3DX5X Vol 1 & 2

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| By Sab428

Sab428

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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 3,187

| Attempts: 3,187

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1/177 Questions

Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground-bases satellite devices?
- Spectrum Operations
- Ground Radar Systems
- Cable and Antenna Systems
- Radio Frequency Transmission

About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in the Air Force specialty of 3DX5X, focusing on roles like RF transmission and cable systems, and understanding of Air Force training and management protocols, essential for personnel involved in military communications and operations.

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2.

Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?
- Spectrum Operations
- Ground Radar Systems
- Cable and Antenna Systems
- Radio Frequency Transmission
Correct Answer

A. Cable and Antenna Systems

Explanation

Cable and Antenna Systems are responsible for the installation and maintenance of large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations. This includes ensuring that the network wiring is properly installed and functioning, as well as maintaining and repairing any issues that may arise. They play a crucial role in ensuring that the network infrastructure is reliable and efficient, allowing for effective communication and connectivity in both fixed and deployed operations.

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2
3.

Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor I accordance with (IAW) AFI 36-2201, Air Force Training Program?
- Core Task
- Duty Competency
- Core Competency
- Duty Position Task
Correct Answer

A. Duty Position Task

Explanation

According to AFI 36-2201, Air Force Training Program, the supervisor assigns the Duty Position Task as the enlisted training element.

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2
4.

Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
- Unit Training Manager (UTM)
- Base Functional Manager (BFM)
- Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)
- Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)
Correct Answer

A. Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)

Explanation

The Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field. They are responsible for providing guidance and support to individuals in their career field, ensuring that they have the necessary resources and opportunities for professional growth and development. The AFCFM works closely with Unit Training Managers (UTM), Base Functional Managers (BFM), and Major Command Functional Managers (MFM) to coordinate and implement career field policies and initiatives.

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5.

Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?
- Unit Training Manager (UTM)
- Base Functional Manager (BFM)
- Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)
- Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)
Correct Answer

A. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)

Explanation

The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements, including the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC). The AFCFM has the ultimate decision-making power and can grant exemptions or waivers based on specific circumstances or needs within the career field. The AFCFM is responsible for overseeing and managing the career field and has the knowledge and expertise to make informed decisions regarding training and development requirements.

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6.

Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)?
- Unit Training Manager (UTM)
- Base Functional Manager (BFM)
- Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)
- Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)
Correct Answer

A. Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)

Explanation

During career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW), the Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative. This individual is responsible for representing the interests and needs of the MAJCOM in discussions and decisions related to utilization and training within the career field. They play a crucial role in ensuring that the MAJCOM's perspective is considered and represented during these workshops.

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7.

Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?
- Unit Training Manager (UTM)
- Base Functional Manager (BFM)
- Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)
- Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)
Correct Answer

A. Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)

Explanation

The Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of specialty knowledge tests (SKT) and career development courses (CDC). The MFM is responsible for overseeing the career field within a major command and ensuring that the appropriate resources and expertise are available for training and development purposes. They work closely with the Unit Training Manager (UTM), Base Functional Manager (BFM), and Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) to coordinate and support the career development of individuals within their command.

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8.

What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?
- Unit Training Manager (UTM)
- Base Functional Manager (BFM)
- Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)
- Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)
Correct Answer

A. Base Functional Manager (BFM)

Explanation

The title that is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO) is Base Functional Manager (BFM).

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9.

Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?
- Modify local training
- Allocate manpower
- Develop a Career Development Course (CDC)
- Assist the Unit Training Manager in course developement
Correct Answer

A. Develop a Career Development Course (CDC)

Explanation

Occupational surveys are used to gather information about the tasks and responsibilities associated with specific job roles. This information is then used to develop a Career Development Course (CDC). A CDC is a training program designed to enhance the skills and knowledge of individuals in a particular career field. By using the information gathered from occupational surveys, the CDC can be tailored to address the specific needs and requirements of the job role, ensuring that individuals receive the necessary training to excel in their careers.

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10.

What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?
- Conduct climate training surveys
- Develop career development courses
- Review the occupational analysis report
- Establish a viable career field education and training plan (CFETP)
Correct Answer

A. Establish a viable career field education and training plan (CFETP)

Explanation

The main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable career field education and training plan (CFETP). This means that the workshop aims to create a comprehensive plan for education and training within a specific career field. This plan will outline the necessary skills, knowledge, and qualifications required for individuals in that field, as well as the training programs and resources available to develop those skills. By establishing a CFETP, the workshop ensures that there is a clear and effective pathway for individuals to advance and succeed in their chosen career field.

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11.

Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?
- Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) in conjunction with the Training Pipeline Manager (TPM)
- Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) in conjunction with the SME
- MFM in conjunction with the Subject Matter Expert (SME)
- AFCFM in conjunction with the TPM
Correct Answer

A. AFCFM in conjunction with the TPM

Explanation

The Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT), in conjunction with the Training Pipeline Manager (TPM). This means that the AFCFM, who oversees the career field, works together with the TPM, who manages the training pipeline, to schedule the STRT. They collaborate to ensure that the training requirements for the specialty are properly scheduled and met.

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12.

What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty
- Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
- Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS)
- On-The-Job Training (OJT) Program
- Occupational Analysis Program
Correct Answer

A. On-The-Job Training (OJT) Program

Explanation

The On-The-Job Training (OJT) Program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty. This program allows individuals to learn and develop their skills while actually performing their job duties, under the guidance and supervision of experienced professionals. It offers hands-on experience and practical training, which is essential for individuals to gain the necessary expertise and proficiency in their specific field.

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13.

Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?
- Quality Assessments
- Quality Assurance
- Quality Systems
- Trend Analysis
Correct Answer

A. Quality Assurance

Explanation

Quality Assurance is the correct answer because it is stated in the question that it is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program. Therefore, Quality Assurance is not necessary for a QA program.

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14.

Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?
- Technical Evaluation
- Personnel Evaluation
- Managerial Evaluation
- Standard Evaluation
Correct Answer

A. Standard Evaluation

Explanation

The given correct answer is "Standard Evaluation." In a Quality Assurance (QA) program, various evaluations are conducted to assess different aspects of the program. Technical Evaluation focuses on assessing the technical aspects and performance of the program. Personnel Evaluation involves evaluating the individuals involved in the program, such as their skills and competencies. Managerial Evaluation assesses the managerial aspects of the program, such as leadership and decision-making. However, Standard Evaluation is not a specific type of evaluation commonly used in QA programs.

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15.

Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?
- Trend Analysis
- Quality System
- Quality Assessments
- Managerial Assessments
Correct Answer

A. Trend Analysis

Explanation

Trend Analysis is the correct answer because it involves collecting, compiling, analyzing, and recording data on the processes sampled by QA personnel. Trend analysis helps identify patterns, trends, and potential issues in the quality of processes over time. By analyzing this data, organizations can make informed decisions and improvements to their quality assurance processes. Quality System refers to the overall framework and procedures in place for ensuring quality, while Quality Assessments and Managerial Assessments are methods used to evaluate and assess the quality of processes and managerial performance, respectively.

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16.

What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?
- Manager Inspection (MI)
- Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI)
- Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI)
- Commanders Inspection Program (CCIP)
Correct Answer

A. Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI)

Explanation

The Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI) integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness. This type of inspection evaluates the overall effectiveness of a unit, including its compliance with regulations and its readiness to perform its mission. It combines various aspects of inspection to provide a comprehensive assessment of the unit's performance and effectiveness.

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17.

What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?
- Remedy
- Training Business Area
- Telephone Management System
- Integrated Maintenance Data System
Correct Answer

A. Remedy

Explanation

Remedy is the correct answer because it is an automated information system that manages the entire lifecycle of IT assets. It covers the process from procurement, where IT assets are acquired, to retirement, where they are disposed of or replaced. Remedy helps organizations track and manage their IT assets efficiently, ensuring proper utilization, maintenance, and disposal. It streamlines the asset management process, allowing organizations to optimize their IT investments and ensure compliance with regulations.

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18.

What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?
- Title 10
- Title 18
- Title 32
- Title 50
Correct Answer

A. Title 10

Explanation

Title 10 of the United States Code (USC) authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of the government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. This title specifically outlines the organization and structure of the DOD and provides the legal framework for its operations and functions.

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19.

The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?
- Title 3
- Title 8
- Title 10
- Title 18
Correct Answer

A. Title 10

Explanation

The correct answer is Title 10. The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from Title 10 of the United States Code (USC). Title 10 is the primary legal foundation for the armed forces of the United States and it outlines the roles, responsibilities, and regulations governing military personnel. The UCMJ is a set of laws that applies to all members of the military and covers a wide range of offenses, including military-specific crimes such as desertion and insubordination.

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20.

What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace?
- National Military Cyberspace Strategy
- National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace
- National Military Strategy for Cyberspace
- National Military Strategy to Secure Cyberspace
Correct Answer

A. National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace

Explanation

The correct answer is "National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace." This document outlines the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace. It provides a framework for coordinating and prioritizing efforts to protect critical infrastructure, enhance cybersecurity capabilities, and promote international cooperation in cyberspace. The document emphasizes the importance of public-private partnerships and the need for a collective approach to address the evolving cyber threats faced by the United States.

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21.

Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure as a key strategic plan?
- National Security Policy
- National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace
- Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative
- National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations
Correct Answer

A. National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace

Explanation

The National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace is a policy that focuses on preventing cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure. It outlines key strategic plans and initiatives to enhance the security and resilience of the nation's cyber infrastructure. This policy aims to protect vital sectors such as energy, transportation, and communication from cyber threats and ensure the uninterrupted functioning of critical services. By implementing this strategy, the government aims to safeguard the country's critical infrastructure from cyber attacks and mitigate potential risks to national security.

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22.

What policy outlines to United States (US) Armed Forces' comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain?
- National Security Policy
- National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace
- Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative
- National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations
Correct Answer

A. National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations

Explanation

The National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations outlines the comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain. This policy specifically focuses on the military's role in cyberspace and provides guidance on how to achieve and maintain superiority in this domain. It is different from the other options listed, such as the National Security Policy, National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace, and Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative, which may address broader cybersecurity issues but do not specifically focus on the military's strategic approach in cyberspace operations.

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23.

When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?
- Title 10
- Title 30
- Title 50
- Title 52
Correct Answer

A. Title 10

Explanation

Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, but in order to execute those missions, they must be in Title 10 status.

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24.

An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as
- Misuse of position
- Covered relationships
- Non-public information
- Personal conflict of interest
Correct Answer

A. Covered relationships

Explanation

Covered relationships refers to an unethical situation in which an employee or employer relationship leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism. This means that there is a personal or familial connection between the individuals involved, which can compromise the fairness and objectivity of decision-making processes. It is important to avoid covered relationships in order to maintain a level playing field and ensure that all individuals are treated fairly and without bias.

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25.

Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?
- Misuse of position
- Covered relationship
- Personal conflict of interest
- None, this is not an example of an unethical situation
Correct Answer

A. Covered relationship

Explanation

A covered relationship refers to a situation where an individual has a close personal relationship with someone who is in a position of authority or influence over them. In this context, the question suggests that having household members or close relatives in such a situation can create a covered relationship, which can potentially lead to ethical concerns. Therefore, the correct answer is covered relationship.

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26.

What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) and Area Processing Center (APC) functions?
- Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System
- Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
- Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System
- Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
Correct Answer

A. Air Force Cyber Security and Control System

Explanation

The Air Force Cyber Security and Control System includes the Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU), and Area Processing Center (APC) functions. This system is responsible for ensuring the security and control of cyberspace operations within the Air Force. It includes various components and functions that work together to protect the Air Force's networks and systems from cyber threats.

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27.

What cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific stove-piped networks into a centrally-managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC)?
- Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
- Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System
- Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
- Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System
Correct Answer

A. Air Force Cyber Security and Control System

Explanation

The correct answer is the Air Force Cyber Security and Control System. This system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command specific networks into a centrally-managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC). It is designed to provide security and control over the Air Force's cyberspace operations.

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28.

What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)?
- Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
- Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System
- Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
- Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System
Correct Answer

A. Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System

Explanation

The Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN). This system is responsible for controlling and securing the Air Force's intranet, ensuring that only authorized personnel have access and protecting against cyber threats. It serves as a critical component of the Air Force's overall cyber defense strategy, safeguarding sensitive information and maintaining the integrity of the network.

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29.

Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?
- Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System
- Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
- Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System
- Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
Correct Answer

A. Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System

Explanation

Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of the Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.

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30.

What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations?
- Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission system
- Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System
- Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
- Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System
Correct Answer

A. Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission system

Explanation

The Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance, and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations. This system is designed to provide effective command and control over cyberspace operations, ensuring the availability, integrity, and confidentiality of critical information. It allows the Air Force to effectively defend against cyber threats and maintain operational capabilities in cyberspace, enabling successful worldwide operations.

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31.

What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?
- Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System
- Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
- Cyberspace Defense Analysis Weapon System
- Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System
Correct Answer

A. Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System

Explanation

The Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to identify vulnerabilities and provide commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks. This system helps to ensure the security of cyberspace by identifying potential weaknesses and allowing for proactive measures to mitigate risks. The other options mentioned are not directly related to vulnerability assessment and do not provide the same level of comprehensive assessment and risk analysis.

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32.

What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?
- Air Combat Command, 9th Air Force
- Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force
- Air Force Global Strike Command, 8th Air Force
- Air Education and Training Command, 2nd Air Force
Correct Answer

A. Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force

Explanation

Air Force Space Command and 24th Air Force were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission. This realignment was done to enhance the Air Force's capabilities in the cyberspace domain and ensure effective operations in this critical area. By bringing together the expertise and resources of these two commands, the Air Force aimed to better defend its networks, conduct cyberspace operations, and protect vital information. The 24th Air Force, as a numbered Air Force under the Air Force Space Command, plays a key role in executing cyberspace operations and providing cyber capabilities to support the Air Force's overall mission.

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33.

What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion?
- Active and Reactive
- Evasive and Decisive
- Subversive and Divisive
- Offensive and Defensive
Correct Answer

A. Active and Reactive

Explanation

Active defense involves continuous monitoring and analyzing of network activity to identify and counter threats in real-time. Reactive defense focuses on responding to and terminating ongoing intrusions, mitigating damage, and restoring systems to a secure state.

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34.

Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?
- Counterintelligence (CI)
- Operation Security (OPSEC)
- Military Deception (MILDEC)
- Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR)
Correct Answer

A. Military Deception (MILDEC)

Explanation

Military Deception (MILDEC) activities are designed to mislead the enemy by manipulating information, disguising intentions, and creating false impressions. Since MISO and PA share a common specific audience, MILDEC can be used to mislead that audience as well. Counterintelligence (CI) focuses on identifying and neutralizing enemy intelligence activities, Operation Security (OPSEC) aims to protect sensitive information, and Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR) involves collecting and analyzing information. These activities are not specifically designed to mislead, unlike MILDEC.

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35.

What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?
- Strategic Considerations
- Military Strategic Framework
- Implementation and Assessment
- Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance
Correct Answer

A. Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance

Explanation

The Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance is the document that directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace. This guidance provides the overall strategic direction and priorities for the Department of Defense, including its approach to securing cyberspace. It outlines the goals, objectives, and strategies that guide the development of the National Military Strategic Plan, ensuring a coordinated and comprehensive approach to cybersecurity within the military.

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36.

Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?
- Defense Industrial Base (DIB)
- Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA)
- National Reconnaissance Office (NRO)
- Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)
Correct Answer

A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)

Explanation

The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization, and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure. The GIG infrastructure refers to the interconnected information systems used by the Department of Defense (DoD) to support its missions. DISA plays a crucial role in ensuring the security and availability of these systems, as well as coordinating efforts to identify and address any vulnerabilities or threats.

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37.

What unit installs, reconstitutes, and tests critical C4 systems for con=mbatant commanders anywhere at any time?
- 644th Combat Communications Squadron
- 85th Engineering Installation Squadron
- 83rd Network Operations Squadron
- 4th Expeditionary Fighter Wing
Correct Answer

A. 85th Engineering Installation Squadron

Explanation

The 85th Engineering Installation Squadron is responsible for installing, reconstituting, and testing critical C4 (Command, Control, Communications, and Computers) systems for combatant commanders. This unit is capable of providing these services anywhere and at any time, ensuring that the C4 systems are operational and effective for military operations.

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38.

Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity?
- Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)
- Area Processing Center (APC)
- Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)
- Network Operations Security Center (NOSC)
Correct Answer

A. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)

Explanation

The Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity. This unit focuses on providing enterprise-level services and support to enhance operational capabilities. By streamlining training and increasing the warfighter capacity, the ESU aims to improve the overall effectiveness and efficiency of the AFNetOps community.

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39.

What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, web access, and storage?
- Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)
- Area Processing Center (APC)
- Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)
- Network Operations Security Center (NOSC)
Correct Answer

A. Area Processing Center (APC)

Explanation

An Area Processing Center (APC) is a regional computing and data center that provides enterprise services like messaging, web access, and storage. This center is responsible for managing and maintaining these services for the organization. It serves as a centralized hub for processing and storing data, allowing users to access these services efficiently and securely. The APC ensures that the organization's enterprise services are available and reliable for its users.

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40.

What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)?
- Manpower
- Efficiency
- Reduce Cost
- Department of Defense 8570 Mandate
Correct Answer

A. Efficiency

Explanation

The main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk (ESD) is to improve efficiency. By consolidating the NCC and forming the ESD, there is a centralization of resources and expertise, allowing for streamlined processes and faster response times. This consolidation eliminates redundancy and promotes collaboration, ultimately leading to improved efficiency in managing network control and providing services.

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41.

What year did the Air Force Institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?
- 2009
- 2010
- 2011
- 2012
Correct Answer

A. 2010

Explanation

In 2010, the Air Force implemented a single instance of Remedy, which enabled support to all locations within a single ticketing system. This means that instead of having multiple ticketing systems for different locations, they consolidated it into one system, making it more efficient and streamlined.

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42.

What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?
- Subordinate Unified Command and Geographical Command
- Unified command and Subordinate Unified Command
- Functional Command and Geographical Command
- Unified Command and Functional Command
Correct Answer

A. Unified command and Subordinate Unified Command

Explanation

Joint Task Forces (JTF) are divided into two levels: Unified Command and Subordinate Unified Command. The Unified Command level represents the higher-level command responsible for overall strategic planning and coordination of the JTF's mission. The Subordinate Unified Command level represents the lower-level command responsible for executing specific tasks and operations assigned by the Unified Command. This division allows for effective command and control within the JTF, ensuring clear lines of communication and coordination between different levels of command.

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43.

The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a
- Combined Force Air and Space Component Commander (CFAAC)
- Joint Force Air and Space Component Commander (JFACC)
- Component Numbered Air Force (CNAF)
- Joint Force Commander (JFC)
Correct Answer

A. Joint Force Commander (JFC)

Explanation

The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a Joint Force Commander (JFC). This means that the COMAFFOR is responsible for overseeing and coordinating air operations within a joint force, ensuring that all air assets are effectively employed to support the overall mission objectives. The JFC is the overall commander of a joint force, responsible for the planning and execution of all military operations across multiple services. Therefore, the COMAFFOR's role is to provide unity of command to the JFC, ensuring that air operations are integrated seamlessly with other elements of the joint force.

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44.

What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)?
- Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF)
- Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF)
- Unit Type Codes (UTC)
- Stratum Levels (SL)
Correct Answer

A. Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF)

Explanation

The Air Force uses the Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF) methodology for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR). This methodology involves organizing and deploying Air Force personnel and resources in a structured and rotational manner to support combat operations. The AEF ensures that the Air Force is able to provide the necessary capabilities and support to meet the operational requirements of the combatant commanders.

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45.

What basic building block is used in the joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?
- Coding
- Positioning
- Tempo Bands
- Unit Type Code
Correct Answer

A. Unit Type Code

Explanation

Unit Type Code is the correct answer because it is a basic building block used in the joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF). Unit Type Codes are standardized codes that represent specific types of military units, such as aircraft squadrons or support units. These codes help to ensure that the right units with the right capabilities are deployed to support specific missions or operations. They also facilitate coordination and interoperability between different branches of the military and international partners.

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46.

Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) Service Life Cycle stages?
- Service Transition
- Service Strategy
- Service Contact
- Service Design
Correct Answer

A. Service Contact

Explanation

The stage that is NOT one of the ITIL Service Life Cycle stages is Service Contact. The correct stages in the ITIL Service Life Cycle are Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation, and Continual Service Improvement. Service Contact is not a recognized stage in the ITIL framework.

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47.

What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?
- Continual Service Improvement
- Service Transition
- Service Strategy
- Service Design
Correct Answer

A. Continual Service Improvement

Explanation

Continual Service Improvement (CSI) is the correct answer because it is the stage in the ITIL framework that focuses on maintaining and enhancing service quality over time. CSI involves regularly assessing and improving the effectiveness and efficiency of IT service management processes. It aims to identify areas of improvement, implement changes, and monitor the results to ensure that services are meeting the needs of the business and customers. CSI is an ongoing process that helps organizations adapt to changing business requirements and continuously improve their IT services.

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48.

The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower users to
- Safeguard information in an enterprise-wide environment
- Exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment
- Improve the effectiveness of the mission
- Improve the efficiency of the mission
Correct Answer

A. Exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment

Explanation

The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools that enable users to exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment. This means that EIM aims to utilize the information available within an organization to its fullest potential, allowing users to extract valuable insights, make informed decisions, and drive business growth. By leveraging the information effectively, EIM helps organizations gain a competitive advantage, improve decision-making processes, and enhance overall performance.

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49.

Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?
- Article 32
- Article 40
- Article 92
- Article 100
Correct Answer

A. Article 92

Explanation

Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is considered a violation of Article 92 of the UCMJ. This article pertains to the failure to obey orders or regulations and encompasses a wide range of offenses, including those related to information systems.

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Quiz Edited by
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May 11, 2017

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3DX5X Vol 1 & 2

Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground-bases satellite devices?

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Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor I accordance with (IAW) AFI 36-2201, Air Force Training Program?

Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?

Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)?

Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?

What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?

What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?

What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty

Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?

What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?

What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?

What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?

What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace?

Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure as a key strategic plan?

What policy outlines to United States (US) Armed Forces' comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain?

When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?

An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as

Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?

What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) and Area Processing Center (APC) functions?

What cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific stove-piped networks into a centrally-managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC)?

What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)?

Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?

What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations?

What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?

What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?

What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion?

Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?

What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?

Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?

What unit installs, reconstitutes, and tests critical C4 systems for con=mbatant commanders anywhere at any time?

Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity?

What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, web access, and storage?

What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)?

What year did the Air Force Institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?

What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?

The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a

What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)?

What basic building block is used in the joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?

Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) Service Life Cycle stages?

What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?

The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower users to

Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?