7 Level Vol 2(Aircraft Technology)

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  • 1/90 Questions

    The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is

    • Arson
    • Bombing
    • Hijacking
    • Assassination
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About This Quiz

This is CDC's volume 2.   This quiz consist of 90 questions.   you must pass with a score of at least a 95

7 Level Vol 2(Aircraft Technology) - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What is the staff make-up for the S3?

    • The operations officer and staff

    • Supply noncommissioned officer

    • First sergeant or section commander

    • Intelligence officers and security forces investigators

    Correct Answer
    A. The operations officer and staff
    Explanation
    The staff make-up for the S3 includes the operations officer and staff. This means that the S3 is composed of individuals who are responsible for coordinating and overseeing the operational activities of the organization. They work together to ensure that operations are carried out efficiently and effectively.

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  • 3. 

    A terrorist grup that generally operatss independently of , but receives support from, on or more governments is

    • Non-state supported

    • State-supported

    • Stated-directed

    • State-organized

    Correct Answer
    A. State-supported
    Explanation
    State-supported refers to a terrorist group that operates independently but receives support from one or more governments. This support can come in various forms, such as funding, training, weapons, or safe havens. The term "state-supported" implies that the group is backed by a state or states, which may have their own political or strategic motivations for supporting the group's activities. This distinction is important because it highlights the involvement and complicity of governments in facilitating or enabling terrorist activities.

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  • 4. 

    When should commanders and planners identify mission-critical information?

    • At the earliest possile moment

    • Only after the subordinate commanders have been notified

    • Only after the review and approval from higher-head quarters commanders

    • Never; commanders and planners should not have to identify and any critical information.

    Correct Answer
    A. At the earliest possile moment
    Explanation
    Commanders and planners should identify mission-critical information at the earliest possible moment. This is because identifying such information early allows for better planning, decision-making, and execution of the mission. By identifying mission-critical information early on, commanders and planners can assess the risks, allocate resources effectively, and develop appropriate strategies to achieve mission success. Delaying the identification of mission-critical information can lead to inadequate preparations and potentially impact the outcome of the mission. Therefore, it is crucial for commanders and planners to identify mission-critical information as soon as possible.

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  • 5. 

    Where is an excellent position to place a marksman in an urban area?

    • A scrape out

    • A shell crate

    • Peak of a roof

    • Under a parked vehicle

    Correct Answer
    A. Peak of a roof
    Explanation
    Placing a marksman at the peak of a roof in an urban area is an excellent position because it provides a high vantage point, allowing the marksman to have a clear view of the surroundings and potential targets. Being elevated on a roof also offers better cover and protection compared to other options like being under a parked vehicle or in a shell crate. This position enables the marksman to effectively engage targets from a safe distance while minimizing the risk of being detected or targeted themselves.

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  • 6. 

    To modify to prevent recognition of the true identiy of character of an asset or activity is to

    • Hide

    • Blend

    • Decoy

    • Disguise

    Correct Answer
    A. Disguise
    Explanation
    To modify something in order to prevent its true identity from being recognized, one would use the method of disguise. Disguise involves altering the appearance or characteristics of an asset or activity to make it appear as something else, thus concealing its true nature. This can be done through various means such as changing physical appearance, behavior, or even location. By disguising something, it becomes difficult for others to recognize its true identity, thereby ensuring secrecy or protection.

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  • 7. 

    What is a base already possessing resources and an established infrastructure?

    • Bare base

    • Standy base

    • Main operating base

    • Collocated operating base

    Correct Answer
    A. Main operating base
    Explanation
    A main operating base refers to a base that already has resources and an established infrastructure. This means that the base is fully equipped and ready to support operations without requiring additional resources or infrastructure development. It is a fully functional and self-sufficient base that can serve as a hub for various military activities and operations.

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  • 8. 

    When conducting ambushes, units refer to the engagement areas as

    • ENGAGEMENT ZONE

    • AMBUSH ZONE

    • DEATH ZONE

    • KILL ZONE

    Correct Answer
    A. KILL ZONE
    Explanation
    When conducting ambushes, units refer to the engagement areas as the "kill zone" because it accurately describes the purpose and outcome of this military tactic. The kill zone is the area where the ambush force intends to inflict maximum casualties on the enemy by using surprise and superior firepower. It is strategically chosen and carefully planned to maximize the chances of success and minimize the risk to the ambushing force. The term "kill zone" emphasizes the aggressive and lethal nature of the operation, highlighting the objective of eliminating or incapacitating the enemy forces.

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  • 9. 

    The USAF antiterrorism program is designed around what three principles?

    • State department intelligence assessments, threat levels, and threat conditions

    • Force protection conditions, assessment factors, and threat levels

    • Intelligence gathersing, threat level, and THREATCONSs

    • Criminal threat, FPCONs, and the CARVER matrix

    Correct Answer
    A. Force protection conditions, assessment factors, and threat levels
    Explanation
    The USAF antiterrorism program is designed around force protection conditions, assessment factors, and threat levels. Force protection conditions refer to the measures taken to protect military personnel, facilities, and resources from potential threats. Assessment factors involve evaluating the likelihood and potential impact of a threat. Threat levels are used to categorize the level of threat and determine appropriate security measures. By considering these three principles, the USAF antiterrorism program aims to effectively mitigate and respond to potential terrorist threats.

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  • 10. 

    Compliling and examining all available information concerning potential threats by threat analysts is a/an

    • Annual process

    • Bi-annual process

    • Monthly process

    • Continual process

    Correct Answer
    A. Continual process
    Explanation
    Threat analysts continuously compile and examine all available information concerning potential threats. This process is ongoing and does not have a specific end or start date. It is a continual process because new threats can emerge at any time, and existing threats can evolve or change. Therefore, threat analysts must constantly monitor and analyze the information to stay updated and ensure effective threat detection and mitigation.

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  • 11. 

    Based on the integrated base defense concept of operations, what are all airmen cosidered?

    • Detectors

    • Monitors

    • Fighters

    • Sensors

    Correct Answer
    A. Sensors
    Explanation
    Based on the integrated base defense concept of operations, all airmen are considered sensors. This means that they play a crucial role in detecting and monitoring potential threats to the base. Airmen are responsible for observing their surroundings, reporting any suspicious activities, and providing important information to the base defense system. Their vigilance and awareness make them an integral part of the overall defense strategy.

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  • 12. 

    A typical organization of a terrorist group consist of

    • Group leader, intelligenc officer, explosive specialist, and weapons specialist

    • Hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support

    • Hard-core cadre, submissive support, inactive leadrs, and low suppport

    • Intelligence officer, inactive leaders, and active cadre

    Correct Answer
    A. Hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support." This answer accurately describes the typical organization of a terrorist group. The "hard-core leadership" refers to the top leaders who make strategic decisions and provide overall direction. The "active cadre" refers to the members who actively participate in carrying out terrorist activities. The "active support" refers to individuals who provide logistical support and assistance to the active cadre. Lastly, the "passive support" refers to individuals who may sympathize with the group's cause but do not actively participate in terrorist activities.

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  • 13. 

    What is one of the fundamental purposes of the law of armed conflict?

    • Prevent unnecessary suffering

    • Prevent use of political influence

    • Maintain a well-defined military plan

    • Provide equal representation of all combatants

    Correct Answer
    A. Prevent unnecessary suffering
    Explanation
    The law of armed conflict is designed to prevent unnecessary suffering during times of war. It aims to establish rules and regulations that govern the conduct of armed forces, with the objective of minimizing the human cost of war. By prohibiting certain actions such as targeting civilians or using weapons that cause excessive harm, the law seeks to protect individuals who are not directly involved in the conflict. This helps to maintain a level of humanity and limit the suffering inflicted upon those affected by war.

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  • 14. 

    Where is the best position for you to locate and observatioon post/listening post?

    • In a water tower

    • In a stand alone position

    • In a single small gathering of trees

    • In a position that doesnt draw attention

    Correct Answer
    A. In a position that doesnt draw attention
    Explanation
    The best position for a observation post/listening post is one that doesn't draw attention. This is because the purpose of such a post is to observe and gather information without being detected. If the post is located in a water tower, it may be easily spotted by others. Similarly, if it is in a stand-alone position or a single small gathering of trees, it may attract attention and raise suspicion. Therefore, the most effective location for an observation post/listening post would be somewhere inconspicuous and inconspicuous.

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  • 15. 

    Observation post/listening post teams are not equipped to

    • Indicate enemy location using flares

    • Protect themselves

    • Report information

    • Observe the area

    Correct Answer
    A. Indicate enemy location using flares
    Explanation
    Observation post/listening post teams are not equipped to indicate enemy location using flares. This means that these teams do not have the necessary tools or equipment to use flares as a means of indicating the location of the enemy. Flares are often used to signal or illuminate a specific area, but these teams are not trained or equipped to use them for this purpose.

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  • 16. 

    The primay mission of a joint operation is

    • Lead host nation forces in defending and securing the rear area

    • Sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force

    • Disaster relief operations

    • Humanitarian operations

    Correct Answer
    A. Sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force
    Explanation
    The primary mission of a joint operation is to sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force. This means that the joint operation is responsible for providing the necessary support and resources to ensure the success and continuation of the overall mission. This could include logistical support, intelligence gathering, coordination of forces, and any other tasks that are necessary to keep the campaign and major operations running smoothly.

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  • 17. 

    When terrorists attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities, what is their mission?

    • Determine which other countries support their beliefts

    • Ensure state funding would continue to finance cause

    • Destroy as much property as possible in a short period

    • Persuade US and/or foreign governments to chance their policies

    Correct Answer
    A. Persuade US and/or foreign governments to chance their policies
    Explanation
    The mission of terrorists when they attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities is to persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies.

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  • 18. 

    When the machine gun is not assigned to the maneuver element, what is its primary mission?

    • Provide covering fire for the assault element

    • Its only function is with the maneuver element

    • Provide over head fire for maneuvering fire teams

    • Lay down covering fire for reconnaissance elements

    Correct Answer
    A. Provide covering fire for the assault element
    Explanation
    When the machine gun is not assigned to the maneuver element, its primary mission is to provide covering fire for the assault element. This means that its main purpose is to suppress the enemy and provide protection for the advancing assault team. By laying down a continuous stream of fire, the machine gun helps to keep the enemy's heads down and allows the assault element to maneuver and close in on the enemy position more effectively.

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  • 19. 

    What does not need to be shown on a sketch?

    • Observation post/ listening post locations and patrol routes, if any

    • Maximum engagement lines for the light anti-tank weapons

    • Mines, sensors, and obstacles

    • Location of home station flight

    Correct Answer
    A. Location of home station flight
    Explanation
    The location of the home station flight does not need to be shown on a sketch. The sketch is primarily used to depict observation post/listening post locations, patrol routes, maximum engagement lines for light anti-tank weapons, mines, sensors, and obstacles. The home station flight, which refers to the base or station where the flight originates from, is not relevant to the visual representation of these elements and therefore does not need to be included in the sketch.

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  • 20. 

    Military operations other than war missions do not include

    • Quarantine

    • Peacekeeping

    • Clandestine infiltration

    • Humanitarian assistance

    Correct Answer
    A. Clandestine infiltration
    Explanation
    Military operations other than war missions are typically non-combat operations that are carried out by the military to achieve objectives other than traditional warfare. These operations often involve activities such as peacekeeping, humanitarian assistance, and quarantine measures. However, clandestine infiltration refers to covert operations that involve entering or infiltrating a target area or organization without being detected. It is not typically considered a part of military operations other than war missions, as it involves secretive and covert actions that are more closely associated with intelligence gathering or special operations.

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  • 21. 

    The tactical area of responsibility begins at the

    • Base defense operations center

    • Point o insertion

    • Base perimeter

    • Resource

    Correct Answer
    A. Resource
  • 22. 

    The primary responsibility of air base defense forces is

    • Defeating level I threats, and disruping or delaying level II threats in the tactical area of responsibility surrounding the air base

    • Defeating level II threats, and disrupting or delaying level IV threat in the TAOR surrounding the air base.

    • Stalling level I threats, and sisrupting o delaying level II threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base

    • Defeating level II threats, and disrupting or delaying level I threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.

    Correct Answer
    A. Defeating level I threats, and disruping or delaying level II threats in the tactical area of responsibility surrounding the air base
    Explanation
    The primary responsibility of air base defense forces is to defeat level I threats, which are the most immediate and direct threats to the air base. Additionally, they are also responsible for disrupting or delaying level II threats, which are slightly less immediate but still pose a significant risk. This is done within the tactical area of responsibility surrounding the air base, where the defense forces have jurisdiction and control. By effectively addressing these threats, the air base defense forces ensure the safety and security of the air base and its operations.

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  • 23. 

    Generally, specially trained terrorists are of abover average intelligence and between the ages of

    • 16-24

    • 21-28

    • 23-30

    • 25-32

    Correct Answer
    A. 23-30
    Explanation
    This answer suggests that generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and fall within the age range of 23-30. This age range is often considered a prime period for individuals to be physically fit and mentally capable of carrying out complex tasks. Additionally, individuals within this age range may have completed their education and gained some life experience, making them more susceptible to extremist ideologies.

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  • 24. 

    Which essential element of the integrated base defense concepts slows the enemy whithout the need or a massive response at the outset of an engagement?

    • Antcipate

    • Detect

    • Delay

    • Deny

    Correct Answer
    A. Delay
    Explanation
    Delay is the correct answer because it refers to the essential element of the integrated base defense concepts that slows the enemy without requiring a massive response at the beginning of an engagement. By implementing delay tactics, such as deploying obstacles or conducting small-scale attacks, the enemy's progress can be hindered, buying time for a more effective response or reinforcements to arrive. This approach allows for a more strategic and controlled approach to defense, rather than immediately resorting to overwhelming force.

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  • 25. 

    Since unit type codes are functionally grouped, what will all security forces UTCs have as a designator?

    • UT

    • FP

    • AT

    • QF

    Correct Answer
    A. QF
    Explanation
    The correct answer is QF because the question states that unit type codes are functionally grouped, implying that different types of units have different designators. Since the question specifically asks about security forces UTCs, it suggests that security forces units have the designator QF.

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  • 26. 

    Avoiding unnecessary complexity in norganizing, preparing, planning, and conductging military operations is what principle of war?

    • Unity of command

    • Simplicity

    • Objective

    • Offensive

    Correct Answer
    A. Simplicity
    Explanation
    The principle of simplicity in war emphasizes the importance of avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizing, preparing, planning, and conducting military operations. By keeping things simple, it becomes easier to understand and execute strategies, leading to more efficient and effective operations. This principle helps in reducing confusion, ensuring clear communication, and maximizing the chances of success on the battlefield.

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  • 27. 

    What would necessitae the need to dig hasty firing positions in the field?

    • When you have made contact with the enemy

    • When time and materials are not a factor

    • When there is ample natural cover

    • When aerial strikes are imminent

    Correct Answer
    A. When you have made contact with the enemy
    Explanation
    When you have made contact with the enemy, it becomes necessary to dig hasty firing positions in the field in order to provide immediate cover and protection for the troops. These firing positions allow the soldiers to quickly take defensive positions and engage the enemy, minimizing their exposure and increasing their chances of survival. By digging these positions, the soldiers can take advantage of the natural terrain and create barriers that offer them a tactical advantage in the battlefield.

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  • 28. 

    What provides key information to the defense force commander and support staffs on specific air bae defense activities in order to make decisions, and develop and implement tactical plans and orders?

    • Maps

    • Signals

    • Reports

    • Telegrams

    Correct Answer
    A. Reports
    Explanation
    Reports provide key information to the defense force commander and support staffs on specific air base defense activities. These reports contain detailed and timely information about the current situation, including enemy activities, friendly forces, and any other relevant factors. By analyzing these reports, the commander and support staffs can make informed decisions, develop tactical plans, and issue orders accordingly. Reports play a crucial role in ensuring effective communication and coordination within the defense force, enabling them to respond efficiently to any threats or challenges.

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  • 29. 

    At a minimum, which two S-functions must operate within the base defense operations center?

    • S1 and S3

    • S2 and S4

    • S2 and S3

    • S3 and S4

    Correct Answer
    A. S2 and S3
    Explanation
    The base defense operations center requires at least S2 and S3 S-functions to operate. These two S-functions are essential for the functioning and coordination of the defense operations center. Without S2 and S3, the base defense operations center would not be able to effectively carry out its duties and responsibilities.

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  • 30. 

    When are terrorist team members brought toegher for final rehearsal?

    • Before execution of attack

    • Just before departing for the target sight

    • One week prior to schduled attack exectuion

    • Never; terrorist team members do not conduct rehearsals.

    Correct Answer
    A. Just before departing for the target sight
    Explanation
    Terrorist team members are brought together for a final rehearsal just before departing for the target sight. This implies that the team members gather to practice and coordinate their actions shortly before they leave to carry out the attack.

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  • 31. 

    The capability to reduce the capability of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy to protect friendly assets and aim points with mateials and equipment that alter or obscure part of al of their multispectral signatures is

    • Cover, camouflage, and deception

    • Concealing camouflage deceitfully

    • Deceptive camouflage concealment

    • Camouflage, concealment, and deception

    Correct Answer
    A. Camouflage, concealment, and deception
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "camouflage, concealment, and deception". This is because the given explanation describes the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy, which are all related to camouflage and concealment. Additionally, the use of deception is mentioned as a means to protect friendly assets and aim points. Therefore, the answer "camouflage, concealment, and deception" best encompasses all these elements.

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  • 32. 

    Commanders do not use rules of engagement to ensure operations

    • Follow the rule of law

    • Meet manning standards

    • Follow national policy goals

    • Follow mission requirements

    Correct Answer
    A. Meet manning standards
    Explanation
    Commanders do not use rules of engagement to ensure operations, but they do meet manning standards. Manning standards refer to the requirement of having an adequate number of personnel to carry out a mission effectively. It is crucial for commanders to meet these standards to ensure that there are enough personnel available to perform the necessary tasks and responsibilities. Meeting manning standards helps ensure the smooth execution of operations and enhances the overall effectiveness of the unit or organization.

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  • 33. 

    Fixed ases having well estalished perimeters usually have limited

    • Depth

    • Intelligence

    • Denial capabilities

    • All around defense

    Correct Answer
    A. Depth
    Explanation
    Fixed assets that have well-established perimeters usually have limited depth. This means that their defense mechanisms and capabilities are focused on protecting the immediate surroundings and boundaries of the asset, rather than having extensive protection or intelligence capabilities that extend deep into the asset's interior. The emphasis is on securing the outer layers and preventing unauthorized access or breaches from occurring at the perimeter.

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  • 34. 

    What should always be your first priority of work?

    • Establish local security

    • Emplace obstacles and mines

    • Prepare primary fighting positions

    • Mark or improve marking for target reference points

    Correct Answer
    A. Establish local security
    Explanation
    Establishing local security should always be the first priority of work because it ensures the safety and protection of the immediate area. By establishing local security, individuals can create a safe environment to carry out further tasks and operations. It involves setting up perimeter defenses, conducting patrols, and implementing measures to detect and deter any potential threats. Without local security, the risk of attacks or infiltration increases, compromising the success and safety of subsequent activities. Therefore, establishing local security is crucial in maintaining a secure and controlled working environment.

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  • 35. 

    Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?

    • Partisans

    • Terrorists

    • Sympathizers

    • Agent activity

    Correct Answer
    A. Sympathizers
    Explanation
    Sympathizers are individuals who support a particular cause or group but may not directly engage in organized or planned activities. They may carry out random acts against targets of opportunity to express their support or solidarity. This behavior is characteristic of sympathizers rather than partisans, terrorists, or agent activity, which typically involve more organized and deliberate actions.

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  • 36. 

    Guidance on the application of force and exercising of the inherent right and oblligation of self-defense is the purpose of the

    • United nations

    • Geneva convention

    • Joint force commander's directives

    • US military's standing rules of engagement

    Correct Answer
    A. US military's standing rules of engagement
    Explanation
    The US military's standing rules of engagement provide guidance on the application of force and the exercise of the inherent right and obligation of self-defense. These rules outline the specific circumstances under which military personnel are authorized to use force, including the types of threats that justify self-defense actions. They ensure that military operations are conducted within legal and ethical boundaries, promoting the protection of civilians and minimizing unnecessary harm. By following these rules, the US military aims to maintain discipline, accountability, and adherence to international laws during combat operations.

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  • 37. 

    In terms of engagement ranges, machine guns in the base of fire element may find themselves firing at targes within how many meters of the element?

    • 400

    • 600

    • 800

    • 1,000

    Correct Answer
    A. 800
    Explanation
    Machine guns in the base of fire element may find themselves firing at targets within 800 meters of the element. This suggests that the effective engagement range for machine guns in the base of fire element is up to 800 meters.

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  • 38. 

    Against what threat levels can close precision engagement add significantly to delaying actions by enhancing the standoff capabilities of defense forces?

    • III and IV

    • II and III

    • II and IV

    • I and IV

    Correct Answer
    A. II and III
    Explanation
    Close precision engagement can add significantly to delaying actions by enhancing the standoff capabilities of defense forces against threat levels II and III. This means that in situations where the threat is moderate to high, close precision engagement can be effective in buying time and creating distance between the defense forces and the enemy. By utilizing accurate and targeted strikes, defense forces can effectively engage the enemy from a safe distance, minimizing the risk to their own forces and buying valuable time to regroup and strategize.

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  • 39. 

    What factor is the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interets?

    • Activity

    • Intentions

    • Operational capability

    • Operating environment

    Correct Answer
    A. Intentions
    Explanation
    The factor that is the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests is intentions. This refers to the motivations and goals of the individuals or groups involved in carrying out terrorist attacks. The desire to cause harm or create fear, as well as the history of past attacks, can provide insight into the intentions of these terrorists. Understanding their intentions is crucial for developing effective counterterrorism strategies and preventing future attacks.

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  • 40. 

    The political-military nature of military operations other than war requires you to coordinate your activities

    • Through the department of state, drug enforcement agency, and immigration and naturalization service

    • With a number of government and civilian agencies outside the depatment of defense

    • Through the red cross, red crescent, and cooperative for assistance and relief everywhere

    • Through the joint rear area commander

    Correct Answer
    A. With a number of government and civilian agencies outside the depatment of defense
    Explanation
    The correct answer suggests that the political-military nature of military operations other than war necessitates coordination with various government and civilian agencies outside the Department of Defense. This is because these operations often involve non-combat activities such as diplomacy, law enforcement, and humanitarian assistance, which require collaboration with other organizations and agencies to achieve the desired objectives.

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  • 41. 

    What is the time limit for an air and space expeditionary force package to respond to any unexpected contingency?

    • 12 hours

    • 24 hours

    • 48 hours

    • 72 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 72 hours
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 72 hours. This means that an air and space expeditionary force package has a time limit of 72 hours to respond to any unexpected contingency. This indicates that they must be prepared to mobilize and take action within 72 hours of being notified of a contingency situation. This timeframe allows for efficient and timely response to ensure readiness and effectiveness in addressing unexpected events.

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  • 42. 

    You should make restricted areas as small as possible to elminate the

    • The number of troops required guarding it

    • Amount of time it would take to patrol the area

    • Need for securing and maintaining the unnecessary terrain

    • Necessity of care and maintenance required for a larger area

    Correct Answer
    A. Need for securing and maintaining the unnecessary terrain
    Explanation
    By making restricted areas as small as possible, the need for securing and maintaining unnecessary terrain is eliminated. This means that fewer resources and efforts are required to protect and monitor the area, as there is less land to cover. By minimizing the size of restricted areas, the focus can be directed towards more critical and vulnerable locations, reducing the overall burden on troops and minimizing the costs associated with securing larger territories.

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  • 43. 

    Our first line o defense against intelligence collection efforts is

    • Communication security

    • Computer security

    • Information security

    • Operations security

    Correct Answer
    A. Operations security
    Explanation
    Operations security refers to the measures taken to protect sensitive information and activities from being exploited by adversaries. It involves identifying critical information, analyzing potential threats, and implementing countermeasures to mitigate risks. By maintaining operational security, organizations can safeguard their operations and prevent unauthorized access or intelligence collection efforts. Communication security, computer security, and information security are also important aspects of overall security, but operations security specifically focuses on protecting sensitive operations and activities.

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  • 44. 

    How long are the majority of security forces unit type codes capable of existing without support?

    • 5 days

    • 7 days

    • 14 days

    • 30 days

    Correct Answer
    A. 5 days
    Explanation
    The majority of security forces unit type codes are capable of existing without support for 5 days. This means that these unit types have the necessary resources and capabilities to operate independently for a period of 5 days without requiring any external support or assistance. After this time frame, they would likely need to replenish supplies, receive reinforcements, or receive support from other units or resources.

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  • 45. 

    Protective barriers consist of what two major categories?

    • Man-made and fabricated

    • Natural and structural

    • Hard and soft

    • Left and right

    Correct Answer
    A. Natural and structural
    Explanation
    Protective barriers can be categorized into two major categories: natural and structural. Natural barriers refer to those that occur naturally in the environment, such as mountains, rivers, or forests, which provide protection against external threats. On the other hand, structural barriers are man-made and fabricated, such as walls, fences, or dams, which are constructed to provide protection and prevent unauthorized access. These two categories encompass the different types of barriers that can be utilized for protection purposes.

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  • 46. 

    The immediate impression the entry control facilityy must imparr through its design is one of

    • Strict and rigid rules

    • Relaxation and friendliness

    • Professionalism and commitment

    • Openness, professionalism and commitment

    Correct Answer
    A. Professionalism and commitment
    Explanation
    The immediate impression that the entry control facility must impart through its design is professionalism and commitment. This means that the facility should convey a sense of seriousness, competence, and dedication to its purpose. The design should reflect a professional atmosphere and convey a commitment to maintaining security and control.

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  • 47. 

    Which threat level uses doctrine that stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers?

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. III
    Explanation
    Threat level III uses doctrine that stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers. This means that in threat level III, the focus is on deploying battalion-size units using helicopters to penetrate enemy lines and operate at a distance of 50 kilometers. This strategy allows for quick and efficient insertion of troops into enemy territory, enabling them to carry out missions effectively.

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  • 48. 

    What assesment addresses the broad range of physical threats to the security of personnel and assets, and should be conducted periodically?

    • Risk

    • Threat

    • Vulnerability

    • Anti-terrorism

    Correct Answer
    A. Vulnerability
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "vulnerability." Vulnerability assessment is a process that helps identify and evaluate potential weaknesses or vulnerabilities in the security of personnel and assets. It involves assessing the likelihood and impact of various physical threats to determine the level of risk. Conducting vulnerability assessments periodically is important to ensure that security measures remain effective and up to date.

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  • 49. 

    What does the risk management process llow the commander to determine?

    • Countermeasures options

    • If reassessments and ollow ups are needed

    • Whether to introduce risk management process raining

    • If there is a need to maximize live-fire training on full impact ranges

    Correct Answer
    A. Countermeasures options
    Explanation
    The risk management process allows the commander to determine countermeasures options. This means that by going through the risk management process, the commander can identify and evaluate potential risks and then decide on the appropriate actions or countermeasures to mitigate those risks. It enables the commander to assess the available options and choose the most effective measures to minimize or eliminate the identified risks.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 10, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Bradyk
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