V3 Unit 3 CDC's Overall Review

20 Questions | Attempts: 81
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Air Force Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (411) How is ammunition fed into the M240B?

    • A.

      50 round bandoleer, split-link belt.

    • B.

      100 round bandoleer, split-link belt.

    • C.

      100 round bandoleer, solid-link belt.

    • D.

      50 round bandoleer, split-link belt.

    Correct Answer
    B. 100 round bandoleer, split-link belt.
  • 2. 

    (411) In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M240B for a point target with tripod?

    • A.

      200.

    • B.

      400.

    • C.

      600.

    • D.

      800.

    Correct Answer
    D. 800.
  • 3. 

    (411) From what position is the M240B loaded?

    • A.

      Bolt OPEN.

    • B.

      Bolt CLOSED.

    • C.

      Bolt OPENED or CLOSED.

    • D.

      Blide OPENED or CLOSED.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bolt OPEN.
  • 4. 

    (411) Which action in the cycle of operations for the M240B is initiated by squeezing the trigger?

    • A.

      Ejecting.

    • B.

      Extracting.

    • C.

      Cocking.

    • D.

      Firing.

    Correct Answer
    D. Firing.
  • 5. 

    (411) What are the two most common malfunctions for the M240B?

    • A.

      Bad ammunition and incorrect loading.

    • B.

      Sluggish operation and uncontrolled fire.

    • C.

      Sluggish operation and bad ammunition.

    • D.

      Shooter error and uncontrolled fire.

    Correct Answer
    B. Sluggish operation and uncontrolled fire.
  • 6. 

    (411) At a minimum, you clean the M240B after firing a basic load of

    • A.

      900 to 1,200 rounds.

    • B.

      1,200 to 1,500 rounds.

    • C.

      1,500 to 2,000 rounds.

    • D.

      2,000 to 2,500 rounds

    Correct Answer
    A. 900 to 1,200 rounds.
  • 7. 

    (411) What type of ammunition is used to engage lightly-armored targets?

    • A.

      M80.

    • B.

      M63.

    • C.

      M62.

    • D.

      M61.

    Correct Answer
    D. M61.
  • 8. 

    (411) What does the acronym blank firing adapter (BFA) stand for?

    • A.

      Big flash adapter.

    • B.

      Blank flash adapter.

    • C.

      Blank firing adapter.

    • D.

      Bandoleer flap adapter.

    Correct Answer
    C. Blank firing adapter.
  • 9. 

    (412) Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing?

    • A.

      M240B.

    • B.

      M249.

    • C.

      M780.

    • D.

      MK19.

    Correct Answer
    D. MK19.
  • 10. 

    (412) What is the standard round for the MK19?

    • A.

      M383.

    • B.

      M430.

    • C.

      M918.

    • D.

      M922.

    Correct Answer
    B. M430.
  • 11. 

    (412) Which of the following tripods is the most often used gun mount for the MK19?

    • A.

      M1.

    • B.

      M2.

    • C.

      M3.

    • D.

      M4.

    Correct Answer
    C. M3.
  • 12. 

    (412) Searching fire is most often used on

    • A.

      Level ground only.

    • B.

      Even ground only

    • C.

      Sloped or hilly ground.

    • D.

      Level or evenly sloping ground.

    Correct Answer
    D. Level or evenly sloping ground.
  • 13. 

    (413) What is the maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caliber machine gun?

    • A.

      2,000 yards.

    • B.

      2,200 yards.

    • C.

      2,500 yards.

    • D.

      2,750 yards.

    Correct Answer
    A. 2,000 yards.
  • 14. 

    (413) The maximum extent of grazing fire is obtainable to how many meters?

    • A.

      800.

    • B.

      700.

    • C.

      600.

    • D.

      500.

    Correct Answer
    B. 700.
  • 15. 

    (414) When selecting crew-served weapons position, which type of fire organizes the battlefield  for the gunners?

    • A.

      Direct.

    • B.

      Grazing

    • C.

      Predetermined.

    • D.

      Distributed and effective.

    Correct Answer
    C. Predetermined.
  • 16. 

    (414) Abbreviated fire commands and previously recorded data enable the gunner to aim or adjust  fire on the target

    • A.

      Rapidly and effectively.

    • B.

      Quickly and accurately.

    • C.

      Accurately and timely.

    • D.

      Swiftly and deadly.

    Correct Answer
    B. Quickly and accurately.
  • 17. 

    (414) Which of the following is an immediately available, prearranged barrier of fire to stop  enemy movement across defensive lines or areas?

    • A.

      Sector of fire.

    • B.

      Final protective line

    • C.

      Principle of direct fire.

    • D.

      Final protective fire.

    Correct Answer
    D. Final protective fire.
  • 18. 

    (414) Which of the following is fixed in direction and elevation?

    • A.

      A final protective line (FPL).

    • B.

      A principal of direct fire (PDF).

    • C.

      A final protective fire (FPF).

    • D.

      A directed prolonged fire (DPF).

    Correct Answer
    A. A final protective line (FPL).
  • 19. 

    (414) Which of the following is assigned to the gun team to cover the most likely avenue of  enemy approach from all types of defensive positions?

    • A.

      Dead space protective line.

    • B.

      Final protective line.

    • C.

      Primary sector of fire.

    • D.

      Secondary sector of fire.

    Correct Answer
    D. Secondary sector of fire.
  • 20. 

    (414) Concerning machine guns in the offense, the primary objective of the offense is to advance,  occupy, and

    • A.

      Control the enemy.

    • B.

      Hold the enemy position.

    • C.

      Overwhelm the enemy.

    • D.

      Overpower the enemy.

    Correct Answer
    B. Hold the enemy position.

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 18, 2022
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 29, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Ernestleeburns
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