World's Hardest Mega Quiz On Software Testing!

1. Q. 174: Failure is _________

Incorrect program behaviour due to a fault in the program

Bug found before product Release

Bug found after product Release

Bug found during Design phase

2. With a highly experienced tester with a good business background which approach to defining test procedures would be effective and more efficient for a project under severe time presure ?

High level outline of the test conditions and general steps to take

Every step in the test spelled out in detail

High level outline of the test conditions with the steps to take discussed in detail with another experienced tester

Detailed documentation of all test cases andcareful records of each step taken in the testing.

3. Q. 456: Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

Regression testing

Integration testing

System testing

User acceptance testing

4. Component Testing is also called as:
^{i. Unit Testing

ii. Program Testing

iii. Module Testing

iv. System Component Testing}

I,ii,iii are true and iv is false

I,ii,iii,iv are false

I,ii,iv are true and iii is false

All of above are true

Learning objective 2.2.1

Explanation

Learning objective 2.2.1

5. Q. 386: What is the purpose of test exit criteria in the test plan?

To specify when to stop the testing activity

To set the criteria used in generating test inputs

To ensure that the test case specification is complete

To know when a specific test has finished its execution

6. Q. 457: Which of the following is false?

Incidents should always be fixed.

An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.

Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.

An incident can be raised against documentation.

7. Q. 453: Which of the following is a form of functional testing?

Boundary value analysis

Usability testing

Performance testing

Security testing

8. Q. 192: Acceptance test cases are based on what?

Requirements

Design

Code

Decision table

9. Q. 190: A common test technique during component test is

Statement and branch testing

Usability testing

Security testing

Performance testing

10. Q. 463: Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?

Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.

Incidents may be raised against user requirements.

Incidents require investigation and/or correction.

Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.

11. White Box Techniques are also called as:

Structural Testing

Design Based Testing

Error Guessing Technique

Experience Based Technique

Learning objective 2.3.3

Explanation

Learning objective 2.3.3

12. Q. 183: Statement Coverage will not check for the following.

Missing Statements

Unused Branches

Dead Code

Unused Statement

13. Q. 467: Error guessing:

Supplements formal test design techniques.

Can only be used in component, integration and system testing.

Is only performed in user acceptance testing.

Is not repeatable and should not be used.

14. Q. 174: Failure is _________

Incorrect program behaviour due to a fault in the program

Bug found before product Release

Bug found after product Release

Bug found during Design phase

15. Q. 304: Which tool will be used to test the flag memory leaks and unassigned pointers

Dynamic analysis tool

Static Analysis tool.

Maintenance tool.

Configuration tool.

16. Which of the following tools will you use to detect a memory leak ?

Dynamic analysis

Memory analysis

State analysis

Coverage analysis

17. Q. 165: CAST stands for

Computer Aided Software Testing

Computer Aided Software Tools

Computer Analysis Software Techniques

None

18. Q. 163: EULA stands for

End Usability License Agreement

End User License Agreement

End User License Arrangement

End User License Attachment

19. Q. 475: An important benefit of code inspections is that they:

Enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.

Can be performed by the person who wrote the code.

Can be performed by inexperienced staff.

Are cheap to perform.

20. Q. 161: Drivers are tools used to control and operate tge software being testeD.

True

False

21. Which of the following will not be checked in statement testing ?

Missing statements

Unreachable code

Unused statement

Unused branches

22. What is the MAIN focus of acceptance testing?

Testing for a business perspective.

Finding faults in the system.

Ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users.

Testing the system with other systems.

23. Q. 147: What is the normal order of activities in which software testing is organized?

Unit, integration, system, validation

System, integration, unit, validation

Unit, integration, validation, system

None of the above

24. Q. 416: Equivalence partitioning consists of various activities:

Ensure that test cases test each input and output equivalence class at least once

Identify all inputs and all outputs

Identify equivalence classes for each input

All of the above

25. Q. 415: Verification activities during design stages are

Reviewing and Inspecting

Inspecting and Testing

Reviewing and Testing

Reviewing, Inspecting and Testing.

26. Q. 143: Configuration and compatibility testing are typically good choices for outsourcing

True

False

27. Q. 372: Which of the following activities differentiate a walkthrough from a formal
review?

A walkthrough does not follow a defined process

For a walkthrough individual preparation by the reviewers is optional

A walkthrough requires meeting

A walkthrough finds the causes of failures, while formal review finds the failures

28. Q. 141: A formal assessment of a work product conducted by one or more qualified
independent reviewer to detect defects.

Inspection.

Walkthrough.

Review

Non Conformance

29. A risk-based approach to testing provides proactive opportunities to reduce the levels of product risk, starting in the initial stages of a project

True

False

30. Q. 140: Quality Assurance is the process by which product quality is compared with the application standards and the action taken when nonconformance is detected.

True

False

31. Q. 370: In system testing...

Both functional and non-functional requirements are to be tested

Only functional requirements are tested; non-functional requirements are validated in a review

Only non-functional requirements are tested; functional requirements are validated in a review

Only requirements which are listed in the specification document are to be tested

32. Q. 203: Which of the following is not a static testing technique

Error guessing

Walkthrough

Data flow analysis

Inspections

33. Q. 486: Which of the following are disadvantages of capturing tests by recording the actions of a manual tester?
i The script may be unstable when unexpected events occur.
ii Data for a number of similar tests is automatically stored separately from the script.
iii Expected results must be added to the captured script.
iv The captured script documents the exact inputs entered by the tester.
v When replaying a captured test, the tester may need to debug the script if it doesn’t play correctly.

I, iii, iv, v.

Ii, iv and v.

I, ii and iv.

I and v.

34. Q. 133: Equivalence testing divides the input domain into classes of data from which
test cases can be derived to reduce the total number of test cases that must be
developed.

True

False

35. Beta testing is:

Performed by customers at their own site

Performed by customers at their software developer’s site

Performed by an independent test team

Useful to test bespoke software or Useful to test software developed for a specific customer or user.

36. Q. 122: One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts numeric values in the range of 18 to 25. Identify the invalid Equivalance class

17

19

24

21

37. Q. 321: What is failure?

Deviation from expected result to actual result

Defect in the software.

Error in the program code.

Fault in the system.

38. Which statement about the function of a static analysis tool is true?

Gives quality information about the code without executing it.

Checks expected results against actual results.

Can detect memory leaks.

Gives information about what code has and has not been exercised.

39. Q. 59: Bug life cycle

Open, Assigned, Fixed, Closed

Open, Fixed, Assigned, Closed

Assigned, Open, Closed, Fixed

Assigned, Open, Fixed, Closed

40. Q. 287: We use the output of the requirement analysis, the requirement specification
as the input for writing:

User Acceptance Test Cases

Integration Level Test Cases

Unit Level Test Cases

Program specifications

41. Q. 73: Arc testing is known as

Branch testing

Agile testing

Beta testing

Ad-hoc testing

42. Q. 430: Functional tests can be performed at all test levels

True

False

43. The difference between re-testing and regression testing is

Re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects

Re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests

Re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier

Re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment

Re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers

44. Why are both specification-based and structure-based testing techniques useful?

They find different types of defect.

Using more techniques is always better

Both find the same types of defect.

Because specifications tend to be unstructured

45. A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT:

Generating expected outputs

Replaying inputs according to a programmed script

Comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes

Recording test inputs

Reading test values from a data file

46. Q. 366: What makes an inspection different from other review types?

It is led by a trained leader, uses formal entry and exit criteria and checklists

It is led by the author of the document to be inspected

It can only be used for reviewing design and code

It is led by the author, uses checklists, and collects data for improvement

47. Who would USUALLY perform debugging activities?

Developers.

Analysts.

Testers.

Incident Managers.

48. Why are error guessing and exploratory testing good to do?

They can find defects missed by specification-based and structure-based techniques.

They don't require any training to be as effective as formal techniques.

They can be used most effectively when there are good specifications.

They will ensure that all of the code or system is tested.

49. Which of the following is TRUE?

Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing fixes to a set of defects.

50. Q. 360: Which of the following is a static test?

Code inspection

Coverage analysis

Usability assessment

Installation test

51. Q. 400: A risk-based approach to testing provides proactive opportunities to reduce the
levels of product risk, starting in the initial stages of a project

True

False

52. What is the primary difference between the test plan, the test design specification, and the test procedure specification?

53. Q. 441: Test Plan

Road map for testing

Tells about the actual results and expected results

Both a and b

None of the above

54. Q. 349: Increasing the quality of the software, by better development methods, will
affect the time needed for testing (the test phases) by:

Reducing test time

No change

Increasing test time

Can’t say

55. What is a potential risk in using tools to support testing?

Unrealistic expectations, expecting the tool to do too much.

Insufficient reliance on the tool, i.e. still doing manual testing when a test execution tool has been purchased.

The tool may find defects that aren't there.

The tool will repeat exactly the same thing it did the previous time.

56. Which of the following are advanced scripting techniques for test execution tools?

Data-driven and keyword-driven

Data-driven and capture-driven

Capture-driven and keyhole-driven

Playback-driven and keyword-driven

57. Match the following terms and statements. 1.Decision Table Testing 2.Decision Testing 3.State Transition Testing 4.Exploratory Testing W. Testing carried out with min test planning. X. A test technique used which may be used to verify different system depending oncurrent conditions or previous history. Y. A test technique which combines combinations of inputs that might not otherwise havebeen exercised during testing. Z. A form of control flow testing based on decision outcomes.

1Y, 2Z, 3X, 4W.

1X ,2W, 3Z, 4Y.

1Z, 2X, 3W, 4Y.

1Z, 2Y, 3X, 4W.

58. Q. 395: V-Model is:

A software development model that illustrates how testing activities integrate with software development phases

A software life-cycle model that is not relevant for testing

The official software development and testing life-cycle model of ISTQB

A testing life cycle model including unit, integration, system and acceptance phases

59. Bug life cycle

Open, Assigned, Fixed, Closed

Open, Fixed, Assigned, Closed

Assigned, Open, Closed, Fixed

Assigned, Open, Fixed, Closed

60. Q. 438: Random Testing

Program is tested randomly sampling the input.

A black-box testing technique

Both A. and B.

None of the above.

61. Use case testing is useful for which of the following? P. Designing acceptance tests with users or customers. Q. Making sure that the mainstream business processes are tested. R. Finding defects in the interaction between components. S. Identifying the maximum and minimum values for every input field. T. Identifying the percentage of statements exercised by a sets of tests.

P, Q and R

Q, S and T

P,Q and S

R, S and T

62. A risk-based approach to testing provides proactive opportunities to reduce the levels of product risk, starting in the initial stages of a project

True

False

63. What statement about static analysis is true?

With static analysis, defects can be found that are difficult to find with dynamic testing.

Compiling is not a form of static analysis.

When properly performed, static analysis makes functional testing redundant.

Static analysis finds all faults.

64. Which of the following is TRUE?

Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing fixes to a set of defects.

65. Q. 277: Impact Analysis helps to decide:

How much regression testing should be done.

Exit Criteria

How many more test cases need to written.

Different Tools to perform Regression Testing

66. We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:

Each test stage has a different purpose.

It is easier to manage testing in stages.

We can run different tests in different environments

The more stages we have, the better the testing.

67. Q. 447: Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?

Statement testing

Path testing

Data flow testing

State transition testing

68. Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing:

No, because they apply to development documentation

No, because they are normally applied before testing

No, because they do not apply to the test documentation

Yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality

Yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities

69. Which one of the following life cycle models may have more, fewer or different levels of development and testing ( e.g : there may be component integration testing after component testing ) , depending on the project and software product.

V-Model

Waterfall Model

Spiral Model

RAD Model

70. Q. 163: EULA stands for

End Usability License Agreement

End User License Agreement

End User License Arrangement

End User License Attachment

71. Q. 161: Drivers are tools used to control and operate tge software being testeD.

True

False

72. Q. 193: Which one of the following are non-functional testing methods?

System testing

Usability testing

Performance testing

Both B & C

73. Q. 152: A series of probing questions about the completeness and attributes of an
application system is called

Checklist

Checkpoint review

Decision table

Decision tree

74. Q. 265: Success Factors for a review include:
i. Each Review does not have a predefined objective
ii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively
iii. Management supports a good review process.
iv. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement.

Ii,iii,iv are correct and i is incorrect

Iii , i , iv is correct and ii is incorrect

I , iii , iv , ii is in correct

Ii is correct

75. Q. 134: When to stop Testing?

Stop when scheduled time for testing expires

Stop if 75% of the pre-defined number of errors is detected.

Stop when all the test cases execute with detecting few errors.

None above

76. Q. 491: Consider the following statements:
i.100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
ii.100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii.100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv.100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v.100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.

Ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False

I & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False

Ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False

Ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False

77. Q. 335: The later in the development life cycle a fault is discovered, the more
expensive it is to fix. Why?

The documentation is poor, so it takes longer to find out what the software is doing.

Wages are rising

The fault has been built into more documentation,code,tests, etc

None of the above

78. Q. 281: In case of Large Systems :

Only few tests should be run

Testing should be on the basis of Risk

Only Good Test Cases should be executed.

Test Cases written by good test engineers should be executed.

79. Q. 238: What information need not be included in a test incident report:

How to fix the fault

How to reproduce the fault

Test environment details

Severity, priority

The actual and expected outcomes

80. A thermometer measures temperature in whole degrees only. If the temperature
falls below 18 degrees, the heating is switched off. It is switched on again when the
temperature reaches 21 degrees. What are the best values in degrees to cover all
equivalence partitions?

15, 19 and 25.

17, 18 and19.

18, 20 and22.

16, 26 and 32.

81. Q. 398: Acceptance testing means

Testing performed on a single stand – alone module or unit of code

Testing after changes have been made to ensure that no unwanted changes were introduced

Testing to ensure that the system meets the needs of the organization and end user.

Users test the application in the developers environment

82. Q. 171: The number of tests to test all control statements equals the cyclomatic
complexity

True

False

83. Q. 166: The tool modifies the program code or manipulates tge operating environment
in any way is considered non-invasive

True

False

84. Q. 428: What are the 2 major components taken into consideration with risk analysis?

The probability the negative event will occur

The potential loss or impact associated with the event

Both A. and B.

Neither A. nor B.

85. Q. 470: In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to:

Find as many faults as possible.

Test high risk areas.

Obtain good test coverage.

Test whatever is easiest to test.

86. Q. 473: Integration testing in the small:

Tests the individual components that have been developed.

Tests interactions between modules or subsystems.

Only uses components that form part of the live system.

Tests interfaces to other systems.

87. Q. 200: What is the difference between testing software developed by contractor
outside your country, versus testing software developed by a contractor within your
country?

Does not meet people needs

Cultural difference

Loss of control over reallocation of resources

Relinquishments of control

88. Q. 129: Majority of system errors occur in the _________ phase

Requirements Phase.

Analysis and Design Phase

Development Phase

Testing Phase

89. Q. 126: In which phase static tests are used

Requirements

Design

Coding

All of the above

90. Q. 412: _________ reviews are often held with just the programmer who wrote the
code and one or two other programmers or testers.

Formal Reviews

Peer Reviews

Semi Formal Reviews

All of the above

91. Q. 76: The __________ testing is performed at the developing organization’s site

Unit testing

Regression testing

Alpha testing

Integration testing

92. Q. 65: Which of the following is the standard for the Software product quality

ISO 1926

ISO 829

ISO 1012

ISO 1028

93. Q. 68: Use cases can be performed to test

Performance testing

Unit testing

Business scenarios

Static testing

94. Q. 50: Measurement dysfunction is a problem because:

You are measuring the wrong thing and thus reaching the wrong conclusions.

All of the above.

95. Q. 210: How much testing is enough

This question is impossible to answer

The answer depends on the risks for your industry, contract and special requirements

The answer depends on the maturity of your developers

The answer should be standardized for the software development industry

96. Which of the following is among the typical tasks of a test leader?

Develop system requirements, design specifications and usage models.

Handle all test automation duties.

Keep tests and test coverage hidden from programmers.

Gather and report test progress metrics.

97. Given the following decision table: Which of the following test cases and expected results is VALID?

23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.

51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 500.

31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 70 and excess is 2,500.

43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 1,000.

98. Q. 342: Testware (test cases, test dataset)

Needs configuration management just like requirements, design and code

Should be newly constructed for each new version of the software

Is needed only until the software is released into production or use

Does not need to be documented and commented, as it does not form part of the released software system

99. Q. 216: A regression test:

Will always be automated

Will help ensure unchanged areas of the software have not been affected

Will help ensure changed areas of the software have not been affected

Can only be run during user acceptance testing

100. According to the ISTQB Glossary, what is a test level?

A group of test activities that are organized together.

One or more test design specification documents.

A test type.

An ISTQB certification.

101. Which of the following statements about early test design are true and which are false? 1. Defects found during early test design are more expensive to fix. 2. Early test design can find defects. 3. Early test design can cause changes to the requirements. 4. Early test design takes more effort.

1 and 3 are true. 2 and 4 are false.

2 is true. 1, 3 and 4 are false.

2 and 3 are true. 1 and 4 are false.

2, 3 and 4 are true. 1 is false.

102. What statement about reviews is true?

Inspections are led by a trained moderator, whereas technical reviews are not necessarily.

Technical reviews are led by a trained leader, inspections are not.

In a walkthrough, the author does not attend.

Participants for a walkthrough always need to be thoroughly trained.

103. A regression test:

Is only run once.

Will always be automated.

Will check unchanged areas of the software to see if they have been affected.

Will check changed areas of the software to see if they have been affected.

104. Q. 375: Which of the following is true

Testing is the same as quality assurance

Testing is a part of quality assurance

Testing is not a part of quality assurance

Testing is same as debugging

105. ‘Defect Density’ calculated in terms of

The number of defects identified in a component or system divided by the size of the component orthe system

The number of defects identified in the component or system divided by the number of defects foundby a test phase

The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by the size of the system

106. Q. 252: Expected results are:

Only important in system testing

Only used in component testing

Never specified in advance

Most useful when specified in advance

Derived from the code

107. Non-functional testing includes:

Testing to see where the system does not function correctly.

Testing the quality attributes of the system including reliability and usability.

Gaining user approval for the system.

Testing a system feature using only the software required for that function.

108. Q. 436: Which review is inexpensive

Informal Review

Walkthrough

Technical review

Inspection

109. Which of the following artifacts can be examined by using review techniques?

Software code

Requirements specification

Test designs

All of the above

110. Which of the following is a true statement regarding the process of fixing emergency changes?

Just run the retest of the defect actually fixed.

111. Q. 173: Which of these are objectives for software testing?

Determine the productivity of programmers

Eliminate the need for future program maintenance

Eliminate every error prior to release

Uncover software errors

112. Q. 176: "How much testing is enough?"

This question is impossible to answer

This question is easy to answer

The answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and special requirements

This answer depends on the maturity of your developers

113. Q. 455: Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?

Syntax testing

Equivalence partitioning

Stress testing

Modified condition/decision coverage

114. Q. 168: _______ includes both Black box and White Box Testing features

Gray Box Testing

Hybrid Testing

A. & B.

None

115. What is a Test Level ?

One or more test design specification documents.

A test type.

A testing technique.

A group of test activities that are organized together.

116. Which test principle states that "A small number of modules contain most of the defects discovered during pre-release testing or show the most operational failures"

Defect clustering

Early testing

Pesticide paradox

Testing shows presence of defects

Learning objective 1.2.4

Explanation

Learning objective 1.2.4

117. Q. 423: Testing Process comprised of

Test Plan and Test Cases

Test log and Test Status

Defect Tracking

All of the above

118. Q. 182: One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is :

Lack of technical documentation

Lack of test tools on the market for developers

Lack of training

Lack of Objectivity

119. During which FUNDAMENTAL test process activity do we determine if more tests are needed?

Test implementation and execution

Test analysis and design

Test planning and control

Evaluating test exit criteria

120. Q. 185: To test a function, the programmer has to write a _________, which calls the
function to be tested and passes it test data.

Stub

Driver

Proxy

None of the above

121. Q. 178: Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:

Statement Coverage

Pole Coverage

Condition Coverage

Path Coverage

122. Q. 175: During the software development process, at what point can the test process
start?

When the code is complete.

When the design is complete.

When the software requirements have been approved.

When the first code module is ready for unit testing

123. Q. 267: Defects discovered by static analysis tools include:
i. Variables that are never used.
ii. Security vulnerabilities.
iii. Programming Standard Violations
iv. Uncalled functions and procedures

I , ii,iii,iv is correct

Iii ,is correct I,ii,iv are incorrect.

I ,ii, iii and iv are incorrect

Iv, ii is correct

124. Q. 168: _______ includes both Black box and White Box Testing features

Gray Box Testing

Hybrid Testing

A & B

None

125. Q. 167: Which test may not mimic real world situations

Functional testing

Structural Testing

All of the above

None of the above

126. Which of the following is a Key Characteristics of Walk Through?

Includes Metrics

Pre Meeting Preparations

Scenario , Dry Run , Peer Group

Formal Follow Up Process

Learning objective 3.2.3

Explanation

Learning objective 3.2.3

127. Q. 266: Which of the following helps in monitoring the Test Progress:
i. Percentage of Test Case Execution
ii. Percentage of work done in test environment preparation.
iii. Defect Information e.g. defect density, defects found and fixed
iv. The size of the testing Team and skills of the engineers

Iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect

I,ii,iii are correct and iv is incorrect

I,ii are correct and iii,iv are incorrect

I,iv are correct and ii , iii are incorrect

128. Q. 150: The principal attributes of tools and automation are

Speed & efficiency

Accuracy & precision

All of the above

None of the above

129. Factory acceptance testing is also known as _____________.

A. Pre-release tesing done at client site by

1

2

3

130. The cost of fixing a fault:

Is not important

Increases as we move the product towards live use

Decreases as we move the product towards live use

Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design

Can never be determined

131. Q. 373: Why is testing necessary?

Because testing is good method to make there are not defects in the software

Because verification and validation are not enough to get to know the quality of the software

Because testing measures the quality of the software system and helps to increase the quality

Because testing finds more defects than reviews and inspections.

132. What statement about expected outcomes is FALSE:

Expected outcomes are defined by the software’s behaviour

Expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code

Expected outcomes include outputs to a screen and changes to files and databases

Expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run

Expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times

133. IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except:

Test items

Test deliverables

Test tasks

Test environment

Test specification

134. Q. 371: Integration testing has following characteristics
I. It can be done in incremental manner
II. It is always done after system testing
III. It includes functional tests
IV. It includes non-functional tests

I, II and III are correct

I is correct

I, III and IV are correct

I, II and IV are correct

135. Q. 487: Which of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any life cycle model?

All document reviews involve the development team.

Some, but not all, development activities have corresponding test activities.

Each test level has test objectives specific to that level.

Analysis and design of tests begins as soon as development is complete.

136. Q. 488: The process of designing test cases consists of the following activities:
i. Elaborate and describe test cases in detail by using test design techniques.
ii. Specify the order of test case execution.
iii. Analyse requirements and specifications to determine test conditions.
iv. Specify expected results.
According to the process of identifying and designing tests, what is the correct order of these activities?

Iii, i, iv, ii.

Iii, iv, i, ii.

Iii, ii, i, iv.

Ii, iii, i, iv.

137. Q. 489: Which is the MOST important advantage of independence in testing?

An independent tester may find defects more quickly than the person who wrote the software.

An independent tester may be more focused on showing how the software works than the person who wrote the software.

An independent tester may be more effective at finding defects missed by the person who wrote the software.

138. Q. 130: The specification which describes steps required to operate the system and
exercise test cases in order to implement the associated test design

Test Case Specification

Test Design Specification

Test Procedure Specification

None

139. What are good practices for testing within the development life cycle?

Early test analysis and design.

Different test levels are defined with specific objectives.

Testers will start to get involved as soon as coding is done.

A and B above.

140. Which option best describes objectives for test levels with a life cycle model?

Objectives should be generic for any test level.

Objectives are the same for each test level.

The objectives of a test level don't need to be defined in advance.

Each level has objectives specific to that level.

141. Q. 121: Test Implementation and execution has which of the following major tasks?
i. Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts.
ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution.
iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.
iv. Determining the exit criteria.

I,ii,iii are true and iv is false

I,,iv are true and ii is false

I,ii are true and iii,iv are false

Ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

142. Unreachable code would best be found using:

Code reviews

Code inspections

A coverage tool

A test management tool

A static analysis tool

143. Q. 72: A software model that can’t be used in functional testing

Process flow model

State transaction model

Menu structure model

Plain language specification model

144. Q. 492: What is the difference between a project risk and a product risk?

145. Q. 62: Which is not a testing principle

Early testing

Defect clustering

Pesticide paradox

Exhaustive testing

146. What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?

An inspection is led by the authors, whilst a walkthrough is led by a trained moderator.

An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.

Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.

A walkthrough is led by the author, whilst an inspection is led by a trained moderator.

147. Which of the following characteristics and types of review processes belong together? 1. Led by the author 2. Undocumented 3. No management participation 4. Led by a trained moderator or leader 5. Uses entry and exit criteria s. Inspection t. Technical review u. Informal review v. Walkthrough

S = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1

S = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1

S = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4

S = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2

148. Q. 77: What is the main purpose of Informal review

Inexpensive way to get some benefit

Find defects

Learning, gaining understanding, effect finding

Discuss, make decisions, solve technical problems

149. Q. 409: Test basis documentation is analyzed in which phase of testing

Test Analysis

Test Design

Test Execution

Test Planning

150. What statement about static analysis is true?

With static analysis, defects can be found that are difficult to find with dynamic testing.

Compiling is not a form of static analysis.

When properly performed, static analysis makes functional testing redundant.

Static analysis finds all faults.

151. Q. 325: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of User Acceptance Testing?

Use of automated test execution tools.

Testing performed by users.

Testing against acceptance test criteria.

Integration of system with user documentation.

152. Q. 57: Maintenance releases and technical assistance centers are examples of which of the following costs of quality?

External failure

Internal failure

Appraisal

Prevention

153. Q. 56: Which is not the testing objectives

Finding defects

Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information

Preventing defects.

Debugging defects

154. Q. 259: Error guessing is best used

As the first approach to deriving test cases

After more formal techniques have been applied

By inexperienced testers

After the system has gone live

Only by end users

155. From a Testing perspective, what are the MAIN purposes of Configuration Management?: i) Identifying the version of software under test. ii) Controlling the version of testware items. iii) Developing new testware items. iv) Tracking changes to testware items. v) Analysing the need for new testware items.

Ii, iv and v.

Ii, iii and iv.i

I, ii and iv

I, iii and v

156. Which of the following is false?

Incidents should always be fixed.

An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.

Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.

An incident can be raised against documentation.

157. Which of the following is correct?

Impact analysis assesses the effect on the system of a defect found in regression testing.

Impact analysis assesses the effect of a new person joining the regression test team.

Impact analysis assesses whether or not a defect found in regression testing has been fixed correctly.

Impact analysis assesses the effect of a change to the system to determine how much regression testing to do.

158. Put the test cases that implement the following test conditions into the best order for the test execution schedule, for a test that is checking modifications of customers on a database. 1. Print modified customer record. 2. Change customer address: house number and street name. 3. Capture and print the on-screen error message. 4. Change customer address: postal code. 5. Confirm existing customer is on the database by opening that record. 6. Close the customer record and close the database. 7. Try to add a new customer with no details at all.

5, 4, 2, 1, 3, 7, 6

4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 7, 3

5, 4, 2, 1, 7, 3, 6

5, 1, 2, 3, 4, 7, 6

159. IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except:

Test items

Test deliverables

Test tasks

Test environment

Test specification

160. Which type of test design techniques does the following statement best describe a procedure to derive test cases based on the specification of a component?

Black Box Techniques.

White Box Techniques

Glass Box Techniques.

Experience Based Techniques.

161. What is beta testing?

Testing performed by potential customers at the developers location.

Testing performed by potential customers at their own locations.

Testing performed by product developers at their own locations.

162. Which of the following software change management activities is most vital to assessing the impact
of proposed software modifications?

Baseline identification

Configuration auditing

Change control

Version control

163. What is the KEY difference between preventative and reactive approaches to testing?

Preventative tests and reactive tests are designed as early as possible.

Preventative tests are designed early; reactive tests are designed after the software has been produced.

Preventative testing is always analytical; reactive testing is always heuristic.

Preventative tests are designed after the software has been produced; reactive tests are designed early in response to review comments.

164. Recovery testing is a system test that forces the software to fail and verifies that data recovery is properly performed. The following should be checked for correctness 1. Re-initialization 2. Restart 3. Data Recovery 4. Check Point Mechanism

1 and 2

1, 2 and 3

1, 2, 3 and 4

2 and 4

165. Q. 275: Test Conditions are derived from:

Specifications

Test Cases

Test Data

Test Design

166. Use case testing is useful for which of the following? P. Designing acceptance tests with users or customers. Q. Making sure that the mainstream business processes are tested. R. Finding defects in the interaction between components. S. Identifying the maximum and minimum values for every input field. T. Identifying the percentage of statements exercised by a sets of tests.

P, Q and R

Q, S and T

P,Q and S

R, S and T

167. Q. 435: Review is one of the methods of V&V. The other methods are

Inspection

Walkthrough

Testing

All of the above

168. Q. 212: Which of these can be successfully tested using Loop Testing methodology?

Simple Loops

Nested Loops

Concatenated Loops

All of the above

169. Non-functional testing includes:

Testing to see where the system does not function correctly.

Testing the quality attributes of the system including reliability and usability.

Gaining user approval for the system.

Testing a system feature using only the software required for that function.

170. Q. 439: Black-box testing technique is also called as structure based technique

True

False

171. Q. 334: An incident logging system

Only records defects

Is of limited value

Is a valuable source of project information during testing if it contains all incidents

Should be used only by the test team.

172. Which of the following is MOST characteristic of specification based (black-box)
techniques?

Test cases can be easily automated.

Test cases are independent of each other.

Test cases are derived systematically from models of the system .

Test cases are derived systematically from the delivered code.

173. Q. 353: What is the important criterion in deciding what testing technique to use?

How well you know a particular technique

The objective of the test

How appropriate the technique is for testing the application

Whether there is a tool to support the technique

174. Q. 355: Coverage measurement

Is nothing to do with testing

Is a partial measure of test thoroughness

Branch coverage should be mandatory for all software

Can only be applied at unit or module testing, not at system testing

175. Which of the following is the KEY characteristics of Walkthrough?

Pr e-meeting preparations

Formal follow-up process

Includes metrics

Scenario, Dry group, Peer group

176. Which of the following is most important to promote and maintain good relationships between testers and developers?

Understanding what managers value about testing.

Explaining test results in a neutral fashion.

Identifying potential customer work-arounds for bugs.

Promoting better quality software whenever possible.

177. Q. 148: The goal of a software tester is to find bugs, find them as early as possible and
make sure they get fixed.

True

False

178. If you are flying with an economy ticket, there is a possibility that you may get upgraded to business class, especially if you hold a gold card in the airline's frequent flier program. If you don't hold a gold card, there is a possibility that you will get 'bumped' off the flight if it is full and you check in late. This is shown in following Figure. Note that each box (i.e. statement) has been numbered. Three tests have been run: Test 1: Gold card holder who gets upgraded to business class Test 2: Non-gold card holder who stays in economy Test 3: A person who is bumped from the flight What is the statement coverage of these three tests?

60%

70%

80%

90%

179. Q. 293: Which of the following will be the best definition for Testing:

The goal / purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program works.

The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program is defect free.

The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program does what it is supposed to do.

Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects.

180. Q. 478: How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?

Metrics from previous similar projects

Discussions with the development team

Time allocated for regression testing

A. & B.

181. Q. 384: What test items should be put under configuration management?

The test object, the test material and the test environment

The problem reports and the test material

Only the test object. The test cases need to be adapted during agile testing

The test object and the test material

182. Q. 154: A white box testing technique that measures the number of or percentage of
decision directions executed by the test case designed is called

Condition coverage

Decision/Condition coverage

Decision Coverage

Branch coverage

183. Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test implementation and execution?

Measuring and analyzing results.

Reporting discrepancies as incidents.

Identifying test conditions or test requirements.

Assessing if more tests are needed.

184. Q. 418: Size of a project is defined in terms of all the following except

Person days

Person hours

Calendar months

None of the above

185. Q. 309: When do you stop testing?

When the specified number of faults are found.

When the test completion criteria are met.

When all high and medium priority tests are complete.

When all statements have been executed

186. Q. 291: Test planning has which of the following major tasks?
i. Determining the scope and risks, and identifying the objectives of testing.
ii. Determining the test approach (techniques,test items, coverage, identifying and
interfacing the teams involved in testing , testware)
iii. Reviewing the Test Basis (such as requirements,architecture,design,interface)
iv. Determining the exit criteria.

I,ii,iv are true and iii is false

I,,iv are true and ii is false

I,ii are true and iii,iv are false

Ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

187. Q. 308: Match the following:

1. Test estimation
2. Test control
3. Test monitoring

a. Measures of tracking process
b. Effort required to perform activities
c. Reallocation of resources

1-b, 2-c, 3-a

1-b, 2-a, 3-c

1-c, 2-a, 3-b

1-a, 2-b, 3-c

188. Q. 376: This part of a program is given:
WHILE (condition A) Do B
END WHILE
How many decisions should be tested in this code in order to achieve 100% decision
coverage?

2

Indefinite

1

4

189. For the program below, how many test cases are needed to achieve 100% statement coverage(SC) and 100% branch coverage(BC)? SWITCH PC ON START 'OUTLOOK' IF OUTLOOK OPEN SEND MAIL CLOSE OUTLOOK

SC = 1 ; BC = 2

SC = 1 ; BC = 1

SC = 2 ; BC = 2

SC = 2 ; BC = 1

190. Non-functional testing includes which of the following ?

Testing a system feature using only the software required for that action.

Testing to see where the function does not function properly.

Testing a system feature using only the software required for that function.

Testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability.

191. Q. 387:If a program is tested and 100% condition coverage is achieved, which of the
following coverage criteria is then guaranteed to be achieved?

100% branch coverage

100% condition coverage and 100% statement coverage

Equivalence class and boundary value coverage

No other white box coverage criterion is guaranteed to be fulfilled 100%

192. Q. 452: Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?

Features to be tested

Incident reports

Risks

Schedule

193. Q. 167: Which test may not mimic real world situations

Functional testing

Structural Testing

All of the above

None of the above

194. Which of the following is true about Formal Review or Inspection:
i. Led by Trained Moderator (not the author).
ii. No Pre Meeting Preparations
iii. Formal Follow up process.
iv. Main Objective is to find defects

Ii is true and i,iii,iv are false

I,iii,iv are true and ii is false

I,iii,iv are false and ii is true

Iii is true and i,ii,iv are false

Learning objective 3.2.1

Explanation

Learning objective 3.2.1

195. Analyse the following highly simplified procedure:
Ask: “What type of ticket do you require, single or return?”
IF the customer wants ‘return’
Ask: “What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?”
IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’
Say: “That will be £11:20”
ELSE
Say: “That will be £19:50”
ENDIF
ELSE
Say: “That will be £9:75”
ENDIF
Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all
the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all
replies given.

3

4

5

6

196. Ensuring that a test design start during the requirements definition phase is important to enable which of the following test objectives?

Preventing defects in the system.

Finding defects through dynamic testing.

Gaining confidence in the system.

Finishing the project on time.

197. Q. 302: Regression testing always involves

Testing whether a known software fault been fixed.

Executing a large number of different tests.

Testing whether modifications have introduced adverse side effects.

Using a test automation tool.

198. Q. 378: Which of the following is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the
following problem: An integer field shall contain values from and including 1 to and
including 15

Less than 1, 1 through 15, more than 15

Negative numbers, 1 through 15, above 15

Less than 1, 1 through 14, more than 15

Less than 0, 1 through 14, 15 and more

199. What is the MOST important factor for the success of a review ?

A reviewed test plan

Availability of tools to support the review process.

Trained participants and leaders.

A separate recorder during the review meeting.

200. Q. 393: Maintenance testing is:

Testing management

Synonym of testing the quality of service

Triggered by modifications, migration or retirement of existing software

Testing the level of maintenance by the vendor

World's Hardest Mega Quiz On Software Testing!

1. Q. 174: Failure is _________

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. With a highly experienced tester with a good business background which approach to defining test procedures would be effective and more efficient for a project under severe time presure ?

3. Q. 456: Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test toolsproviding test capture and replay facilities?

4. Component Testing is also called as:i. Unit Testing ii. Program Testing iii. Module Testing iv. System Component Testing

5. Q. 386: What is the purpose of test exit criteria in the test plan?

6. Q. 457: Which of the following is false?

7. Q. 453: Which of the following is a form of functional testing?

8. Q. 192: Acceptance test cases are based on what?

9. Q. 190: A common test technique during component test is

10. Q. 463: Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?

11. White Box Techniques are also called as:

12. Q. 183: Statement Coverage will not check for the following.

13. Q. 467: Error guessing:

14. Q. 174: Failure is _________

15. Q. 304: Which tool will be used to test the flag memory leaks and unassigned pointers

16. Which of the following tools will you use to detect a memory leak ?

17. Q. 165: CAST stands for

18. Q. 163: EULA stands for

19. Q. 475: An important benefit of code inspections is that they:

20. Q. 161: Drivers are tools used to control and operate tge software being testeD.

21. Which of the following will not be checked in statement testing ?

22. What is the MAIN focus of acceptance testing?

23. Q. 147: What is the normal order of activities in which software testing is organized?

24. Q. 416: Equivalence partitioning consists of various activities:

25. Q. 415: Verification activities during design stages are

26. Q. 143: Configuration and compatibility testing are typically good choices for outsourcing

27. Q. 372: Which of the following activities differentiate a walkthrough from a formalreview?

28. Q. 141: A formal assessment of a work product conducted by one or more qualifiedindependent reviewer to detect defects.

29. A risk-based approach to testing provides proactive opportunities to reduce the levels of product risk, starting in the initial stages of a project

30. Q. 140: Quality Assurance is the process by which product quality is compared with the application standards and the action taken when nonconformance is detected.

31. Q. 370: In system testing...

32. Q. 203: Which of the following is not a static testing technique

34. Q. 133: Equivalence testing divides the input domain into classes of data from whichtest cases can be derived to reduce the total number of test cases that must bedeveloped.

35. Beta testing is:

36. Q. 122: One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts numeric values in the range of 18 to 25. Identify the invalid Equivalance class

37. Q. 321: What is failure?

38. Which statement about the function of a static analysis tool is true?

39. Q. 59: Bug life cycle

40. Q. 287: We use the output of the requirement analysis, the requirement specificationas the input for writing:

41. Q. 73: Arc testing is known as

42. Q. 430: Functional tests can be performed at all test levels

43. The difference between re-testing and regression testing is

44. Why are both specification-based and structure-based testing techniques useful?

45. A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT:

46. Q. 366: What makes an inspection different from other review types?

47. Who would USUALLY perform debugging activities?

48. Why are error guessing and exploratory testing good to do?

49. Which of the following is TRUE?

50. Q. 360: Which of the following is a static test?

51. Q. 400: A risk-based approach to testing provides proactive opportunities to reduce thelevels of product risk, starting in the initial stages of a project

52. What is the primary difference between the test plan, the test design specification, and the test procedure specification?

53. Q. 441: Test Plan

54. Q. 349: Increasing the quality of the software, by better development methods, willaffect the time needed for testing (the test phases) by:

55. What is a potential risk in using tools to support testing?

56. Which of the following are advanced scripting techniques for test execution tools?

58. Q. 395: V-Model is:

59. Bug life cycle

60. Q. 438: Random Testing

62. A risk-based approach to testing provides proactive opportunities to reduce the levels of product risk, starting in the initial stages of a project

63. What statement about static analysis is true?

64. Which of the following is TRUE?

65. Q. 277: Impact Analysis helps to decide:

66. We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:

67. Q. 447: Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?

68. Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing:

69. Which one of the following life cycle models may have more, fewer or different levels of development and testing ( e.g : there may be component integration testing after component testing ) , depending on the project and software product.

70. Q. 163: EULA stands for

71. Q. 161: Drivers are tools used to control and operate tge software being testeD.

72. Q. 193: Which one of the following are non-functional testing methods?

73. Q. 152: A series of probing questions about the completeness and attributes of anapplication system is called

74. Q. 265: Success Factors for a review include:i. Each Review does not have a predefined objectiveii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectivelyiii. Management supports a good review process.iv. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement.

75. Q. 134: When to stop Testing?

77. Q. 335: The later in the development life cycle a fault is discovered, the moreexpensive it is to fix. Why?

78. Q. 281: In case of Large Systems :

79. Q. 238: What information need not be included in a test incident report:

80. A thermometer measures temperature in whole degrees only. If the temperaturefalls below 18 degrees, the heating is switched off. It is switched on again when thetemperature reaches 21 degrees. What are the best values in degrees to cover allequivalence partitions?

81. Q. 398: Acceptance testing means

3. Q. 456: Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

4. Component Testing is also called as:
^{i. Unit Testing

ii. Program Testing

iii. Module Testing

iv. System Component Testing}

27. Q. 372: Which of the following activities differentiate a walkthrough from a formal
review?

28. Q. 141: A formal assessment of a work product conducted by one or more qualified
independent reviewer to detect defects.

34. Q. 133: Equivalence testing divides the input domain into classes of data from which
test cases can be derived to reduce the total number of test cases that must be
developed.

40. Q. 287: We use the output of the requirement analysis, the requirement specification
as the input for writing:

51. Q. 400: A risk-based approach to testing provides proactive opportunities to reduce the
levels of product risk, starting in the initial stages of a project

54. Q. 349: Increasing the quality of the software, by better development methods, will
affect the time needed for testing (the test phases) by:

73. Q. 152: A series of probing questions about the completeness and attributes of an
application system is called

74. Q. 265: Success Factors for a review include:
i. Each Review does not have a predefined objective
ii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively
iii. Management supports a good review process.
iv. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement.

77. Q. 335: The later in the development life cycle a fault is discovered, the more
expensive it is to fix. Why?

80. A thermometer measures temperature in whole degrees only. If the temperature
falls below 18 degrees, the heating is switched off. It is switched on again when the
temperature reaches 21 degrees. What are the best values in degrees to cover all
equivalence partitions?

82. Q. 171: The number of tests to test all control statements equals the cyclomatic
complexity

83. Q. 166: The tool modifies the program code or manipulates tge operating environment
in any way is considered non-invasive

87. Q. 200: What is the difference between testing software developed by contractor
outside your country, versus testing software developed by a contractor within your
country?

90. Q. 412: _________ reviews are often held with just the programmer who wrote the
code and one or two other programmers or testers.

120. Q. 185: To test a function, the programmer has to write a _________, which calls the
function to be tested and passes it test data.

122. Q. 175: During the software development process, at what point can the test process
start?

123. Q. 267: Defects discovered by static analysis tools include:
i. Variables that are never used.
ii. Security vulnerabilities.
iii. Programming Standard Violations
iv. Uncalled functions and procedures

134. Q. 371: Integration testing has following characteristics
I. It can be done in incremental manner
II. It is always done after system testing
III. It includes functional tests
IV. It includes non-functional tests

138. Q. 130: The specification which describes steps required to operate the system and
exercise test cases in order to implement the associated test design