7 Level Vol 2(Aircraft Technology)

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Bradyk
B
Bradyk
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 3 | Total Attempts: 8,741
| Attempts: 2,791 | Questions: 90
Please wait...
Question 1 / 90
0 %
0/100
Score 0/100
1. The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is

Explanation

The correct answer is bombing. Terrorist groups often resort to using bombs as a tactic to cause destruction, create fear, and achieve their objectives. Bombings can be carried out in various ways, such as suicide bombings, car bombings, or improvised explosive devices (IEDs). These attacks can target public places, transportation systems, government buildings, or other high-profile locations. Bombings have been used by numerous terrorist organizations worldwide, and their devastating impact makes them a preferred choice for inflicting mass casualties and generating widespread panic and terror.

Submit
Please wait...
About This Quiz
7 Level Vol 2(Aircraft Technology) - Quiz

This is CDC's volume 2.   This quiz consist of 90 questions.   you must pass with a score of at least a 95

2. A terrorist grup that generally operatss independently of , but receives support from, on or more governments is

Explanation

State-supported refers to a terrorist group that operates independently but receives support from one or more governments. This support can come in various forms, such as funding, training, weapons, or safe havens. The term "state-supported" implies that the group is backed by a state or states, which may have their own political or strategic motivations for supporting the group's activities. This distinction is important because it highlights the involvement and complicity of governments in facilitating or enabling terrorist activities.

Submit
3. When should commanders and planners identify mission-critical information?

Explanation

Commanders and planners should identify mission-critical information at the earliest possible moment. This is because identifying such information early allows for better planning, decision-making, and execution of the mission. By identifying mission-critical information early on, commanders and planners can assess the risks, allocate resources effectively, and develop appropriate strategies to achieve mission success. Delaying the identification of mission-critical information can lead to inadequate preparations and potentially impact the outcome of the mission. Therefore, it is crucial for commanders and planners to identify mission-critical information as soon as possible.

Submit
4. Where is an excellent position to place a marksman in an urban area?

Explanation

Placing a marksman at the peak of a roof in an urban area is an excellent position because it provides a high vantage point, allowing the marksman to have a clear view of the surroundings and potential targets. Being elevated on a roof also offers better cover and protection compared to other options like being under a parked vehicle or in a shell crate. This position enables the marksman to effectively engage targets from a safe distance while minimizing the risk of being detected or targeted themselves.

Submit
5. What is the staff make-up for the S3?

Explanation

The staff make-up for the S3 includes the operations officer and staff. This means that the S3 is composed of individuals who are responsible for coordinating and overseeing the operational activities of the organization. They work together to ensure that operations are carried out efficiently and effectively.

Submit
6. To modify to prevent recognition of the true identiy of character of an asset or activity is to

Explanation

To modify something in order to prevent its true identity from being recognized, one would use the method of disguise. Disguise involves altering the appearance or characteristics of an asset or activity to make it appear as something else, thus concealing its true nature. This can be done through various means such as changing physical appearance, behavior, or even location. By disguising something, it becomes difficult for others to recognize its true identity, thereby ensuring secrecy or protection.

Submit
7. What is a base already possessing resources and an established infrastructure?

Explanation

A main operating base refers to a base that already has resources and an established infrastructure. This means that the base is fully equipped and ready to support operations without requiring additional resources or infrastructure development. It is a fully functional and self-sufficient base that can serve as a hub for various military activities and operations.

Submit
8. When conducting ambushes, units refer to the engagement areas as

Explanation

When conducting ambushes, units refer to the engagement areas as the "kill zone" because it accurately describes the purpose and outcome of this military tactic. The kill zone is the area where the ambush force intends to inflict maximum casualties on the enemy by using surprise and superior firepower. It is strategically chosen and carefully planned to maximize the chances of success and minimize the risk to the ambushing force. The term "kill zone" emphasizes the aggressive and lethal nature of the operation, highlighting the objective of eliminating or incapacitating the enemy forces.

Submit
9. The USAF antiterrorism program is designed around what three principles?

Explanation

The USAF antiterrorism program is designed around force protection conditions, assessment factors, and threat levels. Force protection conditions refer to the measures taken to protect military personnel, facilities, and resources from potential threats. Assessment factors involve evaluating the likelihood and potential impact of a threat. Threat levels are used to categorize the level of threat and determine appropriate security measures. By considering these three principles, the USAF antiterrorism program aims to effectively mitigate and respond to potential terrorist threats.

Submit
10. Compliling and examining all available information concerning potential threats by threat analysts is a/an

Explanation

Threat analysts continuously compile and examine all available information concerning potential threats. This process is ongoing and does not have a specific end or start date. It is a continual process because new threats can emerge at any time, and existing threats can evolve or change. Therefore, threat analysts must constantly monitor and analyze the information to stay updated and ensure effective threat detection and mitigation.

Submit
11. Based on the integrated base defense concept of operations, what are all airmen cosidered?

Explanation

Based on the integrated base defense concept of operations, all airmen are considered sensors. This means that they play a crucial role in detecting and monitoring potential threats to the base. Airmen are responsible for observing their surroundings, reporting any suspicious activities, and providing important information to the base defense system. Their vigilance and awareness make them an integral part of the overall defense strategy.

Submit
12. A typical organization of a terrorist group consist of

Explanation

The correct answer is "hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support." This answer accurately describes the typical organization of a terrorist group. The "hard-core leadership" refers to the top leaders who make strategic decisions and provide overall direction. The "active cadre" refers to the members who actively participate in carrying out terrorist activities. The "active support" refers to individuals who provide logistical support and assistance to the active cadre. Lastly, the "passive support" refers to individuals who may sympathize with the group's cause but do not actively participate in terrorist activities.

Submit
13. What is one of the fundamental purposes of the law of armed conflict?

Explanation

The law of armed conflict is designed to prevent unnecessary suffering during times of war. It aims to establish rules and regulations that govern the conduct of armed forces, with the objective of minimizing the human cost of war. By prohibiting certain actions such as targeting civilians or using weapons that cause excessive harm, the law seeks to protect individuals who are not directly involved in the conflict. This helps to maintain a level of humanity and limit the suffering inflicted upon those affected by war.

Submit
14. Where is the best position for you to locate and observatioon post/listening post?

Explanation

The best position for a observation post/listening post is one that doesn't draw attention. This is because the purpose of such a post is to observe and gather information without being detected. If the post is located in a water tower, it may be easily spotted by others. Similarly, if it is in a stand-alone position or a single small gathering of trees, it may attract attention and raise suspicion. Therefore, the most effective location for an observation post/listening post would be somewhere inconspicuous and inconspicuous.

Submit
15. Observation post/listening post teams are not equipped to

Explanation

Observation post/listening post teams are not equipped to indicate enemy location using flares. This means that these teams do not have the necessary tools or equipment to use flares as a means of indicating the location of the enemy. Flares are often used to signal or illuminate a specific area, but these teams are not trained or equipped to use them for this purpose.

Submit
16. The primay mission of a joint operation is

Explanation

The primary mission of a joint operation is to sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force. This means that the joint operation is responsible for providing the necessary support and resources to ensure the success and continuation of the overall mission. This could include logistical support, intelligence gathering, coordination of forces, and any other tasks that are necessary to keep the campaign and major operations running smoothly.

Submit
17. When terrorists attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities, what is their mission?

Explanation

The mission of terrorists when they attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities is to persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies.

Submit
18. When the machine gun is not assigned to the maneuver element, what is its primary mission?

Explanation

When the machine gun is not assigned to the maneuver element, its primary mission is to provide covering fire for the assault element. This means that its main purpose is to suppress the enemy and provide protection for the advancing assault team. By laying down a continuous stream of fire, the machine gun helps to keep the enemy's heads down and allows the assault element to maneuver and close in on the enemy position more effectively.

Submit
19. What does not need to be shown on a sketch?

Explanation

The location of the home station flight does not need to be shown on a sketch. The sketch is primarily used to depict observation post/listening post locations, patrol routes, maximum engagement lines for light anti-tank weapons, mines, sensors, and obstacles. The home station flight, which refers to the base or station where the flight originates from, is not relevant to the visual representation of these elements and therefore does not need to be included in the sketch.

Submit
20. Military operations other than war missions do not include

Explanation

Military operations other than war missions are typically non-combat operations that are carried out by the military to achieve objectives other than traditional warfare. These operations often involve activities such as peacekeeping, humanitarian assistance, and quarantine measures. However, clandestine infiltration refers to covert operations that involve entering or infiltrating a target area or organization without being detected. It is not typically considered a part of military operations other than war missions, as it involves secretive and covert actions that are more closely associated with intelligence gathering or special operations.

Submit
21. Generally, specially trained terrorists are of abover average intelligence and between the ages of

Explanation

This answer suggests that generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and fall within the age range of 23-30. This age range is often considered a prime period for individuals to be physically fit and mentally capable of carrying out complex tasks. Additionally, individuals within this age range may have completed their education and gained some life experience, making them more susceptible to extremist ideologies.

Submit
22. Which essential element of the integrated base defense concepts slows the enemy whithout the need or a massive response at the outset of an engagement?

Explanation

Delay is the correct answer because it refers to the essential element of the integrated base defense concepts that slows the enemy without requiring a massive response at the beginning of an engagement. By implementing delay tactics, such as deploying obstacles or conducting small-scale attacks, the enemy's progress can be hindered, buying time for a more effective response or reinforcements to arrive. This approach allows for a more strategic and controlled approach to defense, rather than immediately resorting to overwhelming force.

Submit
23. Since unit type codes are functionally grouped, what will all security forces UTCs have as a designator?

Explanation

The correct answer is QF because the question states that unit type codes are functionally grouped, implying that different types of units have different designators. Since the question specifically asks about security forces UTCs, it suggests that security forces units have the designator QF.

Submit
24. Avoiding unnecessary complexity in norganizing, preparing, planning, and conductging military operations is what principle of war?

Explanation

The principle of simplicity in war emphasizes the importance of avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizing, preparing, planning, and conducting military operations. By keeping things simple, it becomes easier to understand and execute strategies, leading to more efficient and effective operations. This principle helps in reducing confusion, ensuring clear communication, and maximizing the chances of success on the battlefield.

Submit
25. What would necessitae the need to dig hasty firing positions in the field?

Explanation

When you have made contact with the enemy, it becomes necessary to dig hasty firing positions in the field in order to provide immediate cover and protection for the troops. These firing positions allow the soldiers to quickly take defensive positions and engage the enemy, minimizing their exposure and increasing their chances of survival. By digging these positions, the soldiers can take advantage of the natural terrain and create barriers that offer them a tactical advantage in the battlefield.

Submit
26. What provides key information to the defense force commander and support staffs on specific air bae defense activities in order to make decisions, and develop and implement tactical plans and orders?

Explanation

Reports provide key information to the defense force commander and support staffs on specific air base defense activities. These reports contain detailed and timely information about the current situation, including enemy activities, friendly forces, and any other relevant factors. By analyzing these reports, the commander and support staffs can make informed decisions, develop tactical plans, and issue orders accordingly. Reports play a crucial role in ensuring effective communication and coordination within the defense force, enabling them to respond efficiently to any threats or challenges.

Submit
27. The tactical area of responsibility begins at the

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
28. The primary responsibility of air base defense forces is

Explanation

The primary responsibility of air base defense forces is to defeat level I threats, which are the most immediate and direct threats to the air base. Additionally, they are also responsible for disrupting or delaying level II threats, which are slightly less immediate but still pose a significant risk. This is done within the tactical area of responsibility surrounding the air base, where the defense forces have jurisdiction and control. By effectively addressing these threats, the air base defense forces ensure the safety and security of the air base and its operations.

Submit
29. When are terrorist team members brought toegher for final rehearsal?

Explanation

Terrorist team members are brought together for a final rehearsal just before departing for the target sight. This implies that the team members gather to practice and coordinate their actions shortly before they leave to carry out the attack.

Submit
30. The capability to reduce the capability of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy to protect friendly assets and aim points with mateials and equipment that alter or obscure part of al of their multispectral signatures is

Explanation

The correct answer is "camouflage, concealment, and deception". This is because the given explanation describes the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy, which are all related to camouflage and concealment. Additionally, the use of deception is mentioned as a means to protect friendly assets and aim points. Therefore, the answer "camouflage, concealment, and deception" best encompasses all these elements.

Submit
31. Commanders do not use rules of engagement to ensure operations

Explanation

Commanders do not use rules of engagement to ensure operations, but they do meet manning standards. Manning standards refer to the requirement of having an adequate number of personnel to carry out a mission effectively. It is crucial for commanders to meet these standards to ensure that there are enough personnel available to perform the necessary tasks and responsibilities. Meeting manning standards helps ensure the smooth execution of operations and enhances the overall effectiveness of the unit or organization.

Submit
32. Fixed ases having well estalished perimeters usually have limited

Explanation

Fixed assets that have well-established perimeters usually have limited depth. This means that their defense mechanisms and capabilities are focused on protecting the immediate surroundings and boundaries of the asset, rather than having extensive protection or intelligence capabilities that extend deep into the asset's interior. The emphasis is on securing the outer layers and preventing unauthorized access or breaches from occurring at the perimeter.

Submit
33. What should always be your first priority of work?

Explanation

Establishing local security should always be the first priority of work because it ensures the safety and protection of the immediate area. By establishing local security, individuals can create a safe environment to carry out further tasks and operations. It involves setting up perimeter defenses, conducting patrols, and implementing measures to detect and deter any potential threats. Without local security, the risk of attacks or infiltration increases, compromising the success and safety of subsequent activities. Therefore, establishing local security is crucial in maintaining a secure and controlled working environment.

Submit
34. At a minimum, which two S-functions must operate within the base defense operations center?

Explanation

The base defense operations center requires at least S2 and S3 S-functions to operate. These two S-functions are essential for the functioning and coordination of the defense operations center. Without S2 and S3, the base defense operations center would not be able to effectively carry out its duties and responsibilities.

Submit
35. Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?

Explanation

Sympathizers are individuals who support a particular cause or group but may not directly engage in organized or planned activities. They may carry out random acts against targets of opportunity to express their support or solidarity. This behavior is characteristic of sympathizers rather than partisans, terrorists, or agent activity, which typically involve more organized and deliberate actions.

Submit
36. Guidance on the application of force and exercising of the inherent right and oblligation of self-defense is the purpose of the

Explanation

The US military's standing rules of engagement provide guidance on the application of force and the exercise of the inherent right and obligation of self-defense. These rules outline the specific circumstances under which military personnel are authorized to use force, including the types of threats that justify self-defense actions. They ensure that military operations are conducted within legal and ethical boundaries, promoting the protection of civilians and minimizing unnecessary harm. By following these rules, the US military aims to maintain discipline, accountability, and adherence to international laws during combat operations.

Submit
37. In terms of engagement ranges, machine guns in the base of fire element may find themselves firing at targes within how many meters of the element?

Explanation

Machine guns in the base of fire element may find themselves firing at targets within 800 meters of the element. This suggests that the effective engagement range for machine guns in the base of fire element is up to 800 meters.

Submit
38. Against what threat levels can close precision engagement add significantly to delaying actions by enhancing the standoff capabilities of defense forces?

Explanation

Close precision engagement can add significantly to delaying actions by enhancing the standoff capabilities of defense forces against threat levels II and III. This means that in situations where the threat is moderate to high, close precision engagement can be effective in buying time and creating distance between the defense forces and the enemy. By utilizing accurate and targeted strikes, defense forces can effectively engage the enemy from a safe distance, minimizing the risk to their own forces and buying valuable time to regroup and strategize.

Submit
39. What factor is the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interets?

Explanation

The factor that is the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests is intentions. This refers to the motivations and goals of the individuals or groups involved in carrying out terrorist attacks. The desire to cause harm or create fear, as well as the history of past attacks, can provide insight into the intentions of these terrorists. Understanding their intentions is crucial for developing effective counterterrorism strategies and preventing future attacks.

Submit
40. The political-military nature of military operations other than war requires you to coordinate your activities

Explanation

The correct answer suggests that the political-military nature of military operations other than war necessitates coordination with various government and civilian agencies outside the Department of Defense. This is because these operations often involve non-combat activities such as diplomacy, law enforcement, and humanitarian assistance, which require collaboration with other organizations and agencies to achieve the desired objectives.

Submit
41. What is the time limit for an air and space expeditionary force package to respond to any unexpected contingency?

Explanation

The correct answer is 72 hours. This means that an air and space expeditionary force package has a time limit of 72 hours to respond to any unexpected contingency. This indicates that they must be prepared to mobilize and take action within 72 hours of being notified of a contingency situation. This timeframe allows for efficient and timely response to ensure readiness and effectiveness in addressing unexpected events.

Submit
42. You should make restricted areas as small as possible to elminate the

Explanation

By making restricted areas as small as possible, the need for securing and maintaining unnecessary terrain is eliminated. This means that fewer resources and efforts are required to protect and monitor the area, as there is less land to cover. By minimizing the size of restricted areas, the focus can be directed towards more critical and vulnerable locations, reducing the overall burden on troops and minimizing the costs associated with securing larger territories.

Submit
43. Our first line o defense against intelligence collection efforts is

Explanation

Operations security refers to the measures taken to protect sensitive information and activities from being exploited by adversaries. It involves identifying critical information, analyzing potential threats, and implementing countermeasures to mitigate risks. By maintaining operational security, organizations can safeguard their operations and prevent unauthorized access or intelligence collection efforts. Communication security, computer security, and information security are also important aspects of overall security, but operations security specifically focuses on protecting sensitive operations and activities.

Submit
44. How long are the majority of security forces unit type codes capable of existing without support?

Explanation

The majority of security forces unit type codes are capable of existing without support for 5 days. This means that these unit types have the necessary resources and capabilities to operate independently for a period of 5 days without requiring any external support or assistance. After this time frame, they would likely need to replenish supplies, receive reinforcements, or receive support from other units or resources.

Submit
45. Protective barriers consist of what two major categories?

Explanation

Protective barriers can be categorized into two major categories: natural and structural. Natural barriers refer to those that occur naturally in the environment, such as mountains, rivers, or forests, which provide protection against external threats. On the other hand, structural barriers are man-made and fabricated, such as walls, fences, or dams, which are constructed to provide protection and prevent unauthorized access. These two categories encompass the different types of barriers that can be utilized for protection purposes.

Submit
46. The immediate impression the entry control facilityy must imparr through its design is one of

Explanation

The immediate impression that the entry control facility must impart through its design is professionalism and commitment. This means that the facility should convey a sense of seriousness, competence, and dedication to its purpose. The design should reflect a professional atmosphere and convey a commitment to maintaining security and control.

Submit
47. Which threat level uses doctrine that stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers?

Explanation

Threat level III uses doctrine that stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers. This means that in threat level III, the focus is on deploying battalion-size units using helicopters to penetrate enemy lines and operate at a distance of 50 kilometers. This strategy allows for quick and efficient insertion of troops into enemy territory, enabling them to carry out missions effectively.

Submit
48. What assesment addresses the broad range of physical threats to the security of personnel and assets, and should be conducted periodically?

Explanation

The correct answer is "vulnerability." Vulnerability assessment is a process that helps identify and evaluate potential weaknesses or vulnerabilities in the security of personnel and assets. It involves assessing the likelihood and impact of various physical threats to determine the level of risk. Conducting vulnerability assessments periodically is important to ensure that security measures remain effective and up to date.

Submit
49. What does the risk management process llow the commander to determine?

Explanation

The risk management process allows the commander to determine countermeasures options. This means that by going through the risk management process, the commander can identify and evaluate potential risks and then decide on the appropriate actions or countermeasures to mitigate those risks. It enables the commander to assess the available options and choose the most effective measures to minimize or eliminate the identified risks.

Submit
50. In what way can subordinate joint force commands organize?

Explanation

Subordinate joint force commands can organize by service component or function. This means that they can be structured based on the different branches of the military (such as Army, Navy, Air Force) or by specific functions within the command (such as logistics, intelligence, operations). This allows for efficient coordination and utilization of resources within the joint force command, ensuring that each service component or function is appropriately represented and contributing to the overall mission.

Submit
51. The primary purpose of the operations security program is to

Explanation

The primary purpose of the operations security program is to support the commander by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPESEC. This means that the program is designed to help the commander protect sensitive information and prevent it from falling into the wrong hands. By actively practicing OPESEC, the command or organization can identify and mitigate potential vulnerabilities or threats to their operations, ensuring the security and effectiveness of their activities.

Submit
52. A "call for fire" is a message

Explanation

In military operations, a "call for fire" is a message that is prepared by the observer. The observer, who is usually positioned in the field, is responsible for identifying targets and requesting artillery or air support. They gather information about the target's location, description, and desired effects, and then prepare a detailed message known as a "call for fire." This message is then transmitted to the unit responsible for providing fire support, such as artillery or aircraft, to engage the target. Therefore, the correct answer is "prepared by the observer."

Submit
53. What group routinely manages the risk assessment process fro commanders?

Explanation

Force protection working groups are responsible for managing the risk assessment process for commanders. These groups are specifically focused on ensuring the safety and security of military personnel, resources, and operations. They analyze potential threats and vulnerabilities, develop risk mitigation strategies, and provide recommendations to commanders for effective decision-making. By routinely managing the risk assessment process, force protection working groups play a crucial role in maintaining operational readiness and safeguarding military assets.

Submit
54. What pre deployment factor is considered a constant?

Explanation

The pre-deployment factor that is considered a constant is treaties. Treaties are legally binding agreements between countries that outline specific terms and conditions. Unlike weather, intelligence, and political climate, which can vary and change over time, treaties are typically designed to remain consistent and stable. Therefore, treaties are considered a constant factor when considering pre-deployment decisions.

Submit
55. What operations are key to assembling an accurate picture of the battle space?

Explanation

Intelligence is the key operation to assembling an accurate picture of the battle space. Ground defense refers to the protection of a specific area, while clandestine operations involve secrecy and concealment. Aerial operations pertain to activities conducted in the air. While these operations may contribute to understanding the battle space, intelligence gathering is crucial as it involves collecting and analyzing information from various sources to provide a comprehensive and accurate understanding of the situation.

Submit
56. Proper machine gun placement maximizes fire in

Explanation

Proper machine gun placement maximizes fire in width and depth. This means that the machine gun is positioned in a way that allows it to cover a wide area horizontally (width) and penetrate deep into the target area vertically (depth). By doing so, the machine gun can effectively engage multiple targets and provide maximum coverage, increasing its effectiveness in combat situations.

Submit
57. A relatively secure area that allows for positve identification fo personnel and vehicles is defined as

Explanation

A search area is a relatively secure area that allows for positive identification of personnel and vehicles. This suggests that there are measures in place to ensure that only authorized individuals and vehicles can enter the area. It implies that there may be security protocols, such as ID checks or vehicle inspections, to ensure the safety and security of the area.

Submit
58. Which threat spectrum level consits of small tactical units, unconventional warfare forces, and guerrillas?

Explanation

Threat spectrum level II consists of small tactical units, unconventional warfare forces, and guerrillas. This level represents a higher level of threat compared to level I, as it includes organized groups that operate in unconventional ways and pose a significant challenge to conventional military forces. These small tactical units and guerrillas often employ tactics such as ambushes, hit-and-run attacks, and guerrilla warfare strategies, making them difficult to combat.

Submit
59. What does securiy forces provide for the integrated base defense concept?

Explanation

Security forces provide the foundation for the integrated base defense concept. They establish and maintain the necessary security measures and protocols to protect the base from potential threats. Without a strong foundation provided by security forces, the other aspects of integrated base defense, such as support, tactical operations, and retrograde operations, would not be effective. Security forces lay the groundwork for the overall security and protection of the base, making them an essential component of the integrated base defense concept.

Submit
60. What two factors add depth to the battle outside the perimeter, allowing the base to continue its primary mission with minimal interference?

Explanation

Counter reconnaissance and counter attack add depth to the battle outside the perimeter by providing a defensive strategy against enemy reconnaissance efforts and launching offensive attacks against the enemy. Counter reconnaissance involves actively seeking and neutralizing enemy reconnaissance elements, preventing them from gathering information about the base and its operations. Counter attack involves launching offensive actions against the enemy, disrupting their plans and diverting their attention away from the base. By implementing these tactics, the base can continue its primary mission with minimal interference from the enemy.

Submit
61. What does the air force maintain to support the on-call air and space expeditionary force, as well as on-call lead wings to open expeditionary bases?

Explanation

The air force maintains five BGL's to support the on-call air and space expeditionary force, as well as on-call lead wings to open expeditionary bases. These BGL's are responsible for coordinating and leading bomber group operations, ensuring effective communication and organization within the force. Having five BGL's allows for sufficient coverage and support for the various missions and operations that the air force undertakes.

Submit
62. What unit type code is ssential to direct the fire of and provide support for the mortar teams?

Explanation

The correct answer is QFEBK. This unit type code is essential to direct the fire of and provide support for the mortar teams.

Submit
63. The environment for security forces personnel working in the entry control facilities must be

Explanation

The environment for security forces personnel working in the entry control facilities must be safe and comfortable. This is important to ensure the well-being and productivity of the personnel. A safe environment reduces the risk of accidents, injuries, or security breaches, while a comfortable environment promotes a positive working atmosphere and reduces stress levels. Providing security forces with a safe and comfortable environment enables them to effectively carry out their duties and maintain the security of the facility.

Submit
64. When the need for a new unity type code or a major change in an exiting UTC is required, who may initiate the action for the change?

Explanation

Any level may initiate the action for a new unity type code or a major change in an existing UTC. This means that individuals at any level within the organization have the authority and ability to propose and initiate these changes. It is not limited to a specific level or rank within the hierarchy. This allows for flexibility and adaptability within the organization to address evolving needs and requirements.

Submit
65. What is the list of all unit type codes approved for use in planning?

Explanation

The correct answer is "air force-wide unit type code availability system". This is the most appropriate option as it suggests a system that provides a list of all unit type codes approved for use in planning. The other options, such as the air force unit tasking document and air force-wide unit type code roster, may contain some unit type codes but do not specifically indicate that they provide a comprehensive list. The air expeditionary unit tasking summary sheet is unrelated to the question.

Submit
66. What should the drense force commander consider in the sectorization scheme to provide maimum protection for base critical resources?

Explanation

The dense force commander should consider the entire tactical area of responsibility in the sectorization scheme to provide maximum protection for base critical resources. This means that the commander needs to take into account the entire area for which they are responsible in terms of defense and allocate resources accordingly. By considering the entire tactical area, the commander can ensure that all critical resources within that area are adequately protected.

Submit
67. When establishing base sectors, you must ensure critical resources and areas are

Explanation

When establishing base sectors, it is important to ensure that critical resources and areas are evenly grouped. This means that these important elements should be distributed evenly across the different sectors of the base. This ensures that no single sector becomes too heavily burdened or vulnerable, and that the resources and areas are accessible and well-distributed throughout the base.

Submit
68. Once fully implemented, what will the integrated base defense security system greatly enhance in base defensive operations?

Explanation

The integrated base defense security system will greatly enhance detection and security in base defensive operations. This means that the system will improve the ability to identify and recognize potential threats or breaches in security, as well as enhance the overall protection and safety measures in place. By combining advanced detection technologies and security protocols, the system will provide a comprehensive and robust defense mechanism for the base.

Submit
69. The authorty for establishing a national defense area is shown with

Explanation

The correct answer is a temporary sign. This is because a temporary sign is commonly used to indicate the establishment of a national defense area. It is a visible and easily recognizable method of marking off the area and informing people about the restricted zone. The other options, such as a red line, rope marking off the area, or posted guards every 50 feet, may also be used in certain situations, but a temporary sign is the most commonly used and effective method for indicating a national defense area.

Submit
70. What unit type code is composed of one home station validated explosive detection dog and an assigned handler?

Explanation

A unit type code composed of one home station validated explosive detection dog and an assigned handler is represented by the code QFEBR.

Submit
71. The key to force protection countermeasure planning is

Explanation

The key to force protection countermeasure planning is protecting sensitive information. This means that in order to effectively plan and implement countermeasures to protect forces, it is crucial to safeguard any sensitive information that could be exploited by adversaries. By ensuring the confidentiality and integrity of sensitive data, such as operational plans, troop movements, and intelligence, potential threats can be mitigated and the overall force protection can be enhanced.

Submit
72. As a total force organization, a typical air and space expeditionary force is responsive and capable of

Explanation

A typical air and space expeditionary force is capable of deploying to conduct a broad range of operations with minimum warning time. This means that they can quickly and efficiently respond to various situations and carry out a wide range of missions, such as combat operations, humanitarian assistance, or disaster relief. They are able to do so with minimal advance notice, allowing them to rapidly mobilize and deploy to different locations as needed. This flexibility and responsiveness make them an effective force in addressing various challenges and supporting military operations.

Submit
73. Directing your operaion toward a defined and attainable objective that contributes to operational and tactical claim is what principle of war?

Explanation

The principle of war being referred to in this question is "objective." This principle emphasizes the importance of having a clear and achievable goal in any military operation. By directing one's operations towards a defined objective, it ensures that the efforts are focused and purposeful, contributing to both operational and tactical success. The objective serves as a guiding point, allowing for effective planning and coordination of resources to achieve the desired outcome.

Submit
74. Because the danger increases with the size of the weapons, how should artillery be used when integrating indirect suppressive fires to support the breach and asssault?

Explanation

Artillery should be used to isolate the objective when integrating indirect suppressive fires to support the breach and assault. This means that the artillery should be directed towards enemy positions away from the breach site, in order to create a barrier or separation between the objective and the surrounding enemy forces. By isolating the objective, the artillery fire can prevent reinforcements or supplies from reaching the enemy, making it easier for the breaching and assaulting forces to achieve their objectives.

Submit
75. What is an engagement priority for machine gun gunners to direct their fire?

Explanation

The engagement priority for machine gun gunners to direct their fire is crew-served automatic weapons. This means that when engaging targets, machine gun gunners prioritize targeting and neutralizing enemy crew-served automatic weapons. These weapons are typically more dangerous and can cause significant damage to friendly forces, making them a priority target for suppression or elimination.

Submit
76. What are the two types of obstacles you may encounter?

Explanation

The correct answer is "existing and reinforcing" because when encountering obstacles, there are generally two types. Existing obstacles refer to those that are already present and need to be navigated around or overcome. Reinforcing obstacles, on the other hand, are obstacles that may be created or strengthened by external factors, making them more difficult to overcome. Therefore, these two types encompass the different challenges that one may encounter when faced with obstacles.

Submit
77. During peacetime operation, what unit type code would provide the initial security for USAF resources and personnel, conduct convoys; and defend local and other security missions as required?

Explanation

During peacetime operations, the unit type code QFEB2 would provide the initial security for USAF resources and personnel, conduct convoys, and defend local and other security missions as required.

Submit
78. What is the main mission of the machine gun?

Explanation

The main mission of a machine gun is to protect and defend through both defensive and offensive missions. This means that the machine gun is used to provide cover fire and suppress the enemy during defensive operations, as well as to actively engage and eliminate enemy threats during offensive missions. The machine gun's high rate of fire allows it to effectively engage multiple targets and provide a significant firepower advantage against the enemy. Additionally, the machine gun can be used to protect critical resources and the wounded by deterring further enemy attacks and providing a strong defensive position.

Submit
79. What unit type code , when deployed with UTCs QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ staff support for a medium to large deployed security forces unit?

Explanation

The correct answer is QFEBA. When deployed with UTCs QFEBB and QFEBS, QFEBA provides HQ staff support for a medium to large deployed security forces unit.

Submit
80. What is not an example of a routine in defense measure?

Explanation

The question asks for something that is not an example of a routine in defense measures. The options provided include personal hygiene, sanitation, rest, relief, and rotation; area of operation policing for cleanliness; weapons maintenance and cleaning schedules; and assign sectors of fire. Assigning sectors of fire is not a routine in defense measures as it involves the allocation of specific areas for firing weapons, which is more of a tactical decision rather than a routine task. On the other hand, personal hygiene, sanitation, rest, relief, and rotation; area of operation policing for cleanliness; and weapons maintenance and cleaning schedules are all examples of routine tasks performed in defense measures.

Submit
81. An expeditionary military force is defined as a force that conducts military operations

Explanation

An expeditionary military force is a force that can quickly respond to crises and conduct military operations with limited and clearly stated objectives. The force is specifically tailored to the situation at hand and can be deployed within a short notice, typically within 24 hours. This allows for a swift and targeted response to address the crisis effectively.

Submit
82. What is the key elment in the design of forces that should be paramount to plannerrs?

Explanation

Flexibility is the key element in the design of forces that should be paramount to planners because it allows for adaptability and responsiveness to changing circumstances. In the planning process, it is important to anticipate and accommodate unforeseen challenges or opportunities. By incorporating flexibility into the design of forces, planners can ensure that their strategies and actions can be adjusted as needed, enabling them to effectively address evolving needs and achieve desired outcomes. This helps to increase the overall effectiveness and success of the planning process.

Submit
83. What placement allows for redundancey in observation and better sector coverage?

Explanation

The term "in depth" suggests a comprehensive and detailed approach to observation, which allows for redundancy and better sector coverage. By conducting thorough and extensive observations, multiple perspectives can be gathered, reducing the chances of missing important information or overlooking certain areas. This approach ensures a more comprehensive understanding of the subject or situation being observed.

Submit
84. What unit type code is a r person team designed to provide 24 hour security forces augmentation to immediate headquarters for ground defense and weapons systems security functions?

Explanation

The correct answer is QFDB9. This unit type code refers to a 24-hour security forces team designed to provide augmentation to immediate headquarters for ground defense and weapons systems security functions.

Submit
85. What unit type code consists of a 3 person team of specially trained and equipped security forces personnel, who deply as mission essential ground personnel on airlift transiting or operating ou of high risk locations?

Explanation

A possible explanation for the correct answer, QFEPR, is that it represents the unit type code for a 3 person team of specially trained and equipped security forces personnel who are deployed as mission essential ground personnel on airlift transiting or operating out of high-risk locations. This unit type code helps to identify and categorize this particular team within the security forces structure.

Submit
86. Missions that primarilyy target nuclear weapons-related facilities are what threat spectrum levels?

Explanation

Missions that primarily target nuclear weapons-related facilities pose a threat at the II threat spectrum level. This suggests that these missions are considered to be of moderate threat and require a certain level of attention and resources to address. It implies that the potential risks and consequences associated with these missions are significant enough to warrant a higher threat level classification.

Submit
87. Which millitary operations other than war principle never permeis hostile factions to acquire a military, political, or infomational advantage?

Explanation

The principle of security in military operations other than war aims to prevent hostile factions from gaining any military, political, or informational advantage. It focuses on safeguarding sensitive information, maintaining operational security, and protecting critical infrastructure. By implementing security measures, the military ensures that hostile factions are unable to exploit vulnerabilities or gain an upper hand in any aspect, thereby maintaining the overall stability and effectiveness of the operation.

Submit
88. What three subordinate areas are search areas divided into?

Explanation

The three subordinate areas that search areas are divided into are personnel, vehicle, and reaction force. This division allows for a comprehensive and organized approach to conducting searches. The personnel area focuses on searching for individuals, the vehicle area focuses on searching for vehicles, and the reaction force area focuses on searching for any potential threats or dangers. This division ensures that all aspects of the search are covered and increases the efficiency and effectiveness of the search operation.

Submit
89. The key to potimizing peacetime participation of the traditional guardsman and reservists whomust balance military duties wit full-time ivilian employment is

Explanation

The key to optimizing peacetime participation of traditional guardsmen and reservists who must balance military duties with full-time civilian employment is predictability. This means that these individuals need to have a clear understanding of their military obligations and schedules in advance, allowing them to effectively plan and manage their civilian work commitments. Predictability ensures that they can fulfill their military responsibilities without negatively impacting their civilian careers, ultimately maximizing their ability to contribute in both roles.

Submit
90. Which proinciple of indirect fire aims to destroy enemy soldiers and degrade the effectiveness of enemy behicles by causing them to fight buttoned-up?

Explanation

The principle of indirect fire aims to achieve the required effect, which is to destroy enemy soldiers and degrade the effectiveness of enemy vehicles by causing them to fight buttoned-up. By causing the enemy to fight from within their vehicles or fortified positions, their ability to effectively engage in combat is reduced, giving the attacking force an advantage. This principle focuses on the desired outcome of the indirect fire, rather than the specific methods or timing used to achieve it.

Submit
View My Results

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 10, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Bradyk
Cancel
  • All
    All (90)
  • Unanswered
    Unanswered ()
  • Answered
    Answered ()
The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is
A terrorist grup that generally operatss independently of , but...
When should commanders and planners identify mission-critical...
Where is an excellent position to place a marksman in an urban area?
What is the staff make-up for the S3?
To modify to prevent recognition of the true identiy of character of...
What is a base already possessing resources and an established...
When conducting ambushes, units refer to the engagement areas as
The USAF antiterrorism program is designed around what three...
Compliling and examining all available information concerning...
Based on the integrated base defense concept of operations, what are...
A typical organization of a terrorist group consist of
What is one of the fundamental purposes of the law of armed conflict?
Where is the best position for you to locate and observatioon...
Observation post/listening post teams are not equipped to
The primay mission of a joint operation is
When terrorists attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities, what...
When the machine gun is not assigned to the maneuver element, what is...
What does not need to be shown on a sketch?
Military operations other than war missions do not include
Generally, specially trained terrorists are of abover average...
Which essential element of the integrated base defense concepts slows...
Since unit type codes are functionally grouped, what will all security...
Avoiding unnecessary complexity in norganizing, preparing, planning,...
What would necessitae the need to dig hasty firing positions in the...
What provides key information to the defense force commander and...
The tactical area of responsibility begins at the
The primary responsibility of air base defense forces is
When are terrorist team members brought toegher for final rehearsal?
The capability to reduce the capability of attacking forces and...
Commanders do not use rules of engagement to ensure operations
Fixed ases having well estalished perimeters usually have limited
What should always be your first priority of work?
At a minimum, which two S-functions must operate within the base...
Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against...
Guidance on the application of force and exercising of the inherent...
In terms of engagement ranges, machine guns in the base of fire...
Against what threat levels can close precision engagement add...
What factor is the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks...
The political-military nature of military operations other than war...
What is the time limit for an air and space expeditionary force...
You should make restricted areas as small as possible to elminate the
Our first line o defense against intelligence collection efforts is
How long are the majority of security forces unit type codes capable...
Protective barriers consist of what two major categories?
The immediate impression the entry control facilityy must imparr...
Which threat level uses doctrine that stresses the use of...
What assesment addresses the broad range of physical threats to the...
What does the risk management process llow the commander to determine?
In what way can subordinate joint force commands organize?
The primary purpose of the operations security program is to
A "call for fire" is a message
What group routinely manages the risk assessment process fro...
What pre deployment factor is considered a constant?
What operations are key to assembling an accurate picture of the...
Proper machine gun placement maximizes fire in
A relatively secure area that allows for positve identification fo...
Which threat spectrum level consits of small tactical units,...
What does securiy forces provide for the integrated base defense...
What two factors add depth to the battle outside the perimeter,...
What does the air force maintain to support the on-call air and space...
What unit type code is ssential to direct the fire of and provide...
The environment for security forces personnel working in the entry...
When the need for a new unity type code or a major change in an...
What is the list of all unit type codes approved for use in planning?
What should the drense force commander consider in the sectorization...
When establishing base sectors, you must ensure critical resources and...
Once fully implemented, what will the integrated base defense security...
The authorty for establishing a national defense area is shown with
What unit type code is composed of one home station validated...
The key to force protection countermeasure planning is
As a total force organization, a typical air and space expeditionary...
Directing your operaion toward a defined and attainable objective that...
Because the danger increases with the size of the weapons, how should...
What is an engagement priority for machine gun gunners to direct their...
What are the two types of obstacles you may encounter?
During peacetime operation, what unit type code would provide the...
What is the main mission of the machine gun?
What unit type code , when deployed with UTCs QFEBB and QFEBS,...
What is not an example of a routine in defense measure?
An expeditionary military force is defined as a force that conducts...
What is the key elment in the design of forces that should be...
What placement allows for redundancey in observation and better sector...
What unit type code is a r person team designed to provide 24 hour...
What unit type code consists of a 3 person team of specially trained...
Missions that primarilyy target nuclear weapons-related facilities are...
Which millitary operations other than war principle never permeis...
What three subordinate areas are search areas divided into?
The key to potimizing peacetime participation of the traditional...
Which proinciple of indirect fire aims to destroy enemy soldiers and...
Alert!

Advertisement