Week 2 Halliburton Ttp

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Week 2 Halliburton Ttp

This quiz will deal with a few different components in the study of sound, with specific reference to wave velocity, acoustic porosity, transmitters, Delta-T, P-wave, voltage, vertical resolution and electrode devices. See how much you know about it!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What type of wave travels fastest through a formation?
    • A. 

      Shear

    • B. 

      Mud

    • C. 

      Surface

    • D. 

      Compressional

  • 2. 
    Acoustic porosity services are NOTcapable of recording acoustic waves in
    • A. 

      Air-drilled holes

    • B. 

      Oil-based mud

    • C. 

      Freshwater-based mud

    • D. 

      Saltwater-based mud

  • 3. 
    Which of the following is not considered a body wave?
    • A. 

      Shear wave

    • B. 

      Compressional wave

    • C. 

      Stoneley wave

  • 4. 
    What does Delta-T represent?
    • A. 

      The time required for sound to travel from the transmitter to a receiver.

    • B. 

      The time required for sound to travel through a one foot interval of formation.

    • C. 

      The distance traveled by a direct wave from the transmitter through the formation and detected at the receiver.

  • 5. 
    Which of the following is not a practical advantage of increasing offset between transmitter and receiver?
    • A. 

      Potential for deeper depth of investigation beyond the altered zone

    • B. 

      Enables accurate data acquisition in large diameter boreholes

    • C. 

      Enables faster logging speeds

  • 6. 
    What effect do slots cut into the tool housing have on tool mode waves?
    • A. 

      Increased velocity

    • B. 

      Decreased travel times

    • C. 

      Increased travel times

    • D. 

      Decreased velocity

  • 7. 
    Compressional detla-T (Δtc) _____________ as formation porosity increases.
    • A. 

      Remains constant

    • B. 

      Decreases

    • C. 

      Increases

  • 8. 
    Select all of the following that are considered body waves..
    • A. 

      Mud Waves

    • B. 

      Compressional Waves

    • C. 

      Stoneley Waves

    • D. 

      Leaky Mode

    • E. 

      Shear Waves

  • 9. 
    Compressional detla-T (Δtc) is proportional to the reciprocal of P-wave velocity.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 10. 
    Depth-derived borehole compensation used by the Long Spaced Sonic compensates for both tools tilt and washouts.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 11. 
    Compressional wave velocity is a function of the elastic properties and bulk density of the medium through which it travels.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 12. 
    The BCDT compensates for the effects of tool tilt and washouts.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 13. 
    The distance between transmitter and receiver is known as:
    • A. 

      Offset

    • B. 

      Spacing

    • C. 

      Arrival

  • 14. 
    Acoustic porosity provides a measure of the effective porosity of the formation.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 15. 
    A cycle skip is when P-wave first arrivals at two receivers are selected on different cycles of the waveform.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 16. 
    Which of the following is the DFL's depth of investigation?.
    • A. 

      24 inches

    • B. 

      17 inches

    • C. 

      12 inches

    • D. 

      10 inches

  • 17. 
    Select all the potential applications of the DFL measurement when combined with the HRID measurement.
    • A. 

      Measure formation porosity

    • B. 

      Qualitative estimation of permeability

    • C. 

      Measure resistivity of the drilling fluid

    • D. 

      Determination of flushed zone water saturation

    • E. 

      Estimation of diameter of invasion

  • 18. 
    The physical law which states that resistivity is directly proportional to voltage and inversely proportional to current is:
    • A. 

      Ampere’s law

    • B. 

      Ohm’s law

    • C. 

      Faraday’s law

    • D. 

      Mitchell’s law

  • 19. 
    On the DFL, bucking current (BC) is:
    • A. 

      Emitted from the Ao electrode and returns to the upper and lower A1 electrodes.

    • B. 

      Emitted from the Ao electrode and returns to the current return electrode.

    • C. 

      Emitted from the current return electrode and returns to the Ao electrode.

    • D. 

      Emitted from the upper and lower A1 electrodes and returns to the Ao electrode.

  • 20. 
    On the DFL, measure current (MC) is:
    • A. 

      Emitted from the A0 electrode and returns to the upper and lower A1 electrodes.

    • B. 

      Emitted from the current return electrode and returns to the A0 electrode.

    • C. 

      Emitted from the A0 electrode and returns to the current return electrode.

    • D. 

      Emitted from the upper and lower A1 electrodes and returns to the A0 electrode.

  • 21. 
    Measure voltage (VE) and bucking voltage (VB) are measured between:
    • A. 

      The Ao electrode and the current return electrode

    • B. 

      Monitor electrodes positioned along the HRID sonde assembly

    • C. 

      The Ao electrode and the upper and lower A1 electrodes

    • D. 

      Receiver coils within the HRID sonde assembly

  • 22. 
    What is the vertical resolution of the DFL?
    • A. 

      < 17 inches

    • B. 

      < 10 inches

    • C. 

      < 12 inches

    • D. 

      < 5 inches

  • 23. 
    An electrode device such as the DFL operates by:
    • A. 

      Injecting a voltage into the formation and measuring a current between two electrodes.

    • B. 

      Inducing a current into the formation and measuring a voltage between two receiver coils.

    • C. 

      Injecting a current into the formation and measuring a voltage drop between two electrodes.

    • D. 

      Inducing a voltage into the formation and measuring a current between two receiver coils.

  • 24. 
    A primary objective of logging the Digitally Focused Laterolog (DFL) is to determine:
    • A. 

      Formation water resistivity (Rw)

    • B. 

      True resistivity of the uninvaded formation (Rt)

    • C. 

      Mud filtrate resistivity (Rmf)

    • D. 

      Flushed zone resistivity (Rxo)

  • 25. 
    Which of the following is a true statement?
    • A. 

      The DSNT is used to help estimate the volume of shale in a formation when combined with density porosity or sonic porosity.

    • B. 

      The DSNT is used to determine a value for true resitivity of a formation.

    • C. 

      The DSNT is often used as a quantitative estimate of permeability.

  • 26. 
    The DFL simultaneously emits survey current and bucking current. Voltage is measured between sets of monitor electrodes positioned along the HRID sonde assembly. With these measures of current and voltage, software determines resistivity using Ohm’s law.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 27. 
    Which of the following statements is true?
    • A. 

      Hydrogen concentration does not influence count rate.

    • B. 

      Low concentration of hydrogen results in lower count rates.

    • C. 

      High concentration of hydrogen results in lower count rates.

  • 28. 
    Stand-off is defined as:
    • A. 

      Any physical separation between a detector and formation

    • B. 

      The centralization of the detector in the borehole

    • C. 

      The distance between the tool and the borehole wall

  • 29. 
    Neutrons lose more energy in which type of collision?
    • A. 

      Glancing

    • B. 

      Direct

    • C. 

      Static

  • 30. 
    What effect does substituting chlorine and sodium for hydrogen have on the thermal neutron count rate?
    • A. 

      Decreases the count rate

    • B. 

      Increases the count rate

    • C. 

      Does not change the count rate

  • 31. 
    Which of the following is the most efficient element at slowing neutrons?
    • A. 

      Oxygen

    • B. 

      Hydrogen

    • C. 

      Helium

  • 32. 
    Hydrogen causes an energy loss of about __________ in each direct collision with a neutron.
    • A. 

      10%

    • B. 

      50%

    • C. 

      35%

    • D. 

      40%

  • 33. 
    Select all of the potential applications of logging the DSNT tool.
    • A. 

      Measure formation porosity

    • B. 

      Measure formation permeability

    • C. 

      Identification of gas bearing formations

    • D. 

      Determine formation lithology

    • E. 

      Determine formation resitivity

  • 34. 
    Which of the following statements about the DSNT is true?
    • A. 

      The larger the hole size, the higher the count rate detected

    • B. 

      The larger the hole size, the lower the count rate detected

    • C. 

      Large hole size has no effect on the count rate detected

  • 35. 
    Which of the following zero porosity formations has the highest SS/LS ratio?
    • A. 

      Sandstone

    • B. 

      Dolomite

    • C. 

      Limestone

  • 36. 
    Which level can the DSNT detect neutrons?
    • A. 

      10 eV– 0.1 eV

    • B. 

      1 MeV – 10 eV

    • C. 

    • D. 

      10 MeV – 1 MeV

  • 37. 
    Count rate for the DSNT thermal neutron detector is defined as:
    • A. 

      Number of thermal neutron multiplied by 100

    • B. 

      Number of epithermal neutrons multiplied by 100

    • C. 

      Number of thermal neutrons detected in one second

    • D. 

      Number of epithermal neutrons detected in one second

  • 38. 
    Which statement about the DSNT is true?
    • A. 

      The SS/LS ratio is inversely proportional to formation pososity.

    • B. 

      Different formation lithologies do not affect the formation porosity.

    • C. 

      Formation lithology must be known to determine accurate formation porosity.

  • 39. 
    What effect do slots cut into the tool housing have on tool mode waves?
    • A. 

      Increased velocity

    • B. 

      Increased travel times

    • C. 

      Decreased travel times

    • D. 

      Decreased velocity

  • 40. 
    Select the true statements regarding calibrating neutron tools at Halliburton.
    • A. 

      All tools are calibrated at the API test pit in Houston.

    • B. 

      A snow block is used to verify neutron tools at the well site..

    • C. 

      A horizontal water tank is used to calibrate neutron tools at the well site.

    • D. 

      The standard tool is calibrated at the API test pit in Houston.

  • 41. 
    Compressional wave velocity is a function of the elastic properties and bulk density of the medium through which it travels.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 42. 
    _______________ waves are surface waves created by the flexing of the interface between the borehole fluid and formation fluid.
    • A. 

      Shear

    • B. 

      Leaky mode

    • C. 

      Compound

    • D. 

      Stoneley

  • 43. 
    Which wave is the first to be detected at the receiver?
    • A. 

      Leaky mode

    • B. 

      Stoneley

    • C. 

      Compressional

    • D. 

      Shear

  • 44. 
    Which type of wave is the first to arrive at the receiver?
    • A. 

      Shear

    • B. 

      Mud

    • C. 

      Stoneley

    • D. 

      Compressional

  • 45. 
    • A. 

      8

    • B. 

      16

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      2

  • 46. 
    Which of the following is an example of a direct wave?
    • A. 

      Mud wave

    • B. 

      Stoneley wave

    • C. 

      Shear wave

    • D. 

      Compressional wave

  • 47. 
    Leaky mode and normal mode waves are used to determine formation properties.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 48. 
    In formations where shear velocity is slower than the velocity of the fluid pressure wave through the borehole, the FWS monopole transmitter will generate critically refracted shear waves.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 49. 
    Stoneley wave velocities are not important for the purpose of formation evaluation.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 50. 
    The minimum travel time from the transmitter to a receiver represents a:
    • A. 

      Reflected wave

    • B. 

      Totall refracted wave

    • C. 

      Critically refracted wave

  • 51. 
    Transmitter-to-receiver distance is known as:
    • A. 

      Offset

    • B. 

      Spacing

    • C. 

      Delta T

    • D. 

      Arrival

  • 52. 
    Select all of the following that are considered body waves.
    • A. 

      Shear Waves

    • B. 

      Leaky Mode

    • C. 

      Stoneley Waves

    • D. 

      Compressional Waves

    • E. 

      Mud Waves

  • 53. 
    The Full Wave Sonic uses a monopole transmitter to convert electrical energy to mechanical energy.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 54. 
    The Full Wave Sonic tool is NOTcapable of recording acoustic waves in _______________.
    • A. 

      Freshwater-based mud

    • B. 

      Oil-based mud

    • C. 

      Air-drilled holes

    • D. 

      Cased hole

  • 55. 
    Shear wave energy causes particle deformation that is __________ to the direction of energy propagation.
    • A. 

      Perpendicular

    • B. 

      Parallel

  • 56. 
    Select all of the following that are considered surface waves.
    • A. 

      Shear Waves

    • B. 

      Stoneley Waves

    • C. 

      Compressional Waves

    • D. 

      Leaky Mode

    • E. 

      Normal Mode

  • 57. 
    Transmitter-to-receiver distance is known as:
    • A. 

      Arrival

    • B. 

      Delta T

    • C. 

      Spacing

    • D. 

      Offset

  • 58. 
    Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of mud waves?
    • A. 

      Long travel times

    • B. 

      Low amplitude at a receiver

    • C. 

      Velocity is dependent on borehole fluid

    • D. 

      Short travel times

  • 59. 
    For a body wave to be critically refracted, the velocity of acoustic energy through the formation must be _________ than the velocity of the fluid pressure wave through the borehole.
    • A. 

      Faster

    • B. 

      Slower

  • 60. 
    Ampere's law predicts:
    • A. 

      Formation resistivity is directly proportional to current, and inversely proportional to voltage

    • B. 

      A magnetic field intersecting a coil of wire will induce an alternating current in that coil.

    • C. 

      Current in a coil of wire creates an electromotive force.

  • 61. 
    The magnitude of the primary ground loop current flow is _______________ to formation resistivity.
    • A. 

      Proportional

    • B. 

      Inversely proportional

  • 62. 
    The X-signal becomes significant and skin effect becomes a problem in:
    • A. 

      Low resistivity formations

    • B. 

      High resistivity formations

  • 63. 
    Which of the following statements is true?
    • A. 

      Electrokinetic processes relate to the movement of fluid at the borehole/formation interface, while electrochemical processes related to ionic imbalances between fluids.

    • B. 

      Electrokinetic processes relate to ionic imbalances between fluids, while electrochemical processes relate to the movement of fluid at the borehole/formation interface

  • 64. 
    Which of the following is the primary method of minimizing the mutual signal from the measured receiver voltage?
    • A. 

      Measurement of the X-signal in very low resistivity formations.

    • B. 

      Subtraction of sonde error from the measurement.

    • C. 

      The use of multiple transmitter and/or receiver coils.

    • D. 

      Correction for skin effect in very low resistivity formations.

  • 65. 
    Faraday's law predicts:
    • A. 

      A magnetic field intersecting a coil of wire will induce an alternating voltage in that coil.

    • B. 

      Resistivity of a formation is inversely proportional to voltage, and directly proportional to current.

    • C. 

      Current in a coil of wire creates an electromotive force.

  • 66. 
    Which of the following three voltages induced in a receiver coil is undesirable and is not related to formation resistivity?
    • A. 

      Mutual signal

    • B. 

      R-signal

    • C. 

      X-signal

  • 67. 
    Select all of the following that must be corrected in order to ensure the 91-inch HRID measurement accurately reflects Rt.
    • A. 

      Permeability

    • B. 

      Invaded mud filtrate

    • C. 

      Shoulder bed resitivity

    • D. 

      Borehole resistivity

    • E. 

      Formation water resistivity

  • 68. 
    The phenomenon by which the R-signal is no longer inversely proportional to resistivity in very low resistivity formations is known as:
    • A. 

      Sonde error

    • B. 

      Skin effect

    • C. 

      Mutual coupling

    • D. 

      Quadrature

  • 69. 
    The X-signal is ________ out of phase with the transmitter current.
    • A. 

      360°

    • B. 

      270°

    • C. 

      180°

    • D. 

      90°

  • 70. 
    Select all of the following synthetic depths of investigation of the HRID.
    • A. 

      91-inches

    • B. 

      60-inches

    • C. 

      39-inches

    • D. 

      30-inches

    • E. 

      24-inches

  • 71. 
    Select all of the following reasons that might result in different count rates for two different tool designs.
    • A. 

      Type of crystal used

    • B. 

      Different tool housings

    • C. 

      Half-lives of radioactive material

    • D. 

      Different crystal material

  • 72. 
    Which of the following is not a potential application of the natural gamma ray measurement of the NGRT, D4TG, or GTET?
    • A. 

      Determination of volume of shale

    • B. 

      Well-to-well correlation

    • C. 

      Determination of diameter of invasion

    • D. 

      Assists in determining formation lithology

    • E. 

      Depth control

  • 73. 
    Which of the following best describes the process by which a gamma ray is detected?
    • A. 

      A gamma ray interacts with the scintillation crystal to produce a small pulse of light. This light pulse enters the photo-multiplier tube and strikes a photo-sensitive cathode, emitting electrons. These electrons are multiplied as the avalanche through a series of dynodes, resulting in an electrical pulse that represents one gamma ray detected.

    • B. 

      A gamma ray interacts with the scintillation crystal to produce electrons. These electrons enter the photo-multiplier tube and strike a photo-sensitive cathode, emitting a small pulse of light. This pulse of light is amplified as it passes through a series of dynodes, resulting in an electrical pulse that represents one gamma ray detected.

  • 74. 
    What type of detector is used in the NGRT, D4TG, and GTET?
    • A. 

      Sodium iodide (NaI)

    • B. 

      Bismuth germinate (BGO)

    • C. 

      Cesium iodide (CsI)

    • D. 

      Sodium chloride (NaCl)

  • 75. 
    Select all of the following that apply to gamma rays.
    • A. 

      Spontaneously emitted from the nucleus of an atom

    • B. 

      Positively charged

    • C. 

      No atomic mass

    • D. 

      Low energy electromagnetic radiation

    • E. 

      No electrical charge

  • 76. 
    Which of the following tools is necessary if the specific concentrations of potasium, uranium, and thorium within a rock must be known?
    • A. 

      Dual Spaced Neutron Tool (DSNT)

    • B. 

      Natural Gamma Ray Tool (NGRT, D4TG, or GTET)

    • C. 

      Compensated Spectral Natural Gamma Tool (CSNG)

    • D. 

      Spectral Density Logging Tool (SDL)

  • 77. 
    Which of the following lithologies would likely result in the highest gamma ray count rate at a detector?
    • A. 

      Sandstone

    • B. 

      Limestone

    • C. 

      Shale

    • D. 

      Dolomite

  • 78. 
    The count rate measured by a natural gamma ray tool is proportional to:
    • A. 

      The total amount of only uranium and thorium in the formation.

    • B. 

      The energy level of potassium, uranium, and thorium in the formation.

    • C. 

      The total amount of potassium in the formation.

    • D. 

      The total amount of potassium, uranium, and thorium in the formation.

  • 79. 
    The GAPI unit is defined as:
    • A. 

      100 % of the thorium blanket calibrator's value.

    • B. 

      1/200th the sensitivity of the standard tool as measured in the API test pit.

    • C. 

      1/2000th the difference in measured count rates between the high and low intervals of the API test pit.

    • D. 

      1/200th the difference in measured count rates between the high and low intervals of the API test pit.

  • 80. 
    Halliburton tools are calibrated at the wellsite using:
    • A. 

      The API test pit

    • B. 

      Uranium blankets

    • C. 

      Halliburton test wells

    • D. 

      Thorium blankets

  • 81. 
    Which of the following elements are primarily responsible for natural gamma radiation?
    • A. 

      Thorium, potassium, and uranium

    • B. 

      Potassium, uranium, and calcium

    • C. 

      Americium, uranium, and potassium

    • D. 

      Polonium, potassium, and thorium

    • E. 

      Uranium, thorium, and americium

  • 82. 
    Half-life is defined as:
    • A. 

      The period of time needed for radioactivie material to gain one-half of its radioactivity.

    • B. 

      The period of time required for a radioactive material to lose one-half of its radioactivity.

    • C. 

      The period of time required before radiation emitted from radioactive material is at a safe level.

  • 83. 
    The primary objective of logging the Spontaneous Potential (SP) is to determine:
    • A. 

      A qualitative indicator of formation permeability.

    • B. 

      Mud filtrate resistivity (Rmf).

    • C. 

      True resistivity of the uninvaded formation (Rt).

    • D. 

      Formation porosity (Φ)

  • 84. 
    Select all of the potential applications of the SP measurement.
    • A. 

      Determination of formation water resistivity (Rw)

    • B. 

      Determination of volume of shale

    • C. 

      Estimation of diameter of invasion

    • D. 

      Well-to-well correlation

    • E. 

      Determination of bed thickness

  • 85. 
    Ionic exchange across the boundary of a permeable formation and an adjacent shale produces an electromotive force in the formation called the:
    • A. 

      Liquid junction potential

    • B. 

      Membrane potential

    • C. 

      Electrokinetic potential

  • 86. 
    Which of the following zones would show no deflection on the SP curve?
    • A. 

      Rmf < Rw

    • B. 

      Rmf > Rw

    • C. 

      Rmf = Rw

  • 87. 
    A majority of the deflection observed on an SP log is the result of:
    • A. 

      Electrokinetic potentials

    • B. 

      Liquid junction potential

    • C. 

      Membrane potential

    • D. 

      Electrochemical potentials

  • 88. 
    In which of the following conditions is the SP response valid?
    • A. 

      Oil-based mud

    • B. 

      Water-based mud

    • C. 

      Air-drilled holes

    • D. 

      Cased hole

  • 89. 
    The SP measurement is taken as a potential difference between:
    • A. 

      A downhole electrode and a current return electrode, both located on the tool.

    • B. 

      A downhole electrode and a reference electrode at the surface.

    • C. 

      A downhole electrode and casing.

    • D. 

      A downhole electrode and the wireline.

  • 90. 
    Under what condition is an electrokinetic potential created as fluid flows through the mud cake?
    • A. 

      Borehole drilled with light mud

    • B. 

      Hydrostatic pressure in the borehole balances formation pressure

    • C. 

      Borehole drilled with very heavy mud

    • D. 

      Hydrostatic pressure is less in the formation than in the borehole

  • 91. 
    Ionic exchange across the interface between two fluids of different salinities produces an electromotive force in the formation called the:
    • A. 

      Electrokinetic potential

    • B. 

      Liquid juction potential

    • C. 

      Membrane potential

  • 92. 
    Ionic exchange resulting from a pressure differential between the formation and the borehole produces an electromotive force called the:
    • A. 

      Electrochemical potential

    • B. 

      Electrokinetic potential

    • C. 

      Membrane potential

    • D. 

      Liquid junction potential

  • 93. 
      Based on the resistivity curve profile in Zone B what can you say about Rmf versus Rw
    • A. 

      Rmf is greater than Rw

    • B. 

      Rmf is less than Rw

    • C. 

      Rmf is equal to Rw

  • 94. 
      Based on the readings of the resistivity curves what can you say most probably about the saturations in Zone B
    • A. 

      Zone B is saturated with oil

    • B. 

      Zone B is saturated with gas

    • C. 

      Zone B is saturated with fresh water

    • D. 

      Zone B is saturated with salt water

  • 95. 
      Explain the log response in Zone A.
    • A. 

      Zone A is most probably a sandstone saturated with oil

    • B. 

      Zone A is most probably a sandstone saturated with gas

    • C. 

      Zone A is most probably a sandstone saturated with fresh water

    • D. 

      Zone A is most probably a sandstone saturated with salt water

    • E. 

      Zone A is most probably a shale

  • 96. 
      Why don't the deep resistivity and short guard curves overlay in Zone A.
    • A. 

      Borehole corrections have been applied to the readings

    • B. 

      Gas corrections have been applied to the readings

    • C. 

      Borehole corrections have NOT been applied to the readings

    • D. 

      The borehole fluid has invaded into Zone A

    • E. 

      The formation fluids are entering the wellbore in Zone A

  • 97. 
      Based on the resistivity curve profile what can you say about Rmf versus Rw
    • A. 

      Rmf is greater than Rw

    • B. 

      Rmf is less than Rw

    • C. 

      Rmf is equal to Rw

  • 98. 
      Based on the resistivity curve profile in Zone B, what can you say about Rmf versus Rw
    • A. 

      Rmf is greater than Rw

    • B. 

      Rmf is less than Rw

    • C. 

      Rmf is equal to Rw

  • 99. 
      Based on the resistivity curves what can you say about the response across Zone B
    • A. 

      There is an indication of high salt water saturation

    • B. 

      There is an indication of permeability

    • C. 

      There is an indication of zero porosity

    • D. 

      There is an indication of high neutron porosity

  • 100. 
      Based on the resistivity curve profile across Zone A, what can you say about the Rmf versus Rw?
    • A. 

      Rmf greater than Rw

    • B. 

      Rmf less than Rw

    • C. 

      Rmf equal to Rw

  • 101. 
      What does the deep resistivity curve in Zone A, at 1386' read?
    • A. 

      2 ohm-meters

    • B. 

      2002 ohm-meters

    • C. 

      2,020 ohm-meters

    • D. 

      2,200 ohm-meters

    • E. 

      20,000 ohm-meters

  • 102. 
    With all other parameters being the same, which of the following will cause an INCREASE in the neutron porosity for a given SANDSTONE formation on our log
    • A. 

      Formation Porosity increases

    • B. 

      Formation Porosity decreases

    • C. 

      Formation Temperature increases

    • D. 

      Formation Temperature decreases

    • E. 

      Hole size increases

    • F. 

      Hole size decreases

    • G. 

      Formation Pressure increases

    • H. 

      Formation Pressure decreases

    • I. 

      There is gas in the formation

    • J. 

      Using a Limestone matrix for the neutron porosity calculation

    • K. 

      Using a Sandstone matrix for the neutron porosity calculation

    • L. 

      Using a Dolomite matrix for the neutron porosity calculation

  • 103. 
    With all other parameters being the same, which of the following will cause an INCREASE in the density porosity for a given SANDSTONE formation on our log
    • A. 

      Formation Porosity increases

    • B. 

      Formation Porosity decreases

    • C. 

      There is gas in the formation

    • D. 

      Using a Limestone matrix for the neutron porosity calculation

    • E. 

      Using a Sandstone matrix for the neutron porosity calculation

    • F. 

      Using a Dolomite matrix for the neutron porosity calculation