General Biology II Term Examination Review

  • Grade 12th
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| Questions: 30 | Updated: Sep 1, 2026
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1. Which of the following correctly describes the general outline of the genetic engineering process?

Explanation

The outlined process of genetic engineering begins with identifying the specific gene of interest, followed by isolating it from the organism's DNA. The isolated gene is then inserted into a vector, which serves as a carrier to transfer the gene into a host organism. Once inside the host, the gene can be expressed, allowing for the study of its effects or the production of desired traits. This sequence highlights the systematic approach taken in genetic engineering to manipulate genetic material for various applications, such as research, agriculture, or medicine.

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About This Quiz
General Biology II Term Examination Review - Quiz

This review focuses on key concepts in genetics, including inheritance patterns, DNA structure, and genetic engineering. It evaluates understanding of terms like proband, phenocopy, and traits influenced by sex. This resource is essential for learners preparing for advanced biology topics, ensuring a solid grasp of genetics.

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2. Which of the following correctly describes how to write a scientific name?

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3. What is the correct order of the taxonomic hierarchy from broadest to most specific?

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4. Vestigial structures are best described as:

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5. Which of the following is an example of homologous structures as evidence of evolution?

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6. Charles Darwin's observation of distinct beak structures in Galápagos finches led him to conclude that:

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7. According to Lamarck's theory, how did giraffes develop long necks?

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8. Jean Baptiste Lamarck's theory of acquired characteristics states that:

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9. Gametic isolation as a prezygotic barrier means:

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10. Which of the following is an example of a behavioral prezygotic barrier?

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11. What is the key difference between gene flow and genetic drift?

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12. Gene flow is best defined as:

Explanation

Gene flow refers to the movement of genetic material between populations, which occurs when individuals migrate from one population to another and breed. This transfer of alleles can increase genetic diversity within a population and reduce differences between populations. Unlike random changes in allele frequencies or mutations, gene flow specifically involves the introduction of new alleles into a population through the movement of organisms, thereby playing a crucial role in evolution and adaptation.

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13. Using Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, if p = 0.6 and q = 0.4, what is the expected frequency of heterozygotes (2pq)?

Explanation

To find the expected frequency of heterozygotes in a population under Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, we use the formula 2pq, where p is the frequency of one allele and q is the frequency of the other allele. Given p = 0.6 and q = 0.4, we calculate 2pq as follows: 2 * 0.6 * 0.4 = 0.48. This value represents the proportion of heterozygous individuals in the population, indicating the genetic diversity present due to the combination of alleles.

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14. In a Hardy-Weinberg problem, if the frequency of the recessive allele (q) is 0.3, what is the frequency of the dominant allele (p)?

Explanation

In a Hardy-Weinberg problem, the frequencies of the alleles in a population are related by the equation \( p + q = 1 \), where \( p \) is the frequency of the dominant allele and \( q \) is the frequency of the recessive allele. Given that the frequency of the recessive allele \( q \) is 0.3, we can calculate the frequency of the dominant allele \( p \) by rearranging the equation: \( p = 1 - q \). Substituting the value of \( q \), we find \( p = 1 - 0.3 = 0.7 \).

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15. The largest mass extinction in Earth's history occurred during which era/period?

Explanation

The Permian-Triassic extinction, occurring around 252 million years ago, is recognized as the largest mass extinction event in Earth's history, resulting in the loss of approximately 90-95% of marine species and 70% of terrestrial vertebrate species. This event, often referred to as "The Great Dying," was likely caused by a combination of volcanic activity, climate change, and ocean anoxia, dramatically reshaping life on Earth and paving the way for the rise of dinosaurs in the subsequent Mesozoic era.

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16. What is a proband in genetics?

Explanation

In genetics, a proband is the first individual in a family to be identified with a particular genetic disorder, serving as a reference point for genetic studies. This person often initiates the investigation into the family's genetic history, enabling clinicians to trace the inheritance patterns and assess the risk for other family members. Identifying the proband is crucial for understanding the genetic basis of the disorder and for guiding further diagnosis and counseling within the family.

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17. Which of the following is an example of recombinant DNA technology?

Explanation

Recombinant DNA technology involves combining DNA from different organisms to create new genetic combinations. Inserting the human insulin gene into a bacterial plasmid exemplifies this process, as it allows bacteria to produce human insulin, a crucial hormone for diabetes management. This method utilizes genetic engineering techniques to manipulate and replicate specific genes, showcasing the application of molecular biology in medicine. Other options, such as cross-pollination or selective breeding, do not involve direct manipulation of DNA at the molecular level, thus distinguishing them from recombinant DNA technology.

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18. Which of the following codons serves as the START codon in translation?

Explanation

AUG is known as the start codon in the process of translation because it codes for the amino acid methionine, which is the first amino acid incorporated into a nascent polypeptide chain. This codon signals the ribosome to begin translation, ensuring that protein synthesis initiates correctly. In contrast, UGA, UAA, and UAG are stop codons that signal the termination of translation, thus playing a different role in the protein synthesis process.

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19. The point of origin in DNA replication refers to:

Explanation

In DNA replication, the point of origin is a specific sequence of nucleotides on the DNA molecule where the replication process initiates. This site is crucial as it serves as the starting point for the unwinding of the DNA double helix and the synthesis of new DNA strands. Identifying this sequence ensures that replication occurs accurately and efficiently, allowing the genetic information to be copied and passed on during cell division.

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20. Okazaki fragments are:

Explanation

Okazaki fragments are short segments of DNA that are synthesized discontinuously on the lagging strand during DNA replication. This occurs because DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides in a 5' to 3' direction, necessitating the formation of these fragments as the replication fork opens. Each fragment is initiated by an RNA primer, allowing for the eventual joining of these pieces to create a continuous strand. This mechanism is crucial for the accurate and efficient replication of the entire DNA molecule.

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21. During transcription, the mRNA strand is synthesized in which direction?

Explanation

During transcription, RNA polymerase synthesizes the mRNA strand by adding nucleotides to the growing chain. This process occurs in the 5' to 3' direction, meaning that nucleotides are added to the 3' end of the growing mRNA molecule. This directionality is essential for the proper formation of the mRNA strand, as it ensures that the genetic information is accurately transcribed from the DNA template. Consequently, the mRNA strand is synthesized in a direction that allows for efficient translation into proteins later in the process.

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22. DNA replication occurs during which phase of the cell cycle?

Explanation

DNA replication occurs during the S phase of the cell cycle, which stands for "synthesis." During this phase, the cell duplicates its genetic material to ensure that each daughter cell receives an identical set of chromosomes. This process is crucial for maintaining genetic continuity and is tightly regulated to prevent errors that could lead to mutations. The G1 phase involves cell growth and preparation for DNA synthesis, while the G2 phase focuses on further growth and preparation for mitosis, and the M phase is when cell division occurs.

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23. DNA is composed of which of the following components?

Explanation

DNA is a nucleic acid that consists of three main components: deoxyribose sugar, which forms the backbone of the DNA strand; phosphate groups, which link the sugars together to create the structural framework; and nitrogenous bases (adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine) that encode genetic information. The presence of deoxyribose distinguishes DNA from RNA, which contains ribose sugar instead. The specific combination of these components is essential for DNA's function in storing and transmitting genetic information.

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24. Incomplete dominance is best illustrated by which of the following crosses?

Explanation

Incomplete dominance occurs when the phenotype of heterozygotes is intermediate between the phenotypes of the two homozygotes. In the cross of red (RR) and white (WW) flowers, the offspring are all pink (RW), which illustrates this concept perfectly. Unlike complete dominance, where one trait completely masks the other, the pink color results from the blending of the red and white traits, demonstrating how neither allele is fully dominant over the other.

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25. In a cross between two individuals with genotype I^A i (blood type A), what percentage of offspring will have blood type O?

Explanation

In a cross between two individuals with genotype I^A i, the possible gametes produced are I^A and i. When these gametes combine, the potential genotypes of the offspring are I^A I^A, I^A i, and ii. The genotype ii corresponds to blood type O. Using a Punnett square, we find that out of four possible combinations, one results in blood type O (ii), which is 25% of the offspring. Therefore, 25% of the offspring will have blood type O.

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26. In the ABO blood type system, which genotype corresponds to blood type AB?

Explanation

In the ABO blood type system, blood type AB is characterized by the presence of both A and B antigens on the surface of red blood cells. This is represented genetically by the genotype I^A I^B, where I^A denotes the A antigen and I^B denotes the B antigen. This genotype allows for the expression of both antigens, resulting in the AB blood type, which can accept blood from any ABO type due to the lack of anti-A or anti-B antibodies.

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27. Which of the following correctly describes a sex-influenced trait?

Explanation

Sex-influenced traits are characteristics that are expressed differently in males and females, often due to the influence of sex hormones. For example, a trait may be dominant in one sex but recessive in the other, leading to variations in expression based on gender. This phenomenon highlights the role of hormonal differences in the development and manifestation of certain traits, rather than being linked to specific chromosomes or generational patterns.

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28. A trait that is expressed only in one sex but can be carried and passed on by both sexes is called:

Explanation

Sex-limited traits are characteristics that manifest exclusively in one sex, though both sexes can carry the genetic information. These traits are often influenced by sex hormones, leading to their expression in, for example, only males or only females. Despite being present in both sexes' genotypes, the phenotypic expression is restricted to one, allowing the trait to be passed on through generations without being visibly expressed in the other sex. This distinction highlights the role of sex in the expression of certain genetic traits.

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29. In a pedigree analysis, a shaded square represents:

Explanation

In pedigree analysis, symbols are used to represent individuals' traits. A shaded square specifically denotes an affected male, indicating that he expresses the trait being studied, such as a genetic disorder. In contrast, a shaded circle would represent an affected female, while unshaded shapes signify unaffected individuals. This visual representation helps in tracking inheritance patterns across generations, making it easier to identify carriers and affected individuals within a family lineage.

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30. A phenocopy is best described as:

Explanation

A phenocopy occurs when an individual's phenotype, or observable characteristics, is influenced by environmental factors rather than genetic inheritance. This results in a trait that closely resembles one that is genetically determined, but it arises from external conditions rather than from the organism's genetic makeup. For example, exposure to certain chemicals or changes in diet can lead to physical traits similar to those caused by specific genetic mutations, illustrating how the environment can produce effects that mimic genetic traits.

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    All (30)
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Which of the following correctly describes the general outline of the...
Which of the following correctly describes how to write a scientific...
What is the correct order of the taxonomic hierarchy from broadest to...
Vestigial structures are best described as:
Which of the following is an example of homologous structures as...
Charles Darwin's observation of distinct beak structures in Galápagos...
According to Lamarck's theory, how did giraffes develop long necks?
Jean Baptiste Lamarck's theory of acquired characteristics states...
Gametic isolation as a prezygotic barrier means:
Which of the following is an example of a behavioral prezygotic...
What is the key difference between gene flow and genetic drift?
Gene flow is best defined as:
Using Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, if p = 0.6 and q = 0.4, what is the...
In a Hardy-Weinberg problem, if the frequency of the recessive allele...
The largest mass extinction in Earth's history occurred during which...
What is a proband in genetics?
Which of the following is an example of recombinant DNA technology?
Which of the following codons serves as the START codon in...
The point of origin in DNA replication refers to:
Okazaki fragments are:
During transcription, the mRNA strand is synthesized in which...
DNA replication occurs during which phase of the cell cycle?
DNA is composed of which of the following components?
Incomplete dominance is best illustrated by which of the following...
In a cross between two individuals with genotype I^A i (blood type A),...
In the ABO blood type system, which genotype corresponds to blood type...
Which of the following correctly describes a sex-influenced trait?
A trait that is expressed only in one sex but can be carried and...
In a pedigree analysis, a shaded square represents:
A phenocopy is best described as:
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