Set 1: Volume 1

77 Questions | Attempts: 195
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  • 1/77 Questions

    What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?

    • Remedy.
    • Training Business Area.
    • Telephone Management System.
    • Integrated Maintenance Data System.
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  • 2. 

    The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?

    • Title 3.

    • Title 8.

    • Title 10.

    • Title 18.

    Correct Answer
    A. Title 10.
  • 3. 

    When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?

    • Title 10.

    • Title 30.

    • Title 50.

    • Title 52.

    Correct Answer
    A. Title 10.
  • 4. 

    What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?

    • Manpower.

    • Efficiency.

    • Reduce costs.

    • Department of Defense 8570 mandate

    Correct Answer
    A. Efficiency.
  • 5. 

    Which document is NOT considered an official government record?

    • Published doctrines.

    • Geographical base maps.

    • Photographs of a retreat ceremony.

    • Library reference or museum exhibitions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Library reference or museum exhibitions.
  • 6. 

    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?

    • Spectrum Operations.

    • Ground Radar Systems.

    • Cable and Antenna Systems.

    • Radio Frequency Transmission.

    Correct Answer
    A. Radio Frequency Transmission.
  • 7. 

    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

    • Spectrum Operations.

    • Ground Radar Systems.

    • Cable and Antenna Systems.

    • Radio Frequency Transmission.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cable and Antenna Systems.
  • 8. 

    Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?

    • Modify local training.

    • Allocate manpower.

    • Develop a Career Development Course (CDC).

    • Assist the unit training manager in course development.

    Correct Answer
    A. Develop a Career Development Course (CDC).
  • 9. 

    What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

    • Conduct climate training surveys.

    • Develop Career Development Courses.

    • Review the occupational analysis report.

    • Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
  • 10. 

    What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?

    • Air Combat Command, 9th Air Force

    • Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force

    • Air Force Global Strike Command, 8th Air Force

    • Air Education and Training Command, 2nd Air Force

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force
  • 11. 

    Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?

    • Defense Industrial Base (DIB).

    • Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).

    • National Reconnaissance Office (NRO).

    • Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
  • 12. 

    What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?

    • Coding.

    • Positioning.

    • Tempo bands.

    • Unit type code.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit type code.
  • 13. 

    What tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose?

    • A rewriting of the main point.

    • A well-written summary

    • A postscript message.

    • None of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. A well-written summary
  • 14. 

    Records that are considered to be in draft format

    • Can be altered and are not officially released.

    • Can’t be altered, but are officially released.

    • Can’t be altered and are officially signed.

    • Officially signed and officially released.

    Correct Answer
    A. Can be altered and are not officially released.
  • 15. 

    What system manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders?

    • Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS).

    • Office Automation System (OAS).

    • Decision Support System (DSS)

    • Training Business Area (TBA).

    Correct Answer
    A. Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS).
  • 16. 

    Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

    • Unit training manager (UTM).

    • Base functional manager (BFM).

    • Major command functional manager (MFM).

    • Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
  • 17. 

    What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?

    • Management Inspection (MI).

    • Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI).

    • Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI).

    • Commander’s Inspection Program (CCIP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI).
  • 18. 

    What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

    • Title 10

    • Title 18

    • Title 32

    • Title 50

    Correct Answer
    A. Title 10
  • 19. 

    An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as

    • Misuse of position.

    • Covered relationships.

    • Non-public information.

    • Personal conflict of interest.

    Correct Answer
    A. Covered relationships.
  • 20. 

    What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion.

    • Active and reactive.

    • Evasive and decisive.

    • Subversive and divisive.

    • Offensive and defensive.

    Correct Answer
    A. Active and reactive.
  • 21. 

    Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?

    • Counterintelligence (CI).

    • Operation Security (OPSEC).

    • Military deception (MILDEC)

    • Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR).

    Correct Answer
    A. Military deception (MILDEC)
  • 22. 

    What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?

    • 644th Combat Communication Squadron.

    • 85th Engineering Installation Squadron.

    • 83th Network Operations Squadron.

    • 4th Expeditionary Fighter Wing.

    Correct Answer
    A. 85th Engineering Installation Squadron.
  • 23. 

    Who is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense?

    • The President.

    • The Chief of Staff.

    • The Vice President.

    • The Deputy Secretary.

    Correct Answer
    A. The Deputy Secretary.
  • 24. 

    Which of the following does NOT describe information outlined in technical order (TO) 00–5–1?

    • Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.

    • Resources required to manage and use TOs.

    • Infrastructure to manage and use TOs.

    • Training to manage and use TOs.

    Correct Answer
    A. Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.
  • 25. 

    What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?

    • Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    • Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS).

    • On-the-Job Training (OJT) program.

    • Occupational Analysis Program.

    Correct Answer
    A. On-the-Job Training (OJT) program.
  • 26. 

    Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?

    • Misuse of position.

    • Covered relationship.

    • Personal conflict of interest.

    • None, this is not an example of an unethical situation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Covered relationship.
  • 27. 

    How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?

    • Two.

    • Four.

    • Six.

    • Eight.

    Correct Answer
    A. Six.
  • 28. 

    Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36−2201, Air Force Training Program?

    • Core task.

    • Duty competency.

    • Core competency.

    • Duty position task.

    Correct Answer
    A. Duty position task.
  • 29. 

    Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?

    • Trend analysis.

    • Quality System.

    • Quality Assessments.

    • Managerial Assessments.

    Correct Answer
    A. Trend analysis.
  • 30. 

    What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?

    • Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System

    • Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System

    • Cyberspace Defense Analysis Weapon System

    • Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System
  • 31. 

    What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?

    • Subordinate unified command and geographical command.

    • Unified command and subordinate unified command.

    • Functional command and geographical command.

    • Unified command and functional command.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unified command and subordinate unified command.
  • 32. 

    Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

    • Technical Evaluation.

    • Personnel Evaluation.

    • Managerial Evaluation.

    • Standard Evaluation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard Evaluation.
  • 33. 

    What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?

    • 2009.

    • 2010.

    • 2011.

    • 2012.

    Correct Answer
    A. 2010.
  • 34. 

    The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a

    • Combined force air and space component commander (CFAAC).

    • Joint force air and space component commander (JFACC).

    • Component Numbered Air Force (CNAF).

    • Joint Force Commander (JFC).

    Correct Answer
    A. Joint Force Commander (JFC).
  • 35. 

    What joint publication (JP) is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications?

    • JP 6–0, Joint Communications System.

    • JP 5–0, Joint Communications System.

    • JP 5–0, Joint Operation Planning.

    • JP 6–0, Joint Operations Series.

    Correct Answer
    A. JP 6–0, Joint Communications System.
  • 36. 

    Which type of technical order (TO) has a numerical designator beginning with "31" and covers topics such as basic electronics technology and testing practices?

    • Standard Installation Practices TO (SIPTO).

    • Operation and Maintenance TO.

    • Methods and Procedures TO.

    • General TO.

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard Installation Practices TO (SIPTO).
  • 37. 

    Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?

    • Unit training manager (UTM).

    • Base functional manager (BFM).

    • Major command functional manager (MFM).

    • Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
  • 38. 

    What personnel oversees technical order requirements and distribution within an organization?

    • Library custodian.

    • Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO).

    • Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA).

    • Non-Commissioned Officer in Charge (NCOIC).

    Correct Answer
    A. Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO).
  • 39. 

    Who develops standards for interconnect, passive and electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?

    • Defense Standardization Program (DSP).

    • Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA).

    • Information and Communications Technology (ICT).

    • Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).

    Correct Answer
    A. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).
  • 40. 

    Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

    • Quality Assessments.

    • Quality Assurance.

    • Quality System.

    • Trend Analysis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Assurance.
  • 41. 

    Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) defines an "official government record?"

    • AFI 33−321.

    • AFI 33−322.

    • AFI 33−329.

    • AFI 33−332.

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 33−322.
  • 42. 

    What type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) component heads and other agencies official mission, responsibilities, function, relationships and authority?

    • Direct oversight directives.

    • Secretary Policy memo.

    • Directive-type memo.

    • Chartering directives.

    Correct Answer
    A. Chartering directives.
  • 43. 

    What Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems shall receive initial information assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and thereafter must complete annual IA refresher awareness?

    • DODD 8140.01.

    • DODD 5515.01.

    • DODD 8220.01.

    • DODD 8570.01.

    Correct Answer
    A. DODD 8570.01.
  • 44. 

    What type of non-directive Air Force (AF) publication is not subject to frequent change?

    • AF Doctrine.

    • AF Handbook (AFH).

    • AF Pamphlet (AFPAM).

    • AF Visual Aid (AFVA).

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Handbook (AFH).
  • 45. 

    How many workflow capabilities are available to you on a SharePoint Server?

    • One.

    • Two.

    • Three.

    • Four.

    Correct Answer
    A. Three.
  • 46. 

    What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?

    • Continual Service Improvement.

    • Service Transition.

    • Service Strategy.

    • Service Design.

    Correct Answer
    A. Continual Service Improvement.
  • 47. 

    The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower users to

    • Safeguard information in an enterprise-wide environment

    • Exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment.

    • Improve the effectiveness of the mission.

    • Improve the efficiency of the mission.

    Correct Answer
    A. Exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment.
  • 48. 

    Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33–153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?

    • Article 32.

    • Article 40.

    • Article 92.

    • Article 100.

    Correct Answer
    A. Article 92.
  • 49. 

    What entity assigns numbers to Department of Defense (DOD) issuances based on the established subject groups and sub subject groups?

    • Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.

    • Deputy Secretary of Defense and authorized signers.

    • Chief, Manuals Division (MD), under the Director, Washington Headquarters Services (WHS).

    • Chief, Directives Division (DD), under the Director, Washington Headquarters Services (WHS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Chief, Directives Division (DD), under the Director, Washington Headquarters Services (WHS).

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 19, 2022 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2022
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 19, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Dowhaniuk
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