V3 Unit 3 CDC's Overall Review
- 1.(411) How is ammunition fed into the M240B?
- A.
50 round bandoleer, split-link belt.
- B.
100 round bandoleer, split-link belt.
- C.
100 round bandoleer, solid-link belt.
- D.
50 round bandoleer, split-link belt.
- 2.(411) In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M240B for a point target with tripod?
- A.
200.
- B.
400.
- C.
600.
- D.
800.
- 3.(411) From what position is the M240B loaded?
- A.
Bolt OPEN.
- B.
Bolt CLOSED.
- C.
Bolt OPENED or CLOSED.
- D.
Blide OPENED or CLOSED.
- 4.(411) Which action in the cycle of operations for the M240B is initiated by squeezing the trigger?
- A.
Ejecting.
- B.
Extracting.
- C.
Cocking.
- D.
Firing.
- 5.(411) What are the two most common malfunctions for the M240B?
- A.
Bad ammunition and incorrect loading.
- B.
Sluggish operation and uncontrolled fire.
- C.
Sluggish operation and bad ammunition.
- D.
Shooter error and uncontrolled fire.
- 6.(411) At a minimum, you clean the M240B after firing a basic load of
- A.
900 to 1,200 rounds.
- B.
1,200 to 1,500 rounds.
- C.
1,500 to 2,000 rounds.
- D.
2,000 to 2,500 rounds
- 7.(411) What type of ammunition is used to engage lightly-armored targets?
- A.
M80.
- B.
M63.
- C.
M62.
- D.
M61.
- 8.(411) What does the acronym blank firing adapter (BFA) stand for?
- A.
Big flash adapter.
- B.
Blank flash adapter.
- C.
Blank firing adapter.
- D.
Bandoleer flap adapter.
- 9.(412) Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing?
- A.
M240B.
- B.
M249.
- C.
M780.
- D.
MK19.
- 10.(412) What is the standard round for the MK19?
- A.
M383.
- B.
M430.
- C.
M918.
- D.
M922.
- 11.(412) Which of the following tripods is the most often used gun mount for the MK19?
- A.
M1.
- B.
M2.
- C.
M3.
- D.
M4.
- 12.(412) Searching fire is most often used on
- A.
Level ground only.
- B.
Even ground only
- C.
Sloped or hilly ground.
- D.
Level or evenly sloping ground.
- 13.(413) What is the maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caliber machine gun?
- A.
2,000 yards.
- B.
2,200 yards.
- C.
2,500 yards.
- D.
2,750 yards.
- 14.(413) The maximum extent of grazing fire is obtainable to how many meters?
- A.
800.
- B.
700.
- C.
600.
- D.
500.
- 15.(414) When selecting crew-served weapons position, which type of fire organizes the battlefield for the gunners?
- A.
Direct.
- B.
Grazing
- C.
Predetermined.
- D.
Distributed and effective.
- 16.(414) Abbreviated fire commands and previously recorded data enable the gunner to aim or adjust fire on the target
- A.
Rapidly and effectively.
- B.
Quickly and accurately.
- C.
Accurately and timely.
- D.
Swiftly and deadly.
- 17.(414) Which of the following is an immediately available, prearranged barrier of fire to stop enemy movement across defensive lines or areas?
- A.
Sector of fire.
- B.
Final protective line
- C.
Principle of direct fire.
- D.
Final protective fire.
- 18.(414) Which of the following is fixed in direction and elevation?
- A.
A final protective line (FPL).
- B.
A principal of direct fire (PDF).
- C.
A final protective fire (FPF).
- D.
A directed prolonged fire (DPF).
- 19.(414) Which of the following is assigned to the gun team to cover the most likely avenue of enemy approach from all types of defensive positions?
- A.
Dead space protective line.
- B.
Final protective line.
- C.
Primary sector of fire.
- D.
Secondary sector of fire.
- 20.(414) Concerning machine guns in the offense, the primary objective of the offense is to advance, occupy, and
- A.
Control the enemy.
- B.
Hold the enemy position.
- C.
Overwhelm the enemy.
- D.
Overpower the enemy.
Questions: 10 | Attempts: 34180 | Last updated: Aug 14, 2020
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