanimously.Rate this question:
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- 18.
The veto power of the President covers:
- A.
Money Bills
- B.
Non-Money Bills
- C.
Constitutional Amendment Bills
- D.
All Bills other than Money Bills and Constitutional Amendment Bills
Correct Answer
D. All Bills other than Money Bills and Constitutional Amendment BillsExplanation
The veto power of the President covers all bills other than Money Bills and Constitutional Amendment Bills. This means that the President has the authority to reject or refuse to sign any bill that is not related to the budget or the amendment of the constitution. The President's veto power serves as a check and balance on the legislative branch, allowing the executive branch to prevent the passage of bills that they believe are not in the best interest of the country.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The President cannot make Ordinance regarding the subject mentioned in:
- A.
Union list
- B.
State List
- C.
Concurrent list
- D.
State and Concurrent list
Correct Answer
B. State ListExplanation
The President cannot make an ordinance regarding the subject mentioned in the State List because the State List consists of matters on which only the state governments have the authority to make laws. The President's power to issue ordinances is limited to matters in the Union List and Concurrent List, where both the central and state governments have the power to legislate. Therefore, the President does not have the authority to make ordinances on matters exclusively within the jurisdiction of the state governments.Rate this question:
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- 20.
A candidate to become a member of Lok Sabha should not be below:
- A.
21 years
- B.
25 years
- C.
30 years
- D.
35 years
Correct Answer
B. 25 yearsExplanation
To become a member of Lok Sabha, the minimum age requirement is 25 years. This ensures that candidates have gained some level of maturity and experience before entering the political arena. It is important for members of Lok Sabha to be able to make informed decisions and represent the interests of their constituents effectively. By setting a minimum age requirement, it is believed that individuals will have had enough time to develop a certain level of understanding and knowledge about governance and public affairs.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which one of the following Bills is not introduced in Rajya Sabha?
- A.
Amendment Bill
- B.
Ordinary Bill
- C.
Money Bill
- D.
None of above
Correct Answer
C. Money BillExplanation
A Money Bill is not introduced in the Rajya Sabha. According to Article 109 of the Indian Constitution, a Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, the lower house of Parliament. The Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations on a Money Bill and has no power to reject or amend it. This is because Money Bills deal with matters related to taxation, government expenditure, and borrowing, which are considered to be under the exclusive domain of the Lok Sabha, where members are directly elected by the people.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Public interest litigation means:
- A.
Anything of public interest
- B.
A case brought by a victim to court involving public interest
- C.
A case brought by anyone to court involving public interest
- D.
A direction issued by the Supreme Court involving public interest
Correct Answer
C. A case brought by anyone to court involving public interestExplanation
Public interest litigation refers to a legal case that is brought to court by any individual, not just a victim, with the intention of addressing a matter that is of public interest. The key aspect of public interest litigation is that it focuses on issues that affect the general public and seeks to bring about a positive change or resolution. This type of litigation allows any concerned citizen to raise important matters in court, even if they are not directly affected by the issue at hand.Rate this question:
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- 23.
The minimum strength in the Supreme Court is:
- A.
7 Judges
- B.
25 Judges
- C.
13 Judges
- D.
Parliament to decide
Correct Answer
B. 25 JudgesExplanation
The correct answer is 25 Judges. The Supreme Court is the highest judicial body in India and consists of a Chief Justice and a maximum of 34 other judges. According to Article 124(1) of the Indian Constitution, the Supreme Court should have a minimum of 25 judges, including the Chief Justice. This ensures a sufficient number of judges to handle the workload and maintain the independence and effectiveness of the Supreme Court.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in appeals from High Court in regard to civil matters pertains only to a
- A.
Substantial question of law
- B.
Question of law
- C.
Question of fact
- D.
Mixed question of fact and law
Correct Answer
A. Substantial question of lawExplanation
The appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in appeals from the High Court in regard to civil matters is limited to cases involving a substantial question of law. This means that the Supreme Court can only hear appeals if there is a significant legal issue at stake, rather than a question of fact or a mixed question of fact and law. This ensures that the Supreme Court's time and resources are focused on resolving complex legal issues and setting legal precedents, rather than re-examining factual findings made by the lower courts.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Ambedkar described ______________as the “heart and soul of the Constitution”
- A.
Article 32
- B.
Article 21
- C.
Article 19
- D.
Article 51A
Correct Answer
A. Article 32Explanation
Ambedkar described Article 32 as the "heart and soul of the Constitution" because it guarantees the right to constitutional remedies. This article empowers individuals to directly approach the Supreme Court for the enforcement of their fundamental rights. It acts as a safeguard against any violation of these rights and ensures that citizens have access to justice. By considering it as the heart and soul, Ambedkar emphasized the importance of protecting and upholding fundamental rights in the Indian Constitution.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The greatest hallmark of personal liberty is:
- A.
Mandamus
- B.
Certiorari
- C.
Quo warranto
- D.
Habeas Corpus
Correct Answer
D. Habeas CorpusExplanation
Habeas Corpus is the correct answer because it is the greatest hallmark of personal liberty. Habeas Corpus is a legal principle that ensures individuals have the right to challenge their detention or imprisonment. It protects against arbitrary arrest and detention by requiring that a person be brought before a court to determine the lawfulness of their detention. This principle is fundamental to personal freedom and ensures that individuals have the ability to challenge any infringement upon their liberty.Rate this question:
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- 27.
All-India Services can be created by:
- A.
President
- B.
Prime Minister
- C.
Union Public Service Commission
- D.
Parliamnet of India
Correct Answer
D. Parliamnet of IndiaExplanation
The Parliament of India has the authority to create All-India Services. These services are created through the passage of a law by the Parliament. The creation of All-India Services is a legislative function and requires the approval of both houses of Parliament. The President, Prime Minister, and Union Public Service Commission do not have the power to create All-India Services on their own.Rate this question:
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- 28.
The maximum term of National Emergency is:
- A.
One year
- B.
Three years
- C.
Indefinite
- D.
Six months
Correct Answer
B. Three yearsExplanation
The maximum term of National Emergency is three years. This is stated in Article 352 of the Indian Constitution, which allows the President to declare a National Emergency in case of a threat to the security of the country or any part thereof. However, the emergency can be extended beyond three years with the approval of the Parliament every six months.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Amendment in the Article 370 could be done
- A.
By Parliament of India
- B.
By Jammu Kashmir Government
- C.
By the President of India
- D.
By the President of India on the advice of Constituent Assembly of Jammu & Kashmir
Correct Answer
D. By the President of India on the advice of Constituent Assembly of Jammu & KashmirExplanation
The correct answer is "by the President of India on the advice of Constituent Assembly of Jammu & Kashmir." According to the Constitution of India, the power to amend Article 370 lies with the President of India. However, the President can only exercise this power on the advice of the Constituent Assembly of Jammu & Kashmir. This means that the President cannot unilaterally amend Article 370 without the consent of the Constituent Assembly.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Zonal Councils are:
- A.
Administrative bodies
- B.
Advisory bodies
- C.
Quasi-Judicial bodies
- D.
Dispute settling agencies
Correct Answer
B. Advisory bodiesExplanation
Zonal Councils are advisory bodies that were established under the States Reorganization Act of 1956 in India. They provide a platform for the states and union territories to discuss and resolve common issues, promote cooperation, and coordinate actions on matters of regional importance. The main objective of these councils is to foster inter-state and center-state coordination and collaboration, ensuring balanced socio-economic development in the country. The councils are chaired by the Union Home Minister and consist of the Chief Ministers of the concerned states and union territories, as well as other central and state government officials.Rate this question:
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