Virology Slide 1-100

238 Questions

Settings
Please wait...
Biotechnology Quizzes & Trivia

A test that queries various random questions that are designed to test your knowledge on a specific subject matter like viruses. It might not be as easy as you think but just try it out to see how you will do.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the following viruses are DNA viruses?
    • A. 

      Pox

    • B. 

      Retro

    • C. 

      Corona

    • D. 

      Hepadna

    • E. 

      Herpes

  • 2. 
    Which of the following viruses are RNA viruses?
    • A. 

      Entero

    • B. 

      Paramyxo

    • C. 

      Papilloma

    • D. 

      Parvo

    • E. 

      Orthomyxo

  • 3. 
    What is the name of the membrane surrounding the virus core?
    • A. 

      Envelope

    • B. 

      Capsid

    • C. 

      Plasma membrane

    • D. 

      Capsule

  • 4. 
    What is the name for the major protein component of the shell of the core?
  • 5. 
    Viruses are considered ______
    • A. 

      Smallest of all self-replicating organisms

    • B. 

      Obligate intracellular parasites

    • C. 

      Filterable infectious agents

  • 6. 
    Viruses always contain DNA as their genetic material.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 7. 
    Viruses use their protein synthesis machinery to synthesize proteins using host molecules.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 8. 
    Which of the following is NOT a viral host?
    • A. 

      Bacteria

    • B. 

      Protozoa

    • C. 

      Fungi

    • D. 

      Algae

    • E. 

      All of the above are viral hosts

  • 9. 
    What is the name for the smallest virus?
  • 10. 
    What is the name for the largest virus?
  • 11. 
    Which is NOT a viral structure?
    • A. 

      Helical

    • B. 

      Hexagonal

    • C. 

      Ovoid

    • D. 

      Icosahedral

  • 12. 
    The cells, tissues, species that a virus can productively infect is called _____
  • 13. 
    The capacity of a cell, tissue, or species to support virus replication is called _____
  • 14. 
    The ability of a virus to infect a host is determined by what?
    • A. 

      Host cell receptor availability

    • B. 

      Presence of intracellular host cell factors

    • C. 

      Similarities between the host cell membranes and the viral membranes

    • D. 

      Host immune responses

  • 15. 
    The purpose of this structure is to form a stable protective shell for the genome.
  • 16. 
    What is the name for the discrete substructure of the virion which contains a nucleic acid-protein assembly package?
  • 17. 
    An icosahedral structure contains which of the following?
    • A. 

      5-fold axis of symmetry

    • B. 

      4-fold axis of symmetry

    • C. 

      3-fold axis of symmetry

    • D. 

      2-fold axis of symmetry

  • 18. 
    How many vertices does the icosahedron contain?
  • 19. 
    How many triangular faces does the icosahedron contain?
  • 20. 
    A host cell-derived lipid bilayer carrying viral glycoproteins that forms the outer layer of a virus particle.
  • 21. 
    Most viruses acquire their membrane by forming a lipid bilayer from their glycoproteins.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 22. 
    Viral envelope proteins are targeted to the appropriate membrane during translation.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 23. 
    Enveloped viruses enter the host via which mechanism of entry?
    • A. 

      Fusion with the plasma membrane

    • B. 

      Endocytosis

    • C. 

      Penetration through plasma membrane

  • 24. 
    Non-enveloped viruses enter the host via which entry mechanism?
    • A. 

      Fusion with plasma membrane

    • B. 

      Endocytosis

    • C. 

      Penetration through plasma membrane

  • 25. 
    In viral endocytosis, what causes the conformation change which releases the virus from the endosome into the cytosol?
  • 26. 
    Partial uncoating typically is used in the formation of the virus replication complex.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 27. 
    While viral uncoating is a poorly understood process, it is thought to be initiated by cellular signals such as receptor binding and pH change.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 28. 
    RNA viral replication normally occurs where?
    • A. 

      Nucleus

    • B. 

      Golgi

    • C. 

      Cytosol

    • D. 

      Endosomes

  • 29. 
    Replication of progeny genomic RNA molecules uses host RNA polymerase
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 30. 
    DNA viral replication typically occurs where?
    • A. 

      Nucleus

    • B. 

      Golgi

    • C. 

      Cytosol

    • D. 

      Endosomes

  • 31. 
    DNA viruses always use the host cell machinery for replication.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 32. 
    The synthesis of RNA and DNA viral proteins relies on host machinery.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 33. 
    The viral genome is typically incorporated at what point?
    • A. 

      During endosomal entry

    • B. 

      During the replication of host DNA/RNA

    • C. 

      As the core is assembled

    • D. 

      Right before the virus buds

  • 34. 
    For enveloped viruses, assembly typically occurs at the site of membrane acquisition
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 35. 
    Which release mechanism involves the accumulation of particles until critical mass is achieved?
    • A. 

      Lytic

    • B. 

      Exocytosis

    • C. 

      Budding

    • D. 

      Diffusion through the membrane

  • 36. 
    The majority of viruses result in mild symptoms.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 37. 
    Which are common manifestations of viral disease?
    • A. 

      Rashes

    • B. 

      Fever

    • C. 

      Muscle aches

    • D. 

      Swollen lymph nodes

  • 38. 
    Body defenses involve the combined action of _____
    • A. 

      Interferon

    • B. 

      Helper T cells

    • C. 

      Antibodies

    • D. 

      Cytotoxic T cells

  • 39. 
    (Chronic/Latent) Infections have detectable virus in tissue samples
  • 40. 
    (Chronic/Latent) infections generally occur after a lytic cycle.
  • 41. 
    (Chronic/Latent) infections can reactivate and result in recurrent infections
  • 42. 
    (Chronic/Latent) infections multiply at a slow rate
  • 43. 
    Which are considered possible effects of viral infections on host cells?
    • A. 

      Transformation

    • B. 

      Chronic infection

    • C. 

      Asymptomatic

    • D. 

      Lytic

  • 44. 
    The best target for treatment of viral diseases is the viral membrane
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 45. 
    What category of viral treatment options are immune modulating drugs?
  • 46. 
    Ribavirin is a viral treatment which is a synthetic analog of _____
    • A. 

      Cytosine

    • B. 

      Guanosine

    • C. 

      Adenosine

    • D. 

      Thymidine

  • 47. 
    Which drug is approved in the US for respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) and in combination with alpha interferon for HCV?
    • A. 

      Ribavirin

    • B. 

      Beta interferon 1

    • C. 

      Acyclovir

    • D. 

      Ritonavir

  • 48. 
    Ribavirin is a viral treatment used solely for RNA viruses.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 49. 
    Ribavirin has multiple mechanisms of action
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 50. 
    (Enveloped/Nonenveloped) DNA viruses can be double-stranded or single-stranded.
  • 51. 
    Which of the following is/are an example of an enveloped double stranded DNA virus?
    • A. 

      Poxvirus

    • B. 

      Parvovirus

    • C. 

      Herpesvirus

    • D. 

      Adenovirus

  • 52. 
    Which of the following is/are a ss nonenveloped DNA virus?
    • A. 

      Papillomavirus

    • B. 

      Hepadnavirus

    • C. 

      Polyomavirus

    • D. 

      Parvovirus

  • 53. 
    Which type of DNA virus produces eruptive skin pustules which leave scars?
    • A. 

      Adenoviruses

    • B. 

      Hepadnavirus

    • C. 

      Poxviruses

    • D. 

      Polyomavirus

  • 54. 
    Which of the following viruses is considered the largest and most complex animal virus?
    • A. 

      Poxviruses

    • B. 

      Herpesvirus

    • C. 

      Cytomegaloviruses

    • D. 

      Epstein-Barr Virus

  • 55. 
    Which of the following is a ubiquitous virus which infects lymphoid tissue and salivary glands
    • A. 

      Herpesvirus

    • B. 

      Adenovirus

    • C. 

      Epstein-Barr Virus

    • D. 

      Poxvirus

  • 56. 
    Which category of viruses contains the largest genome of all HUMAN viruses?
    • A. 

      Cytomegalovirus

    • B. 

      Herpesvirus

    • C. 

      Poxvirus

    • D. 

      Adenovirus

  • 57. 
    The poxviruses multiply where?
    • A. 

      Nucleus

    • B. 

      Golgi

    • C. 

      Cytoplasm

    • D. 

      Endosome

  • 58. 
    Poxviruses have specificity for which type of tissue/cell?
    • A. 

      Adipose tissue

    • B. 

      Lymphocytes

    • C. 

      Epidermal cells

    • D. 

      SQ connective tissue

  • 59. 
    Which are examples of human pox viruses?
    • A. 

      Adenopoxvirus

    • B. 

      Orthopoxvirus

    • C. 

      Molluscipoxvirus

    • D. 

      Simian poxvirus

  • 60. 
    What is the first disease to be eliminated by vaccination?
    • A. 

      Measles

    • B. 

      Polio

    • C. 

      Mumps

    • D. 

      Smallpox

  • 61. 
    What are the normal routes of smallpox exposure discussed during lecture?
    • A. 

      Skin contact

    • B. 

      Contact with infected animals

    • C. 

      Sexual contact

    • D. 

      Inhalation

  • 62. 
    Variola (major/minor) is the most virulent strain.
  • 63. 
    Which disease is associated with toxemia?
    • A. 

      Variola major

    • B. 

      Variola minor

    • C. 

      Both

  • 64. 
    In 2002, The vaccine for what disease was reintroduced for military and medical personnel?
  • 65. 
    Molluscum contagiosum is primarily an infection of ______
    • A. 

      Children

    • B. 

      Adolescents

    • C. 

      Adults

    • D. 

      Elderly

  • 66. 
    In which way(s) is Molluscum contagiousum transmitted (according to lecture)?
    • A. 

      Direct contact

    • B. 

      Inhalation

    • C. 

      Fomites

    • D. 

      Animal vectors

  • 67. 
    In the US, Molluscum contagiousum is most commonly an STD.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 68. 
    Describe the most common appearance of Molluscum contagiosum lesions.
    • A. 

      Medium purulent lesions in the genital area

    • B. 

      Large pustules in genital area

    • C. 

      Facial lesions and tumor-like growths

    • D. 

      Small, smooth macules in genital area and thighs

  • 69. 
    Which of the following are treatments for Molluscum contagiosum?
    • A. 

      Topical creams

    • B. 

      Freezing

    • C. 

      Chemical agents

    • D. 

      Electric cautery

  • 70. 
    The Vaccinia virus is the virus used in the ______ vaccine.
    • A. 

      Polio

    • B. 

      Smallpox

    • C. 

      EPB

    • D. 

      CMV

  • 71. 
    The Vaccinia virus is a distinct species of Molluscipoxvirus
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 72. 
    What are some common clinical features of the Vaccinia virus?
    • A. 

      Swelling of lymph nodes

    • B. 

      Localized pustular lesion at site of inoculation

    • C. 

      Secondary lesions

  • 73. 
    Two complications of the Vaccinia virus are progressive vaccinia and eczema vaccinia.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 74. 
    The Vaccinia virus is the same as the cowpox virus that E. Jenner used
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 75. 
    Vaccinia vaccination can cause encephalitis.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 76. 
    All members of the Herpesviruses show latency and cause recurrent infection
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 77. 
    The clinical complications of latency and recuurent infection in herpesviruses become less severe with age.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 78. 
    Describe the structure of the Herpesviruses
    • A. 

      Small nonenveloped icosahedral dsDNA

    • B. 

      Small enveloped helical dsDNA

    • C. 

      Large nonenveloped icosahedral ssDNA

    • D. 

      Large enveloped icosahedral dsDNA

  • 79. 
    Where does the Herpesvirus replicate?
    • A. 

      Nucleus

    • B. 

      Golgi

    • C. 

      Cytoplasm

    • D. 

      Endosome

  • 80. 
    The herpesvirus structure is enclosed by a smooth envelope
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 81. 
    Which of the following is NOT a herpesvirus?
    • A. 

      HPV

    • B. 

      VZV

    • C. 

      CMV

    • D. 

      EBV

  • 82. 
    Humans are susceptible to 2 HSV varieties, HSV1 and HSV2.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 83. 
    (HSV1/HSV2) usually consists of lesions on the oropharynx
  • 84. 
    (HSV1/HSV2) causes cold sores and fever blisters.
  • 85. 
    (HSV1/HSV2) causes lesions on the genitalia
  • 86. 
    (HSV1/HSV2) occurs in early childhood.
  • 87. 
    (HSV1/HSV2) is typically acquired/occurs in ages 14-29
  • 88. 
    (HSV1/HSV2) can be spread without visible lesions
  • 89. 
    Genital herpes cannot be transmitted in the absence of lesions
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 90. 
    HSV multiplies in sensory neurons and moves to the ganglia
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 91. 
    (HSV1/HSV2) enters the 5th cranial nerve
  • 92. 
    (HSV1/HSV2) enters the lumbosacral spinal nerve trunk ganglia
  • 93. 
    Where do newly formed HSV viruses migrate?
    • A. 

      To the sensory neurons

    • B. 

      To the systemic system

    • C. 

      To the body surface

    • D. 

      To the brain

  • 94. 
    Which of the following causes infection of the oropharyn in young children?
    • A. 

      Herpes labialis

    • B. 

      Herpectic gingivostomatitis

    • C. 

      Herpetic keratitis

    • D. 

      Herpes genitalia

  • 95. 
    Which of the following diseases causes fever blisters and cold sores?
    • A. 

      Herpes labialis

    • B. 

      Herpetic gingivostomatitis

    • C. 

      Herpetic keratitis

    • D. 

      Herpes genitalia

  • 96. 
    Which of the following causes ocular herpes?
    • A. 

      Herpes labialis

    • B. 

      Herpetic gingivostomatitis

    • C. 

      Herpetic keratitis

    • D. 

      Herpes genitalia

  • 97. 
    Which of the following causes fever, sore throat, and swollen lymph nodes?
    • A. 

      Herpes labialis

    • B. 

      Herpetic gingivostomatitis

    • C. 

      Herpetic keratitis

    • D. 

      Herpes genitalia

  • 98. 
    How long does it take lip lesions of herpes to crust over?
    • A. 

      2-3 days

    • B. 

      1-2 weeks

    • C. 

      14-17 days

    • D. 

      3-4 weeks

  • 99. 
    How long can it take the lip lesions of herpes to heal?
    • A. 

      5-6 days

    • B. 

      7-10 days

    • C. 

      2 weeks

    • D. 

      3-4 weeks

  • 100. 
    Recurrent bouts of genital herpes become more severe over time
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 101. 
    Which of the following is NOT a trigger for recurrent herpes?
    • A. 

      Stress

    • B. 

      Menstruation

    • C. 

      Bacterial infection

    • D. 

      Sexual activity

  • 102. 
    Pregnant women with herpes are still allowed to deliver a baby via the birth canal.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 103. 
    Which infection penetrates a break in the skin causing a localized itchy and painful infection often on one finger?
    • A. 

      Herpetic keratitis

    • B. 

      Herpes stomatitis

    • C. 

      Herpes labialis

    • D. 

      Herpetic whitlow

  • 104. 
    HSV1 causes the most common sporadic form of viral encephalitis in the US.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 105. 
    Which can be used to diagnose herpes simplex?
    • A. 

      Vesicles and exudate

    • B. 

      Scrapings from lesions showing giant cells

    • C. 

      Culture

    • D. 

      Fluorescent antibody tests

  • 106. 
    What is the acyclic nucleoside analog of guanosine which is less potent than acyclovir but with better uptake and half life?
  • 107. 
    What is the primary nucleoside analog which is specifically activated by HSV induced thymidine kinase enzyme?
  • 108. 
    Acyclovir inhibits HSV viral polymerase as a competitor of dGTP, causing DNA chain termination.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 109. 
    What is the name for the L-valyl ester of acyclovir?
  • 110. 
    Which of the following are used for the treatment/control of herpes simplex?
    • A. 

      Acyclovir

    • B. 

      Famciclovir/Penciclovir

    • C. 

      Valacyclovir

    • D. 

      Topical medications

  • 111. 
    The Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV) causes what disease?
    • A. 

      Smallpox

    • B. 

      Chickenpox

    • C. 

      Polio

    • D. 

      Shingles

  • 112. 
    Which of the following are possible natural hosts for Varicella-Zoster Virus?
    • A. 

      Dogs

    • B. 

      Cats

    • C. 

      Chickens

    • D. 

      Humans

  • 113. 
    Which of the following are routes of transmission for Varicella-Zoster Virus?
    • A. 

      Respiratory droplets

    • B. 

      Contact

    • C. 

      Fomites

    • D. 

      Animal vectors

  • 114. 
    Vesicles are characteristic of the chickenpox primary infection
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 115. 
    The Varicella-Zoster Virus enters into neurons and becomes an acute infection
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 116. 
    The primary infection with Varicella-Zoster virus results in what disease?
  • 117. 
    The reactivation of the Varicella-Zoster Virus infection results in what disease?
  • 118. 
    The Varicella-Zoster Virus is most common in which patients?
    • A. 

      Children

    • B. 

      Adolescents

    • C. 

      Adults

    • D. 

      Elderly

  • 119. 
    Which of the following are common treatments for Varicella-Zoster Virus?
    • A. 

      Ribavirin

    • B. 

      Acylovir

    • C. 

      Famciclovir

    • D. 

      Interferon

  • 120. 
    Which of the following best describes the Varicella-Zoster Virus vaccine?
    • A. 

      Killed vaccine

    • B. 

      Live attentuated vaccine

    • C. 

      Component vaccine

    • D. 

      There is no vaccine for Varicella-Zoster Virus

  • 121. 
    Which of the following produces giant cells with nuclear and cytoplasmic inclusions?
    • A. 

      EBV

    • B. 

      Poxviruses

    • C. 

      Varicella-Zoster virus

    • D. 

      CMV

  • 122. 
    Which of the following are routes of transmission for CMV?
    • A. 

      Saliva

    • B. 

      Breast milk

    • C. 

      Semen

    • D. 

      Urine

    • E. 

      Respiratory mucus/saliva

  • 123. 
    CMV is commonly latent in various tissues
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 124. 
    Most infections with CMV result in mild symptoms.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 125. 
    Which of the following develop the most virulent forms of CMV?
    • A. 

      Fetuses

    • B. 

      Newborns

    • C. 

      Children

    • D. 

      Normal adults

    • E. 

      Immunodeficient Adults

    • F. 

      Elderly

  • 126. 
    Babies who survive CMV infection often develop normally thereafter.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 127. 
    Newborns infected with CMV experience which of the following?
    • A. 

      Enlarged liver and spleen

    • B. 

      Jaundice

    • C. 

      Capillary bleeding

    • D. 

      Microcephaly

    • E. 

      Ocular inflammation

  • 128. 
    Which of the following can describe the perinatal CMV infection?
    • A. 

      No symptoms

    • B. 

      Pneumonitits

    • C. 

      Mono-like syndrome

    • D. 

      Tetanus-like syndrome

  • 129. 
    AIDS patients infected with CMV often experience CMV mononucleosis, disseminated CMV, and retinitis
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 130. 
    Transplant patients with CMV often experience which of the following?
    • A. 

      Pneumonitis

    • B. 

      Hepatitis

    • C. 

      Myocarditis

    • D. 

      Meningoencephalitis

    • E. 

      Retinitis

  • 131. 
    The treatments for CMV discussed in lecture are reserved for immunocompromised patients
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 132. 
    Acyclovir is more effective against CMV than gangciclovir.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 133. 
    Foscarnet, a drug used in treatment for CMV, is which of the following?
    • A. 

      An acyclovir analog which blocks RNA polymerase

    • B. 

      A non-nucleoside inhibitor of viral DNA polymerase

    • C. 

      A nucleoside analog of guanosine

    • D. 

      A drug which acts to block the production of the viral membrane

  • 134. 
    Which disease infects lymphoid tissues and salivary glands?
    • A. 

      EBV

    • B. 

      CMV

    • C. 

      VZV

    • D. 

      HSV

  • 135. 
    Which of the following are routes of transmission for EBV?
    • A. 

      Direct contact

    • B. 

      Fomites

    • C. 

      Salivary contamination

    • D. 

      Animal vectors

  • 136. 
    By mid-life what percentage of people are infected with EBV?
    • A. 

      20-25%

    • B. 

      50-55%

    • C. 

      60-65%

    • D. 

      90-95%

  • 137. 
    Infectious mononucleosis develops from which virus?
    • A. 

      CMV

    • B. 

      HSV

    • C. 

      EBV

    • D. 

      VZV

  • 138. 
    How long does it take for the symptoms of infectious mononucleosis to develop after a specific viral infection?
    • A. 

      10-20 days

    • B. 

      20-30 days

    • C. 

      30-50 days

    • D. 

      50-70 days

  • 139. 
    EBV remains dormant in which cell type?
    • A. 

      Neural cells

    • B. 

      B cells

    • C. 

      T cells

    • D. 

      Lymphocytes

  • 140. 
    Which of the following is NOT true for Burkitt lymphoma?
    • A. 

      B cell malignancy

    • B. 

      Usually develops in jaw and grossly swells the cheek

    • C. 

      Mainly affects central African children

    • D. 

      May be associated with malaria

    • E. 

      Is associated with CMV

  • 141. 
    Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is a complication associated with EBV which is a malignancy of B cells occurring in older Chinese and African men
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 142. 
    Which of the following is shown in a differential blood count of EBV patients?
    • A. 

      Lymphocytosis

    • B. 

      Neutropenia

    • C. 

      Large atypical lymphocytes

    • D. 

      Giant cells with nuclear inclusions

  • 143. 
    Treatment of EBV is directed at relief of symptoms of fever and sore throat
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 144. 
    Disseminated EBV is treated by which of the following?
    • A. 

      Interferon

    • B. 

      IV gamma globulin

    • C. 

      Famciclovir

    • D. 

      Acyclovir

    • E. 

      Monoclonal antibodies

  • 145. 
    Which disease was originally known as human B-lymphotropic virus?
    • A. 

      HHV-6

    • B. 

      CMV

    • C. 

      EBV

    • D. 

      HSV

  • 146. 
    HHV-6 is transmitted by close contact with saliva and other secretions
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 147. 
    Which disease causes roseola?
    • A. 

      CMV

    • B. 

      EBV

    • C. 

      HHV-6

    • D. 

      VZV

  • 148. 
    What is the name for the acute febrile disease in babies 2-12 months which begins with fever followed by maculopapular rash?
  • 149. 
    HHV-6 has a low seroprevalence.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 150. 
    Which of the following are common symptoms associated with HHV-6 in adults?
    • A. 

      Keratinitis

    • B. 

      Mono-like symptoms

    • C. 

      Lymphadenopathy

    • D. 

      Hepatitis

  • 151. 
    Over 70% of MS patients show signs of HHV-6 infection.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 152. 
    There is a significant relationship between HHV-6 and Hodgkin's lymphoma.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 153. 
    Which of the following is closely related to HHV-6 and causes similar diseases?
    • A. 

      HHV-4

    • B. 

      HHV-5

    • C. 

      HHV-7

    • D. 

      HHV-8

  • 154. 
    Which virus is also known as Kaposi's sarcoma-associated virus?
    • A. 

      HHV-5

    • B. 

      HHV-6

    • C. 

      HHV-7

    • D. 

      HHV-8

  • 155. 
    Which of the following is linked with common tumors of AIDS patients and possible multiple myeloma?
    • A. 

      HHV-5

    • B. 

      HHV-6

    • C. 

      HHV-7

    • D. 

      HHV-8

  • 156. 
    What disease is an inflammatory disease of liver cells that may result from several viruses
  • 157. 
    Hepatitis interferes with the liver's excretion of bile pigments resulting in the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood causing jaundice
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 158. 
    Which of the following is NOT one of the 3 principal viruses associated with hepatitis?
    • A. 

      HAV

    • B. 

      HBV

    • C. 

      HCV

    • D. 

      HDV

  • 159. 
    Which of the following is NOT an RNA virus?
    • A. 

      HAV

    • B. 

      HBV

    • C. 

      HCV

  • 160. 
    Hepadnaviruses is another name for which of the following
    • A. 

      HAV

    • B. 

      HBV

    • C. 

      HCV

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 161. 
    Hepadnaviruses have never been grown in tissue culture
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 162. 
    Hepadnaviruses contain which type of genome?
    • A. 

      SsRNA

    • B. 

      DsRNA

    • C. 

      SsDNA

    • D. 

      DsDNA

    • E. 

      1 and 2

    • F. 

      1, 3, and 4

    • G. 

      3 and 4

  • 163. 
    Hepadnaviruses are involved in reverse transcription
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 164. 
    HBV multiplies solely in the liver
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 165. 
    Which of the following describes the number of virions of HBV found in infected patients?
    • A. 

      10 to the 3/ ml blood

    • B. 

      10 to the 5/ml blood

    • C. 

      10 to the 7/ml blood

    • D. 

      10 to the 9/ml blood

  • 166. 
    HBV is not a STD
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 167. 
    HBV increases the chance of liver cancer
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 168. 
    Which of the following describes the typical incubation period for HBV?
    • A. 

      2 weeks

    • B. 

      5 weeks

    • C. 

      7 weeks

    • D. 

      9 weeks

  • 169. 
    Most HBV patients develop chronic liver disease
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 170. 
    All cases of HBV are managed by treatment of symptoms and supportive care
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 171. 
    Passive immunoprophylaxis is used for which HBV patients?
    • A. 

      Those exposed

    • B. 

      Those possibly exposed

    • C. 

      Infected mothers

    • D. 

      Neonates born to infected mothers

  • 172. 
    Alpha, beta, and gamma interferons are of limited efficacy in the treatment of HBV
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 173. 
    Lamivudine, an HIV reverse transcriptase inhibitor, is a nucleoside analog used for treatment of which disease?
    • A. 

      HPV

    • B. 

      HSV

    • C. 

      CMV

    • D. 

      HBV

  • 174. 
    Which of the following does NOT describe HBV vaccination?
    • A. 

      It is given in 3 doses with boosters

    • B. 

      It is a live, attenuated vaccine

    • C. 

      It is derived from yeast surface antigen

    • D. 

      It is derived from purified sterile antigen from carrier blood

    • E. 

      It is used for high risk individuals and is encouraged for all newborns and infants

  • 175. 
    Which of the following describes the adenoviruses?
    • A. 

      Nonenveloped

    • B. 

      Enveloped

    • C. 

      RNA

    • D. 

      DNA

    • E. 

      Ds

    • F. 

      Ss

  • 176. 
    How many types of adenoviruses are associated with human disease?
    • A. 

      15

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      45

    • D. 

      60

  • 177. 
    Which of the following is/are NOT infected by adenoviruses?
    • A. 

      Lymphoid tissue

    • B. 

      Neural tissue

    • C. 

      Respiratory epithelia

    • D. 

      Intestinal epithelia

    • E. 

      Conjunctiva

  • 178. 
    Which of the following is/are not caused by adenoviruses?
    • A. 

      Colds

    • B. 

      Hepatitis

    • C. 

      Pharyngitis

    • D. 

      Conjunctivitis

    • E. 

      Keratoconjunctivitis

    • F. 

      Acute hemorrhagic cystitis

    • G. 

      Lymphocytosis

  • 179. 
    Adenoviruses are common causes of pediatric respiratory infections and pediatric gastroenteritis.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 180. 
    How are adenoviruses spread?
    • A. 

      Respiratory secretions

    • B. 

      Ocular secretions

    • C. 

      Fomites

    • D. 

      Fecal-oral

    • E. 

      Animal vectors

  • 181. 
    All cases of adenoviruses are treated with interferon
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 182. 
    Which of the following describes the adenovirus vaccine?
    • A. 

      Live, attenuated

    • B. 

      Inactivated polyvalent

    • C. 

      Killed

  • 183. 
    Which of the following describes the papilloma and polyoma viruses?
    • A. 

      Enveloped

    • B. 

      Nonenveloped

    • C. 

      Small

    • D. 

      Large

    • E. 

      DNA

    • F. 

      RNA

    • G. 

      Ds

    • H. 

      Ss

  • 184. 
    Papilloma and Polyoma viruses are short, circular DNA
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 185. 
    Papilloma and Polyoma Viruses cause persistent infections and tumor
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 186. 
    Which is the most common STD in the US?
    • A. 

      HPV

    • B. 

      HSV

    • C. 

      HIV

    • D. 

      HBV

  • 187. 
    What is the name for a squamous epithelial growth, wart, or verruca?
  • 188. 
    Which are routes of transmission for HPV?
    • A. 

      Respiratory droplets

    • B. 

      Direct contact

    • C. 

      Fomites

    • D. 

      Animal vectors

  • 189. 
    How many HPV types increase the risk of reproductive cancer?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      9

    • D. 

      12

  • 190. 
    There is no effective HPV vaccine
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 191. 
    Polyomaviruses do not cause tumors in experimental animals
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 192. 
    Which types of polyomaviruses are the most important human polyomas?
    • A. 

      JC

    • B. 

      JK

    • C. 

      BK

    • D. 

      BC

  • 193. 
    Polyomaviruses are highly seroprevalent throughout the world
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 194. 
    The majority of polyomaviruses are asymptomatic or exhibit mild symptoms.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 195. 
    Which of the following are routes of transmission for polyomaviruses?
    • A. 

      Direct contact

    • B. 

      Sexual

    • C. 

      Fomites

    • D. 

      Respiratory droplets

    • E. 

      Unknown

  • 196. 
    Progressive multifocal leukoencepthalopathy (PML) is an uncommon fatal infection caused by the BKV of polyomaviruses.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 197. 
    BKV infection in renal transplants causes complications in urinary function.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 198. 
    Which of the following describes parvoviruses?
    • A. 

      Enveloped

    • B. 

      Nonenveloped

    • C. 

      DNA

    • D. 

      RNA

    • E. 

      Ss

    • F. 

      Ds

  • 199. 
    Parvoviruses are small in diameter and genome size
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 200. 
    Which of the following causes distemper in cats, enteric disease in dogs, and fatal cardiac infection in puppies?
    • A. 

      Poxviruses

    • B. 

      Polyomaviruses

    • C. 

      Parvoviruses

    • D. 

      Papillomaviruses

  • 201. 
    Parvovirus B19 is the cause of erythema infectiosum (fifth disease) which is a childhood rash appearing as fever and cheek rashes
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 202. 
    Which of the following describes the orthomyxoviruses?
    • A. 

      Enveloped

    • B. 

      Nonenveloped

    • C. 

      DNA

    • D. 

      RNA

    • E. 

      Ss

    • F. 

      Ds

    • G. 

      Segmented

    • H. 

      Nonsegmented

  • 203. 
    Which of the following are distinct influenza virus types?
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

  • 204. 
    Where does the influenza virus multiply?
    • A. 

      In the nasopharygeal cavity

    • B. 

      In the lung

    • C. 

      In the cells of the respiratory tract

    • D. 

      In the nasal cells

  • 205. 
    Influenza replication occurs where?
    • A. 

      Nucleus

    • B. 

      Golgi

    • C. 

      Cytoplasm

    • D. 

      Endosome

  • 206. 
    Influenza viruses are assembled and budded off the cell with an envelope
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 207. 
    The key influenza envelope proteins are hemagglutinin, neuraminidase, and S2.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 208. 
    How many subtypes of hemagglutinin are there?
    • A. 

      9

    • B. 

      12

    • C. 

      15

    • D. 

      21

  • 209. 
    What is the major surface antigen of influenza?
    • A. 

      Hemagglutinin

    • B. 

      Neuraminidase

    • C. 

      S2

    • D. 

      M2

  • 210. 
    Which is the most important virulence factor for influenza?
    • A. 

      Hemagglutinin

    • B. 

      Neuraminidase

    • C. 

      S2

    • D. 

      M2

  • 211. 
    Neuraminidase facilitate the binding of influenza to host cells and fusion.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 212. 
    How many subtypes of neuraminidase are there?
    • A. 

      9

    • B. 

      12

    • C. 

      15

    • D. 

      21

  • 213. 
    Neuraminidase hydrolyzes mucus facilitating the movement of influenza through the host mucin layer
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 214. 
    Which of the following assists in influenza viral budding and release?
    • A. 

      Hemagglutinin

    • B. 

      Neuraminidase

    • C. 

      S2

    • D. 

      M2

  • 215. 
    M2 is the ion channel which facilitates the entrance of influenza into the host cell.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 216. 
    Which of the following are involved in nomenclature for influenza?
    • A. 

      Host of origin

    • B. 

      Geographic location of initial isolation

    • C. 

      Strain number

    • D. 

      Year of isolation

    • E. 

      Level of virulence

  • 217. 
    Which is the correct order of flu replication?1. (+) Sense RNA is used to synthesize glycoprotein spikes inserted into the host membrane.2. Release of mature virus occurs when viral parts gather at the cell membrane and are budded off with an envelope containing spikes.3. The virus is endocytosed into a vacuole and uncoated to release its 8 nucleocapsid segments into the cytoplasm.4. Virus adsorbs to a respiratory epithelial cell by hemagglutinin spikes and fuses with the membrane.5. The (+) sense RNA strands are used to synthesize new (-)sense RNA strands.  These are assembled into nucleocapsids and transported out of the nucleus to the cell membrane.6. The nucleocapsids are transported into the nucleus.  There (-) sense RNA strand is transcribed into a (+)sense strand that will be translated into viral proteins that make up the capsid and spikes.
    • A. 

      6,3,4,5,1,2

    • B. 

      4,3,6,1,5,2

    • C. 

      4,6,3,1,5,2

    • D. 

      3,4,5,6,2,1

    • E. 

      6,3,4,1,2,5

    • F. 

      3,6,4,5,2,1

  • 218. 
    The frequency of independently segregating genes of influenza suggests random reassortment, not an active process.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 219. 
    All segments of influenza RNA are randomly packaged
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 220. 
    Certain influenza viral segments need strain matched viral protein
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 221. 
    Exchange between Influenza types A, B, and C often occur.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 222. 
    The constant exchange of genetic material between Influenza A, B, and C causes the decrease in the effectiveness of the host immune response
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 223. 
    The constant mutation caused by gradually changing amino acid compositions of influenza.
    • A. 

      Antigenic drift

    • B. 

      Antigenic shift

    • C. 

      Mutagenic shift

    • D. 

      Antigenic mutation

  • 224. 
    The term used to define when one of the influenza genes or RNA strands is substituted with a gene or strand from another influenza virus from a different animal host.
    • A. 

      Antigenic drift

    • B. 

      Antigenic shift

    • C. 

      Mutagenic shift

    • D. 

      Antigenic mutation

  • 225. 
    Which of the following is the most important cause of medically attended acute respiratory illness?
    • A. 

      Influenza A

    • B. 

      Influenza B

    • C. 

      Influenza C

    • D. 

      Avian influenza

  • 226. 
    Which populations are most commonly affected by Influenza A?
    • A. 

      Children

    • B. 

      Adolescents

    • C. 

      Adults

    • D. 

      Elderly

  • 227. 
    Influenza A binds to the ciliated cells of respiratory mucosa
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 228. 
    Which of the following is not an effect of Influenza A discussed in lecture?
    • A. 

      Rapid shedding of cells

    • B. 

      Severe Sore throat

    • C. 

      Stripping the respiratory epithelium

    • D. 

      Severe Inflammation

  • 229. 
    The influenza A virus sheds 3-6 days beginning 1 day prior to clinical symptoms
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 230. 
    Which of the following is NOT a complication of influenza A in children discussed in lecture?
    • A. 

      Upper Body Rash

    • B. 

      Fever

    • C. 

      Otitis media

    • D. 

      Pneumonia

    • E. 

      Myosistis

  • 231. 
    Children under 3 infected by Influenza A can have GI manifestations and vomiting
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 232. 
    Viral shedding of Influenza A is reduced in children and infants
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 233. 
    Influenza B undergoes which of the following?
    • A. 

      Antigenic drift only

    • B. 

      Antigenic shift only

    • C. 

      Both

    • D. 

      Neither

  • 234. 
    Which type of Influenza is known to cause only minor respiratory disease and is most likely not involved in epidemics?
    • A. 

      Influenza A

    • B. 

      Influenza B

    • C. 

      Influenza C

    • D. 

      Influenza D

  • 235. 
    Diagnosis of Influenza involves which of the following methods discussed in lecture?
    • A. 

      PCR

    • B. 

      Culture of the virus in animals

    • C. 

      Rapid immunoflorescence tests for detection of antigens in pharyngeal specimens

    • D. 

      Serological testing for antibody titer

  • 236. 
    Which of the following are considered treatments to control the symptoms of influenza?
    • A. 

      Amantidine

    • B. 

      Rimantadine

    • C. 

      Zanamivir

    • D. 

      Oseltamivir

  • 237. 
    The flu virus has developed a high rate of resistance to which of the following drugs?
    • A. 

      Rimantidine

    • B. 

      Zanamivir

    • C. 

      Ribavirin

    • D. 

      Amantadine

  • 238. 
    An annual bivalent vaccine for the flu is recommended
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False