Aviation Resource Management Quiz

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| By Ssgtkatrina_well

Ssgtkatrina_well

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1/108 Questions

A professional accreditation in aviation that is similar to a physician who is accredited to practice a trade is a
- Certification
- Diploma
- Licence
- Rating

About This Quiz

Have you ever wondered how parachutes are being controlled? The individuals who do this are the aviation resource managers whose major part of their duties is to control, direct and organize aircrew. Are you interested in this? It's a job that requires significant attention to details and it certainly pays so well. Try this out.

Aviation Resource Management Quiz - Quiz

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2.

Which date is used to compute the officer service date (OSD)?
- Completion date of undergraduate flying training
- Class start date or undergraduate flying training
- Date member arrived on first duty station
- Commisioning date in the USAF
Correct Answer

A. Commisioning date in the USAF

Explanation

The officer service date (OSD) is computed based on the commissioning date in the USAF. This is the date when an individual officially becomes an officer in the United States Air Force. It marks the beginning of their active duty service and is used to determine their length of service and eligibility for various benefits and promotions. The completion date of undergraduate flying training, class start date, and the date of arrival on the first duty station are not directly relevant to the calculation of the OSD.

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3.

Licensed physicians are placed in aviation service flight surgeons effective the date
- They completed the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course
- They completed their post-graduate medical training
- They received an unrestricted license to practice
- Stated on their medical license
Correct Answer

A. They completed the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course

Explanation

The correct answer is that licensed physicians are placed in aviation service flight surgeons effective the date they completed the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course. This means that once physicians have successfully finished the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course, they are eligible to serve as flight surgeons in aviation service. This course likely provides the necessary knowledge and skills related to aviation medicine, which is essential for physicians working in this field.

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4.

Establish the aviation service date (ASD) for medical student using the date
- Of the Aerospace Medicine Primary course certificate
- He or she graduated from medical school
- Of the medical license
- Of the first flight
Correct Answer

A. Of the medical license

Explanation

The correct answer is "of the medical license" because the aviation service date (ASD) for a medical student is established based on the date of their medical license. This is because obtaining a medical license is a requirement for practicing medicine and providing medical services in the aviation field. Therefore, the ASD is determined by the date of the medical license, indicating when the medical student is officially qualified to provide medical services in aviation.

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5.

What qualification does the aircrew prefix "Q" signify?
- Basic aircrew
- Instructor
- Evaluator
- Observer
Correct Answer

A. Evaluator

Explanation

The aircrew prefix "Q" signifies the qualification of an evaluator. This means that the individual with this prefix has the authority and expertise to assess and evaluate the performance of other aircrew members. They are responsible for ensuring that all aircrew members meet the required standards and are capable of performing their duties effectively.

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6.

Before placing a non-career aviator on flying status, make sure the member
- Has a duty prefix of "X," "K," or "Q"
- Has completed the airframe simulator
- Belongs to a 1AXXX specialty
- Has a current physical profile
Correct Answer

A. Has a duty prefix of "X," "K," or "Q"

Explanation

The correct answer is "has a duty prefix of 'X,' 'K,' or 'Q'." This means that in order to place a non-career aviator on flying status, they must have a duty prefix of 'X,' 'K,' or 'Q.' This requirement ensures that only individuals with the appropriate qualifications and training are allowed to fly. The other options listed, such as completing the airframe simulator, belonging to a 1AXXX specialty, and having a current physical profile may be important considerations but are not specifically mentioned as requirements for placing a non-career aviator on flying status.

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7.

Operation support fliers
- Are fully qualified aircrew members
- Are non-career aviators on standby status during emergency situations
- Serve as an augmented crew to supplement normal operational missions
- Are fully qualified in non-aircrew specialties and authorized to fly occationally
Correct Answer

A. Are fully qualified in non-aircrew specialties and authorized to fly occationally

Explanation

The correct answer is "are fully qualified in non-aircrew specialties and authorized to fly occasionally." This means that operation support fliers have expertise in non-aircrew roles and are occasionally allowed to fly. They are not career aviators on standby or augmented crew members, but rather individuals with specialized skills who can assist during emergency situations.

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8.

Operational support members are placed in flying status
- On a monthly basis
- For the duration of the assigned mission
- Until the man-year allocation is exhausted
- Until the flying requirement no longer exists
Correct Answer

A. On a monthly basis

Explanation

The operational support members are placed in flying status on a monthly basis, which means that they are required to be available for flying duties every month. This suggests that their role involves actively participating in missions or tasks that require flying. This arrangement continues until the man-year allocation is exhausted, indicating that their flying status is determined by the allocated amount of time for their role.

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9.

The MAJCOM must receive the unit's man-month request by what date?
- 1 June
- 15 June
- 1 July
- 15 July
Correct Answer

A. 15 June

Explanation

The MAJCOM must receive the unit's man-month request by 15 June. This indicates that the unit has a deadline of submitting their man-month request to the MAJCOM by this date. It is important for the MAJCOM to receive these requests in a timely manner in order to effectively plan and allocate resources.

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10.

What flying class of medical examination is required to qualify a member for CEA duties?
- IA
- IIA
- IIC
- III
Correct Answer

A. III
11.

A flight physical is not required when a
- Member is initially placed in aviation service
- Member's periodic flight physical becomes due
- Member is placed on medical waiver
- Member applies for requalification
Correct Answer

A. Member is placed on medical waiver

Explanation

When a member is placed on a medical waiver, they are exempted from the requirement of undergoing a flight physical. This means that they do not need to go through the regular medical examination to assess their fitness for aviation service. The medical waiver is usually granted when a member has a temporary or permanent medical condition that may prevent them from meeting the standard medical requirements for aviation service. In such cases, the member is exempted from the flight physical until their medical condition improves or they are deemed fit to undergo the examination.

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12.

A periodic flight preventative health assessments (pHA) is required every
- 6
- 12
- 15
- 24
Correct Answer

A. 15

Explanation

A periodic flight preventative health assessment (PHA) is required every 15 months. This assessment is necessary to ensure the ongoing health and fitness of pilots and crew members. By conducting PHAs every 15 months, any potential health issues or risks can be identified and addressed in a timely manner, promoting the safety and well-being of all individuals involved in flight operations.

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13.

The AF IMT 1042 is not used to
- Medically restrict a member from special operational duty
- Document completion of physiological training
- Place a member in DNIF status
- Document a categorical waiver
Correct Answer

A. Document completion of physiological training

Explanation

The AF IMT 1042 is a form used to document completion of physiological training. It is not used to medically restrict a member from special operational duty, place a member in DNIF (Duties Not Including Flying) status, or document a categorical waiver.

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14.

When a member completes a flight physical health assessment (pHA), the flight surgeon must send a copy of the AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty to the HARM office within
- One duty day
- Three duty days
- Three calendar days
- Five calendar days
Correct Answer

A. One duty day

Explanation

The flight surgeon must send a copy of the AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty to the HARM office within one duty day. This means that the flight surgeon has to submit the form within 24 hours after completing the flight physical health assessment (PHA). It is important to send the recommendation promptly to ensure that the necessary documentation is available for flight operations and to maintain the safety and readiness of the member.

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15.

How many days can a non-rated officer remain in DNIF status without being medically disqualified from aviation service?
- 90
- 120
- 180
- 365
Correct Answer

A. 180

Explanation

A non-rated officer can remain in DNIF (Duties Not Including Flying) status for up to 180 days without being medically disqualified from aviation service. This means that they are temporarily unable to perform flying duties due to a medical condition or injury, but they can still continue their service in other non-flying roles. After 180 days, if the officer is still unable to fly, they may be medically disqualified from aviation service.

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16.

When updating the flight physical in ARMS use the date the
- AF IMT 1042 was received
- AF IMT 1042 was prepared
- Member signed the AF IMT 1042
- Flight surgeon signed the AF IMT 1042
Correct Answer

A. Flight surgeon signed the AF IMT 1042

Explanation

The correct answer is "flight surgeon signed the AF IMT 1042." When updating the flight physical in ARMS, it is important to use the date when the flight surgeon signed the AF IMT 1042. This indicates that the flight surgeon has reviewed and approved the physical examination, ensuring that the member is fit to fly. The other options, such as when the form was received, prepared, or when the member signed it, are not relevant in determining the validity of the flight physical.

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17.

What code must you enter in the Physical Status Code field in the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) to manually change a member's flight physical due date?
- A
- C
- D
- F
Correct Answer

A. F

Explanation

To manually change a member's flight physical due date in the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), you must enter code F in the Physical Status Code field.

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18.

One way of knowing if a member is currently available to perform in-flight duties is to check the member's
- Availability code
- Physical status code
- Aviation service gate
- Physiological status code
Correct Answer

A. Availability code

Explanation

The availability code is a way of determining if a member is currently available to perform in-flight duties. It provides information about the member's availability status, such as whether they are on duty, on leave, or unavailable for any other reason. By checking the availability code, one can easily determine if a member is able to perform their duties or not.

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19.

Which AFI can you find the list of avilability codes?
- 11-402, Aviation and Parachutist Service, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges
- 11-403, Aerospace Physiological Training Program
- 11-404, Training for High-G Aircrew
- 11-421, Aviation Resource Management
Correct Answer

A. 11-421, Aviation Resource Management

Explanation

The correct answer is 11-421, Aviation Resource Management. This AFI specifically relates to Aviation Resource Management and would likely contain information on avilability codes. The other AFIs listed do not pertain to avilability codes.

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20.

Following and centrifuge training, an aircrew member is placed in automatic DNIF status for how many hours?
- 8
- 12
- 24
- 48
Correct Answer

A. 12

Explanation

After undergoing following and centrifuge training, an aircrew member is placed in automatic DNIF (Duties Not Including Flying) status for 12 hours. This means that they are not allowed to perform any flying duties for a period of 12 hours after the training. This is done to ensure that the aircrew member has enough time to recover and stabilize after the intense training, which involves exposure to high G-forces during centrifuge training. During this DNIF status, the aircrew member may be assigned to non-flying duties or given time off to rest and recuperate.

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21.

In which AFI can you find the list of categorical flying waiver codes?
- 11-402, Aviation and Parachutist Service, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges
- 11-403, Aerospace Physiological Training Program
- 11-404, Training for High-G Aircrew
- 11-421, Aviation Resource Management
Correct Answer

A. 11-421, Aviation Resource Management

Explanation

In AFI 11-421, Aviation Resource Management, you can find the list of categorical flying waiver codes.

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22.

A categorical flying waiver
- Restricts a member with certain medical conditions to fly a specific type of aircraft
- Is only available to those with low tolerance to high gravity pressure
- Allows a member to pass his or her flight physical health assessment
- Allows a memer to lfy all types of aircraft
Correct Answer

A. Restricts a member with certain medical conditions to fly a specific type of aircraft

Explanation

The correct answer is that a categorical flying waiver restricts a member with certain medical conditions to fly a specific type of aircraft. This means that individuals who have certain medical conditions are not allowed to fly all types of aircraft, but instead are restricted to flying only a specific type that is deemed safe for their condition. This waiver is put in place to ensure the safety of the individual and others on board the aircraft.

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23.

Completion of centrifuge training is documented using the
- AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty
- AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Qualification
- AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record
- AF Form 942, Record of Evaluation
Correct Answer

A. AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record

Explanation

The completion of centrifuge training is documented using the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record. This form is specifically designed to track an individual's physiological training and includes information such as the date of training, the type of training completed, and the results of any evaluations or assessments. It serves as a comprehensive record of an individual's centrifuge training and can be used for future reference or documentation purposes.

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24.

Who certifies completion of centrifuge training on the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record?
- Member
- Commander
- Flight Surgeon
- Aerospace Physiologist
Correct Answer

A. Aerospace Physiologist

Explanation

An Aerospace Physiologist certifies completion of centrifuge training on the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record.

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25.

Who is not required to have altitude chamber training?
- High-altitude parachutists
- Civilians who participate in spouse orientation flights
- Personnel who are or will be placed on active flying status
- Passengers in aircraft flying above 18,000 feet mean sea level
Correct Answer

A. Civilians who participate in spouse orientation flights

Explanation

Civilians who participate in spouse orientation flights are not required to have altitude chamber training. Altitude chamber training is typically required for individuals who will be exposed to high altitudes, such as high-altitude parachutists and personnel on active flying status. However, civilians participating in spouse orientation flights are not expected to be exposed to high altitudes, hence they are exempt from this training.

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26.

Altitued chamber refresher training is not reuired when removal of a member from active flying status will occur within how many months of the training due date?
- 3
- 4
- 6
- 9
Correct Answer

A. 4

Explanation

Altitude chamber refresher training is not required when removal of a member from active flying status will occur within 4 months of the training due date. This suggests that if a member is scheduled to be removed from active flying status within 4 months of their training due date, they do not need to undergo altitude chamber refresher training.

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27.

When, if ever, can you schedule a member with an expired flight phycialc health assessment (pHA) to attend any physiolofical training?
- Never
- When the member enters phase period
- When approved by the unit commander
- When approved by the aerospace physiologist
Correct Answer

A. Never

Explanation

A member with an expired flight physical health assessment (PHA) cannot be scheduled to attend any physiological training. This is because the member's expired PHA indicates that they have not been cleared for flight duties, and it would be unsafe for them to participate in any physiological training.

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28.

After completing physiological training, within how many duty days of arrival on station must the member return the AF IMT 702 to the HARM office?
- 1
- 3
- 5
- 7
Correct Answer

A. 5

Explanation

After completing physiological training, the member must return the AF IMT 702 to the HARM office within 5 duty days of arrival on station.

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29.

To update a member's physiological information in ARMS, use the
- Flyer Availability window
- Career Aviation window
- Aircrew Data window
- Flyer window
Correct Answer

A. Flyer Availability window

Explanation

The Flyer Availability window is the correct option for updating a member's physiological information in ARMS. This window is specifically designed to manage and track the availability of flyers, including their physiological information. It allows for easy access and updating of relevant data, ensuring accurate and up-to-date information for each member.

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30.

After updating the member's physiological information in ARMS, the AF IMT 702 is
- Destroyed
- Given to the member
- Placed in a suspense folder
- Filed in the flight record folder
Correct Answer

A. Filed in the flight record folder

Explanation

After updating the member's physiological information in ARMS, the AF IMT 702 is filed in the flight record folder. This is because the AF IMT 702 is a form used for documenting medical information and it is important to keep a record of it for future reference. By filing it in the flight record folder, it can be easily accessed by the appropriate personnel when needed.

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31.

Which position does not ahave an aeronautical rating?
- Command pilot
- Senior observer
- Master navigator
- Master flight surgeon
Correct Answer

A. Master flight surgeon

Explanation

The position of Master flight surgeon does not have an aeronautical rating. This means that unlike the other positions listed (Command pilot, Senior observer, and Master navigator), the role of a Master flight surgeon does not require specific qualifications or expertise related to aviation. Instead, their focus is on providing medical support and expertise to pilots and other aviation personnel.

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32.

A pilot-physician who is formerly qualified as a command systems officer (CSO) is eligible for the advanced rating of
- Pilot only
- Pilot and flight surgeon
- Pilot and combat systems officer
- Pilot, combat systems officer, and flight surgeon
Correct Answer

A. Pilot and flight surgeon

Explanation

A pilot-physician who is formerly qualified as a command systems officer (CSO) is eligible for the advanced rating of pilot and flight surgeon. This means that the individual can serve as both a pilot and a flight surgeon, combining their skills in aviation and medicine. This advanced rating allows them to fulfill dual roles and contribute to both the operational and medical aspects of their duties.

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33.

Advanced ratings are awarded based on
- Years of rated service and Aeronautical Rating Board confirmation
- Military flying time and OFDA
- Years of rated service, military flying time, and Aeronautical Rating Board confirmation
- Years of rated service and either military flying hours or OFDA
Correct Answer

A. Years of rated service and either military flying hours or OFDA

Explanation

Advanced ratings are awarded based on years of rated service and either military flying hours or OFDA. This means that in order to receive an advanced rating, an individual must have a certain number of years of rated service, and also meet the requirement of either having a certain number of military flying hours or having OFDA (which stands for something that is not specified in the question). This combination of factors is necessary to be eligible for an advanced rating.

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34.

The years of rated service are computed from the date the officer
- Received a commission
- Performed the first operational flight
- Reported for undergraduate flying training
- Received the basic United States Air Force rating
Correct Answer

A. Received the basic United States Air Force rating

Explanation

The years of rated service are calculated based on the date the officer received the basic United States Air Force rating. This rating signifies that the officer has successfully completed the necessary training and qualifications to be considered a rated officer in the Air Force. The other options mentioned (receiving a commission, performing the first operational flight, reporting for undergraduate flying training) are not relevant to the calculation of years of rated service.

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35.

An Aeronautical Rating Board (ARB) is a board of rated officers who are tasked to
- Examine a member's eligibility for an OFDA waiver
- Evaluate the flying credentials of officers applying for an inter-service transfer
- Ensure the quality control of career and non-career aviators
- Determine the root cause of an aircraft mishap
Correct Answer

A. Evaluate the flying credentials of officers applying for an inter-service transfer

Explanation

The correct answer is "evaluate the flying credentials of officers applying for an inter-service transfer." An Aeronautical Rating Board (ARB) is responsible for assessing the qualifications and experience of officers who wish to transfer from one branch of the military to another. They evaluate the flying credentials, such as flight hours and qualifications, to determine if the officer meets the requirements for an inter-service transfer. This process ensures that the officers have the necessary skills and experience to perform their duties effectively in the new branch of service.

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36.

The effective date of the Department of the Air Force (DAF) aeronautical order (AO) awarding the basic rating to an officer approved for inter-service transfer is the date the
- Officer arived on station
- Officer is assigned to rated duties
- Officer completes his/her first flight
- ARB approval posted on the officer's special orders
Correct Answer

A. Officer is assigned to rated duties

Explanation

When an officer is approved for inter-service transfer and awarded a basic rating by the Department of the Air Force (DAF) aeronautical order (AO), the effective date of the award is the date when the officer is assigned to rated duties. This means that the officer officially starts performing duties related to their rating, indicating the beginning of their career in the new service. It is at this point that the officer's responsibilities and tasks align with their newly awarded rating.

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37.

Non-rated officers (except flight nurses) may start wearing the officer aircrew member badge
- The date assigned to aircrew
- Upon graduation from UFT
- After permanent aircrew assignment and completing 24 payid months of operational flying duty
- After completing an aircrew qualification as documented on the AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Qualification
Correct Answer

A. After completing an aircrew qualification as documented on the AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Qualification

Explanation

Non-rated officers (except flight nurses) are eligible to start wearing the officer aircrew member badge after they have completed an aircrew qualification as documented on the AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Qualification. This means that they must have successfully completed the necessary training and met the required qualifications to be considered qualified aircrew members. Once this qualification has been obtained and documented, they are authorized to wear the badge.

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38.

A member is authorized to wear the basic flight nurse badge after completing the basic flight nurse course, three years of aviation service, and
- 350 hours logged as a flight nurse
- 750 hours logged as a flight nurse
- 12 paid months of operational flying duty
- 24 paid months of operational flying duty
Correct Answer

A. 12 paid months of operational flying duty

Explanation

To be authorized to wear the basic flight nurse badge, a member must complete the basic flight nurse course, have three years of aviation service, and fulfill the requirement of having 12 paid months of operational flying duty. This means that the member must have served in an operational flying role for a minimum of 12 months in order to be eligible for the badge. The other options of 350 hours logged as a flight nurse and 750 hours logged as a flight nurse are not relevant to this specific requirement.

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39.

Operational support fliers are not authorized to wear an aviation badge unless
- The member has participated in 10 combat missions
- The member suffered injuries as a result of an aircraft mishap
- It is permanently awarded as a result of previous aircrew duty
- The operational suport position later becomes a flying crew chief position
Correct Answer

A. It is permanently awarded as a result of previous aircrew duty

Explanation

Operational support fliers are not authorized to wear an aviation badge unless it is permanently awarded as a result of previous aircrew duty. This means that the member must have previously served as part of an aircrew and received the aviation badge as a permanent recognition of their past duties. This requirement ensures that only individuals with relevant experience and qualifications are authorized to wear the aviation badge. The other options, such as participating in combat missions or suffering injuries, do not automatically qualify operational support fliers for the badge. Additionally, a change in position to a flying crew chief does not automatically grant authorization to wear the aviation badge.

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40.

A commander may recommend to prohibit the wear of the aviation badge when a member
- Is disqualified under the humanitarian program
- Is disqualified due to fear of flying
- Fails to maintain medical fitness
- Declares conscientious objector
Correct Answer

A. Is disqualified due to fear of flying

Explanation

If a member is disqualified due to fear of flying, it would be reasonable for a commander to recommend prohibiting the wear of the aviation badge. The aviation badge is typically awarded to individuals who have demonstrated proficiency and competence in aviation-related duties. If someone is disqualified from flying due to fear, it suggests that they may not possess the necessary skills or mental readiness to fulfill their aviation responsibilities, and therefore wearing the badge would be inappropriate.

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41.

Who makes final approval for prohibiting the wear of the aviation badges?
- Wing commander
- HQ USAF/A3O-AT
- MAJCOM commander
- Aeronautical Rating Board
Correct Answer

A. MAJCOM commander

Explanation

The MAJCOM commander is responsible for making the final approval for prohibiting the wear of aviation badges. This individual holds a high-ranking position within the Major Command (MAJCOM) and has the authority to make decisions regarding policies and regulations within their command. They have the power to determine whether or not individuals are allowed to wear aviation badges, based on various factors such as safety concerns or adherence to guidelines set by the Aeronautical Rating Board.

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42.

The manpower standard is an Air Force document used to
- Establish the aircraft's crew ratio
- Validate aircrew coded positions
- Quantify manpower requirements
- Budget for operational support flying duties
Correct Answer

A. Quantify manpower requirements

Explanation

The manpower standard is a document used by the Air Force to determine the number of personnel required for a specific task or operation. It helps in quantifying the manpower requirements by providing guidelines and criteria for determining the appropriate crew ratio for aircraft operations. This ensures that the necessary personnel are allocated to different positions and tasks, allowing for efficient and effective operations.

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43.

Funding for manpower resources are derived from the
- The Man-Year Program
- The Aviation Career Incentive Act
- The Director of Manpower and Organization
- The Department of Defense (DOD) Future Years Defense Program
Correct Answer

A. The Department of Defense (DOD) Future Years Defense Program

Explanation

The Department of Defense (DOD) Future Years Defense Program is the source of funding for manpower resources. This program is responsible for planning and budgeting the resources needed by the Department of Defense over a period of five years. It includes funding for personnel, equipment, and other resources necessary to support the defense needs of the country. Therefore, it is logical to conclude that funding for manpower resources would be derived from this program.

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44.

Which primary document reflects the manpower required to perform the unit's mission?
- The Department of Defense (DOD) Future Years Defense Program
- Manpower Programming and Execution System
- Unit Manpower Document
- Manpower standard
Correct Answer

A. Unit Manpower Document

Explanation

The Unit Manpower Document reflects the manpower required to perform the unit's mission. This document outlines the specific manpower needs of the unit, including the number and types of personnel required. It serves as a planning tool for allocating resources and ensuring that the unit has the necessary personnel to carry out its mission effectively. The Unit Manpower Document is an essential component of manpower planning and execution within the Department of Defense.

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45.

How can you determine if members are double-billeted?
- They have the same API code
- They have an API of "5," "6," or "8"
- They share the same position number
- They have an API code of "B," or "D"
Correct Answer

A. They share the same position number

Explanation

If members share the same position number, it indicates that they are double-billeted. The position number is a unique identifier for each position within an organization, so if multiple members have the same position number, it means that they are assigned to the same position simultaneously, which is a characteristic of being double-billeted.

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46.

A FAC is a one-digit code used to provide detailed information about a member's flying
- Incentive pay
- Position
- Activity
- Status
Correct Answer

A. Activity

Explanation

A FAC, or Flying Activity Code, is a one-digit code that is used to provide detailed information about a member's flying activity. This code helps to track and categorize the type of flying that a member has been involved in. It can indicate whether the member has been engaged in training, combat missions, or other types of flying activities. By using this code, detailed information about a member's flying activity can be easily accessed and analyzed.

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47.

Which AFI can you find the list of FACs
- 11-402, Aviation and Parachutist Service Aeronautical Ratings and Badges
- 11-403, Aerospace Physiological Training Program
- 11-421, Aviation Resource Management
- 11-401, Aviation Management
Correct Answer

A. 11-401, Aviation Management

Explanation

The correct answer is 11-401, Aviation Management. This AFI provides the list of FACs (Forward Air Controllers).

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48.

Which Congressional Act was the first to set minimum numbers of operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) months for rated officers to receive continuious Aviation Career Incentive Pay (ACIP)?
- Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1974
- Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1989
- FY 1996 National Defense Authorization Act
- FY 2000 National Defense Authorization Act
Correct Answer

A. Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1974

Explanation

The correct answer is the Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1974. This act was the first to establish minimum numbers of operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) months for rated officers to be eligible for continuous Aviation Career Incentive Pay (ACIP).

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49.

Aviation service gates for CEAs are set at the
- 12th and 18th year of aviation service
- 5th, 10th, and 15th year of aviation service
- 10th, 15th, and 20th year of aviation service
- 10th, 15th, 20th and 22nd year of aviation service
Correct Answer

A. 10th, 15th, and 20th year of aviation service

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Quiz Edited by
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Oct 14, 2011

Quiz Created by
Ssgtkatrina_well

Aviation Resource Management Quiz

A professional accreditation in aviation that is similar to a physician who is accredited to practice a trade is a

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Which date is used to compute the officer service date (OSD)?

Licensed physicians are placed in aviation service flight surgeons effective the date

Establish the aviation service date (ASD) for medical student using the date

What qualification does the aircrew prefix "Q" signify?

Before placing a non-career aviator on flying status, make sure the member

Operation support fliers

Operational support members are placed in flying status

The MAJCOM must receive the unit's man-month request by what date?

What flying class of medical examination is required to qualify a member for CEA duties?

A flight physical is not required when a

A periodic flight preventative health assessments (pHA) is required every

The AF IMT 1042 is not used to

When a member completes a flight physical health assessment (pHA), the flight surgeon must send a copy of the AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty to the HARM office within

How many days can a non-rated officer remain in DNIF status without being medically disqualified from aviation service?

When updating the flight physical in ARMS use the date the

What code must you enter in the Physical Status Code field in the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) to manually change a member's flight physical due date?

One way of knowing if a member is currently available to perform in-flight duties is to check the member's

Which AFI can you find the list of avilability codes?

Following and centrifuge training, an aircrew member is placed in automatic DNIF status for how many hours?

In which AFI can you find the list of categorical flying waiver codes?

A categorical flying waiver

Completion of centrifuge training is documented using the

Who certifies completion of centrifuge training on the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record?

Who is not required to have altitude chamber training?

Altitued chamber refresher training is not reuired when removal of a member from active flying status will occur within how many months of the training due date?

When, if ever, can you schedule a member with an expired flight phycialc health assessment (pHA) to attend any physiolofical training?

After completing physiological training, within how many duty days of arrival on station must the member return the AF IMT 702 to the HARM office?

To update a member's physiological information in ARMS, use the

After updating the member's physiological information in ARMS, the AF IMT 702 is

Which position does not ahave an aeronautical rating?

A pilot-physician who is formerly qualified as a command systems officer (CSO) is eligible for the advanced rating of

Advanced ratings are awarded based on

The years of rated service are computed from the date the officer

An Aeronautical Rating Board (ARB) is a board of rated officers who are tasked to

The effective date of the Department of the Air Force (DAF) aeronautical order (AO) awarding the basic rating to an officer approved for inter-service transfer is the date the

Non-rated officers (except flight nurses) may start wearing the officer aircrew member badge

A member is authorized to wear the basic flight nurse badge after completing the basic flight nurse course, three years of aviation service, and

Operational support fliers are not authorized to wear an aviation badge unless

A commander may recommend to prohibit the wear of the aviation badge when a member

Who makes final approval for prohibiting the wear of the aviation badges?

The manpower standard is an Air Force document used to

Funding for manpower resources are derived from the

Which primary document reflects the manpower required to perform the unit's mission?

How can you determine if members are double-billeted?

A FAC is a one-digit code used to provide detailed information about a member's flying

Which AFI can you find the list of FACs

Which Congressional Act was the first to set minimum numbers of operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) months for rated officers to receive continuious Aviation Career Incentive Pay (ACIP)?

Aviation service gates for CEAs are set at the