Virology Slide 1-100

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1. (HSV1/HSV2) enters the lumbosacral spinal nerve trunk ganglia

Explanation

HSV2, also known as Herpes Simplex Virus type 2, enters the lumbosacral spinal nerve trunk ganglia. This means that the virus travels and establishes itself in the ganglia located in the lower back and sacral region of the spinal cord. This is where the virus remains dormant until it becomes active and causes outbreaks of genital herpes. HSV2 is primarily responsible for causing genital herpes, while HSV1 is usually associated with oral herpes.

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About This Quiz
Virology Quizzes & Trivia

A test that queries various random questions that are designed to test your knowledge on a specific subject matter like viruses. It might not be as easy as... see moreyou think but just try it out to see how you will do. see less

2. What is the primary nucleoside analog which is specifically activated by HSV induced thymidine kinase enzyme?

Explanation

Acyclovir is the primary nucleoside analog that is specifically activated by the HSV-induced thymidine kinase enzyme. This means that the enzyme thymidine kinase, which is produced by the herpes simplex virus (HSV), is able to convert acyclovir into its active form. Once activated, acyclovir can inhibit viral DNA replication by acting as a chain terminator, preventing the virus from replicating and spreading further. Therefore, acyclovir is an effective antiviral medication for treating HSV infections.

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3. What disease is an inflammatory disease of liver cells that may result from several viruses

Explanation

Hepatitis is an inflammatory disease of liver cells that can be caused by various viruses. It is characterized by liver inflammation and can lead to liver damage or failure if left untreated. The viruses that commonly cause hepatitis include hepatitis A, B, C, D, and E. These viruses can be transmitted through contaminated food or water, blood or bodily fluids, and sexual contact. Symptoms of hepatitis may include fatigue, jaundice, abdominal pain, and nausea. Treatment options vary depending on the type and severity of hepatitis, and may include antiviral medications and supportive care.

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4. What is the name for the discrete substructure of the virion which contains a nucleic acid-protein assembly package?

Explanation

The discrete substructure of the virion that contains a nucleic acid-protein assembly package is called the nucleocapsid. This term refers to the combination of the viral nucleic acid (DNA or RNA) and the proteins that surround and protect it. The nucleocapsid plays a crucial role in the structure and stability of the virion, as well as in the transmission and replication of the viral genome.

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5. (Chronic/Latent) infections multiply at a slow rate

Explanation

Chronic infections are characterized by a slow multiplication rate. Unlike acute infections, where the pathogen rapidly multiplies and causes severe symptoms, chronic infections progress slowly and can last for a long time. The slow rate of multiplication allows the pathogen to persist in the body, often evading the immune system's defenses. This can lead to prolonged or recurring symptoms, as well as potential long-term complications. Therefore, the given answer "chronic" aligns with the statement that chronic infections multiply at a slow rate.

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6. AIDS patients infected with CMV often experience CMV mononucleosis, disseminated CMV, and retinitis

Explanation

AIDS patients infected with CMV often experience CMV mononucleosis, disseminated CMV, and retinitis. This statement is true because CMV (Cytomegalovirus) is a common opportunistic infection in individuals with weakened immune systems, such as those with AIDS. CMV mononucleosis refers to a flu-like illness caused by CMV, while disseminated CMV refers to the spread of the virus throughout the body, affecting multiple organs. CMV retinitis is a specific manifestation of the infection in the retina of the eye, which can lead to vision loss if left untreated. Therefore, AIDS patients are at a higher risk of experiencing these complications when infected with CMV.

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7. HBV increases the chance of liver cancer

Explanation

HBV, or Hepatitis B virus, is a known risk factor for liver cancer. Chronic infection with HBV can lead to inflammation and damage to the liver, which increases the likelihood of developing liver cancer. Studies have shown that individuals with chronic HBV infection have a much higher risk of developing liver cancer compared to those without the virus. Therefore, it is correct to say that HBV increases the chance of liver cancer.

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8. (HSV1/HSV2) causes lesions on the genitalia

Explanation

HSV2 is the correct answer because it is the herpes simplex virus type 2, which is primarily responsible for causing lesions on the genitalia. HSV2 is transmitted through sexual contact and is commonly associated with genital herpes. It is important to note that while HSV1 can also cause genital herpes, it is more commonly associated with oral herpes and cold sores.

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9. (HSV1/HSV2) usually consists of lesions on the oropharynx

Explanation

HSV1 usually consists of lesions on the oropharynx. This means that HSV1 typically causes sores or blisters in the mouth or throat area. HSV1 is commonly known as oral herpes and is primarily transmitted through oral contact, such as kissing or sharing utensils. It is important to note that while HSV1 is commonly associated with oral lesions, it can also cause genital herpes through oral-genital contact.

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10. Acyclovir inhibits HSV viral polymerase as a competitor of dGTP, causing DNA chain termination.

Explanation

Acyclovir is an antiviral medication that is used to treat infections caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV). It works by inhibiting the viral polymerase enzyme, which is responsible for replicating the virus's DNA. Acyclovir acts as a competitor of dGTP, a building block of DNA, and when incorporated into the growing DNA chain, it causes premature termination of the chain. This prevents the virus from replicating its DNA and ultimately inhibits its ability to spread and cause further infection. Therefore, the statement that Acyclovir inhibits HSV viral polymerase as a competitor of dGTP, causing DNA chain termination is true.

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11. Hepatitis interferes with the liver's excretion of bile pigments resulting in the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood causing jaundice

Explanation

Hepatitis is a condition that affects the liver and impairs its ability to excrete bile pigments. This leads to the accumulation of bilirubin in the bloodstream, which causes jaundice. Jaundice is characterized by a yellowing of the skin and eyes due to the high levels of bilirubin. Therefore, the statement that hepatitis interferes with the liver's excretion of bile pigments and causes jaundice is true.

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12. DNA viral replication typically occurs where?

Explanation

DNA viral replication typically occurs in the nucleus of the host cell. This is because the nucleus contains all the necessary cellular machinery and resources required for DNA replication. Additionally, the nucleus provides a controlled and protected environment for the replication process to occur.

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13. (HSV1/HSV2) can be spread without visible lesions

Explanation

HSV2, also known as genital herpes, can be spread even when there are no visible lesions or symptoms present. This is known as asymptomatic shedding, where the virus can be present on the skin or mucous membranes and be transmitted to others through sexual contact. It is important to note that using barrier methods, such as condoms, can reduce the risk of transmission but may not completely eliminate it.

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14. The reactivation of the Varicella-Zoster Virus infection results in what disease?

Explanation

The reactivation of the Varicella-Zoster Virus infection results in shingles. Shingles is a painful rash that usually appears on one side of the body or face. It is caused by the same virus that causes chickenpox. After a person has had chickenpox, the virus remains dormant in the nerve tissues. However, it can reactivate later in life, causing shingles. The symptoms include a red rash, blisters, itching, and pain. Shingles can be treated with antiviral medications and pain relievers.

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15. Parvovirus B19 is the cause of erythema infectiosum (fifth disease) which is a childhood rash appearing as fever and cheek rashes

Explanation

Severe fatal anemia can result if pregnant women transmit the virus to the fetus.
"Slapped face" rash

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16. Influenza A binds to the ciliated cells of respiratory mucosa

Explanation

Influenza A is a type of virus that primarily affects the respiratory system. It is known to bind to the ciliated cells of the respiratory mucosa, which are the cells that line the respiratory tract and have tiny hair-like structures called cilia. This binding allows the virus to enter the cells and start replicating, leading to the symptoms of influenza. Therefore, the statement "Influenza A binds to the ciliated cells of respiratory mucosa" is true.

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17. Children under 3 infected by Influenza A can have GI manifestations and vomiting

Explanation

Children under 3 who are infected with Influenza A can experience gastrointestinal (GI) manifestations and vomiting. This means that in addition to the typical respiratory symptoms associated with influenza, such as coughing and congestion, young children may also experience symptoms related to the digestive system. These GI manifestations can include vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. It is important for parents and caregivers to be aware of these potential symptoms in young children with influenza, as they may require additional care and monitoring.

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18. What is the name for the largest virus?

Explanation

450nm

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19. How many triangular faces does the icosahedron contain?

Explanation

An icosahedron is a geometric solid with 20 equilateral triangular faces. Each face of the icosahedron is a separate triangle, and there are a total of 20 of these triangular faces. Therefore, the correct answer is 20.

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20. (Chronic/Latent) infections generally occur after a lytic cycle.

Explanation

Latent infections generally occur after a lytic cycle refers to the fact that latent infections, where the virus remains dormant in the host's cells without causing symptoms, typically follow an initial lytic cycle. In the lytic cycle, the virus actively replicates and causes cell lysis, leading to the release of new viral particles. After this initial phase, some viruses can enter a latent state where they remain in the host's cells without causing immediate harm. Therefore, the correct answer is latent.

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21. While viral uncoating is a poorly understood process, it is thought to be initiated by cellular signals such as receptor binding and pH change.

Explanation

The explanation for the given correct answer is that viral uncoating, which refers to the process of removing the viral capsid or envelope, is not well understood. However, it is believed that this process is triggered by certain signals from the host cell, such as receptor binding and changes in pH. Therefore, it is true that viral uncoating is thought to be initiated by cellular signals.

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22. (HSV1/HSV2) is typically acquired/occurs in ages 14-29

Explanation

HSV2, also known as genital herpes, is typically acquired or occurs in individuals between the ages of 14 and 29. This is because this age group is more likely to engage in sexual activity and have multiple sexual partners, which increases the risk of contracting the virus. HSV2 is primarily transmitted through sexual contact and is more commonly associated with genital infections. HSV1, on the other hand, is generally acquired during childhood and is commonly associated with oral herpes.

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23. Which of the following is NOT an RNA virus?

Explanation

HBV is not an RNA virus because it belongs to the Hepadnaviridae family, which contains DNA viruses. Unlike RNA viruses, which use RNA as their genetic material, HBV has a double-stranded DNA genome. Therefore, HBV does not fit the classification of an RNA virus.

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24. Viruses always contain DNA as their genetic material.

Explanation

Viruses contain DNA OR RNA encased in a protein shell

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25. Over 70% of MS patients show signs of HHV-6 infection.

Explanation

Over 70% of MS patients show signs of HHV-6 infection. This means that a majority of individuals diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS) exhibit indications of being infected with the human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6). This suggests a potential link or association between HHV-6 infection and the development or progression of MS. However, it is important to note that this answer does not provide any additional information about the symptoms or impact of HHV-6 infection on MS patients.

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26. The purpose of this structure is to form a stable protective shell for the genome.

Explanation

The capsid is the protein shell that surrounds and protects the genome of a virus. It provides stability and protection to the genetic material inside, preventing it from being damaged or degraded. The capsid also plays a crucial role in the virus's ability to infect host cells, as it contains specific receptors that allow the virus to attach to and enter target cells. Overall, the purpose of the capsid is to form a stable protective shell for the genome, ensuring the survival and successful replication of the virus.

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27. Variola (major/minor) is the most virulent strain.

Explanation

Variola major is the most virulent strain of the Variola virus. This strain is known for causing severe symptoms and a high mortality rate in infected individuals. It is responsible for the majority of smallpox cases throughout history, including large-scale epidemics. Variola minor, on the other hand, is a less severe strain with milder symptoms and a lower mortality rate. Therefore, the statement that "Variola major is the most virulent strain" is correct.

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28. (HSV1/HSV2) causes cold sores and fever blisters.

Explanation

HSV1, also known as herpes simplex virus type 1, is responsible for causing cold sores and fever blisters. This virus is highly contagious and can be transmitted through direct contact with the infected person's saliva or lesions. It typically manifests as painful, fluid-filled blisters on or around the lips, mouth, or nose. HSV1 is different from HSV2, which primarily causes genital herpes.

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29. A host cell-derived lipid bilayer carrying viral glycoproteins that forms the outer layer of a virus particle.

Explanation

The correct answer is "envelope." An envelope refers to a host cell-derived lipid bilayer that surrounds a virus particle and is embedded with viral glycoproteins. This outer layer provides protection to the virus and helps it to enter and infect host cells. The envelope is essential for the survival and replication of certain viruses, such as the influenza virus and HIV.

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30. (Chronic/Latent) infections can reactivate and result in recurrent infections

Explanation

Latent infections can reactivate and result in recurrent infections. This means that even though the infection may be dormant or inactive for a period of time, it can become active again and cause recurrent episodes of infection. This is often seen in viral infections such as herpes, where the virus can remain in a dormant state in the body and then reactivate, leading to recurrent outbreaks.

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31. Vesicles are characteristic of the chickenpox primary infection

Explanation

Vesicles are characteristic of the chickenpox primary infection. This means that when a person is initially infected with the chickenpox virus, they typically develop small, fluid-filled blisters called vesicles on their skin. These vesicles are a key feature of the disease and can be seen as a clear indication of a chickenpox infection. Therefore, the statement "Vesicles are characteristic of the chickenpox primary infection" is true.

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32. Papilloma and Polyoma Viruses cause persistent infections and tumor

Explanation

Papilloma and Polyoma Viruses are known to cause persistent infections and tumor formation. These viruses have the ability to infect cells and replicate within them for an extended period of time, leading to chronic infections. Additionally, they can also cause the formation of tumors, which can be benign or malignant. Therefore, it is true that Papilloma and Polyoma Viruses can cause persistent infections and tumor development.

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33. HHV-6 is transmitted by close contact with saliva and other secretions

Explanation

HHV-6, also known as human herpesvirus 6, is indeed transmitted through close contact with saliva and other bodily secretions. This means that the virus can be spread through activities such as kissing, sharing utensils or drinks, or coming into contact with infected saliva or mucus. Therefore, the statement "HHV-6 is transmitted by close contact with saliva and other secretions" is true.

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34. What is the name for the major protein component of the shell of the core?

Explanation

The major protein component of the shell of the core is called the capsid.

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35. (Chronic/Latent) Infections have detectable virus in tissue samples

Explanation

Chronic infections are characterized by the presence of detectable virus in tissue samples. This means that even after the initial infection, the virus remains in the body and can be detected in tissues. This is different from latent infections where the virus is present but not actively replicating or causing symptoms. In chronic infections, the virus continues to replicate and can potentially cause long-term health issues.

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36. Two complications of the Vaccinia virus are progressive vaccinia and eczema vaccinia.

Explanation

Progressive vaccinia and eczema vaccinia are indeed two complications of the Vaccinia virus. Progressive vaccinia is a severe and potentially fatal condition that occurs when the virus spreads uncontrollably throughout the body. Eczema vaccinia, on the other hand, is a localized infection that can develop in individuals with pre-existing eczema or other skin conditions. Both complications highlight the importance of monitoring and managing the adverse effects of the Vaccinia virus.

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37. Adenoviruses are common causes of pediatric respiratory infections and pediatric gastroenteritis.

Explanation

Adenoviruses are known to be common causes of respiratory infections and gastroenteritis in children. They are highly contagious and can easily spread through respiratory droplets or contaminated surfaces. These viruses can cause symptoms such as cough, fever, sore throat, diarrhea, and vomiting. Therefore, it is true that adenoviruses are common causes of pediatric respiratory infections and gastroenteritis.

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38. Parvoviruses are small in diameter and genome size

Explanation

Parvoviruses are indeed small in diameter and genome size. These viruses are characterized by their small size, typically ranging from 18 to 26 nanometers in diameter. Additionally, their genome is also relatively small, consisting of a single-stranded DNA molecule. This compact size allows parvoviruses to efficiently infect host cells and replicate within them.

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39. In 2002, The vaccine for what disease was reintroduced for military and medical personnel?

Explanation

In 2002, the vaccine for smallpox was reintroduced for military and medical personnel. Smallpox is a highly contagious and deadly disease caused by the variola virus. It was eradicated globally in 1980 through a successful vaccination campaign. However, concerns about bioterrorism and the potential use of smallpox as a biological weapon led to the reintroduction of the vaccine for specific groups at higher risk, such as military and medical personnel. This measure aimed to protect these individuals and prevent the spread of smallpox in case of an outbreak.

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40. (HSV1/HSV2) occurs in early childhood.

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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41. (HSV1/HSV2) enters the 5th cranial nerve

Explanation

HSV1 refers to Herpes Simplex Virus Type 1, which is known to enter the 5th cranial nerve. This virus is commonly associated with oral herpes, causing cold sores or fever blisters around the mouth and on the face. It can be transmitted through direct contact with an infected person's saliva or lesions. HSV2, on the other hand, is associated with genital herpes and typically enters through the sacral nerves in the lower spine. Therefore, the correct answer is HSV1.

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42. The synthesis of RNA and DNA viral proteins relies on host machinery.

Explanation

The given statement is true because RNA and DNA viral proteins cannot be synthesized without the help of host machinery. Viruses do not have their own cellular machinery to carry out protein synthesis, so they rely on the host cell's machinery to replicate their genetic material and produce viral proteins. This allows the viruses to hijack the host cell's resources and use them for their own replication and survival.

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43. (Enveloped/Nonenveloped) DNA viruses can be double-stranded or single-stranded.

Explanation

Nonenveloped DNA viruses can be either double-stranded or single-stranded. The term "nonenveloped" refers to the lack of an outer lipid membrane surrounding the viral capsid. This type of virus is more resistant to harsh environmental conditions and can survive outside the host for longer periods. The fact that nonenveloped DNA viruses can have either double-stranded or single-stranded genomes highlights the diversity and adaptability of this group of viruses.

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44. Where does the Herpesvirus replicate?

Explanation

Herpesvirus replicates in the nucleus of the host cell. This is because herpesvirus is a DNA virus, and the replication of DNA viruses generally occurs in the nucleus. After entering the host cell, the virus releases its genetic material into the nucleus, where it utilizes the host cell's machinery to replicate its DNA. Once the replication is complete, new viral particles are assembled and released from the nucleus to infect other cells.

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45. Which category of viruses contains the largest genome of all HUMAN viruses?

Explanation

Single linear dsDNA molecule of 130-300kb with hairpins at either end

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46. BKV infection in renal transplants causes complications in urinary function.

Explanation

BKV infection, which stands for BK virus infection, can indeed cause complications in urinary function in renal transplant patients. BK virus is a common virus that can reactivate in immunocompromised individuals, such as those who have undergone a renal transplant. The virus can infect the kidneys and lead to various urinary complications, including hemorrhagic cystitis, ureteral stenosis, and graft dysfunction. Therefore, it is true that BKV infection in renal transplants can cause complications in urinary function.

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47. Where does the influenza virus multiply?

Explanation

The influenza virus multiplies in the cells of the respiratory tract. This is where the virus enters the body and infects the cells, causing symptoms such as coughing, sneezing, and congestion. By multiplying in the respiratory tract cells, the virus can spread and cause respiratory illness. This is why respiratory hygiene, such as covering the mouth and nose when coughing or sneezing, is important in preventing the spread of influenza.

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48. Enveloped viruses enter the host via which mechanism of entry?

Explanation

Enveloped viruses enter the host via fusion with the plasma membrane. This process involves the viral envelope fusing with the host cell's plasma membrane, allowing the viral genetic material to enter the host cell. This mechanism of entry is commonly used by enveloped viruses, which have a lipid envelope derived from the host cell membrane. Fusion with the plasma membrane allows the virus to bypass the need for endocytosis or penetration through the plasma membrane, making it an efficient method for viral entry into the host cell.

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49. All cases of adenoviruses are treated with interferon

Explanation

Severe cases are treated with interferon

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50. Partial uncoating typically is used in the formation of the virus replication complex.

Explanation

Partial uncoating refers to the process by which a virus sheds some of its protein coat after entering a host cell. This shedding allows the virus to expose its genetic material and begin replicating. In the context of the question, it suggests that partial uncoating is a common step in the formation of the virus replication complex. This complex is responsible for the replication and assembly of new virus particles. Therefore, the statement is true as partial uncoating is indeed used in the formation of the virus replication complex.

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51. Which of the following viruses is considered the largest and most complex animal virus?

Explanation

Poxviruses are considered the largest and most complex animal virus. They are characterized by their large size and complex structure, which includes a double-stranded DNA genome enclosed in a complex protein coat. Poxviruses are known to infect a wide range of hosts, including humans, and cause diseases such as smallpox and cowpox. Due to their large genome, poxviruses are capable of encoding a wide array of genes, allowing them to manipulate and evade the host immune response. This complexity and size make poxviruses the largest and most complex animal virus.

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52. HSV multiplies in sensory neurons and moves to the ganglia

Explanation

The statement is true because HSV (Herpes Simplex Virus) is known to multiply in sensory neurons, which are responsible for transmitting sensory information from the body to the brain. After multiplying, the virus can move to the ganglia, which are clusters of nerve cells located near the spinal cord. Once in the ganglia, the virus can remain dormant for long periods of time, but can also reactivate and cause recurrent outbreaks of symptoms.

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53. Which of the following is NOT one of the 3 principal viruses associated with hepatitis?

Explanation

HDV is not one of the three principal viruses associated with hepatitis. The three principal viruses are HAV (Hepatitis A virus), HBV (Hepatitis B virus), and HCV (Hepatitis C virus). HDV (Hepatitis D virus) is a defective virus that requires the presence of HBV to replicate and cause infection. Therefore, it is not considered one of the principal viruses associated with hepatitis on its own.

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54. Papilloma and Polyoma viruses are short, circular DNA

Explanation

Papilloma and Polyoma viruses are indeed short, circular DNA. These viruses have a circular DNA genome, which means that their genetic material is arranged in a circular shape rather than a linear one. This circular DNA structure is characteristic of these types of viruses and distinguishes them from other types of viruses that may have linear DNA genomes. Therefore, the statement "Papilloma and Polyoma viruses are short, circular DNA" is true.

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55. In viral endocytosis, what causes the conformation change which releases the virus from the endosome into the cytosol?

Explanation

The conformation change that releases the virus from the endosome into the cytosol is caused by pH. This is because the low pH environment in the endosome triggers a structural change in the viral protein, allowing it to fuse with the endosomal membrane and release the viral genome into the cytosol. The acidic pH of the endosome is essential for the viral entry process and is a common mechanism used by many viruses to deliver their genetic material into the host cell.

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56. Which of the following are possible natural hosts for Varicella-Zoster Virus?

Explanation

Humans are the only natural host

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57. Influenza viruses are assembled and budded off the cell with an envelope

Explanation

Influenza viruses are enveloped viruses, meaning they have a lipid membrane surrounding their protein coat. This envelope is acquired from the host cell membrane during the process of budding, where new virus particles are formed and released from the infected cell. The envelope plays a crucial role in the virus's ability to infect new cells and evade the immune system. Therefore, the statement that influenza viruses are assembled and budded off the cell with an envelope is true.

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58. Which disease infects lymphoid tissues and salivary glands?

Explanation

EBV, or Epstein-Barr virus, is the correct answer because it is known to infect lymphoid tissues and salivary glands. This virus is commonly associated with infectious mononucleosis, also known as mono, which causes symptoms such as fatigue, sore throat, and swollen lymph nodes. EBV can also lead to the development of certain cancers, such as Burkitt's lymphoma and nasopharyngeal carcinoma.

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59. Infectious mononucleosis develops from which virus?

Explanation

Infectious mononucleosis develops from the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). EBV is a member of the herpesvirus family and is commonly transmitted through saliva. It primarily affects young adults and presents with symptoms such as fatigue, fever, sore throat, swollen lymph nodes, and enlarged spleen. EBV infects B cells and can lead to the production of atypical lymphocytes, which are characteristic of the disease.

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60. Treatment of EBV is directed at relief of symptoms of fever and sore throat

Explanation

The given statement is true because the treatment for EBV (Epstein-Barr virus) focuses on alleviating the symptoms of fever and sore throat. EBV is a common virus that causes infectious mononucleosis, commonly known as mono. There is no specific antiviral treatment for EBV, so management involves rest, hydration, and over-the-counter pain relievers to reduce fever and relieve throat discomfort. Therefore, the statement is correct as the treatment for EBV aims to provide relief from these symptoms.

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61. What is the name for a squamous epithelial growth, wart, or verruca?

Explanation

A squamous epithelial growth, wart, or verruca is commonly known as a papilloma. A papilloma is a benign tumor that arises from the epithelial cells and is characterized by its rough, cauliflower-like appearance. It is caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV) and can occur on various parts of the body, including the skin, genitals, and throat. While papillomas are generally harmless, some types of HPV can increase the risk of developing certain cancers, such as cervical cancer. Regular check-ups and vaccinations can help prevent and detect any potential issues related to papillomas.

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62. The best target for treatment of viral diseases is the viral membrane

Explanation

Best targets are unique viral enzymes

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63. Ribavirin has multiple mechanisms of action

Explanation

Nucleoside analog, capping and elongation of RNA (RNA polymerase inhibitor), reverse transcription inhibitor

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64. The poxviruses multiply where?

Explanation

Poxviruses multiply in the cytoplasm. Unlike most other viruses, which replicate in the host cell's nucleus, poxviruses have their own DNA replication machinery and can multiply entirely in the cytoplasm. This allows them to evade certain host defense mechanisms that target the nucleus. By replicating in the cytoplasm, poxviruses can efficiently produce large amounts of viral progeny and spread to other cells.

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65. HBV multiplies solely in the liver

Explanation

HBV (Hepatitis B Virus) is a virus that primarily targets the liver. It infects liver cells and uses their machinery to replicate itself. This is why HBV is known to multiply solely in the liver. The virus can cause inflammation and damage to the liver, leading to various liver diseases, including chronic hepatitis, cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Therefore, it is crucial to understand the liver's role in HBV replication to develop effective treatments and preventive measures.

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66. Which of the following causes distemper in cats, enteric disease in dogs, and fatal cardiac infection in puppies?

Explanation

Parvoviruses cause distemper in cats, enteric disease in dogs, and fatal cardiac infection in puppies. Distemper is a highly contagious viral disease that affects the respiratory, gastrointestinal, and nervous systems of cats. Enteric disease in dogs refers to a viral infection that causes severe diarrhea and can lead to dehydration and death. In puppies, parvoviruses can cause a fatal cardiac infection known as myocarditis, which affects the heart muscle and can lead to heart failure. Therefore, parvoviruses are responsible for these three different diseases in cats, dogs, and puppies.

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67. Which of the following best describes the Varicella-Zoster Virus vaccine?

Explanation

The Varicella-Zoster Virus vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine. This means that the vaccine contains a weakened form of the virus that is still able to stimulate an immune response in the body, but is unlikely to cause disease. This type of vaccine is effective in preventing infection and providing long-lasting immunity against the Varicella-Zoster Virus.

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68. Which virus is also known as Kaposi's sarcoma-associated virus?

Explanation

HHV-8, also known as human herpesvirus 8, is the virus that is associated with Kaposi's sarcoma. Kaposi's sarcoma is a type of cancer that primarily affects the skin and mucous membranes. HHV-8 is transmitted through sexual contact, blood transfusions, and organ transplants. It is particularly common in individuals with weakened immune systems, such as those with HIV/AIDS. Therefore, HHV-8 is the correct answer for the virus that is also known as Kaposi's sarcoma-associated virus.

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69. The influenza A virus sheds 3-6 days beginning 1 day prior to clinical symptoms

Explanation

The given statement is true. Influenza A virus can be shed by an infected person for 3-6 days, starting from 1 day before they show any clinical symptoms. This means that even before someone starts showing signs of being sick, they can already be contagious and capable of spreading the virus to others. It highlights the importance of practicing good hygiene and taking preventive measures to limit the spread of the virus.

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70. The Vaccinia virus is the virus used in the ______ vaccine.

Explanation

The Vaccinia virus is the virus used in the Smallpox vaccine. Smallpox is a highly contagious and deadly disease caused by the Variola virus. The Vaccinia virus, which is related to the Variola virus, is used in the vaccine to stimulate an immune response and protect against Smallpox infection. The vaccine contains a live, weakened form of the Vaccinia virus, which triggers the production of antibodies and memory cells in the body. This provides immunity against Smallpox, preventing the disease or reducing its severity if infection occurs.

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71. Genital herpes cannot be transmitted in the absence of lesions

Explanation

It CAN be transmitted in the absence of lesions

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72. RNA viral replication normally occurs where?

Explanation

RNA viral replication normally occurs in the cytosol. This is because RNA viruses do not have the ability to enter the nucleus of the host cell, where DNA replication takes place. Instead, they replicate their genetic material and assemble new viral particles in the cytosol, which is the fluid-filled region of the cell outside the nucleus. The cytosol provides the necessary cellular machinery and resources for viral replication to occur efficiently.

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73. Neuraminidase hydrolyzes mucus facilitating the movement of influenza through the host mucin layer

Explanation

Neuraminidase is an enzyme that breaks down the glycoproteins present in mucus. By hydrolyzing mucus, neuraminidase helps the influenza virus to move more easily through the host mucin layer. This facilitates the spread of the virus within the host's respiratory system. Therefore, the statement "Neuraminidase hydrolyzes mucus facilitating the movement of influenza through the host mucin layer" is true.

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74. Humans are susceptible to 2 HSV varieties, HSV1 and HSV2.

Explanation

Humans are susceptible to two varieties of the herpes simplex virus (HSV), HSV1 and HSV2. HSV1 typically causes oral herpes, characterized by cold sores or fever blisters around the mouth, while HSV2 is primarily responsible for genital herpes. Both viruses can be transmitted through direct contact with an infected person's skin or bodily fluids. Therefore, the statement that humans are susceptible to two HSV varieties, HSV1 and HSV2, is true.

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75. Acyclovir is more effective against CMV than gangciclovir.

Explanation

Ganciclovir is more effective

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76. Which of the following is the most important cause of medically attended acute respiratory illness?

Explanation

Influenza A is the most important cause of medically attended acute respiratory illness because it is the most common and widespread type of influenza virus. It has the potential to cause pandemics and severe illness, leading to hospitalizations and deaths. Influenza A viruses can infect humans and animals, making them highly adaptable and capable of causing outbreaks in different species. This type of influenza virus is constantly evolving, which makes it a significant public health concern and a priority for surveillance and prevention efforts.

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77. What is the first disease to be eliminated by vaccination?

Explanation

Smallpox was the first disease to be eliminated by vaccination. Smallpox is a highly contagious and deadly disease caused by the variola virus. The smallpox vaccine was developed by Edward Jenner in the late 18th century and was the first successful vaccine to be developed. Through widespread vaccination campaigns, the World Health Organization (WHO) declared smallpox eradicated in 1980. This achievement marked the first and only time that a human disease has been eradicated through vaccination.

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78. HSV1 causes the most common sporadic form of viral encephalitis in the US.

Explanation

BUT it is still a rare complication

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79. There is no effective HPV vaccine

Explanation

There are 2

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80. How many vertices does the icosahedron contain?

Explanation

An icosahedron is a three-dimensional geometric shape that consists of 20 equilateral triangular faces. Each vertex of the icosahedron is where three of these triangular faces meet. Since each face has three vertices, and there are 20 faces in total, the icosahedron contains a total of 12 vertices.

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81. Which type of DNA virus produces eruptive skin pustules which leave scars?

Explanation

Poxviruses produce eruptive skin pustules which leave scars. Poxviruses are large, complex DNA viruses that can cause diseases such as smallpox, monkeypox, and molluscum contagiosum. These viruses replicate within the cytoplasm of infected cells and can cause a variety of symptoms, including the formation of pustules on the skin. The pustules can be painful and can leave scars after healing.

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82. Hepadnaviruses is another name for which of the following

Explanation

Hepadnaviruses is another name for HBV.

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83. Certain influenza viral segments need strain matched viral protein

Explanation

Certain influenza viral segments need strain matched viral protein in order to effectively infect and replicate within host cells. This is because the viral protein plays a crucial role in binding to specific receptors on the host cell surface, allowing the virus to enter and hijack the cellular machinery for its own replication. If the viral protein does not match the strain of the influenza virus, it may not be able to bind to the receptors and initiate infection. Therefore, it is important for the viral protein to be strain matched in order for the virus to successfully infect and cause disease.

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84. Viral shedding of Influenza A is reduced in children and infants

Explanation

It is extended up to 2 weeks

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85. Which of the following is a ubiquitous virus which infects lymphoid tissue and salivary glands

Explanation

Epstein-Barr Virus is a correct answer for this question because it is a virus that is commonly found everywhere, hence the term "ubiquitous". It is known to infect lymphoid tissue and salivary glands, causing diseases such as infectious mononucleosis. This virus belongs to the herpesvirus family and is transmitted through saliva, making it highly contagious.

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86. Which of the following causes ocular herpes?

Explanation

Herpetic keratitis is the correct answer because it is a viral infection caused by the herpes simplex virus affecting the cornea of the eye. It can be transmitted through direct contact with an infected person's saliva or by touching an active herpes sore and then touching the eye. Ocular herpes can cause inflammation, redness, pain, and in severe cases, vision loss. Herpes labialis, herpetic gingivostomatitis, and herpes genitalia are caused by the same virus but affect different areas of the body, not the eyes.

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87. Which of the following are routes of transmission for EBV?

Explanation

EBV, or Epstein-Barr virus, can be transmitted through direct contact and salivary contamination. Direct contact refers to the transfer of the virus from one person to another through physical touch, such as kissing or sharing utensils. Salivary contamination refers to the transmission of the virus through infected saliva, which can occur through activities like sharing drinks or utensils. Fomites, which are contaminated objects or surfaces, and animal vectors are not considered routes of transmission for EBV.

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88. Hepadnaviruses are involved in reverse transcription

Explanation

Hepadnaviruses are indeed involved in reverse transcription. Reverse transcription is the process by which the viral RNA genome is converted into DNA by the enzyme reverse transcriptase. This DNA is then integrated into the host cell's genome, where it can be transcribed and translated to produce viral proteins. Hepadnaviruses, such as the hepatitis B virus, are unique among DNA viruses in that they replicate their DNA genome through a reverse transcription mechanism similar to retroviruses. This allows them to persist in the host cell for long periods of time and contributes to their ability to cause chronic infections.

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89. What is the name for the smallest virus?

Explanation

20nm

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90. Which of the following is NOT a herpesvirus?

Explanation

HPV (Human Papillomavirus) is not a herpesvirus. Herpesviruses belong to the family Herpesviridae, while HPV belongs to the family Papillomaviridae. HPV is responsible for causing common warts, genital warts, and certain types of cancers, while herpesviruses cause diseases like cold sores, genital herpes, chickenpox, and shingles.

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91. Polyomaviruses do not cause tumors in experimental animals

Explanation

They do

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92. The constant mutation caused by gradually changing amino acid compositions of influenza.

Explanation

Antigenic drift refers to the constant mutation caused by gradually changing amino acid compositions of influenza. This process leads to the emergence of new strains of the virus over time. Unlike antigenic shift, which involves the sudden and major change in the virus's surface proteins, antigenic drift occurs more slowly and results in minor changes. These minor changes can accumulate over time, making it difficult for the immune system to recognize and respond to the virus, leading to the need for regular updates to influenza vaccines.

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93. The term used to define when one of the influenza genes or RNA strands is substituted with a gene or strand from another influenza virus from a different animal host.

Explanation

Antigenic shift is the correct answer because it refers to the process in which one of the genes or RNA strands of the influenza virus is replaced with a gene or strand from a different influenza virus that originated in a different animal host. This can lead to the emergence of new strains of the virus that humans may have little to no immunity against, potentially causing severe outbreaks or pandemics.

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94. Which drug is approved in the US for respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) and in combination with alpha interferon for HCV?

Explanation

Ribavirin is the correct answer because it is approved in the US for the treatment of respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) and in combination with alpha interferon for hepatitis C virus (HCV). Ribavirin is an antiviral medication that works by inhibiting the replication of the virus, making it an effective treatment for both RSV and HCV. Beta interferon 1, acyclovir, and ritonavir are not approved for these specific indications.

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95. The treatments for CMV discussed in lecture are reserved for immunocompromised patients

Explanation

The lecture discussed treatments specifically for CMV in immunocompromised patients. This suggests that these treatments are not typically used for patients who are not immunocompromised. Therefore, the statement is true.

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96. HBV is not a STD

Explanation

It IS an STD

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97. Which of the following is NOT a viral host?

Explanation

All of the options listed (bacteria, protozoa, fungi, and algae) can serve as viral hosts. This means that viruses can infect and replicate within these organisms. Therefore, none of the options provided are correct as they all represent viral hosts.

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98. Which of the following is/are a ss nonenveloped DNA virus?

Explanation

Hepadnavirus is ds enveloped DNA
Polyomavirus and Papillomavirus are ds nonenveloped

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99. Vaccinia vaccination can cause encephalitis.

Explanation

Vaccinia vaccination, which is used to prevent smallpox, can indeed cause encephalitis. Encephalitis is a rare but serious side effect of the vaccine, characterized by inflammation of the brain. This adverse reaction occurs in a very small number of individuals who receive the vaccine, but it is a known risk. Therefore, the statement "Vaccinia vaccination can cause encephalitis" is true.

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100. All members of the Herpesviruses show latency and cause recurrent infection

Explanation

All members of the Herpesviruses have the ability to establish latent infections in their hosts. During latency, the virus remains dormant within the host's cells without causing any symptoms. However, under certain conditions, such as a weakened immune system, stress, or hormonal changes, the virus can reactivate and cause recurrent infections. This is a characteristic feature of all Herpesviruses, including herpes simplex virus (HSV), varicella-zoster virus (VZV), and Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), among others. Therefore, the statement that all members of the Herpesviruses show latency and cause recurrent infection is true.

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101. Pregnant women with herpes are still allowed to deliver a baby via the birth canal.

Explanation

Herpes is potentially fatal to the neonate and fetus. Preventative screening is done on the mother prior to delivery and a C section is performed if the mother is positive for herpes.

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102. Which disease causes roseola?

Explanation

HHV-6, or Human Herpesvirus 6, is the virus that causes roseola, also known as sixth disease. Roseola is a common viral infection that primarily affects infants and young children. It is characterized by a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a rash that appears once the fever subsides. HHV-6 is transmitted through respiratory secretions and can spread easily among young children.

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103. Which of the following assists in influenza viral budding and release?

Explanation

Neuraminidase assists in influenza viral budding and release. Neuraminidase is an enzyme present on the surface of the influenza virus. It helps in the release of newly formed viral particles from the host cell by cleaving the sialic acid residues present on the surface of the infected cell. This cleavage allows the virus to detach from the host cell and spread to other cells, facilitating viral budding and release. Hemagglutinin, on the other hand, helps the virus to attach to the host cell, while S2 and M2 are not directly involved in viral budding and release.

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104. The capacity of a cell, tissue, or species to support virus replication is called _____

Explanation

Susceptibility refers to the ability of a cell, tissue, or species to support virus replication. It indicates the vulnerability or receptiveness of an organism to being infected by a virus. Susceptibility is determined by various factors such as the presence or absence of specific receptors on the host cells, the immune response of the host, and the genetic makeup of the host.

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105. For enveloped viruses, assembly typically occurs at the site of membrane acquisition

Explanation

Enveloped viruses are a type of virus that have an outer lipid membrane derived from the host cell. This membrane is acquired during the process of assembly, where the viral components come together to form a complete virus particle. The assembly of enveloped viruses typically occurs at the site of membrane acquisition, which means that the viral components gather and arrange themselves on the host cell's membrane. This allows the virus to incorporate the host cell's membrane into its own structure, forming the characteristic envelope. Therefore, the statement "For enveloped viruses, assembly typically occurs at the site of membrane acquisition" is true.

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106. What category of viral treatment options are immune modulating drugs?

Explanation

Interferons are immune modulating drugs that belong to the category of viral treatment options. They work by enhancing the body's immune response to fight against viral infections. Interferons help to regulate the immune system and inhibit the replication of viruses, thereby reducing the severity and duration of viral illnesses. These drugs are commonly used in the treatment of various viral infections, including hepatitis B and C, as well as some forms of cancer.

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107. CMV is commonly latent in various tissues

Explanation

The statement suggests that CMV (Cytomegalovirus) is often present in a dormant or inactive state in different tissues of the body. This implies that the virus may not cause any symptoms or harm unless it becomes active or reactivated. Therefore, the answer "True" indicates that CMV is indeed commonly latent in various tissues.

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108. Lamivudine, an HIV reverse transcriptase inhibitor, is a nucleoside analog used for treatment of which disease?

Explanation

Lamivudine is a nucleoside analog that is used as an HIV reverse transcriptase inhibitor. It is specifically used for the treatment of HBV, which stands for Hepatitis B Virus. This medication helps to inhibit the reverse transcriptase enzyme in the virus, preventing it from replicating and spreading in the body. Therefore, Lamivudine is an effective treatment for Hepatitis B.

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109. The majority of viruses result in mild symptoms.

Explanation

The majority of viruses cause no disease

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110. HHV-6 has a low seroprevalence.

Explanation

It has a high seroprevalence

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111. Which of the following viruses are DNA viruses?

Explanation

Pox, Hepadna, and Herpes viruses are DNA viruses. DNA viruses are a type of virus that have DNA as their genetic material. They replicate and reproduce by integrating their DNA into the host cell's DNA. Pox viruses cause diseases like smallpox and chickenpox. Hepadna viruses cause hepatitis B, and Herpes viruses cause diseases like cold sores and genital herpes. Retroviruses, such as HIV, and Corona viruses, like the one causing COVID-19, are RNA viruses, meaning they have RNA as their genetic material.

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112. Most viruses acquire their membrane by forming a lipid bilayer from their glycoproteins.

Explanation

Most viruses acquire their membrane by budding through a host cell membrane (plasma, ER, golgi, or nuclear)

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113. EBV remains dormant in which cell type?

Explanation

EBV, or Epstein-Barr virus, remains dormant in B cells. B cells are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the immune response. After the initial infection, EBV establishes a lifelong latent infection in B cells, meaning it remains in a dormant state within these cells. During this latent phase, the virus can reactivate and cause various diseases, including infectious mononucleosis and certain types of cancers, such as Burkitt lymphoma and Hodgkin lymphoma.

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114. Which of the following causes infection of the oropharyn in young children?

Explanation

Herpetic gingivostomatitis is the correct answer because it is a viral infection that affects the mouth and throat. It is commonly seen in young children and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. Symptoms include painful sores in the mouth, swollen gums, and fever. Herpes labialis refers to cold sores on the lips, herpetic keratitis is an infection of the eye, and herpes genitalia refers to genital herpes. While these conditions may also be caused by the herpes simplex virus, they do not specifically cause infection of the oropharynx in young children.

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115. Which of the following causes fever, sore throat, and swollen lymph nodes?

Explanation

Herpetic gingivostomatitis causes fever, sore throat, and swollen lymph nodes. This condition is characterized by inflammation and sores in the mouth and gums, which can lead to difficulty swallowing and a sore throat. The herpes simplex virus, specifically the herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1), is responsible for causing herpetic gingivostomatitis. This viral infection is highly contagious and commonly affects young children. Symptoms typically include fever, swollen lymph nodes, and painful sores in the mouth and throat.

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116. The majority of polyomaviruses are asymptomatic or exhibit mild symptoms.

Explanation

Polyomaviruses are a group of viruses that commonly infect humans without causing any symptoms or only causing mild symptoms. This means that most people who are infected with polyomaviruses do not experience any noticeable health issues. Therefore, the statement that the majority of polyomaviruses are asymptomatic or exhibit mild symptoms is true.

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117. Influenza replication occurs where?

Explanation

Influenza replication occurs in the nucleus. This is because the influenza virus is an RNA virus that requires the host cell's machinery to replicate its genetic material. Once inside the host cell, the virus releases its RNA into the nucleus where it hijacks the host cell's enzymes and resources to replicate its RNA and produce new viral particles. Therefore, the nucleus is the site where the influenza virus replicates and produces more viral particles.

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118. Which is the correct order of flu replication?
1. (+) Sense RNA is used to synthesize glycoprotein spikes inserted into the host membrane.
2. Release of mature virus occurs when viral parts gather at the cell membrane and are budded off with an envelope containing spikes.
3. The virus is endocytosed into a vacuole and uncoated to release its 8 nucleocapsid segments into the cytoplasm.
4. Virus adsorbs to a respiratory epithelial cell by hemagglutinin spikes and fuses with the membrane.
5. The (+) sense RNA strands are used to synthesize new (-)sense RNA strands.  These are assembled into nucleocapsids and transported out of the nucleus to the cell membrane.
6. The nucleocapsids are transported into the nucleus.  There (-) sense RNA strand is transcribed into a (+)sense strand that will be translated into viral proteins that make up the capsid and spikes.

Explanation

The correct order of flu replication is as follows: First, the virus adsorbs to a respiratory epithelial cell by hemagglutinin spikes and fuses with the membrane (4). Then, the virus is endocytosed into a vacuole and uncoated to release its 8 nucleocapsid segments into the cytoplasm (3). The nucleocapsids are transported into the nucleus where the (-) sense RNA strand is transcribed into a (+) sense strand that will be translated into viral proteins that make up the capsid and spikes (6). The (+) sense RNA is used to synthesize glycoprotein spikes inserted into the host membrane (1). The (+) sense RNA strands are also used to synthesize new (-) sense RNA strands, which are assembled into nucleocapsids and transported out of the nucleus to the cell membrane (5). Finally, the release of mature virus occurs when viral parts gather at the cell membrane and are budded off with an envelope containing spikes (2).

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119. Which of the following is NOT a complication of influenza A in children discussed in lecture?

Explanation

Upper body rash is not a complication of influenza A in children discussed in the lecture. The lecture may have mentioned complications such as fever, otitis media, pneumonia, and myositis, but there was no mention of upper body rash as a complication.

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120. Describe the structure of the Herpesviruses

Explanation

The correct answer is large enveloped icosahedral dsDNA. Herpesviruses are characterized by their large size, envelope, and icosahedral capsid structure. They have a double-stranded DNA genome, which is enclosed within the capsid and surrounded by an envelope derived from the host cell membrane. This structure allows herpesviruses to infect and replicate within host cells.

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121. There is a significant relationship between HHV-6 and Hodgkin's lymphoma.

Explanation

Also with oral carcinoma and certain T cell leukemias

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122. What is the major surface antigen of influenza?

Explanation

Hemagglutinin is the major surface antigen of influenza. It is a glycoprotein found on the surface of the influenza virus and plays a crucial role in the infection process. Hemagglutinin allows the virus to bind to host cells and initiate the entry of the virus into the cell. It is also responsible for the agglutination of red blood cells, which is why it is named hemagglutinin. Neuraminidase, S2, and M2 are also antigens found on the influenza virus, but they do not serve as the major surface antigen.

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123. Neuraminidase facilitate the binding of influenza to host cells and fusion.

Explanation

Hemagglutinin does this

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124. The primary infection with Varicella-Zoster virus results in what disease?

Explanation

The primary infection with Varicella-Zoster virus results in chickenpox. Chickenpox is a highly contagious viral infection that causes an itchy rash with small, fluid-filled blisters. It is commonly seen in children and is usually accompanied by symptoms such as fever, headache, and fatigue. The Varicella-Zoster virus can remain dormant in the body after the initial infection and may later reactivate to cause shingles, a painful rash that typically occurs in older adults.

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125. Which of the following is closely related to HHV-6 and causes similar diseases?

Explanation

HHV-7 is closely related to HHV-6 and causes similar diseases. HHV-7, also known as Human Herpesvirus 7, belongs to the same family as HHV-6 and is known to cause similar clinical manifestations. Both HHV-6 and HHV-7 are associated with diseases like roseola, a viral infection that primarily affects young children. These viruses share similar genetic characteristics and can cause similar symptoms, making HHV-7 the closely related virus to HHV-6 in terms of causing similar diseases.

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126. Polyomaviruses are highly seroprevalent throughout the world

Explanation

Polyomaviruses are highly seroprevalent throughout the world, meaning that a large percentage of the population has been exposed to these viruses and has developed antibodies against them. This indicates that these viruses are widespread and commonly infect humans. The high seroprevalence suggests that polyomaviruses are easily transmitted and have a global distribution.

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127. Progressive multifocal leukoencepthalopathy (PML) is an uncommon fatal infection caused by the BKV of polyomaviruses.

Explanation

Caused by JCV but all the rest is true

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128. Which of the following describes parvoviruses?

Explanation

Parvoviruses are described as nonenveloped, DNA viruses that have a single-stranded genome (ssDNA). Nonenveloped means that these viruses do not have an outer lipid membrane surrounding their protein capsid. Parvoviruses are known for their small size and their ability to infect a wide range of hosts, including humans. The fact that they have a DNA genome means that their genetic material is composed of deoxyribonucleic acid, which is the genetic material found in most organisms. The "ss" designation indicates that the DNA is single-stranded, meaning it consists of only one strand of nucleotides.

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129. Which of the following describes the orthomyxoviruses?

Explanation

Orthomyxoviruses are enveloped viruses, meaning they have an outer lipid membrane surrounding their genetic material. They contain RNA as their genetic material, instead of DNA. The RNA in orthomyxoviruses is single-stranded (ss) and segmented, meaning it is divided into multiple separate pieces.

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130. Which of the following are distinct influenza virus types?

Explanation

Influenza virus types A, B, and C are distinct from each other. Type A is the most common and causes seasonal flu outbreaks in humans. It can also infect other animals like birds and pigs. Type B mainly affects humans and causes milder flu symptoms compared to type A. Type C is less common and causes mild respiratory illness. These three types have different genetic compositions and surface proteins, which contribute to their distinct characteristics and ability to cause disease.

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131. The key influenza envelope proteins are hemagglutinin, neuraminidase, and S2.

Explanation

Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase are correct but the third is M2 NOT S2

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132. Exchange between Influenza types A, B, and C often occur.

Explanation

Exchange DOES NOT occur between type A, B, and C.

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133. Babies who survive CMV infection often develop normally thereafter.

Explanation

They develop neurological sequelae, hearing, visual disturbances and mental retardation

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134. Which of the following describes the adenoviruses?

Explanation

Adenoviruses are described as nonenveloped, DNA viruses that have a double-stranded (ds) genome. Nonenveloped means that they do not have a lipid envelope surrounding their protein capsid. Adenoviruses are known for causing respiratory illnesses, conjunctivitis, and other infections in humans. Their DNA genome allows them to replicate inside the host cell and produce new viral particles. The fact that they have a ds genome means that their DNA is composed of two complementary strands that are held together by hydrogen bonds.

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135. Which of the following are routes of transmission for CMV?

Explanation

CMV, or cytomegalovirus, can be transmitted through various routes. Saliva, breast milk, semen, urine, and respiratory mucus/saliva are all potential routes of transmission for CMV. This means that if a person comes into contact with any of these bodily fluids from an infected individual, they may be at risk of contracting the virus. It is important to practice good hygiene and take necessary precautions to prevent the spread of CMV.

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136. How many subtypes of neuraminidase are there?

Explanation

There are 9 subtypes of neuraminidase.

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137. In the US, Molluscum contagiousum is most commonly an STD.

Explanation

Molluscum contagiosum is a viral infection that causes small, raised bumps on the skin. While it can be transmitted through non-sexual contact, such as sharing towels or clothing, it is most commonly spread through sexual contact. Therefore, it is accurate to say that in the US, Molluscum contagiosum is most commonly an STD.

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138. Which is the most important virulence factor for influenza?

Explanation

Hemagglutinin is the most important virulence factor for influenza. It is responsible for the attachment of the virus to host cells and facilitates the entry of the virus into the cell. Without hemagglutinin, the virus would not be able to infect and replicate within the host, making it a crucial factor for the pathogenicity of influenza. Neuraminidase, S2, and M2 are also important for the virus's life cycle, but hemagglutinin plays a more significant role in the initial stages of infection.

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139. The frequency of independently segregating genes of influenza suggests random reassortment, not an active process.

Explanation

The statement is suggesting that the frequency of independently segregating genes of influenza indicates random reassortment, rather than an active process. In other words, the genes of influenza are not deliberately or actively being rearranged, but rather they are randomly assorting. This implies that the evolution of influenza is driven by chance rather than a directed process. Therefore, the correct answer is True.

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140. All segments of influenza RNA are randomly packaged

Explanation

RNA segment 1 is specifically packaged

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141. Non-enveloped viruses enter the host via which entry mechanism?

Explanation

Non-enveloped viruses enter the host via penetration through the plasma membrane. Unlike enveloped viruses, which fuse with the host cell's plasma membrane or enter through endocytosis, non-enveloped viruses directly penetrate the plasma membrane to gain entry into the host cell. This allows the viral genetic material to be released into the host cell's cytoplasm, where it can hijack the host's cellular machinery for replication and production of new viral particles.

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142. All cases of HBV are managed by treatment of symptoms and supportive care

Explanation

Mild cases are treated this way but chronic infections are treated with interferon

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143. Ribavirin is a viral treatment used solely for RNA viruses.

Explanation

DNA and RNA

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144. Influenza B undergoes which of the following?

Explanation

Influenza B undergoes antigenic drift only. Antigenic drift refers to small genetic changes that occur over time in the influenza virus. These changes are responsible for the seasonal flu outbreaks and require the constant updating of flu vaccines. On the other hand, antigenic shift refers to major genetic changes that occur when different strains of influenza viruses combine to form a new subtype. This can lead to pandemics and is more commonly associated with influenza A viruses.

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145. Replication of progeny genomic RNA molecules uses host RNA polymerase

Explanation

Uses viral specific RNA polymerase

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146. The Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV) causes what disease?

Explanation

The Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV) is responsible for causing chickenpox and shingles. Chickenpox is a highly contagious viral infection characterized by itchy red blisters that appear all over the body. Shingles, on the other hand, is a painful rash that occurs in individuals who have previously had chickenpox. The virus remains dormant in the body after a chickenpox infection and can reactivate later in life, causing shingles.

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147. Which of the following produces giant cells with nuclear and cytoplasmic inclusions?

Explanation

CMV (Cytomegalovirus) produces giant cells with nuclear and cytoplasmic inclusions. These inclusions are characteristic of CMV infection and can be observed in various tissues, such as the lungs, liver, and kidney. The presence of these giant cells with inclusions is a key diagnostic feature of CMV infection and can help differentiate it from other viral infections.

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148. By mid-life what percentage of people are infected with EBV?

Explanation

By mid-life, a large majority of people, approximately 90-95%, are infected with EBV (Epstein-Barr virus). This virus is extremely common and spreads through bodily fluids, such as saliva. Most people are infected with EBV at some point in their lives, often during childhood or adolescence. While the infection is usually asymptomatic or causes mild symptoms, it can lead to more severe illnesses in some cases, such as mononucleosis. Therefore, the high percentage of people infected with EBV by mid-life reflects its widespread prevalence in the population.

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149. M2 is the ion channel which facilitates the entrance of influenza into the host cell.

Explanation

M2 is the ion channel which facilitates virus uncoating

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150. Which populations are most commonly affected by Influenza A?

Explanation

Influenza A commonly affects both children and the elderly. This is because these age groups have weaker immune systems compared to adolescents and adults, making them more vulnerable to the virus. Children often have less developed immune systems, while the elderly may have weakened immune systems due to aging. Therefore, they are more likely to contract and experience more severe symptoms from Influenza A compared to other populations.

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151. What are the normal routes of smallpox exposure discussed during lecture?

Explanation

The normal routes of smallpox exposure discussed during the lecture are skin contact and inhalation. Skin contact refers to coming into direct contact with the infected person's skin, which can occur through touching, hugging, or sharing personal items. Inhalation refers to breathing in the virus, which can happen when an infected person coughs or sneezes, releasing the virus into the air. These two routes are the primary ways in which smallpox can spread from person to person.

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152. The Vaccinia virus is the same as the cowpox virus that E. Jenner used

Explanation

It is different :)

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153. Which types of polyomaviruses are the most important human polyomas?

Explanation

JC and BK are the most important human polyomaviruses. These viruses are known to cause severe diseases in immunocompromised individuals, such as those with HIV/AIDS or undergoing organ transplantation. JC virus is responsible for progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML), a rare and often fatal brain infection. BK virus can cause BK virus-associated nephropathy (BKVAN), a kidney disease that can lead to graft failure in transplant recipients. These viruses are of significant clinical importance and require close monitoring and management in high-risk individuals.

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154. Which of the following is NOT a trigger for recurrent herpes?

Explanation

Recurrent herpes outbreaks can be triggered by various factors such as stress, menstruation, and bacterial infections. However, sexual activity is not considered a trigger for recurrent herpes. While sexual activity may increase the risk of transmitting the virus to a partner, it is not a direct trigger for recurrent outbreaks.

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155. Most infections with CMV result in mild symptoms.

Explanation

Most are asymptomatic

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156. The constant exchange of genetic material between Influenza A, B, and C causes the decrease in the effectiveness of the host immune response

Explanation

Both glycoproteins, hemagglutinin and neuraminidase, frequently undergo genetic changes decreasing the effectiveness of the host immune respose.
There IS NO exchange between Influenza A, B, and C.

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157. Which release mechanism involves the accumulation of particles until critical mass is achieved?

Explanation

Viral signals induce cell death and release of virions

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158. Ribavirin is a viral treatment which is a synthetic analog of _____

Explanation

Ribavirin is a viral treatment that is a synthetic analog of guanosine. This means that ribavirin is structurally similar to guanosine, a nucleoside found in RNA. By mimicking guanosine, ribavirin can interfere with viral replication and inhibit the growth of certain viruses.

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159. Which infection penetrates a break in the skin causing a localized itchy and painful infection often on one finger?

Explanation

Herpetic whitlow is the correct answer because it is an infection that occurs when the herpes simplex virus enters a break in the skin, usually on a finger. It is characterized by localized pain, itching, and inflammation. Herpetic keratitis, herpes stomatitis, and herpes labialis are all different types of herpes infections, but they do not specifically cause localized infections on the finger.

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160. What is the name for the L-valyl ester of acyclovir?

Explanation

Valacyclovir is the correct answer because it is the name for the L-valyl ester of acyclovir. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat viral infections, and valacyclovir is its prodrug form. When valacyclovir is ingested, it is rapidly converted into acyclovir in the body, which then inhibits the replication of viral DNA. Valacyclovir is commonly prescribed for the treatment of herpes infections, including genital herpes, cold sores, and shingles.

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161. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is a complication associated with EBV which is a malignancy of B cells occurring in older Chinese and African men

Explanation

It is a malignancy of epithelial cells but the rest of the statement is correct

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162. Alpha, beta, and gamma interferons are of limited efficacy in the treatment of HBV

Explanation

Alpha, beta, and gamma interferons have been used in the treatment of hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection, but their efficacy is limited. While they can help to suppress viral replication and reduce liver inflammation, they are not able to completely eliminate the virus from the body. Additionally, interferon therapy can have significant side effects and is not suitable for all patients. Therefore, it is true that alpha, beta, and gamma interferons are of limited efficacy in the treatment of HBV.

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163. How many subtypes of hemagglutinin are there?

Explanation

There are 15 subtypes of hemagglutinin. Hemagglutinin is a protein found on the surface of the influenza virus. It plays a crucial role in the virus's ability to infect cells. The subtypes of hemagglutinin are classified based on their genetic and antigenic differences. These subtypes are labeled as H1 to H18, with H16 and H17 not yet identified in humans. Each subtype has unique characteristics and can cause different levels of severity in influenza infections. Understanding the diversity of hemagglutinin subtypes is important for developing effective vaccines and antiviral treatments.

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164. Which of the following is not an effect of Influenza A discussed in lecture?

Explanation

Severe sore throat is not an effect of Influenza A discussed in the lecture. The lecture may have mentioned other effects such as rapid shedding of cells, stripping the respiratory epithelium, and severe inflammation, but it did not include severe sore throat as one of the effects.

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165. The cells, tissues, species that a virus can productively infect is called _____

Explanation

The term "host range" refers to the range of cells, tissues, and species that a virus can infect and replicate within. It determines the specificity of a virus and its ability to cause infection in different organisms. The host range can vary widely among viruses, with some being able to infect a broad range of hosts, while others are more restricted and can only infect specific species or cell types. Understanding the host range of a virus is crucial in studying its transmission, pathogenesis, and developing effective prevention and treatment strategies.

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166. Which of the following is linked with common tumors of AIDS patients and possible multiple myeloma?

Explanation

HHV-8, also known as Kaposi's sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV), is the correct answer. It is linked with common tumors of AIDS patients, particularly Kaposi's sarcoma, and is also associated with possible multiple myeloma. HHV-5, HHV-6, and HHV-7 are not specifically linked with these conditions.

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167. Most HBV patients develop chronic liver disease

Explanation

Only a small number of patients develop chronic liver disease

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168. How many HPV types increase the risk of reproductive cancer?

Explanation

Nine types of HPV increase the risk of reproductive cancer. HPV stands for Human Papillomavirus, which is a common sexually transmitted infection. Certain types of HPV are known to cause cervical cancer, as well as other types of reproductive cancers such as vaginal, vulvar, penile, and anal cancer. Therefore, it is important to get vaccinated against HPV and practice safe sex to reduce the risk of these cancers.

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169. Which of the following viruses are RNA viruses?

Explanation

Entero, Paramyxo, and Orthomyxo viruses are RNA viruses. RNA viruses have RNA as their genetic material instead of DNA. Entero viruses belong to the Picornaviridae family and are responsible for causing gastrointestinal infections. Paramyxo viruses belong to the Paramyxoviridae family and can cause respiratory infections. Orthomyxo viruses belong to the Orthomyxoviridae family and are responsible for causing influenza or flu. Therefore, all three viruses mentioned in the answer (Entero, Paramyxo, and Orthomyxo) are RNA viruses.

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170. Which are considered possible effects of viral infections on host cells?

Explanation

Viral infections can have various effects on host cells. Transformation refers to the process where the virus alters the genetic material of the host cell, leading to abnormal growth and potentially causing cancer. Chronic infection occurs when the virus persists in the host for a long time, continuously replicating and causing ongoing damage. Asymptomatic infections occur when the host shows no symptoms despite being infected, allowing the virus to spread unknowingly. Lytic infections involve the virus entering the host cell, replicating, and then causing the cell to burst, releasing new viral particles. These effects collectively demonstrate the range of possible consequences of viral infections on host cells.

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171. Which disease is associated with toxemia?

Explanation

Toxemia is a condition characterized by the presence of toxins in the bloodstream. Variola major, also known as smallpox, is a highly contagious and often severe disease caused by the variola virus. It is associated with toxemia because the virus releases toxins into the bloodstream, leading to a systemic infection. Variola minor, on the other hand, causes a milder form of smallpox and may not always result in toxemia. Therefore, the correct answer is Variola major.

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172. The herpesvirus structure is enclosed by a smooth envelope

Explanation

It contains glycoprotein spikes on the outside

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173. Which of the following are involved in nomenclature for influenza?

Explanation

The nomenclature for influenza involves several factors including the host of origin, the geographic location of initial isolation, the strain number, and the year of isolation. These factors are used to identify and classify different strains of the influenza virus. The host of origin refers to the species in which the virus was initially isolated, while the geographic location indicates where the virus was first identified. The strain number helps to differentiate between different variants of the virus, and the year of isolation provides a temporal reference. All of these factors are important in understanding the characteristics and evolution of influenza strains.

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174. Foscarnet, a drug used in treatment for CMV, is which of the following?

Explanation

Foscarnet is a non-nucleoside inhibitor of viral DNA polymerase. It works by directly binding to the active site of the viral DNA polymerase and inhibiting its activity. This prevents the replication of viral DNA, ultimately inhibiting the growth and spread of the virus. Foscarnet is commonly used in the treatment of cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections. It is not an acyclovir analog, a nucleoside analog of guanosine, or a drug that acts to block the production of the viral membrane.

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175. Which of the following does NOT describe HBV vaccination?

Explanation

HBV vaccination is not a live, attenuated vaccine. Live, attenuated vaccines contain weakened forms of the virus or bacteria they protect against. However, the HBV vaccine is derived from purified sterile antigen from carrier blood, not from live, attenuated forms. It is given in 3 doses with boosters and is used for high-risk individuals, as well as encouraged for all newborns and infants.

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176. Which type of Influenza is known to cause only minor respiratory disease and is most likely not involved in epidemics?

Explanation

Influenza C is known to cause only minor respiratory disease and is most likely not involved in epidemics. Unlike Influenza A and B, which are responsible for seasonal flu outbreaks and pandemics, Influenza C typically causes mild illness and does not have a significant impact on public health. Influenza D is a relatively new type of influenza virus that primarily affects cattle and is not known to cause disease in humans.

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177. What is the name of the membrane surrounding the virus core?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Envelope." The envelope is a membrane that surrounds the virus core. It is composed of lipids and proteins and is derived from the host cell's membrane. The envelope plays a crucial role in protecting the virus and facilitating its entry into host cells. It also contains viral proteins that help in recognizing and binding to specific receptors on host cells.

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178. Which of the following is NOT true for Burkitt lymphoma?

Explanation

It is associated with EBV

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179. What is the name for the acute febrile disease in babies 2-12 months which begins with fever followed by maculopapular rash?

Explanation

It is usually self-limiting

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180. How many types of adenoviruses are associated with human disease?

Explanation

There are 30 types of adenoviruses that are associated with human disease. Adenoviruses are a group of viruses that can cause a range of illnesses, including respiratory infections, conjunctivitis, and gastroenteritis. These viruses are commonly spread through close contact with infected individuals, contaminated surfaces, or respiratory droplets. Understanding the different types of adenoviruses is important for diagnosing and treating infections caused by these viruses.

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181. Molluscum contagiosum is primarily an infection of ______

Explanation

Molluscum contagiosum is primarily an infection that affects children. It is a common viral skin infection that is caused by the molluscum contagiosum virus. It spreads easily through direct contact with an infected person or by sharing contaminated objects. Children are more susceptible to this infection due to their close contact with others in schools, daycares, and playgrounds. The infection usually resolves on its own within 6-12 months in children, but it may take longer in adults.

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182. How are adenoviruses spread?

Explanation

Adenoviruses can be spread through various means, including respiratory secretions, ocular secretions, and fecal-oral transmission. Respiratory secretions, such as coughing or sneezing, can release the virus into the air, making it easy for others to inhale and become infected. Ocular secretions, such as tears or discharge from the eyes, can also contain the virus and spread it to others through direct contact. Fecal-oral transmission occurs when the virus is present in fecal matter and is ingested through contaminated food or water. Therefore, adenoviruses can be transmitted through these different routes, increasing the likelihood of infection.

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183. Which are common manifestations of viral disease?

Explanation

These are common manifestations of viral disease because viruses can cause inflammation and immune responses in the body, leading to symptoms such as rashes, fever, muscle aches, and swollen lymph nodes.

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184. The clinical complications of latency and recuurent infection in herpesviruses become less severe with age.

Explanation

They become MORE severe

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185. The Varicella-Zoster Virus enters into neurons and becomes an acute infection

Explanation

The virus enters neurons and remains latent

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186. Which of the following are considered treatments to control the symptoms of influenza?

Explanation

Amantidine, Rimantadine, Zanamivir, and Oseltamivir are all considered treatments to control the symptoms of influenza. These medications are antiviral drugs that work by inhibiting the replication of the influenza virus in the body. Amantidine and Rimantadine are older medications that are effective against influenza A viruses, while Zanamivir and Oseltamivir are newer drugs that are effective against both influenza A and B viruses. These medications can help reduce the severity and duration of symptoms, as well as prevent complications associated with influenza.

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187. An annual bivalent vaccine for the flu is recommended

Explanation

An annual TRIvalent vaccine is recommended.

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188. The viral genome is typically incorporated at what point?

Explanation

The viral genome is typically incorporated as the core of the virus is assembled. This means that as the virus is being formed, the viral genome is also being packaged and included within the viral core. This is a crucial step in the viral life cycle, as the viral genome contains the genetic information necessary for the virus to replicate and infect host cells. By incorporating the genome during core assembly, the virus ensures that its genetic material is protected and ready to be delivered to the host cell upon infection.

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189. Which is the most common STD in the US?

Explanation

HPV, or Human Papillomavirus, is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the United States. It is estimated that nearly all sexually active individuals will contract HPV at some point in their lives. HPV can be transmitted through vaginal, anal, or oral sex, as well as through close skin-to-skin contact. While many strains of HPV are harmless and go away on their own, some can lead to genital warts or certain types of cancer, such as cervical, anal, or throat cancer. Regular screenings and vaccination can help prevent the spread and potential complications of HPV.

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190. The Vaccinia virus is a distinct species of Molluscipoxvirus

Explanation

It is a distinct species of Orthopoxvirus

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191. Which of the following diseases causes fever blisters and cold sores?

Explanation

Herpes labialis is the correct answer because it is a viral infection caused by the herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1), which commonly causes fever blisters and cold sores. Herpetic gingivostomatitis is a more severe form of the infection that affects the gums and mouth. Herpetic keratitis is an infection of the eye caused by the herpes simplex virus, and herpes genitalia refers to the genital herpes infection caused by the herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2).

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192. Recurrent bouts of genital herpes become more severe over time

Explanation

They become less severe

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193. Which of the following are routes of transmission for Varicella-Zoster Virus?

Explanation

Varicella-Zoster Virus can be transmitted through respiratory droplets and direct contact with an infected person. Respiratory droplets are produced when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks, and can be inhaled by others. Direct contact with the fluid from the blisters of an infected person can also spread the virus. However, there is no evidence to suggest that Varicella-Zoster Virus can be transmitted through fomites (inanimate objects) or animal vectors.

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194. Hepadnaviruses have never been grown in tissue culture

Explanation

Hepadnaviruses are a family of viruses that primarily infect the liver. Despite extensive efforts, they have never been successfully grown in tissue culture. This means that scientists have not been able to cultivate and propagate hepadnaviruses outside of their natural host, which is a characteristic feature of other viruses. This limitation has hindered the development of certain research techniques and the production of vaccines against hepadnaviruses. Therefore, the statement that hepadnaviruses have never been grown in tissue culture is true.

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195. Which of the following is/are NOT infected by adenoviruses?

Explanation

Adenoviruses are known to infect various tissues in the body. However, neural tissue is not typically infected by adenoviruses. These viruses primarily target respiratory epithelia, intestinal epithelia, conjunctiva, and lymphoid tissue. Neural tissue is not a common site of adenovirus infection.

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196. Which disease was originally known as human B-lymphotropic virus?

Explanation

HHV-6, also known as Human Herpesvirus 6, was originally known as human B-lymphotropic virus. This virus infects B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes, and is associated with various diseases including roseola, encephalitis, and bone marrow suppression. It is a member of the herpesvirus family and has two variants, HHV-6A and HHV-6B.

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197. Viral envelope proteins are targeted to the appropriate membrane during translation.

Explanation

They are post-translationally targeted to the appropriate membrane

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198. Which of the following describes the typical incubation period for HBV?

Explanation

The typical incubation period for HBV is 7 weeks. This means that after being exposed to the virus, it takes about 7 weeks for symptoms to develop. During this time, the virus is multiplying in the body and the person may not show any signs of infection. It is important to note that the incubation period can vary from person to person, with some individuals experiencing symptoms sooner or later than the average 7-week period.

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199. How long can it take the lip lesions of herpes to heal?

Explanation

The lip lesions of herpes can take up to 2 weeks to heal.

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200. Which can be used to diagnose herpes simplex?

Explanation

Vesicles and exudate, scrapings from lesions showing giant cells, culture, and fluorescent antibody tests can all be used to diagnose herpes simplex. Vesicles and exudate refer to the fluid-filled blisters and the fluid that oozes out of them, which can be collected and tested for the presence of the virus. Scrapings from lesions showing giant cells can also be examined under a microscope to look for characteristic cellular changes indicative of herpes infection. Culture involves growing the virus in a laboratory setting to confirm its presence. Fluorescent antibody tests use specific antibodies that bind to the virus, which can be visualized under a fluorescent microscope.

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(HSV1/HSV2) enters the lumbosacral spinal nerve trunk ganglia
What is the primary nucleoside analog which is specifically activated...
What disease is an inflammatory disease of liver cells that may result...
What is the name for the discrete substructure of the virion which...
(Chronic/Latent) infections multiply at a slow rate
AIDS patients infected with CMV often experience CMV mononucleosis,...
HBV increases the chance of liver cancer
(HSV1/HSV2) causes lesions on the genitalia
(HSV1/HSV2) usually consists of lesions on the oropharynx
Acyclovir inhibits HSV viral polymerase as a competitor of dGTP,...
Hepatitis interferes with the liver's excretion of bile pigments...
DNA viral replication typically occurs where?
(HSV1/HSV2) can be spread without visible lesions
The reactivation of the Varicella-Zoster Virus infection results in...
Parvovirus B19 is the cause of erythema infectiosum (fifth disease)...
Influenza A binds to the ciliated cells of respiratory mucosa
Children under 3 infected by Influenza A can have GI manifestations...
What is the name for the largest virus?
How many triangular faces does the icosahedron contain?
(Chronic/Latent) infections generally occur after a lytic cycle.
While viral uncoating is a poorly understood process, it is thought to...
(HSV1/HSV2) is typically acquired/occurs in ages 14-29
Which of the following is NOT an RNA virus?
Viruses always contain DNA as their genetic material.
Over 70% of MS patients show signs of HHV-6 infection.
The purpose of this structure is to form a stable protective shell for...
Variola (major/minor) is the most virulent strain.
(HSV1/HSV2) causes cold sores and fever blisters.
A host cell-derived lipid bilayer carrying viral glycoproteins that...
(Chronic/Latent) infections can reactivate and result in recurrent...
Vesicles are characteristic of the chickenpox primary infection
Papilloma and Polyoma Viruses cause persistent infections and tumor
HHV-6 is transmitted by close contact with saliva and other secretions
What is the name for the major protein component of the shell of the...
(Chronic/Latent) Infections have detectable virus in tissue samples
Two complications of the Vaccinia virus are progressive vaccinia and...
Adenoviruses are common causes of pediatric respiratory infections and...
Parvoviruses are small in diameter and genome size
In 2002, The vaccine for what disease was reintroduced for military...
(HSV1/HSV2) occurs in early childhood.
(HSV1/HSV2) enters the 5th cranial nerve
The synthesis of RNA and DNA viral proteins relies on host machinery.
(Enveloped/Nonenveloped) DNA viruses can be double-stranded or...
Where does the Herpesvirus replicate?
Which category of viruses contains the largest genome of all HUMAN...
BKV infection in renal transplants causes complications in urinary...
Where does the influenza virus multiply?
Enveloped viruses enter the host via which mechanism of entry?
All cases of adenoviruses are treated with interferon
Partial uncoating typically is used in the formation of the virus...
Which of the following viruses is considered the largest and most...
HSV multiplies in sensory neurons and moves to the ganglia
Which of the following is NOT one of the 3 principal viruses...
Papilloma and Polyoma viruses are short, circular DNA
In viral endocytosis, what causes the conformation change which...
Which of the following are possible natural hosts for Varicella-Zoster...
Influenza viruses are assembled and budded off the cell with an...
Which disease infects lymphoid tissues and salivary glands?
Infectious mononucleosis develops from which virus?
Treatment of EBV is directed at relief of symptoms of fever and sore...
What is the name for a squamous epithelial growth, wart, or verruca?
The best target for treatment of viral diseases is the viral membrane
Ribavirin has multiple mechanisms of action
The poxviruses multiply where?
HBV multiplies solely in the liver
Which of the following causes distemper in cats, enteric disease in...
Which of the following best describes the Varicella-Zoster Virus...
Which virus is also known as Kaposi's sarcoma-associated virus?
The influenza A virus sheds 3-6 days beginning 1 day prior to clinical...
The Vaccinia virus is the virus used in the ______ vaccine.
Genital herpes cannot be transmitted in the absence of lesions
RNA viral replication normally occurs where?
Neuraminidase hydrolyzes mucus facilitating the movement of influenza...
Humans are susceptible to 2 HSV varieties, HSV1 and HSV2.
Acyclovir is more effective against CMV than gangciclovir.
Which of the following is the most important cause of medically...
What is the first disease to be eliminated by vaccination?
HSV1 causes the most common sporadic form of viral encephalitis in the...
There is no effective HPV vaccine
How many vertices does the icosahedron contain?
Which type of DNA virus produces eruptive skin pustules which leave...
Hepadnaviruses is another name for which of the following
Certain influenza viral segments need strain matched viral protein
Viral shedding of Influenza A is reduced in children and infants
Which of the following is a ubiquitous virus which infects lymphoid...
Which of the following causes ocular herpes?
Which of the following are routes of transmission for EBV?
Hepadnaviruses are involved in reverse transcription
What is the name for the smallest virus?
Which of the following is NOT a herpesvirus?
Polyomaviruses do not cause tumors in experimental animals
The constant mutation caused by gradually changing amino acid...
The term used to define when one of the influenza genes or RNA strands...
Which drug is approved in the US for respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)...
The treatments for CMV discussed in lecture are reserved for...
HBV is not a STD
Which of the following is NOT a viral host?
Which of the following is/are a ss nonenveloped DNA virus?
Vaccinia vaccination can cause encephalitis.
All members of the Herpesviruses show latency and cause recurrent...
Pregnant women with herpes are still allowed to deliver a baby via the...
Which disease causes roseola?
Which of the following assists in influenza viral budding and release?
The capacity of a cell, tissue, or species to support virus...
For enveloped viruses, assembly typically occurs at the site of...
What category of viral treatment options are immune modulating drugs?
CMV is commonly latent in various tissues
Lamivudine, an HIV reverse transcriptase inhibitor, is a nucleoside...
The majority of viruses result in mild symptoms.
HHV-6 has a low seroprevalence.
Which of the following viruses are DNA viruses?
Most viruses acquire their membrane by forming a lipid bilayer from...
EBV remains dormant in which cell type?
Which of the following causes infection of the oropharyn in young...
Which of the following causes fever, sore throat, and swollen lymph...
The majority of polyomaviruses are asymptomatic or exhibit mild...
Influenza replication occurs where?
Which is the correct order of flu replication?1. (+) Sense RNA is used...
Which of the following is NOT a complication of influenza A in...
Describe the structure of the Herpesviruses
There is a significant relationship between HHV-6 and Hodgkin's...
What is the major surface antigen of influenza?
Neuraminidase facilitate the binding of influenza to host cells and...
The primary infection with Varicella-Zoster virus results in what...
Which of the following is closely related to HHV-6 and causes similar...
Polyomaviruses are highly seroprevalent throughout the world
Progressive multifocal leukoencepthalopathy (PML) is an uncommon fatal...
Which of the following describes parvoviruses?
Which of the following describes the orthomyxoviruses?
Which of the following are distinct influenza virus types?
The key influenza envelope proteins are hemagglutinin, neuraminidase,...
Exchange between Influenza types A, B, and C often occur.
Babies who survive CMV infection often develop normally thereafter.
Which of the following describes the adenoviruses?
Which of the following are routes of transmission for CMV?
How many subtypes of neuraminidase are there?
In the US, Molluscum contagiousum is most commonly an STD.
Which is the most important virulence factor for influenza?
The frequency of independently segregating genes of influenza suggests...
All segments of influenza RNA are randomly packaged
Non-enveloped viruses enter the host via which entry mechanism?
All cases of HBV are managed by treatment of symptoms and supportive...
Ribavirin is a viral treatment used solely for RNA viruses.
Influenza B undergoes which of the following?
Replication of progeny genomic RNA molecules uses host RNA polymerase
The Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV) causes what disease?
Which of the following produces giant cells with nuclear and...
By mid-life what percentage of people are infected with EBV?
M2 is the ion channel which facilitates the entrance of influenza into...
Which populations are most commonly affected by Influenza A?
What are the normal routes of smallpox exposure discussed during...
The Vaccinia virus is the same as the cowpox virus that E. Jenner used
Which types of polyomaviruses are the most important human polyomas?
Which of the following is NOT a trigger for recurrent herpes?
Most infections with CMV result in mild symptoms.
The constant exchange of genetic material between Influenza A, B, and...
Which release mechanism involves the accumulation of particles until...
Ribavirin is a viral treatment which is a synthetic analog of _____
Which infection penetrates a break in the skin causing a localized...
What is the name for the L-valyl ester of acyclovir?
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is a complication associated with EBV which...
Alpha, beta, and gamma interferons are of limited efficacy in the...
How many subtypes of hemagglutinin are there?
Which of the following is not an effect of Influenza A discussed in...
The cells, tissues, species that a virus can productively infect is...
Which of the following is linked with common tumors of AIDS patients...
Most HBV patients develop chronic liver disease
How many HPV types increase the risk of reproductive cancer?
Which of the following viruses are RNA viruses?
Which are considered possible effects of viral infections on host...
Which disease is associated with toxemia?
The herpesvirus structure is enclosed by a smooth envelope
Which of the following are involved in nomenclature for influenza?
Foscarnet, a drug used in treatment for CMV, is which of the...
Which of the following does NOT describe HBV vaccination?
Which type of Influenza is known to cause only minor respiratory...
What is the name of the membrane surrounding the virus core?
Which of the following is NOT true for Burkitt lymphoma?
What is the name for the acute febrile disease in babies 2-12 months...
How many types of adenoviruses are associated with human disease?
Molluscum contagiosum is primarily an infection of ______
How are adenoviruses spread?
Which are common manifestations of viral disease?
The clinical complications of latency and recuurent infection in...
The Varicella-Zoster Virus enters into neurons and becomes an acute...
Which of the following are considered treatments to control the...
An annual bivalent vaccine for the flu is recommended
The viral genome is typically incorporated at what point?
Which is the most common STD in the US?
The Vaccinia virus is a distinct species of Molluscipoxvirus
Which of the following diseases causes fever blisters and cold sores?
Recurrent bouts of genital herpes become more severe over time
Which of the following are routes of transmission for Varicella-Zoster...
Hepadnaviruses have never been grown in tissue culture
Which of the following is/are NOT infected by adenoviruses?
Which disease was originally known as human B-lymphotropic virus?
Viral envelope proteins are targeted to the appropriate membrane...
Which of the following describes the typical incubation period for...
How long can it take the lip lesions of herpes to heal?
Which can be used to diagnose herpes simplex?
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