Set 1: Volume 1

1. What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?

Manpower.

Efficiency.

Reduce costs.

Department of Defense 8570 mandate

2. When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?

Title 10.

Title 30.

Title 50.

Title 52.

3. Which document is NOT considered an official government record?

Published doctrines.

Geographical base maps.

Photographs of a retreat ceremony.

Library reference or museum exhibitions.

4. The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?

Title 3.

Title 8.

Title 10.

Title 18.

5. What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?

Remedy.

Training Business Area.

Telephone Management System.

Integrated Maintenance Data System.

6. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

Spectrum Operations.

Ground Radar Systems.

Cable and Antenna Systems.

Radio Frequency Transmission.

7. Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?

Defense Industrial Base (DIB).

Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).

National Reconnaissance Office (NRO).

Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

8. What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?

Air Combat Command, 9th Air Force

Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force

Air Force Global Strike Command, 8th Air Force

Air Education and Training Command, 2nd Air Force

9. What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?

Coding.

Positioning.

Tempo bands.

Unit type code.

10. What tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose?

A rewriting of the main point.

A well-written summary

A postscript message.

None of the above.

11. Records that are considered to be in draft format

Can be altered and are not officially released.

Can’t be altered, but are officially released.

Can’t be altered and are officially signed.

Officially signed and officially released.

12. What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

Conduct climate training surveys.

Develop Career Development Courses.

Review the occupational analysis report.

Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

13. Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?

Modify local training.

Allocate manpower.

Develop a Career Development Course (CDC).

Assist the unit training manager in course development.

14. What system manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders?

Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS).

Office Automation System (OAS).

Decision Support System (DSS)

Training Business Area (TBA).

15. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?

Spectrum Operations.

Ground Radar Systems.

Cable and Antenna Systems.

Radio Frequency Transmission.

16. What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion.

Active and reactive.

Evasive and decisive.

Subversive and divisive.

Offensive and defensive.

17. What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?

644th Combat Communication Squadron.

85th Engineering Installation Squadron.

83th Network Operations Squadron.

4th Expeditionary Fighter Wing.

18. Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

Unit training manager (UTM).

Base functional manager (BFM).

Major command functional manager (MFM).

Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

19. What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?

Management Inspection (MI).

Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI).

Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI).

Commander’s Inspection Program (CCIP).

20. Which of the following does NOT describe information outlined in technical order (TO) 00–5–1?

Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.

Resources required to manage and use TOs.

Infrastructure to manage and use TOs.

Training to manage and use TOs.

21. What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

Title 10

Title 18

Title 32

Title 50

22. Who is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense?

The President.

The Chief of Staff.

The Vice President.

The Deputy Secretary.

23. Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?

Counterintelligence (CI).

Operation Security (OPSEC).

Military deception (MILDEC)

Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR).

24. An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as

Misuse of position.

Covered relationships.

Non-public information.

Personal conflict of interest.

25. What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?

Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS).

On-the-Job Training (OJT) program.

Occupational Analysis Program.

26. How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?

Two.

Four.

Six.

Eight.

27. Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?

Misuse of position.

Covered relationship.

Personal conflict of interest.

None, this is not an example of an unethical situation.

28. Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36−2201, Air Force Training Program?

Core task.

Duty competency.

Core competency.

Duty position task.

29. What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?

Subordinate unified command and geographical command.

Unified command and subordinate unified command.

Functional command and geographical command.

Unified command and functional command.

30. What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?

Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System

Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System

Cyberspace Defense Analysis Weapon System

Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System.

31. Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?

Trend analysis.

Quality System.

Quality Assessments.

Managerial Assessments.

32. What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?

2009.

2010.

2011.

2012.

33. What joint publication (JP) is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications?

JP 6–0, Joint Communications System.

JP 5–0, Joint Communications System.

JP 5–0, Joint Operation Planning.

JP 6–0, Joint Operations Series.

34. The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a

Combined force air and space component commander (CFAAC).

Joint force air and space component commander (JFACC).

Component Numbered Air Force (CNAF).

Joint Force Commander (JFC).

35. Which type of technical order (TO) has a numerical designator beginning with "31" and covers topics such as basic electronics technology and testing practices?

Standard Installation Practices TO (SIPTO).

Operation and Maintenance TO.

Methods and Procedures TO.

General TO.

36. Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

Technical Evaluation.

Personnel Evaluation.

Managerial Evaluation.

Standard Evaluation.

37. What personnel oversees technical order requirements and distribution within an organization?

Library custodian.

Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO).

Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA).

Non-Commissioned Officer in Charge (NCOIC).

38. Who develops standards for interconnect, passive and electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?

Defense Standardization Program (DSP).

Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA).

Information and Communications Technology (ICT).

Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).

39. Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?

Unit training manager (UTM).

Base functional manager (BFM).

Major command functional manager (MFM).

Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

40. What type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) component heads and other agencies official mission, responsibilities, function, relationships and authority?

Direct oversight directives.

Secretary Policy memo.

Directive-type memo.

Chartering directives.

41. What Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems shall receive initial information assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and thereafter must complete annual IA refresher awareness?

DODD 8140.01.

DODD 5515.01.

DODD 8220.01.

DODD 8570.01.

42. Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

Quality Assessments.

Quality Assurance.

Quality System.

Trend Analysis.

43. Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) defines an "official government record?"

AFI 33−321.

AFI 33−322.

AFI 33−329.

AFI 33−332.

44. What type of non-directive Air Force (AF) publication is not subject to frequent change?

AF Doctrine.

AF Handbook (AFH).

AF Pamphlet (AFPAM).

AF Visual Aid (AFVA).

45. How many workflow capabilities are available to you on a SharePoint Server?

One.

Two.

Three.

Four.

46. What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?

Continual Service Improvement.

Service Transition.

Service Strategy.

Service Design.

47. The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower users to

Safeguard information in an enterprise-wide environment

Exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment.

Improve the effectiveness of the mission.

Improve the efficiency of the mission.

48. Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33–153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?

Article 32.

Article 40.

Article 92.

Article 100.

49. What Air Force publications are informational and suggest guidance that you can modify to fit the circumstances?

Directive.

Non-directive

Air Force Pamphlet (AFPAM).

Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD).

50. What entity assigns numbers to Department of Defense (DOD) issuances based on the established subject groups and sub subject groups?

Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.

Deputy Secretary of Defense and authorized signers.

Chief, Manuals Division (MD), under the Director, Washington Headquarters Services (WHS).

Chief, Directives Division (DD), under the Director, Washington Headquarters Services (WHS).

51. Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) Service Life Cycle stages?

Service Transition.

Service Strategy.

Service Contact

Service Design

52. What directive publications expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD)?

Air Force Instructions (AFI).

Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD).

Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD).

Air Force Policy Memorandum (AFPM).

53. What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?

Strategic Considerations.

Military Strategic Framework.

Implementation and Assessment.

Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance.

54. What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)?

Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.

Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System

Air Force Cyber Security and Control System

Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.

55. How many different types of Department of Defense Instructions (DODI) are there?

One

Two

Three

Four

56. Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)?

Unit training manager (UTM).

Base functional manager (BFM).

Major command functional manager (MFM).

Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

57. What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

Unit training manager (UTM).

Base functional manager (BFM).

Major command functional manager (MFM).

Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

58. What directive publications provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Department of Defense, Air Force, or higher departmental policies and/or laws?

Air Force Instructions (AFI).

Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD).

Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD).

Air Force Policy Memorandums (AFPM).

59. What policy outlines the United States (US) Armed Forces' comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain?

National Security Policy.

National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.

Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative.

National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations.

60. What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace?

National Military Cyberspace Strategy.

National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.

National Military Strategy for Cyberspace.

National Military Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.

61. Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity?

Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).

Area Processing Center (APC).

Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).

Network Operations Security Center (NOSC).

62. What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage?

Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).

Area Processing Center (APC).

Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).

Network Operations Security Center (NOSC).

63. What directive publication prescribes the mission, area of responsibility, organization and relationships of MAJCOMs, FOAs, and DRUs with their respective units?

Air Force Instructions (AFI).

Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD).

Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD).

Air Force Policy Memorandums (AFPM).

64. Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority?

National Security Policy.

National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.

Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative.

National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations.

65. Who may post an update to a technical order assuming they are trained and authorized access to the data?

Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA).

Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO).

Library custodian.

Any user.

66. Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?

Base records manager.

Command records manager.

Chief of the Office of Records.

Functional area records manager.

67. Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?

Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) in conjunction with the Training Pipeline Manager (TPM).

Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) in conjunction with the SME.

MFM in conjunction with the subject matter expert (SME).

AFCFM in conjunction with the TPM.

68. Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?

Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System

Air Force Cyber Security and Control System

Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System

Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System

69. What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)?

Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF).

Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF).

Unit type codes (UTC)

Stratum levels (SL).

70. Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?

Base records manager.

Chief of Office of Records.

Command records manager.

Functional area records manager.

71. What publications are orders issued by the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) that contain directive policy statements to initiate, govern, and/or regulate actions within specified areas of responsibility by Air Force activities?

Air Force Instructions (AFI).

Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD).

Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD).

Air Force Policy Memorandums (AFPM).

72. Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?

Unit training manager (UTM).

Base functional manager (BFM).

Major command functional manager (MFM).

Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

73. Who is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?

Base records manager.

Chief of Office of Records.

Command records manager.

Functional area records manager.

74. What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) and Area Processing Center (APC) functions?

Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.

Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.

Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.

Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.

75. What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations?

Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.

Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.

Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.

Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System.

76. Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers?

Base records manager.

Chief of Office of Records.

Command records manager.

Functional area records manager.

77. What cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific stove-piped networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC)?

Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.

Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.

Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.

Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.

Set 1: Volume 1

1. What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?

3. Which document is NOT considered an official government record?

4. The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?

5. What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?

6. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

7. Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?

8. What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?

9. What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?

10. What tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose?

11. Records that are considered to be in draft format

12. What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

13. Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?

14. What system manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders?

15. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?

16. What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion.

17. What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?

18. Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

19. What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?

20. Which of the following does NOT describe information outlined in technical order (TO) 00–5–1?

21. What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

22. Who is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense?

23. Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?

24. An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as

25. What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?

26. How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?

27. Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?

28. Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36−2201, Air Force Training Program?

29. What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?

30. What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?

31. Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?

32. What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?

33. What joint publication (JP) is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications?

34. The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a

35. Which type of technical order (TO) has a numerical designator beginning with "31" and covers topics such as basic electronics technology and testing practices?

36. Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

37. What personnel oversees technical order requirements and distribution within an organization?

38. Who develops standards for interconnect, passive and electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?

39. Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?

40. What type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) component heads and other agencies official mission, responsibilities, function, relationships and authority?

41. What Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems shall receive initial information assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and thereafter must complete annual IA refresher awareness?

42. Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

43. Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) defines an "official government record?"

44. What type of non-directive Air Force (AF) publication is not subject to frequent change?

45. How many workflow capabilities are available to you on a SharePoint Server?

46. What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?

47. The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower users to

48. Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33–153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?

49. What Air Force publications are informational and suggest guidance that you can modify to fit the circumstances?

50. What entity assigns numbers to Department of Defense (DOD) issuances based on the established subject groups and sub subject groups?

51. Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) Service Life Cycle stages?

52. What directive publications expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD)?

53. What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?

54. What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)?

55. How many different types of Department of Defense Instructions (DODI) are there?

56. Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)?

57. What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

58. What directive publications provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Department of Defense, Air Force, or higher departmental policies and/or laws?

59. What policy outlines the United States (US) Armed Forces' comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain?

60. What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace?

61. Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity?

62. What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage?

63. What directive publication prescribes the mission, area of responsibility, organization and relationships of MAJCOMs, FOAs, and DRUs with their respective units?

64. Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority?

65. Who may post an update to a technical order assuming they are trained and authorized access to the data?

66. Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?

67. Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?

68. Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?

69. What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)?

70. Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?

71. What publications are orders issued by the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) that contain directive policy statements to initiate, govern, and/or regulate actions within specified areas of responsibility by Air Force activities?

72. Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?

73. Who is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?

74. What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) and Area Processing Center (APC) functions?

75. What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations?

76. Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers?

77. What cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific stove-piped networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC)?