V2 Unit 3 CDC's Overall Review Aircraft Accident

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V2 Unit 3 CDCs Overall Review Aircraft  Accident - Quiz


This quiz is for those of you who would like to know more about aircrafts plus things that led to various events and have some basic knowledge about it. If you are prepared to test your knowledge try it out.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (213) Grid coordinates are identified by the grid squares. To get a refined grid coordinate, divide  the grid square into 

    • A.

      fifths.

    • B.

      Tenths.

    • C.

      Fifteenths.

    • D.

      Twentieths.

    Correct Answer
    B. Tenths.
    Explanation
    Grid coordinates are identified by the grid squares. To get a refined grid coordinate, the grid square is divided into tenths. This means that each side of the grid square is divided into 10 equal parts, resulting in a more precise and detailed grid coordinate system.

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  • 2. 

    (214) After a nuclear accident, which organization has the initial response base responsibility? 

    • A.

      Nearest military installation.

    • B.

      Disaster control group team.

    • C.

      Nuclear accident recovery team.

    • D.

      Home installation of the resource.

    Correct Answer
    A. Nearest military installation.
    Explanation
    After a nuclear accident, the initial response base responsibility falls on the nearest military installation. This is because military installations are equipped with trained personnel, resources, and protocols to handle emergencies and provide immediate response and assistance in such situations. They have the capability to mobilize quickly and coordinate efforts with other relevant agencies to ensure the safety and security of the affected area and its inhabitants.

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  • 3. 

    (214) Who is responsible for assuming overall command and control at a nuclear weapon  accident? 

    • A.

      On-scene fire chief.

    • B.

      On-scene commander.

    • C.

      Disaster control group.

    • D.

      Initial base response force.

    Correct Answer
    C. Disaster control group.
    Explanation
    In the event of a nuclear weapon accident, the disaster control group is responsible for assuming overall command and control. They are specifically trained and equipped to handle such emergencies and have the necessary expertise to coordinate the response efforts effectively. The on-scene fire chief, on-scene commander, and initial base response force may play important roles in the response, but the disaster control group is ultimately responsible for taking charge of the situation.

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  • 4. 

    (215) What is the cordon size of an accident involving biological agents?

    • A.

      1500 feet upwind and crosswind.

    • B.

      2000 feet upwind and crosswind.

    • C.

      1500 feet upwind and crosswind, one and one-half miles downwind.

    • D.

      2000 feet upwind and crosswind, one and one-half miles downwind.

    Correct Answer
    B. 2000 feet upwind and crosswind.
    Explanation
    The cordon size of an accident involving biological agents is determined based on the potential spread of the agents in the air. In this case, the correct answer is 2000 feet upwind and crosswind. This means that a cordon of 2000 feet should be established in the direction of the wind, as well as perpendicular to the wind direction. This is to ensure that individuals are kept at a safe distance from the accident site, minimizing their exposure to the biological agents. The additional distance of one and one-half miles downwind may be necessary to account for the potential dispersion of the agents in the air.

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  • 5. 

    (216) What should you do if someone from the news media asks you questions about an aircraft  accident?

    • A.

      Do not answer and then detain them.

    • B.

      Do not answer and then refer them to public affairs personnel.

    • C.

      Make a brief comment and then refer them to the public affairs personnel.

    • D.

      Make a brief comment and then refer them to the installation commander.

    Correct Answer
    B. Do not answer and then refer them to public affairs personnel.
    Explanation
    If someone from the news media asks you questions about an aircraft accident, the correct course of action is to not answer their questions and instead refer them to public affairs personnel. This is because public affairs personnel are trained to handle media inquiries and can provide accurate and appropriate information to the media. It is important to avoid providing potentially incorrect or misleading information and leave it to the experts to handle media inquiries.

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  • 6. 

    (216) What should you do if someone takes photographs of classified material at an off-base  accident site after you tell them not to take photographs? 

    • A.

      Contact a civilian law enforcement officer to retrieve the film.

    • B.

      Use physical force to retrieve the film.

    • C.

      Physically detain the photographer.

    • D.

      Seize the film.

    Correct Answer
    A. Contact a civilian law enforcement officer to retrieve the film.
    Explanation
    If someone takes photographs of classified material at an off-base accident site after being told not to, the appropriate action would be to contact a civilian law enforcement officer to retrieve the film. This ensures that the situation is handled by professionals who have the authority and expertise to handle classified materials and enforce the necessary legal measures. Using physical force or physically detaining the photographer may escalate the situation and is not the recommended course of action. Seizing the film without involving law enforcement may not be legally permissible and may not guarantee the proper handling of the classified material.

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  • 7. 

    (217) One of the primary Air Force goals in dealing with high-risk situations is to

    • A.

      Let other federal agencies take charge of the situation.

    • B.

      Prevent or minimize loss of life and property.

    • C.

      Neutralize perpetrators using deadly force.

    • D.

      Not yield to civilian authorities.

    Correct Answer
    B. Prevent or minimize loss of life and property.
    Explanation
    The primary goal of the Air Force in high-risk situations is to prevent or minimize loss of life and property. This means that their focus is on protecting and preserving the lives of individuals and ensuring the safety of property. This goal prioritizes the well-being and security of both civilians and military personnel involved in the situation. By taking proactive measures and implementing effective strategies, the Air Force aims to reduce the potential harm and damage that may occur in these high-risk scenarios.

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  • 8. 

    (217) What is used as the principle method to peacefully resolve high-risk situations? 

    • A.

      Trained negotiators.

    • B.

      Swat teams.

    • C.

      Special operations.

    • D.

      Assault weapons.

    Correct Answer
    A. Trained negotiators.
    Explanation
    Trained negotiators are used as the principle method to peacefully resolve high-risk situations. They are skilled in effective communication, conflict resolution, and de-escalation techniques. Negotiators aim to establish a rapport with the individuals involved and work towards finding a mutually agreeable solution, avoiding the use of force or violence. This approach prioritizes the safety of all parties involved and aims to prevent unnecessary harm or casualties. SWAT teams, special operations, and assault weapons may be utilized in extreme cases when negotiations fail or there is an immediate threat to public safety.

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  • 9. 

    (218) Who is responsible for providing the initial response to incidents? 

    • A.

      Installation commander

    • B.

      Security forces personnel.

    • C.

      Squadron commander.

    • D.

      Unit commander.

    Correct Answer
    B. Security forces personnel.
    Explanation
    Security forces personnel are responsible for providing the initial response to incidents. They are trained to handle emergency situations and maintain security on the installation. Their role includes assessing the situation, taking appropriate action, and coordinating with other units if necessary. The installation commander, squadron commander, and unit commander may be involved in the incident response process, but the initial response is the responsibility of security forces personnel.

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  • 10. 

    (218) Who is allowed inside the inner perimeter you established at a high-risk scene? 

    • A.

      Medical emergency services personnel.

    • B.

      Base fire department personnel.

    • C.

      Negotiation teams.

    • D.

      Base chaplain.

    Correct Answer
    C. Negotiation teams.
    Explanation
    Negotiation teams are allowed inside the inner perimeter at a high-risk scene. This implies that negotiation teams have the necessary expertise and authority to handle situations that may arise during a high-risk scene. Medical emergency services personnel, base fire department personnel, and the base chaplain may have important roles in other aspects of the scene, but they are not specifically mentioned as being allowed inside the inner perimeter.

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  • 11. 

    (219) A base entry point check is 

    • A.

      An examination.

    • B.

      A warrant search.

    • C.

      A consent search.

    • D.

      A probable cause search.

    Correct Answer
    A. An examination.
    Explanation
    A base entry point check refers to the process of examining or evaluating a particular entry point. It does not involve conducting a warrant search, consent search, or a probable cause search. Instead, it focuses on assessing and analyzing the entry point in question, which could be a physical location or a system, to ensure its security and suitability for access or use.

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  • 12. 

    (219) At least how many security forces members should be present when conducting entry point  checks? 

    • A.

      One.

    • B.

      Two.

    • C.

      Three.

    • D.

      Four.

    Correct Answer
    B. Two.
    Explanation
    Two security forces members should be present when conducting entry point checks. This ensures that there is adequate manpower to effectively inspect and monitor the entry point for any potential security threats or breaches. Having two members also allows for better coordination and communication during the process, enhancing the overall effectiveness of the checks.

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  • 13. 

    (219) What must you do if illegal contraband is discovered while conducting an entry point  check?

    • A.

      Stop the check immediately and apprehend/detain individual.

    • B.

      Seize the contraband and refuse entry to the installation.

    • C.

      Continue searching the vehicle for more contraband.

    • D.

      Impound the vehicle immediately.

    Correct Answer
    A. Stop the check immediately and apprehend/detain individual.
    Explanation
    If illegal contraband is discovered while conducting an entry point check, it is important to stop the check immediately and apprehend/detain the individual. This is necessary to ensure the safety and security of the installation. Seizing the contraband and refusing entry to the installation may also be necessary, but the immediate priority is to stop the check and take appropriate action against the individual involved. Continuing to search the vehicle for more contraband or impounding the vehicle may be done after the initial steps have been taken.

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  • 14. 

    (219) What determines the manner in which you search a vehicle during an entry point check?

    • A.

      Operator’s attitude.

    • B.

      Patrolman’s attitude.

    • C.

      Object size.

    • D.

      Location.

    Correct Answer
    C. Object size.
    Explanation
    The manner in which you search a vehicle during an entry point check is determined by the size of the object. The size of the object will determine the approach and techniques used to search the vehicle effectively.

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  • 15. 

    (219) How should you conduct a simple search of a vehicle? 

    • A.

      Completely and simply.

    • B.

      Systematically and simply.

    • C.

      Thoroughly and completely.

    • D.

      Thoroughly and systematically.

    Correct Answer
    D. Thoroughly and systematically.
    Explanation
    When conducting a simple search of a vehicle, it is important to do so thoroughly and systematically. This means thoroughly checking all areas of the vehicle and conducting a systematic search in a methodical manner. By doing this, you can ensure that no potential evidence or items of interest are missed during the search.

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  • 16. 

    (220) Which search method is normally used for large outdoor areas? 

    • A.

      Concentric circle.

    • B.

      Item-to-item.

    • C.

      Zone or sector.

    • D.

      Strip and grid.

    Correct Answer
    D. Strip and grid.
    Explanation
    Strip and grid search method is normally used for large outdoor areas. This method involves dividing the search area into strips or grids and systematically searching each strip or grid one by one. It is an efficient method as it ensures that the entire area is covered and reduces the chances of missing any potential targets. Additionally, it allows search teams to work in a coordinated manner and ensures that no areas are overlooked.

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  • 17. 

    (221) While on patrol you hear cries for help from a building. What action can you take? 

    • A.

      Enter to prevent injury or damage.

    • B.

      Enter only to identify suspects.

    • C.

      Do not enter until the flight chief arrives.

    • D.

      Do not enter until you witness an assault.

    Correct Answer
    A. Enter to prevent injury or damage.
    Explanation
    When on patrol and hearing cries for help from a building, the appropriate action to take is to enter the building in order to prevent injury or damage. This is because the cries for help indicate that there may be a situation where someone's safety or property is at risk, and as a patrol officer, it is your duty to respond and take action to prevent harm or damage from occurring.

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  • 18. 

    (222) When you arrive at a crime scene, your objective is to 

    • A.

      Treat all injured persons.

    • B.

      Make sure you take appropriate notes.

    • C.

      Collect and mark visible items of evidence.

    • D.

      Keep the scene in its original state.

    Correct Answer
    D. Keep the scene in its original state.
    Explanation
    When arriving at a crime scene, it is important to keep the scene in its original state. This is because any changes or disturbances to the scene can potentially compromise the integrity of the evidence present. By preserving the scene in its original state, investigators can ensure that all evidence is properly collected, documented, and analyzed, increasing the chances of successfully solving the crime.

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  • 19. 

    (222) When should you begin taking crime scene notes? 

    • A.

      As soon as dispatched.

    • B.

      When a checklist item has been completed.

    • C.

      You have completed collecting all evidence.

    • D.

      An investigator relieves you from the scene.

    Correct Answer
    A. As soon as dispatched.
    Explanation
    As soon as dispatched is the correct answer because crime scene notes should be started as soon as possible to ensure that all relevant information is documented accurately and in a timely manner. Waiting for a checklist item to be completed or for all evidence to be collected may result in crucial details being missed or forgotten. Similarly, waiting for an investigator to relieve you from the scene may cause unnecessary delays in recording important observations and observations. Starting crime scene notes as soon as dispatched allows for a comprehensive and immediate documentation of the crime scene.

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  • 20. 

    (222) What should you do if you move evidence prematurely from its original position when  securing the scene? 

    • A.

      Disregard it completely.

    • B.

      Just wipe your prints off.

    • C.

      Inform the shift supervisor.

    • D.

      Record its original position in your notes.

    Correct Answer
    D. Record its original position in your notes.
    Explanation
    If evidence is moved prematurely from its original position when securing the scene, it is important to record its original position in your notes. This is crucial because the original position of the evidence may provide important information or context for the investigation. By documenting the original position, investigators can ensure that the evidence is properly analyzed and interpreted, even if it has been moved. Disregarding the evidence completely or just wiping your prints off would not be appropriate actions, and informing the shift supervisor may be necessary but it is not the most immediate and relevant step to take in this situation.

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  • 21. 

    (222) What is a basic rule if you photograph crime scenes when audio-visual personnel are not  available?

    • A.

      Time is not an important element to consider when dealing with fragile evidence.

    • B.

      Do not try to keep extraneous articles out of the photographs.

    • C.

      Photograph all evidence before anything is moved or touched.

    • D.

      Take at least two photographs of each item of evidence.

    Correct Answer
    C. Photograph all evidence before anything is moved or touched.
    Explanation
    When audio-visual personnel are not available to photograph crime scenes, it is important to follow the basic rule of photographing all evidence before anything is moved or touched. This ensures that the original state of the evidence is documented and preserved, providing an accurate representation of the crime scene.

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  • 22. 

    (223) What type evidence indirectly involves a person in an offense? 

    • A.

      Real.

    • B.

      Direct.

    • C.

      Documentary.

    • D.

      Circumstantial.

    Correct Answer
    D. Circumstantial.
    Explanation
    Circumstantial evidence indirectly involves a person in an offense. Unlike direct evidence which directly proves a fact, circumstantial evidence relies on inferences and deductions to establish a link between the person and the offense. It includes facts and circumstances that, when considered together, create a reasonable belief that the person is guilty. This type of evidence is often used when there is no direct evidence available, but the circumstances surrounding the offense strongly suggest the person's involvement.

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  • 23. 

    (223) What document establishes the rules of evidence? 

    • A.

      Manual for Courts Martial (MCM).

    • B.

      Staff Judge Advocate (SJA).

    • C.

      US Constitution.

    • D.

      Military law.

    Correct Answer
    A. Manual for Courts Martial (MCM).
    Explanation
    The Manual for Courts Martial (MCM) is the document that establishes the rules of evidence. It provides guidance and instructions on how evidence should be presented and evaluated in military courts. The MCM is a comprehensive resource that outlines the procedures and standards that must be followed during legal proceedings within the military justice system. It ensures fairness and consistency in the handling of evidence and helps to uphold the principles of justice in military courts.

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  • 24. 

    (223) What federal law requires you to save all field notes, rough drafts and statements? 

    • A.

      Posse Comitatus Act of 1878.

    • B.

      Manual for Courts Martial (MCM).

    • C.

      US Constitution.

    • D.

      Jencks Act.

    Correct Answer
    D. Jencks Act.
    Explanation
    The Jencks Act is a federal law that requires individuals to save all field notes, rough drafts, and statements. This law is specifically designed to ensure that the government provides defendants in criminal cases with any statements made by government witnesses that are related to their testimony. The purpose of this law is to promote fairness and transparency in the criminal justice system by allowing defendants access to potentially exculpatory evidence. Therefore, the Jencks Act is the correct answer to the question.

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  • 25. 

    (224) An item of evidence is considered fragile if 

    • A.

      The item contains bodily fluids.

    • B.

      You drop the item of evidence it would break.

    • C.

      You have small trace evidence on an item of evidence.

    • D.

      Conditions exist that could destroy the evidential value.

    Correct Answer
    D. Conditions exist that could destroy the evidential value.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "conditions exist that could destroy the evidential value." This means that if certain circumstances or factors are present, they could potentially damage or diminish the value of the evidence. This could include environmental conditions, improper handling, contamination, or any other factors that may compromise the integrity or reliability of the evidence in question.

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  • 26. 

    (225) How is abuse defined as it relates to family violence? 

    • A.

      Physical injury only.

    • B.

      Emotional disturbance.

    • C.

      Psychological battery

    • D.

      Physical injury or emotional disturbance.

    Correct Answer
    D. Physical injury or emotional disturbance.
    Explanation
    Abuse is defined as physical injury or emotional disturbance in the context of family violence. This means that abuse can manifest in both physical forms, such as hitting or causing physical harm, as well as emotional forms, such as manipulation, threats, or verbal abuse. It is important to recognize that abuse is not limited to physical injury alone, but also includes the emotional impact it has on the victim.

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  • 27. 

    (225) Which type of child abuse is the most difficult to identify?

    • A.

      Emotional maltreatment.

    • B.

      Psychological abuse.

    • C.

      Sexual maltreatment.

    • D.

      Physical abuse.

    Correct Answer
    A. Emotional maltreatment.
    Explanation
    Emotional maltreatment is the most difficult type of child abuse to identify because it often leaves no physical evidence and can be more subtle and covert in nature. Unlike physical abuse or sexual maltreatment, emotional abuse involves the persistent emotional neglect, rejection, or verbal attacks on a child, which can cause long-lasting psychological harm. It can be challenging to detect as it may not leave visible bruises or scars, and the effects may not be immediately apparent. Additionally, emotional abuse can occur behind closed doors, making it harder for others to witness or intervene.

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  • 28. 

    (226) Between how many seconds, before knocking, should you stop and listen at the door of a  domestic violence situation before knocking? 

    • A.

      5 to 10.

    • B.

      10 to 15.

    • C.

      15 to 20.

    • D.

      20 to 25.

    Correct Answer
    C. 15 to 20.
    Explanation
    In a domestic violence situation, it is important to approach the situation cautiously and prioritize safety. Stopping and listening at the door for 15 to 20 seconds before knocking allows you to assess the situation and determine if it is safe to enter. This time frame gives you a chance to listen for any signs of violence or distress inside the room, helping you make an informed decision on how to proceed.

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  • 29. 

    (226) What is the first action you take in a domestic violence situation if no one answers the door  after you knock and it appears quiet? 

    • A.

      Contact Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) to verify the address.

    • B.

      Contact a neighbor and ask questions concerning the incident.

    • C.

      Knock a second time and announce your presence.

    • D.

      Assume the fighting stopped and depart the area.

    Correct Answer
    A. Contact Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) to verify the address.
    Explanation
    If no one answers the door and it appears quiet in a domestic violence situation, the first action to take is to contact the Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) to verify the address. This is important to ensure that the correct location is being addressed and to gather more information about the situation.

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  • 30. 

    (227) Who must be notified of incidents of child or spouse abuse? 

    • A.

      Unit commander.

    • B.

      First sergeant.

    • C.

      Family advocacy officer.

    • D.

      Air Force Office of Special Investigations.

    Correct Answer
    C. Family advocacy officer.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Family advocacy officer. In cases of child or spouse abuse, the family advocacy officer must be notified. They are responsible for providing support and resources to victims of abuse and ensuring that appropriate actions are taken to protect the well-being of the individuals involved. The unit commander, first sergeant, and Air Force Office of Special Investigations may also be involved in addressing the incident, but the family advocacy officer is specifically designated to handle these types of cases.

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  • 31. 

    (228) You responded to a dispute and determined it was verbal because  

    • A.

      A physical assault has not occurred.

    • B.

      An individual is not easy to reason with.

    • C.

      There are no nearby objects or weapons.

    • D.

      The disputants are intoxicated.

    Correct Answer
    A. A physical assault has not occurred.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "a physical assault has not occurred." This is because a verbal dispute refers to a situation where individuals are engaged in a conflict or argument using words, without any physical violence or assault taking place. The other options do not necessarily define a verbal dispute, as an individual being difficult to reason with, the absence of nearby objects or weapons, or the disputants being intoxicated may not necessarily indicate a verbal dispute.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jul 25, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 01, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Ernestleeburns
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