Z2g051 Volume 2 Unit Review Exercises

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  • 1/100 Questions

    (201) The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) operates on a life cycle of

    • A. 24 months.
    • B. 10 months.
    • C. two months.
    • D. one month.
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About This Quiz

The Z2G051 Volume 2 Unit Review Exercises focus on understanding the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) operations, including force presentation, life cycles, and readiness. It assesses skills crucial for expeditionary Airmen, enhancing their preparedness for deployment under various conditions.

Z2g051 Volume 2 Unit Review Exercises - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    (203) Specific unit type codes (UTC) that are normally eligible to deploy, given a certain set of deployment conditions, and assuming full readiness, are considered

    • A. available to deploy.

    • B. ready to deploy.

    • C. non-deployable.

    • D. postured.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. available to deploy.
    Explanation
    The specific unit type codes (UTC) that are normally eligible to deploy, given certain deployment conditions and full readiness, are considered "available to deploy." This means that these units are prepared and able to be deployed for their intended mission or task.

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  • 3. 

    (203) Which type of unit type code (UTC) record indicates it is sufficiently manned, trained, and equipped to meet the mission capability (MISCAP) of the UTC?

    • A. Available to deploy.

    • B. Ready to deploy.

    • C. Non-deployable.

    • D. Postured.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Ready to deploy.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. Ready to deploy. This type of unit type code (UTC) record indicates that the unit is sufficiently manned, trained, and equipped to meet the mission capability (MISCAP) of the UTC. Being ready to deploy means that the unit is prepared and capable of being deployed for a mission.

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  • 4. 

    (212) This document or function tells you the purpose of a unit type code (UTC), describes the type of mission the UTC supports, the type of base where the UTC can deploy, other UTCs that can provide support, the date the UTC was reviewed by the Manpower and Equipment Force Packaging System (MEFPAK) responsible command, and any other pertinent UTC information?

    • A. Mission capability (MISCAP).

    • B. Logistics module (LOGMOD).

    • C. Deployment control center (DCC).

    • D. Installation personnel readiness (IPR).

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Mission capability (MISCAP).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. Mission capability (MISCAP). This document or function provides information about the purpose of a unit type code (UTC), the type of mission the UTC supports, the type of base where the UTC can deploy, other UTCs that can provide support, the date the UTC was reviewed by the Manpower and Equipment Force Packaging System (MEFPAK) responsible command, and any other pertinent UTC information.

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  • 5. 

    (228) Which function is not part of the Deployment Control Center (DCC) staff?

    • A. Installation Deployment Officer (IDO).

    • B. Logistics plans.

    • C. Personnel.

    • D. Services.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Services.
    Explanation
    The function that is not part of the Deployment Control Center (DCC) staff is "d. Services." The DCC staff consists of various roles and responsibilities related to deployment, such as the Installation Deployment Officer (IDO), logistics plans, and personnel. However, the services function is not mentioned as part of the DCC staff, indicating that it is not included in their responsibilities.

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  • 6. 

    (230) The Personnel Deployment Function (PDF) requires all of the following equipment items except

    • A. cable television.

    • B. classified storage.

    • C. uninterrupted power.

    • D. robust communications.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. cable television.
    Explanation
    The Personnel Deployment Function (PDF) requires equipment items such as classified storage, uninterrupted power, and robust communications to effectively carry out its operations. However, cable television is not necessary for the PDF's functions. This suggests that cable television is not a requirement for the PDF's personnel deployment activities.

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  • 7. 

    (203) To what extent do functional managers posture manpower authorizations into standard deployable unit type codes (UTC)?

    • A. On a two-to-one basis.

    • B. The minimal extent possible.

    • C. The maximum extent possible.

    • D. They do not posture manpower authorizations.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. The maximum extent possible.
    Explanation
    Functional managers posture manpower authorizations into standard deployable unit type codes (UTC) to the maximum extent possible. This means that they strive to allocate and assign personnel to UTCs as much as they can. This helps in ensuring that the right personnel with the necessary skills and qualifications are assigned to specific roles and responsibilities within the organization. By doing so, functional managers can effectively manage and deploy manpower resources in a standardized and efficient manner.

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  • 8. 

    (204) Posturing codes, or P-codes, indicate unit type code (UTC) records are generally available

    • A. for weapons training exercises.

    • B. during peacetime operations only.

    • C. during normal rotational operations.

    • D. for short tour and remote assignment selection.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. during normal rotational operations.
    Explanation
    P-codes, or posturing codes, are used to indicate the availability of unit type code (UTC) records. The given statement suggests that P-codes are generally available during normal rotational operations. This means that during regular rotations and deployments, UTC records with P-codes are accessible. This information is important for planning and organizing military operations and deployments.

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  • 9. 

    (204) This posturing code (P-code) indicates the maximum simultaneous deployment capability within a unit.

    • A. AX.

    • B. DP.

    • C. DW.

    • D. DX.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. DW.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. DW. P-code refers to posturing code and it indicates the maximum simultaneous deployment capability within a unit. In this context, DW stands for "Double Wide," which suggests that the unit has the ability to deploy two items simultaneously. The other options, AX, DP, and DX, do not provide any relevant information about the unit's deployment capability.

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  • 10. 

    (204) Which posturing code (P-code) indicates the minimum number of unit type code (UTC) requirements to support critical home station operations?

    • A. AP.

    • B. AX.

    • C. DW.

    • D. DX.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. DX.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. DX. This posturing code indicates the minimum number of unit type code (UTC) requirements to support critical home station operations. The "D" in the code indicates that the UTC requirements are for deployment, while the "X" indicates that it is the minimum number of UTCs needed. Therefore, DX is the correct code to indicate the minimum number of UTC requirements for critical home station operations.

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  • 11. 

    (205) When rating unit type codes (UTC), commanders rate each UTC against the unit’s

    • A. future ability to support deployments.

    • B. current ability to support deployments.

    • C. future ability to support exercises.

    • D. current ability to support exercises.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. current ability to support deployments.
    Explanation
    Commanders rate each UTC against the unit's current ability to support deployments. This means that they assess the readiness and capability of the unit to carry out deployments at the present moment. This evaluation helps commanders determine which UTCs are ready and capable of supporting deployments and which ones may need improvement or additional resources. It allows for effective planning and allocation of resources to ensure that the unit is prepared for deployment operations.

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  • 12. 

    (205) Which Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) Reporting Tool (ART) report provides the current status of the unit type codes (UTC), including the commander’s comments that also focuses on retrieving the UTC/availability line numbers (ALN) status, with applicable remarks?

    • A. UTC Report.

    • B. Legacy Extract Report.

    • C. Major command (MAJCOM) Compliance Report.

    • D. Manpower and Equipment Force Packaging System (MEFPAK) Listing.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. UTC Report.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. UTC Report. The UTC Report provides the current status of the unit type codes (UTC), including the commander's comments. It also focuses on retrieving the UTC/availability line numbers (ALN) status, with applicable remarks. This report is used to track and manage the availability and readiness of UTCs within an Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF).

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  • 13. 

    (205) Which document provides a list of the standard Air Force unit type codes (UTC)?

    • A. UTC Report.

    • B. Legacy Extract Report.

    • C. Major command (MAJCOM) Compliance Report.

    • D. Manpower and Equipment Force Packaging System (MEFPAK) Listing.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Manpower and Equipment Force Packaging System (MEFPAK) Listing.
    Explanation
    The Manpower and Equipment Force Packaging System (MEFPAK) Listing provides a list of the standard Air Force unit type codes (UTC). This document is used to identify the specific manpower and equipment requirements for each UTC, allowing for effective force management and deployment planning. The MEFPAK Listing ensures that units have the necessary resources and capabilities to accomplish their missions.

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  • 14. 

    (208) At base level, the wing/installation commander is responsible to

    • A. draft operations plans (OPLAN) for presidential approval.

    • B. ensure the installation is capable of supporting deployment operations.

    • C. issue combatant commanders’ estimate to the Secretary of Defense (SECDEF).

    • D. maintain oversight of air terminal operations in support of deployment and redeployment operations.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. ensure the installation is capable of supporting deployment operations.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. ensure the installation is capable of supporting deployment operations. This answer is supported by the phrase "at base level" in the question, which implies that the responsibility is specific to the installation level. The responsibility of drafting operations plans (a) is typically done at a higher level, such as the staff level. Issuing combatant commanders' estimate to the Secretary of Defense (c) and maintaining oversight of air terminal operations (d) are also responsibilities that may be done at a higher level. Therefore, the most appropriate responsibility for the wing/installation commander at the base level is to ensure that the installation is capable of supporting deployment operations.

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  • 15. 

    (209) Which agency has a permanent member on the Installation Deployment Readiness Cell (IDRC) staff?

    • A. Medical personnel.

    • B. Maintenance personnel.

    • C. Traffic management flight (TMF).

    • D. Installation Personnel Readiness (IPR) personnel.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Installation Personnel Readiness (IPR) personnel.
    Explanation
    The Installation Deployment Readiness Cell (IDRC) is responsible for ensuring that all personnel and resources are ready for deployment. The permanent member on the IDRC staff would be the agency that is specifically in charge of personnel readiness on the installation. Therefore, the correct answer is d. Installation Personnel Readiness (IPR) personnel.

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  • 16. 

    (213) The process of adding a unit type code (UTC) to the Manpower and Equipment Force Packaging (MEFPAK), building the manpower and or equipment detail, and getting the UTC added to the Type Unit Characteristics (TUCHA) is known as

    • A. registration.

    • B. UTC development.

    • C. pilot unit reporting.

    • D. major command (MAJCOM) reporting.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. UTC development.
    Explanation
    The process described in the question involves adding a unit type code (UTC) to the Manpower and Equipment Force Packaging (MEFPAK), building the manpower and/or equipment detail, and getting the UTC added to the Type Unit Characteristics (TUCHA). This process is known as UTC development. It is a systematic process of creating and assigning unique codes to different unit types within the military. It helps in identifying and categorizing units based on their specific characteristics and capabilities.

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  • 17. 

    (214) Which type of unit uses unit type codes (UTC) developed by a pilot unit?

    • A. Nonpilot unit.

    • B. Tenant unit.

    • C. Host unit.

    • D. G-unit.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Nonpilot unit.
    Explanation
    Nonpilot units use unit type codes (UTC) that were developed by a pilot unit. This suggests that pilot units are responsible for creating and implementing the UTC system, while nonpilot units utilize these codes for their own operations. The term "nonpilot" implies that these units do not have the same level of expertise or specialization as pilot units, but they still rely on the UTC system to effectively communicate and coordinate their activities.

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  • 18. 

    (220) This is used to identify each unique unit in the time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD).

    • A. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

    • B. Logistics module (LOGMOD).

    • C. In-transit visibility (ITV).

    • D. Unit line number (ULN).

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Unit line number (ULN).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. Unit line number (ULN). The ULN is used to identify each unique unit in the time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD). This number helps to track and manage the movement of units during deployment and ensures accurate and efficient logistics planning and coordination.

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  • 19. 

    (235) This process is described as the transfer of a unit, an individual, or supplies deployed in one area to another area or home station.

    • A. Redeployment.

    • B. Deployment.

    • C. Posturing.

    • D. Sourcing.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Redeployment.
    Explanation
    Redeployment refers to the process of transferring a unit, an individual, or supplies from one area to another area or home station. This could involve moving military personnel or resources to a different location for various reasons, such as completing a mission or returning to their home base. It is a term commonly used in the military to describe the movement and relocation of assets.

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  • 20. 

    (228) This is the focal point for all deployment operations.

    • A. Deployment Control Center (DCC).

    • B. Cargo Deployment Function (CDF).

    • C. Personnel Deployment Function (PDF).

    • D. Unit Deployment Control Center (UDCC).

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Deployment Control Center (DCC).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. Deployment Control Center (DCC). The focal point for all deployment operations is the Deployment Control Center (DCC). This center is responsible for coordinating and managing the deployment of personnel, cargo, and units. It serves as the central hub for communication and decision-making during the deployment process. The DCC ensures that all necessary resources and support are in place for a successful deployment.

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  • 21. 

    (232) Installations ensure that deployment work center personnel fully understand the deployment process by

    • A. having the installation deployment officer (IDO) establish a deployment training and education program.

    • B. tasking unit commanders with providing only their best and brightest for work center duties.

    • C. assigning only personnel who have previously deployed as work center members.

    • D. having work center members sign a statement of understanding.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. having the installation deployment officer (IDO) establish a deployment training and education program.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. having the installation deployment officer (IDO) establish a deployment training and education program. This answer suggests that installations ensure that deployment work center personnel fully understand the deployment process by having the IDO establish a training and education program specifically focused on deployment. This program would provide the necessary knowledge and skills to the personnel, ensuring that they are well-prepared and knowledgeable about the deployment process.

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  • 22. 

    (201) The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept is the Air Force methodology for these actions. a. Mandating 179-day rotations within similar major commands (MAJCOM). b. Presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR). c. Rotating Airmen for permanent change of station (PCS) assignments. d. Organizing combat forces in a peacetime environment.

    • A. Mandating 179-day rotations within similar major commands (MAJCOM).

    • B. Presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR).

    • C. Rotating Airmen for permanent change of station (PCS) assignments.

    • D. Organizing combat forces in a peacetime environment.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. Presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR). The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept is the Air Force methodology for presenting forces to combatant commanders. This means that the AEF concept is designed to provide the necessary forces and capabilities to combatant commanders in order to support their missions and operational requirements. This involves the deployment and rotation of forces to meet the needs of the combatant commanders, ensuring that they have the necessary resources to execute their missions effectively.

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  • 23. 

    (201) This is what every Air Force member is considered, regardless of Air Force specialty code (AFSC).

    • A. Warrior.

    • B. Enlisted.

    • C. Employed.

    • D. Expeditionary Airman.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Expeditionary Airman.
    Explanation
    In the Air Force, regardless of their specific job or role, every member is considered an Expeditionary Airman. This term encompasses the idea that every member is prepared and trained to deploy and operate in various locations and situations, reflecting the Air Force's commitment to being ready to respond to missions and support operations around the world.

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  • 24. 

    (202) Readiness of the force to respond to rotational and operations plan (OPLAN) requirements facilitates a baseline Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF)

    • A. two-month deployment preparation period.

    • B. six-month deployment preparation period.

    • C. two-month vulnerability period.

    • D. six-month vulnerability period.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. six-month vulnerability period.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. six-month vulnerability period. This means that the readiness of the force to respond to rotational and operations plan (OPLAN) requirements allows for a six-month period in which the force is vulnerable and could potentially be deployed. This suggests that the force must be prepared and ready to respond to any deployment needs within this timeframe.

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  • 25. 

    (203) Which manpower authorizations must be postured in the unit type code (UTC) availability?

    • A. All authorizations.

    • B. Only authorizations for combat personnel.

    • C. All authorizations not in training units.

    • D. Any authorization that is ready to deploy.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. All authorizations.
    Explanation
    All authorizations must be postured in the unit type code (UTC) availability. This means that all personnel, regardless of their role or function, should be included in the UTC availability. This ensures that the unit is adequately staffed and prepared for any operational requirements or deployments. By including all authorizations, the unit can effectively plan and allocate resources based on the available manpower.

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  • 26. 

    (205) Which Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) Reporting Tool (ART) training requirement is considered key to successfully managing an installation ART program?

    • A. Understanding ART unit type code (UTC) symbols and descriptions.

    • B. Accessing and updating user roles.

    • C. Using rapid updates.

    • D. Navigating ART.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Navigating ART.
    Explanation
    Navigating ART is considered key to successfully managing an installation ART program. This means being able to effectively and efficiently move through the ART system, accessing the necessary information and functions to carry out tasks and make updates. Without the ability to navigate ART, it would be difficult to utilize the system to its fullest potential and effectively manage the installation ART program. Understanding ART unit type code (UTC) symbols and descriptions, accessing and updating user roles, and using rapid updates may also be important aspects of managing the program, but navigating ART is the fundamental skill required for successful management.

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  • 27. 

    (205) When Airmen are tasked to deploy, which Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) Online system should they use to manage their Tier 2B pre-deployment training requirements?

    • A. Deployment Processing Discrepancy Reporting Tool (DPDRT).

    • B. Personal Deployment Preparedness Tool (PDPT).

    • C. Air Force Reporting Instructions Tool (AFRIT).

    • D. AEF Reporting Tool (ART).

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Personal Deployment Preparedness Tool (PDPT).
    Explanation
    Airmen who are tasked to deploy should use the Personal Deployment Preparedness Tool (PDPT) to manage their Tier 2B pre-deployment training requirements. This tool is specifically designed to assist Airmen in preparing for deployment and ensures that they have completed all necessary training before they are deployed. The PDPT helps Airmen track their progress and ensures that they are fully prepared for their deployment responsibilities.

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  • 28. 

    (206) The Chief of Staff, US Air Force (CSAF), acts as a "Global Force Provider" fulfilling the responsibility to support combatant commanders (CCDR) through the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) by

    • A. conducting operational readiness inspections (ORI) that include evaluating the deployment capability of their active and gained forces.

    • B. developing training curriculum for installation deployment officers (IDO) to include cascade training for unit deployment managers (UDM).

    • C. coordinating and scheduling USAF forces to provide combat-ready assigned, apportioned, and allocated forces as spelled out in Global Force Management (GFM) guidance.

    • D. ensuring all Air Force budget submissions include provisions to attain and maintain the optimum deployment capability of AF forces.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. coordinating and scheduling USAF forces to provide combat-ready assigned, apportioned, and allocated forces as spelled out in Global Force Management (GFM) guidance.
    Explanation
    The Chief of Staff, US Air Force (CSAF) acts as a "Global Force Provider" by coordinating and scheduling USAF forces to provide combat-ready assigned, apportioned, and allocated forces as spelled out in Global Force Management (GFM) guidance. This means that the CSAF is responsible for ensuring that the Air Force is able to deploy forces as needed to support combatant commanders (CCDR) through the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF). This involves coordinating and scheduling the deployment of forces to meet the requirements outlined in the GFM guidance, ensuring that they are ready for combat operations.

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  • 29. 

    (207) Who is responsible for executing the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) schedule?

    • A. Secretary of Defense (SECDEF).

    • B. Chief of Staff, US Air Force (CSAF).

    • C. Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS).

    • D. Commander, Air Combat Command (COMACC).

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Commander, Air Combat Command (COMACC).
    Explanation
    The Commander, Air Combat Command (COMACC) is responsible for executing the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) schedule. This means that they are in charge of coordinating and overseeing the deployment and rotation of Air Force personnel and resources in support of combat operations. As the commander of the Air Combat Command, they have the authority and responsibility to ensure that the AEF schedule is implemented effectively and efficiently. The Secretary of Defense, Chief of Staff, US Air Force, and Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff may have oversight and influence in the decision-making process, but the actual execution of the AEF schedule falls under the purview of the COMACC.

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  • 30. 

    (209) Which agency or individual acts for the installation/wing commander in directing, controlling, coordinating, and executing deployments and installation exercises?

    • A. Installation personnel readiness (IPR).

    • B. Unit deployment manager (UDM).

    • C. Installation deployment officer (IDO).

    • D. Logistic Readiness squadron (LRS) commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Installation deployment officer (IDO).
    Explanation
    The installation deployment officer (IDO) acts for the installation/wing commander in directing, controlling, coordinating, and executing deployments and installation exercises. This individual is responsible for ensuring that all necessary personnel and resources are ready and available for deployment, and for overseeing the planning and execution of deployment operations at the installation level. The IDO works closely with other agencies and individuals, such as the unit deployment manager (UDM) and logistic readiness squadron (LRS) commander, to ensure a smooth and efficient deployment process.

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  • 31. 

    (212) The assignment of unit type code (UTC) categories is based on

    • A. functional areas.

    • B. manpower position numbers.

    • C. operation plan (OPLAN) mission requirements.

    • D. Chief of Staff of the Air Force (CSAF) determination.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. functional areas.
    Explanation
    The assignment of unit type code (UTC) categories is based on functional areas. This means that the categorization of units into different UTC categories is determined by the specific functions and roles they perform within the organization. This helps to ensure that units are properly classified and organized based on their specific capabilities and responsibilities. Manpower position numbers, operation plan (OPLAN) mission requirements, and Chief of Staff of the Air Force (CSAF) determination may also play a role in unit assignments, but the primary factor is the functional area of the unit.

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  • 32. 

    (214) Which type of report must be ran prior to reporting logistics details (LOGDET) to the major command (MAJCOM)?

    • A. Database Verification (DB Verify) Report.

    • B. Wartime Aircraft Activity Report.

    • C. Manpower and Equipment Force Packaging (MEFPAK) Summary Report.

    • D. Unit type code (UTC) Summary Report.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Database Verification (DB Verify) Report.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. Database Verification (DB Verify) Report. The DB Verify Report must be run prior to reporting logistics details (LOGDET) to the major command (MAJCOM) in order to ensure the accuracy and validity of the data in the database. This report helps to identify any discrepancies or errors in the database and allows for necessary corrections to be made before reporting the logistics details to the MAJCOM.

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  • 33. 

    (216) This is indicated by Manpower typing a "P" in the "Task Stat" field during the wing-level verification process.

    • A. A reclama was established for a given tasking.

    • B. The installation in non-deployable.

    • C. The tasking cannot be filled by that base.

    • D. The tasking is valid for that base.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. The tasking is valid for that base.
    Explanation
    When Manpower types a "P" in the "Task Stat" field during the wing-level verification process, it indicates that the tasking is valid for that base. This means that the base is capable of fulfilling the task and has the necessary resources to do so. The "P" stands for "valid" or "approved" in this context.

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  • 34. 

    (217) What is the basic difference between a shortfall and a reclama?

    • A. The reclama is the deficiency and the shortfall is the process that identifies the deficiency.

    • B. The shortfall is the deficiency and the reclama is the process that identifies the deficiency.

    • C. There is no difference because they are both the same.

    • D. The shortfall reports unavailability of manpower and reclama reports unavailability of equipment.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. The shortfall is the deficiency and the reclama is the process that identifies the deficiency.
    Explanation
    The explanation for the correct answer is that a shortfall refers to a deficiency or a lack of something, while a reclama is the process or action of identifying this deficiency. In other words, the shortfall is the actual deficiency itself, while the reclama is the process or action taken to recognize and address this deficiency. This means that the two terms are not the same and have distinct meanings and roles.

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  • 35. 

    (218) Which deployment function/system provides monitoring for deploying cargo and personnel from origin to destination?

    • A. In-transit visibility (ITV).

    • B. Logistics module (LOGMOD).

    • C. Installation deployment plan (IDP).

    • D. Global Decision Support System (GDSS).

    Correct Answer
    A. A. In-transit visibility (ITV).
    Explanation
    In-transit visibility (ITV) is the correct answer because it refers to the function/system that provides monitoring for deploying cargo and personnel from origin to destination. This means that ITV allows for real-time tracking and monitoring of the movement of cargo and personnel throughout the deployment process, ensuring visibility and accountability. The other options, such as Logistics module (LOGMOD), Installation deployment plan (IDP), and Global Decision Support System (GDSS), do not specifically focus on monitoring the deployment of cargo and personnel.

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  • 36. 

    (235) Which function is responsible for collecting deployment documents?

    • A. Cargo Deployment Function (CDF).

    • B. Deployed logistics planners.

    • C. Personnel representative.

    • D. Cargo representative.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Deployed logistics planners.
    Explanation
    Deployed logistics planners are responsible for collecting deployment documents. These planners are specifically assigned to handle the logistics and coordination of deployments, including the collection and organization of all necessary documents for the deployment process. They ensure that all required paperwork is completed and submitted correctly, and they work closely with personnel representatives and cargo representatives to gather the necessary documentation for a successful deployment.

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  • 37. 

    (209) Which function does the Installation Deployment Readiness Cell (IDRC) serve in with the responsibility of gathering and presenting decision-quality information to wing/installation leadership?

    • A. Unit deployment manager (UDM).

    • B. Focal point for all deployment and execution operations.

    • C. Wing/installation agency governing fraud, waste, and abuse reporting.

    • D. Office of primary responsibility (OPR) for base manpower requirements.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Focal point for all deployment and execution operations.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. Focal point for all deployment and execution operations. The Installation Deployment Readiness Cell (IDRC) serves as the central hub for all deployment and execution operations. It is responsible for gathering and presenting decision-quality information to wing/installation leadership. This includes coordinating and managing all aspects of deployment, such as personnel, equipment, and logistics, to ensure that deployments are executed efficiently and effectively. The IDRC acts as a focal point for all deployment-related activities and serves as a key resource for leadership in making informed decisions regarding deployments.

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  • 38. 

    (211) Participants in the Deployment Processing Working Group (DPWG) include Logistics Plans, Transportation,

    • A. Legal, Personnel, Communications, Medical, unit deployment managers (UDM), and tenant units.

    • B. Civil Engineering, Personnel, Communications, Medical, UDMs, and tenant units.

    • C. Manpower, Personnel, Communications, Civil Engineering, UDMs, and tenant units.

    • D. Manpower, Personnel, Communications, Medical, UDMs, and tenant units.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Manpower, Personnel, Communications, Medical, UDMs, and tenant units.
    Explanation
    The participants in the Deployment Processing Working Group (DPWG) include Manpower, Personnel, Communications, Medical, UDMs, and tenant units. This means that representatives from these departments or units are involved in the DPWG and contribute to the deployment processing efforts.

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  • 39. 

    (215) Which tool provides the Air Force with the ability to view or edit operations plan (OPLAN) related data from the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) Level 2 data, down to the personnel line level detail (LLD) and the Increment, Item, and Suffix cargo detail?

    • A. Air Force JOPES Editing Tool (AFJET).

    • B. Dynamic Query Tool (DQT).

    • C. Unit Personnel Management Rooster (UPMR).

    • D. Air Force DCAPES Editing Tool (AFDET).

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Air Force JOPES Editing Tool (AFJET).
    Explanation
    The Air Force JOPES Editing Tool (AFJET) is the correct answer because it specifically provides the Air Force with the ability to view or edit operations plan (OPLAN) related data from the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) Level 2 data, down to the personnel line level detail (LLD) and the Increment, Item, and Suffix cargo detail. The other options, Dynamic Query Tool (DQT), Unit Personnel Management Rooster (UPMR), and Air Force DCAPES Editing Tool (AFDET), do not have the same capabilities as AFJET in terms of accessing and manipulating this specific type of data.

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  • 40. 

    (216) What is compared when the AF Verification Capability (AFVC) process is conducted to find requirements that have been conflicted and/or contain erroneous data?

    • A. Information between Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) Reporting Tool (ART) and Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).

    • B. Information between Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES) and the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • C. Personnel assigned against personnel authorized.

    • D. Major command (MAJCOM) personnel assignments against operation plan (OPLAN) requirements.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Information between Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES) and the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).
    Explanation
    When the AF Verification Capability (AFVC) process is conducted to find requirements that have been conflicted and/or contain erroneous data, the information that is compared is between Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES) and the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES). This comparison helps identify any discrepancies or errors in the data between these two systems, allowing for necessary corrections to be made.

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  • 41. 

    (217) How are reclamas impacted when the Unit Type Code (UTC) Availability and Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) Reporting Tool (ART) are properly maintained allowing functional area managers (FAM) accurate visibility for proper UTC assignment?

    • A. There is no impact.

    • B. The reclamas will never occur.

    • C. The reclamas will increase.

    • D. The reclamas will be minimized.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. The reclamas will be minimized.
    Explanation
    When the Unit Type Code (UTC) Availability and Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) Reporting Tool (ART) are properly maintained, functional area managers (FAM) have accurate visibility for proper UTC assignment. This means that they can effectively assign the appropriate UTCs to meet the needs of the mission. As a result, reclamas, which are requests for additional resources or changes to existing resources, will be minimized. With accurate visibility and proper UTC assignment, there is less likelihood of reclamas occurring.

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  • 42. 

    (222) Which product or system provides a capability for planners to produce reports from the time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD)?

    • A. Manpower and Equipment Force Packaging System (MEFPAK).

    • B. Installation Deployment Plan (IDP).

    • C. Single Mobility System (SMS).

    • D. Rapid Query Tool (RQT).

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Rapid Query Tool (RQT).
    Explanation
    The Rapid Query Tool (RQT) is the correct answer because it provides a capability for planners to produce reports from the time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD). The RQT allows users to query and retrieve information from the TPFDD database, which includes data on the availability and movement of forces and equipment. Planners can use the RQT to generate reports that provide them with the necessary information for planning and decision-making purposes. The other options, Manpower and Equipment Force Packaging System (MEFPAK), Installation Deployment Plan (IDP), and Single Mobility System (SMS), do not specifically provide this capability.

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  • 43. 

    (222) Which Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) standard reference file contains the deployment data for all approved Department of Defense (DOD) unit type codes (UTC)?

    • A. Mission file.

    • B. Characteristics file.

    • C. Geographical location file (GEOFILE).

    • D. Type unit characteristics (TUCHA) file.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Type unit characteristics (TUCHA) file.
    Explanation
    The Type unit characteristics (TUCHA) file contains the deployment data for all approved Department of Defense (DOD) unit type codes (UTC) in the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) standard reference files. This file provides information on the specific characteristics and capabilities of each unit type code, allowing for effective planning and execution of joint operations. The TUCHA file is an essential resource for military planners and decision-makers in coordinating and deploying DOD units.

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  • 44. 

    (226) The Installation Deployment Plan (IDP) must have the flexibility to process a single individual and be

    • A. rewritten annually.

    • B. abandoned if required due to deployments.

    • C. flexible enough to deploy forces from other bases.

    • D. robust enough to cover the base’s largest possible deployment.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. robust enough to cover the base’s largest possible deployment.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. The Installation Deployment Plan (IDP) must be robust enough to cover the base's largest possible deployment. This means that the plan should be able to handle and accommodate the deployment of a large number of forces if necessary. It should have the capacity and resources to support a significant deployment without being overwhelmed or compromised. This ensures that the base is adequately prepared for any potential deployment scenario, regardless of its size or scale.

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  • 45. 

    (227) The first step in creating an installation deployment plan (IDP) must be

    • A. determining the maximum simultaneous deployment capability.

    • B. acquiring copies of another installation’s deployment plans.

    • C. reviewing current Central Command Air Forces (CENTAF) reporting instructions.

    • D. holding a Deployment Process Working Group.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. determining the maximum simultaneous deployment capability.
    Explanation
    The first step in creating an installation deployment plan (IDP) should be determining the maximum simultaneous deployment capability. This is important because it helps in understanding the capacity of the installation to handle multiple deployments at the same time. By knowing the maximum simultaneous deployment capability, the IDP can be designed to ensure that the installation can effectively manage and support the deployment operations without exceeding its capacity. This step sets the foundation for the rest of the IDP and ensures that the plan is realistic and feasible.

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  • 46. 

    (230) This is a required Personnel Deployment Function (PDF) station.

    • A. Emergency Data Station.

    • B. Identification Station.

    • C. Medical Station.

    • D. Finance Station.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Medical Station.
    Explanation
    This station is described as a required Personnel Deployment Function (PDF) station, indicating that it is necessary for personnel deployment purposes. The fact that it is required suggests that it serves a critical function in the deployment process. The options of Emergency Data Station, Identification Station, and Finance Station do not necessarily align with the concept of personnel deployment. However, a Medical Station would be essential in ensuring the health and well-being of personnel before they are deployed, making it the most suitable answer.

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  • 47. 

    (231) This is an equipment requirement for the Unit Deployment Control Center (UDCC).

    • A. Radio-frequency identification (RFID) scanners.

    • B. Robust communications.

    • C. Magnetic tape recorder.

    • D. Wireless internet.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Robust communications.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. Robust communications. The Unit Deployment Control Center (UDCC) requires a strong and reliable communication system to effectively coordinate and manage the deployment of units. Robust communications ensure that important information and instructions can be transmitted quickly and accurately, allowing for efficient decision-making and coordination of resources. This is crucial in military operations where timely and effective communication is essential for mission success.

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  • 48. 

    (205) These types of assessments provides the status of each unit type code (UTC) in the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) library.

    • A. Supervisors.

    • B. Unit commanders.

    • C. Major commands (MAJCOM).

    • D. Headquarters USAF (HAF).

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Unit commanders.
    Explanation
    Unit commanders are responsible for the status of each unit type code (UTC) in the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) library. This means that they have the authority and accountability to ensure that the UTCs under their command are properly maintained and ready for deployment. Supervisors may have some oversight, but it is ultimately the unit commanders who are responsible for the status of the UTCs. Major commands (MAJCOM) and Headquarters USAF (HAF) may have broader oversight and policy-making roles, but they are not directly responsible for the status of individual UTCs.

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  • 49. 

    (205) Unit type code (UTC) assessments are based on all of the following aspects of the UTC except the

    • A. ability to perform the capability defined by the mission capability (MISCAP) statement.

    • B. capacity to fulfill the complete equipment requirements.

    • C. capacity to fulfill the standard manpower requirements.

    • D. ability to be tailored.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. ability to be tailored.
    Explanation
    Unit type code (UTC) assessments are based on various aspects of the UTC, such as the ability to perform the capability defined by the mission capability (MISCAP) statement, the capacity to fulfill the complete equipment requirements, and the capacity to fulfill the standard manpower requirements. However, the ability to be tailored is not considered in the assessments. This means that the UTC may not necessarily be customizable or adaptable to different situations or requirements.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 05, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Catherine Halcomb
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