3P071 Volume 1 UREs 2017

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67. (008) Which of the following injuries is not considered grievous bodily harm?
- A. Deep cuts.
- B. Bloody nose.
- C. Fractured bones.
- D. Damaged internal organs.

About This Quiz

This quiz, titled '3P071 Volume 1 UREs 2017', assesses knowledge crucial for Air Force personnel, focusing on duties and control within various force development levels. It is designed to evaluate understanding of operational roles and leadership within the Air Force, targeting skills essential for career progression.

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2.

71. (009) What effect, if any, would allowing objects to be touched, stains to be walked on, orfootprints or tire marks to be destroyed at a crime scene?
- A. It would have no effect as long as the investigator was informed.
- B. It could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime.
- C. It would be beneficial to have all evidence collected and placed in a central location.
- D. It would have no effect, allow the crime scene to be investigated quicker, and a suspect found faster.
Correct Answer

A. B. It could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime.

Explanation

Allowing objects to be touched, stains to be walked on, or footprints or tire marks to be destroyed at a crime scene could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime. Physical evidence is crucial in solving crimes, and any alteration or destruction of evidence can lead to incorrect interpretations and conclusions. Therefore, it is important to preserve the crime scene and collect all evidence properly to ensure an accurate investigation and prevent false conclusions.

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3.

18. (001) What can assist you as a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale high?
- A. Post rotations.
- B. Specialized courses.
- C. Recognition program.
- D. Providing time off.
Correct Answer

A. A. Post rotations.

Explanation

Post rotations can assist a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale high because it allows for a variety of experiences and prevents monotony. By rotating individuals to different positions or tasks, it gives them the opportunity to learn new skills, work with different team members, and avoid burnout. This can help maintain motivation and engagement within the flight, ultimately contributing to high morale.

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4.

34. (003) What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?
- A. Analysis.
- B. Feedback.
- C. Evaluation.
- D. Cross-feed.
Correct Answer

A. B. Feedback.

Explanation

Feedback is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips because it provides them with valuable information about their performance, the effectiveness of their strategies, and the impact of their decisions. Feedback allows commanders to make informed adjustments and improvements, leading to better outcomes and increased success. It also helps in identifying strengths and weaknesses, enabling commanders to capitalize on their strengths and address any areas that need improvement. Overall, feedback plays a crucial role in enhancing decision-making and performance in command roles.

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5.

68. (008) Excluding homicide what is perhaps the most serious crime that will be investigated?
- A. Rape.
- B. Assault.
- C. Adultery.
- D. Child Abuse.
Correct Answer

A. A. Rape.

Explanation

Rape is perhaps the most serious crime that will be investigated excluding homicide. Rape is a violent act that involves non-consensual sexual intercourse or penetration. It is considered a serious crime because it violates a person's bodily autonomy, causes severe physical and psychological trauma, and infringes upon their basic human rights. Rape investigations require thorough examination of evidence, interviews with victims and potential witnesses, and cooperation with medical professionals to gather information and build a case against the perpetrator.

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6.

72. (009) What is the benefit of having a crime scene adequately protected?
- A. It allows photographs to be taken.
- B. It assists in creating a more realistic diagram of the scene.
- C. It allows responding patrols to better piece together events.
- D. It allows the investigator to review the scene exactly as it was found.
Correct Answer

A. D. It allows the investigator to review the scene exactly as it was found.

Explanation

Having a crime scene adequately protected allows the investigator to review the scene exactly as it was found. This is important because it ensures that no evidence is tampered with or contaminated, providing a more accurate understanding of the crime and what occurred. It allows the investigator to gather all the necessary information and clues from the scene, which can be crucial in solving the crime and identifying the perpetrator.

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7.

73. (009) Why is it a good procedure to have a patrolman not involved in the preliminaryinvestigation search the scene?
- A. It allows for additional flight members to gain experience.
- B. It provides a great training environment as it adds realism to the training.
- C. It will bring fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects.
- D. It could possibly destroy your hard work, contaminate the scene, and violate the chain of evidence requirements.
Correct Answer

A. C. It will bring fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects.

Explanation

Having a patrolman not involved in the preliminary investigation search the scene is a good procedure because it allows for fresh eyes to examine the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects. This helps ensure that all evidence is thoroughly and objectively assessed, increasing the chances of identifying crucial details or overlooked evidence. Additionally, it reduces the risk of contamination or destruction of evidence, as the patrolman is not directly involved in the investigation and is less likely to unknowingly tamper with the scene.

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8.

20. (001) What should you do if a subordinate demonstrates substandard duty performance?
- A. Issue paperwork.
- B. Verbally counsel the subordinate.
- C. Investigate to determine the cause.
- D. Assign the subordinate a new supervisor.
Correct Answer

A. C. Investigate to determine the cause.

Explanation

If a subordinate is demonstrating substandard duty performance, it is important to investigate to determine the cause. This allows for a thorough understanding of the underlying issues that may be contributing to the substandard performance. By identifying the cause, appropriate actions can be taken to address and rectify the situation, whether it involves additional training, counseling, or other interventions. Simply issuing paperwork or verbally counseling the subordinate may not address the root cause of the issue, and assigning a new supervisor may not necessarily solve the problem either. Therefore, investigating to determine the cause is the most effective course of action.

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9.

35. (003) The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to
- A. measure the qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions.
- B. determine that only the highest quality of individual perform duties as installation entry controller.
- C. measure the qualification of individuals and decertify them in specific duty positions.
- D. surprise and decertify squadron personnel unprepared for duty.
Correct Answer

A. A. measure the qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions.

Explanation

The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to measure the qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions. This evaluation ensures that individuals have the necessary skills and knowledge to effectively carry out their assigned duties. It is a process of assessing an individual's competency and determining their suitability for a particular role.

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10.

62. (007) Which of these is not considered a target point on a door for entry when using a shotgun?
- A. Hinges.
- B. Door knob.
- C. Locking mechanism.
- D. Center mass of the door.
Correct Answer

A. D. Center mass of the door.

Explanation

The center mass of the door is not considered a target point on a door for entry when using a shotgun. When using a shotgun for entry, the target points on a door typically include the hinges, door knob, and locking mechanism. The center mass of the door is not a specific point that needs to be targeted for entry.

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11.

66. (008) What determines the attitude and cooperation of those involved in a dispute?
- A. The nature of the dispute.
- B. The location of the dispute.
- C. The responding patrol’s attitude.
- D. Whether or not children are present.
Correct Answer

A. C. The responding patrol’s attitude.

Explanation

The attitude and cooperation of those involved in a dispute are determined by the responding patrol's attitude. The way the patrol handles the situation, their demeanor, and their ability to effectively communicate and listen to all parties involved can greatly impact how the individuals in the dispute respond. A positive and respectful attitude from the patrol can help to de-escalate the situation and encourage cooperation from those involved. Conversely, a negative or confrontational attitude can escalate tensions and hinder cooperation.

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12.

14. (001) Post priority charts are used to
- A. allocate vehicles.
- B. allocate manpower.
- C. determine post rotations.
- D. determine weapon configurations.
Correct Answer

A. B. allocate manpower.

Explanation

Post priority charts are used to allocate manpower. This means that they are used to determine the distribution and assignment of personnel to different posts or positions. These charts help in ensuring that the right number of personnel with the appropriate skills and qualifications are assigned to each post, based on the priority or importance of the tasks or responsibilities associated with that post. By using post priority charts, organizations can effectively manage their manpower resources and ensure that they are allocated in the most efficient and effective manner.

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13.

17. (001) When possible it is important to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified in order to maintain
- A. proficiency.
- B. discipline.
- C. fairness.
- D. control.
Correct Answer

A. A. proficiency.

Explanation

Rotating personnel through each post they are qualified in helps to maintain proficiency. This is because when individuals are exposed to different roles and responsibilities, they gain a broader understanding of the organization and develop a diverse skill set. By regularly rotating personnel, they can continue to learn and grow, ensuring that they remain competent and capable in their respective positions. This practice also reduces the risk of complacency and fosters a culture of continuous improvement within the organization.

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14.

31. (002) The primary function of reviewing is to ensure
- A. the communication gets the point across.
- B. ideas are being communicated understandably and the communication gets the point across.
- C. ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (incorrect grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; incorrect punctuation), and the communication get the point across.
- D. ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (correct grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; correct punctuation), and the communication gets the point across.
Correct Answer

A. D. ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (correct grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; correct punctuation), and the communication gets the point across.

Explanation

The primary function of reviewing is to ensure that ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (correct grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; correct punctuation), and that the communication gets the point across. This means that reviewing is not only focused on the clarity of the message, but also on the overall coherence and correctness of the language used. It is important for the communication to be logically organized and free from grammatical errors in order to effectively convey the intended message.

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15.

83. (011) When questioning a juvenile, what actions should you take if you cannot find a parent or they cannot respond in a timely manner?
- A. Seek Defense Force Commander (DFC) advice.
- B. Seek Area Defense Counsel (ADC) advice.
- C. Seek Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) advice.
- D. Question them with a witness.
Correct Answer

A. C. Seek Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) advice.

Explanation

When questioning a juvenile, if you cannot find a parent or they cannot respond in a timely manner, you should seek Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) advice. The SJA is a legal advisor who can provide guidance on the appropriate actions to take when dealing with juveniles in legal matters. They can help ensure that the juvenile's rights are protected and that the questioning process is conducted in a fair and lawful manner. Seeking SJA advice helps to ensure that the juvenile's best interests are considered and that any potential legal issues are addressed properly.

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16.

1. (001) What is the most rigorous stage of development?
- A. SrA.
- B. MSgt.
- C. SSgt and TSgt.
- D. Amn and A1C.
Correct Answer

A. D. Amn and A1C.

Explanation

The most rigorous stage of development is when an individual is at the rank of Amn (Airman) and A1C (Airman First Class). This is because at this stage, individuals are at the beginning of their military career and are expected to learn and adapt quickly to the demands and expectations of the Air Force. They are required to undergo extensive training and development to acquire the necessary skills and knowledge to fulfill their duties effectively. This stage sets the foundation for their future growth and advancement in the Air Force.

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17.

2. (001) Which of these is not a Senior Airman (SrA) duty?
- A. Patrol leader.
- B. Squad leader.
- C. Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) Controller.
- D. Internal Security Response Team (ISRT)/External Security Response Team (ESRT) Leader.
Correct Answer

A. B. Squad leader.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Squad leader. A Senior Airman (SrA) is typically not assigned as a squad leader. Squad leaders are usually higher-ranking individuals such as Staff Sergeants or Technical Sergeants. Senior Airmen may hold other leadership positions, but squad leader is not typically one of them.

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18.

27. (002) Who is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment?
- A. Flight member.
- B. Flight supervisor.
- C. Flight commander.
- D. Non-commissioned officer in charge (NCOIC), Supply.
Correct Answer

A. A. Flight member.

Explanation

The flight member is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment. This means that each individual within the flight has the responsibility to ensure that the equipment is properly maintained and in good working order. This includes conducting regular inspections, performing necessary repairs, and reporting any issues to the appropriate personnel. By assigning this responsibility to the flight member, it ensures that everyone is actively involved in the maintenance process and takes ownership of the equipment they use.

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19.

36. (004) The primary mission of the Military Working Dog (MWD) is to
- A. aggress against, deter and degrade intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.
- B. track, detect and aggress against intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.
- C. detain, detract and degrade intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.
- D. deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.
Correct Answer

A. D. deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.

Explanation

The primary mission of the Military Working Dog (MWD) is to deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources. This means that MWDs are trained to prevent unauthorized individuals from entering or approaching Air Force facilities, identify potential threats or intruders through their keen sense of smell, sight, and hearing, and take appropriate action to apprehend or detain them until security personnel can respond. By performing these tasks, MWDs play a crucial role in enhancing the security and protection of Air Force resources.

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20.

56. (006) Which of the following is not an alarm response code?
- A. Code 1.
- B. Code 2.
- C. Code 3.
- D. Code 4.
Correct Answer

A. D. Code 4.

Explanation

The question asks for the alarm response code that is not valid. The options provided are Code 1, Code 2, Code 3, and Code 4. The correct answer is d. Code 4 because it is not an alarm response code.

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21.

89. (013) Prior to the trial, what aids in recalling all the details of the case?
- A. Speaking to the witnesses.
- B. Consulting with the defense counsel.
- C. Arranging and reviewing original notes.
- D. Returning to the crime scene to recall the events.
Correct Answer

A. C. Arranging and reviewing original notes.

Explanation

Arranging and reviewing original notes prior to the trial aids in recalling all the details of the case. This is because original notes contain important information and evidence gathered during the investigation, which can help refresh the memory and ensure that no crucial details are missed during the trial. By organizing and reviewing these notes, the person involved in the trial can have a comprehensive understanding of the case and be better prepared to present and argue their position effectively.

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22.

69. (008) What is not considered an objective of the Victim/Witness Assistance Program (VWAP) program?
- A. Mitigate the physical, psychological, and financial hardships suffered by the victim.
- B. Ensure best efforts are made to accord victims certain rights.
- C. Foster cooperation of victims and witnesses.
- D. Prosecute the accused.
Correct Answer

A. D. Prosecute the accused.

Explanation

The Victim/Witness Assistance Program (VWAP) aims to support victims and witnesses of crimes by mitigating their physical, psychological, and financial hardships (option a), ensuring that victims are accorded certain rights (option b), and fostering their cooperation (option c). However, prosecuting the accused (option d) is not considered an objective of the VWAP program. The program focuses on providing assistance and support to victims and witnesses, rather than on the prosecution of the accused.

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23.

82. (011) What is the time limit placed on suspect interviews?
- A. As long as it takes to obtain a confession.
- B. No more than 30 minutes.
- C. No more than 60 minutes.
- D. There is no time limit.
Correct Answer

A. D. There is no time limit.

Explanation

There is no time limit placed on suspect interviews. This means that law enforcement can take as long as they need to gather information and evidence from the suspect. This allows them to thoroughly investigate the case and ensure that all relevant information is obtained. However, it is important to note that the absence of a time limit does not mean that law enforcement can use any means necessary to obtain a confession. They still have to adhere to legal and ethical guidelines during the interview process.

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24.

7. (001) Supervisors must ensure their troops
- A. have food and water.
- B. possess required qualifications and certifications.
- C. are supplied with weapons and required equipment.
- D. are issued Special Security Instructions (SSIs) and study material.
Correct Answer

A. B. possess required qualifications and certifications.

Explanation

Supervisors must ensure their troops possess required qualifications and certifications. This is important because having the necessary qualifications and certifications ensures that the troops are properly trained and competent to perform their duties effectively and safely. It also ensures that they meet the standards and requirements set by the organization or governing body. By ensuring their troops have the necessary qualifications and certifications, supervisors can have confidence in their abilities and trust that they will be able to carry out their responsibilities successfully.

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25.

9. (001) Post and patrols will be manned in accordance with the
- A. Duty roster.
- B. Post priority listing.
- C. Unit manning document.
- D. Unit personnel manning roster.
Correct Answer

A. B. Post priority listing.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Post priority listing. This is because post and patrols will be manned according to their priority as listed in the post priority listing. The post priority listing determines the order in which posts need to be manned based on their importance and the specific needs of the unit. It helps ensure that the most critical posts are manned first and that all posts are adequately staffed. The duty roster, unit manning document, and unit personnel manning roster may provide additional information about personnel assignments, but they do not specifically address the prioritization of posts.

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26.

85. (011) An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a
- A. habitual offender.
- B. psychotic offender.
- C. first time offender.
- D. professional offender.
Correct Answer

A. A. habitual offender.

Explanation

An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a habitual offender. This term is used to describe someone who repeatedly engages in criminal behavior without remorse or guilt. Unlike a first-time offender who may feel remorse or guilt after committing a crime, a habitual offender demonstrates a lack of moral conscience and continues to engage in criminal activities without a sense of wrongdoing. A psychotic offender, on the other hand, refers to someone who has a mental illness that may contribute to their criminal behavior. A professional offender typically refers to someone who commits crimes as a means of livelihood.

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27.

3. (001) Which Staff Sergeant (SSgt) or Technical Sergeant (TSgt) duty is available in certainlocations?
- A. Supervisor.
- B. Flight Sergeant.
- C. Response force leader.
- D. Non-commissioned officer in charge (NCOIC)/Assistant NCOIC.
Correct Answer

A. B. Flight Sergeant.

Explanation

Flight Sergeant duty is available in certain locations.

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28.

11. (001) Who is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw a person’s right to bear a firearm?
- A. Supervisor.
- B. Commander.
- C. Servicing armory.
- D. Security Forces manager.
Correct Answer

A. B. Commander.

Explanation

The commander is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw a person's right to bear a firearm. This is because the commander has the authority and power to make decisions regarding the use and possession of firearms within their command. They have the knowledge and understanding of the situation and can assess whether it is necessary to temporarily revoke someone's right to bear a firearm for the safety and security of the organization or individual. The supervisor, servicing armory, and security forces manager may be involved in the process, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the commander.

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29.

39. (004) A patrol dog team used in police services activities is a tremendous
- A. deterrent to potential violators.
- B. physical deterrent to potential violators.
- C. physiological deterrent to potential violators.
- D. psychological deterrent to potential violators.
Correct Answer

A. D. psychological deterrent to potential violators.

Explanation

A patrol dog team used in police services activities is a psychological deterrent to potential violators because the presence of a well-trained and intimidating dog can create fear and hesitation in individuals who may be considering engaging in criminal activities. The sight of a police dog can make potential violators think twice about their actions, knowing that they may face the consequences of encountering a highly trained and capable canine. This psychological deterrent effect helps to maintain public safety and prevent crime.

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30.

42. (005) “All permanently assigned security forces (SF) vehicles must be properly marked” means that they
- A. all must have SF badges applied to both the front doors.
- B. all must have emergency lights, flood lights, and mobile radios.
- C. must have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system.
- D. all must have a cage installed between the front and rear seats to transport a military working dog (MWD).
Correct Answer

A. C. must have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system.

Explanation

The correct answer is c. "All permanently assigned security forces (SF) vehicles must have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system." This means that it is a requirement for SF vehicles to have these specific features installed.

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31.

87. (012) The AF Form 3226 is used for apprehension
- A. in a private dwelling.
- B. during the interview.
- C. off the installation.
- D. in a work center.
Correct Answer

A. A. in a private dwelling.

Explanation

The AF Form 3226 is used for apprehension in a private dwelling. This form is specifically designed to document the details of an apprehension that takes place in a private residence. It helps to ensure that proper procedures are followed and that all necessary information is recorded accurately. This form may be used by law enforcement personnel or military officials when apprehending individuals in their homes.

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32.

13. (001) What drives a post priority chart?
- A. Vulnerability assessment.
- B. Inspector General (IG) assessment.
- C. Force protection conditions (FPCONs).
- D. Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP) assessment.
Correct Answer

A. D. Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP) assessment.

Explanation

The post priority chart is driven by the Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP) assessment. This assessment helps identify and prioritize risks and threats to the installation or facility. It considers factors such as vulnerability assessment, Inspector General (IG) assessment, and force protection conditions (FPCONs) to determine the level of risk and the appropriate measures to mitigate it. The IDRMP assessment ensures that resources are allocated effectively and that the highest priority risks are addressed first.

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33.

30. (002) When reviewing material for technical accuracy a concern is that it is
- A. lengthy.
- B. made up.
- C. irrelevant.
- D. inappropriate.
Correct Answer

A. C. irrelevant.

Explanation

When reviewing material for technical accuracy, one concern is that it may contain information that is irrelevant. This means that the material may include details or facts that are not necessary or applicable to the topic being discussed. Irrelevant information can distract the reader or confuse them, making it important to ensure that the material is focused and only includes information that is directly related to the subject at hand.

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34.

57. (006) Which is not a designated PL1 resource?
- A. Nuclear weapons.
- B. Senior Executive Mission (SENEX) aircraft.
- C. Aircraft designated to transport the First Lady of the United States.
- D. Command, control, communications, and computer (C4) systems.
Correct Answer

A. C. Aircraft designated to transport the First Lady of the United States.

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Aircraft designated to transport the First Lady of the United States. This answer is correct because PL1 resources are defined as resources that are essential to the survival, security, or operational readiness of the United States government. While the transportation of the First Lady is important, it is not considered a designated PL1 resource. PL1 resources typically include nuclear weapons, high-ranking government officials, and critical communication and computer systems.

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35.

63. (007) When making room entry, your weapons should be oriented towards the
- A. threat.
- B. fast wall.
- C. unknown.
- D. strong wall.
Correct Answer

A. C. unknown.

Explanation

When making room entry, it is important to orient your weapons towards the unknown. This means that you should be prepared to engage any potential threats that may be present inside the room. By keeping your weapons oriented towards the unknown, you are ready to react quickly and effectively to any potential danger that may arise. This ensures the safety and security of yourself and others during room entry situations.

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36.

84. (011) Which of the following suspect background facts is of no value to you prior toquestioning?
- A. Nationality.
- B. Income.
- C. Race.
- D. Age.
Correct Answer

A. B. Income.

Explanation

The suspect's income is of no value prior to questioning because it does not provide any relevant information about their involvement in the situation. Nationality, race, and age can potentially be important factors to consider during questioning, as they may be relevant to the case or investigation. However, income is not directly related to the suspect's actions or potential guilt, and therefore does not provide any useful information in this context.

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37.

15. (001) Who has the authority to determine which of your posts can go unmanned?
- A. Group commander.
- B. Security Forces manager.
- C. Defense force commander.
- D. Each individual flight chief.
Correct Answer

A. C. Defense force commander.

Explanation

The defense force commander has the authority to determine which of your posts can go unmanned. This means that they have the power to decide whether or not you need to be present at a particular post or if it can be left unmanned. This decision is likely based on factors such as the level of threat or the availability of resources.

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38.

16. (001) The post priority chart ensures the most efficient use of limited Security Forces (SF) in
- A. Higher force protection conditions (FPCONs).
- B. Peacetime and wartime.
- C. Peacetime.
- D. Wartime.
Correct Answer

A. B. Peacetime and wartime.

Explanation

The post priority chart is designed to ensure the most efficient use of limited Security Forces (SF) in both peacetime and wartime. This means that the chart takes into account the needs and requirements of SF personnel during both periods, allowing for effective allocation and utilization of resources. By considering both peacetime and wartime scenarios, the chart can help prioritize posts and tasks based on the current operational environment, ensuring that SF personnel are deployed in the most effective and efficient manner.

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39.

52. (005) All of the following are excluded from being in a bargaining unit except
- A. supervisors.
- B. management officials.
- C. professional employees.
- D. employees in non-dedicated positions.
Correct Answer

A. D. employees in non-dedicated positions.

Explanation

This question is asking which of the given options is not excluded from being in a bargaining unit. A bargaining unit is a group of employees represented by a union for the purpose of negotiating their terms and conditions of employment. Options a, b, and c all represent categories of employees who are typically excluded from being in a bargaining unit. Supervisors, management officials, and professional employees often have roles that involve making decisions or exercising authority, which can create a conflict of interest with the collective bargaining process. On the other hand, employees in non-dedicated positions do not represent a clear category of exclusion, making option d the correct answer.

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40.

58. (006) Which Protection Level (PL) is assigned for controlled areas when owner/users areprimarily responsible for security?
- A. PL4.
- B. PL3.
- C. PL2.
- D. PL1.
Correct Answer

A. A. PL4.

Explanation

PL4 is the correct answer because it is the highest level of protection assigned for controlled areas when owner/users are primarily responsible for security. PL4 indicates that the owner/users have implemented comprehensive security measures to protect the area, including physical barriers, access controls, and surveillance systems. This level of protection ensures that only authorized individuals have access to the controlled area and minimizes the risk of unauthorized entry or compromise of sensitive information or assets.

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41.

65. (008) When responding to a residence, when you first reach the door you should not
- A. knock normally.
- B. listen for 15 to 30 seconds.
- C. stand directly in front of the door.
- D. check to see if screened doors are locked.
Correct Answer

A. C. stand directly in front of the door.

Explanation

When responding to a residence, standing directly in front of the door should be avoided. This is because standing directly in front of the door can put the responder in a vulnerable position, as they may be within the line of sight of someone inside the residence who may pose a threat. It is recommended to stand to the side of the door, where they are less likely to be seen and can take cover if necessary.

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42.

78. (010) What zone established at a Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) incident site is also referred to as a restricted zone?
- A. Control zone.
- B. Warm zone.
- C. Cold zone.
- D. Hot zone.
Correct Answer

A. D. Hot zone.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Hot zone. In a Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) incident site, the hot zone refers to the area that is highly contaminated and poses the greatest risk to individuals. It is also known as the restricted zone because access to this area is strictly controlled to prevent further exposure and contamination.

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43.

8. (001) Who is responsible for determining the unit flight schedule?
- A. Wing commander.
- B. Squadron commander.
- C. Security Forces manager.
- D. Unit deployment manager.
Correct Answer

A. B. Squadron commander.

Explanation

The squadron commander is responsible for determining the unit flight schedule. As the leader of the squadron, they have the authority and knowledge to make decisions regarding the scheduling of flights. They consider factors such as mission requirements, aircraft availability, and pilot availability to create an efficient and effective flight schedule for the unit. The squadron commander also coordinates with other units and higher-level commanders to ensure that the flight schedule aligns with overall mission objectives.

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44.

25. (002) When do you give the command, “Close Ranks, MARCH!”?
- A. Upon departure of the inspecting official.
- B. At the completion of the guardmount briefing
- C. Immediately after the forth rank has been inspected.
- D. When the remarks of the inspecting official are completed.
Correct Answer

A. A. Upon departure of the inspecting official.

Explanation

The command "Close Ranks, MARCH!" is given upon departure of the inspecting official. This means that after the inspecting official has finished inspecting the ranks, they will then leave the area. At this point, the command is given to close the ranks and continue with the next phase of the ceremony or event.

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45.

28. (002) A post check generally includes all of these items except
- A. area inspection.
- B. facility inspection.
- C. weapons inspection.
- D. classified material inspection.
Correct Answer

A. C. weapons inspection.

Explanation

A post check generally includes area inspection, facility inspection, and classified material inspection. However, weapons inspection is not typically part of a post check.

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46.

37. (004) Patrol dogs are considered minimum/non-lethal force when the alternative is
- A. apprehension or release.
- B. pepper spray or gunfire.
- C. resistance or restraint.
- D. gunfire or escape.
Correct Answer

A. D. gunfire or escape.

Explanation

Patrol dogs are considered minimum/non-lethal force when the alternative is gunfire or escape. This means that if the situation calls for the use of force, patrol dogs are seen as a less lethal option compared to using firearms or allowing the subject to escape. The use of patrol dogs can help to apprehend and control individuals without resorting to potentially deadly force.

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47.

44. (005) The basic purpose of the Financial Plan submission is to
- A. ensure the Air Force is allowed to purchase adequate aircraft and munitions.
- B. ensure an equitable distribution of the President’s Budget for the next fiscal year.
- C. determine which branch of service requires the most funding to complete the mission.
- D. provide Congress a means to determine the budget submitted at the start of its session.
Correct Answer

A. B. ensure an equitable distribution of the President’s Budget for the next fiscal year.

Explanation

The Financial Plan submission serves the purpose of ensuring an equitable distribution of the President's Budget for the next fiscal year. This means that the plan aims to allocate the budget fairly among different departments or branches of the Air Force, ensuring that each receives an appropriate share of funding. This helps to maintain balance and fairness in the budget allocation process.

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48.

90. (013) Which of the following best describes the personal attributes that are essential whentestifying?
- A. Skill, tact, poise, and self-assurance.
- B. Skill, tact, poise, and self-confidence.
- C. Skill, reliance, poise and self-confidence.
- D. Skill, cockiness, poise, and self-confidence.
Correct Answer

A. B. Skill, tact, poise, and self-confidence.

Explanation

The personal attributes that are essential when testifying include skill, tact, poise, and self-confidence. These attributes are important because a witness needs to have the necessary skills to effectively communicate their testimony, tact to navigate sensitive or difficult questions, poise to remain calm and composed under pressure, and self-confidence to present their testimony confidently and convincingly.

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49.

22. (002) After the command “Open rank, MARCH,” which of the following action does the flight take?
- A. The first element takes three paces forward and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes none, one, or two, paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress.
- B. The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress.
- C. The first element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element also stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress.
- D. The last element stands fast. Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward and halts.
Correct Answer

A. B. The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress.

Explanation

After the command "Open rank, MARCH," the flight takes the following action: The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm's length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress.

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Quiz Edited by
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3P071 Volume 1 UREs 2017

67. (008) Which of the following injuries is not considered grievous bodily harm?

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18. (001) What can assist you as a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale high?

34. (003) What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?

68. (008) Excluding homicide what is perhaps the most serious crime that will be investigated?

72. (009) What is the benefit of having a crime scene adequately protected?

73. (009) Why is it a good procedure to have a patrolman not involved in the preliminaryinvestigation search the scene?

20. (001) What should you do if a subordinate demonstrates substandard duty performance?

35. (003) The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to

62. (007) Which of these is not considered a target point on a door for entry when using a shotgun?

66. (008) What determines the attitude and cooperation of those involved in a dispute?

14. (001) Post priority charts are used to

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31. (002) The primary function of reviewing is to ensure

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1. (001) What is the most rigorous stage of development?

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27. (002) Who is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment?

36. (004) The primary mission of the Military Working Dog (MWD) is to

56. (006) Which of the following is not an alarm response code?

89. (013) Prior to the trial, what aids in recalling all the details of the case?

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7. (001) Supervisors must ensure their troops

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11. (001) Who is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw a person’s right to bear a firearm?

39. (004) A patrol dog team used in police services activities is a tremendous

42. (005) “All permanently assigned security forces (SF) vehicles must be properly marked” means that they

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13. (001) What drives a post priority chart?

30. (002) When reviewing material for technical accuracy a concern is that it is

57. (006) Which is not a designated PL1 resource?

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84. (011) Which of the following suspect background facts is of no value to you prior toquestioning?

15. (001) Who has the authority to determine which of your posts can go unmanned?

16. (001) The post priority chart ensures the most efficient use of limited Security Forces (SF) in

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58. (006) Which Protection Level (PL) is assigned for controlled areas when owner/users areprimarily responsible for security?

65. (008) When responding to a residence, when you first reach the door you should not

78. (010) What zone established at a Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) incident site is also referred to as a restricted zone?

8. (001) Who is responsible for determining the unit flight schedule?

25. (002) When do you give the command, “Close Ranks, MARCH!”?

28. (002) A post check generally includes all of these items except

37. (004) Patrol dogs are considered minimum/non-lethal force when the alternative is

44. (005) The basic purpose of the Financial Plan submission is to

90. (013) Which of the following best describes the personal attributes that are essential whentestifying?

22. (002) After the command “Open rank, MARCH,” which of the following action does the flight take?