7 Level Vol 2(Aircraft Technology)
This is CDC's volume 2. This quiz consist of 90 questions. you must pass with a score of at least a 95
- 1.The tactical area of responsibility begins at the
- A.
Base defense operations center
- B.
Point o insertion
- C.
Base perimeter
- D.
Resource
- 2.The primary responsibility of air base defense forces is
- A.
Defeating level I threats, and disruping or delaying level II threats in the tactical area of responsibility surrounding the air base
- B.
Defeating level II threats, and disrupting or delaying level IV threat in the TAOR surrounding the air base.
- C.
Stalling level I threats, and sisrupting o delaying level II threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base
- D.
Defeating level II threats, and disrupting or delaying level I threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.
- 3.At a minimum, which two S-functions must operate within the base defense operations center?
- A.
S1 and S3
- B.
S2 and S4
- C.
S2 and S3
- D.
S3 and S4
- 4.What is the staff make-up for the S3?
- A.
The operations officer and staff
- B.
Supply noncommissioned officer
- C.
First sergeant or section commander
- D.
Intelligence officers and security forces investigators
- 5.In what way can subordinate joint force commands organize?
- A.
By rank and function
- B.
By function and location
- C.
By service component or function
- D.
By service component and location
- 6.The primay mission of a joint operation is
- A.
Lead host nation forces in defending and securing the rear area
- B.
Sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force
- C.
Disaster relief operations
- D.
Humanitarian operations
- 7.When terrorists attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities, what is their mission?
- A.
Determine which other countries support their beliefts
- B.
Ensure state funding would continue to finance cause
- C.
Destroy as much property as possible in a short period
- D.
Persuade US and/or foreign governments to chance their policies
- 8.A terrorist grup that generally operatss independently of , but receives support from, on or more governments is
- A.
Non-state supported
- B.
State-supported
- C.
Stated-directed
- D.
State-organized
- 9.A typical organization of a terrorist group consist of
- A.
Group leader, intelligenc officer, explosive specialist, and weapons specialist
- B.
Hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support
- C.
Hard-core cadre, submissive support, inactive leadrs, and low suppport
- D.
Intelligence officer, inactive leaders, and active cadre
- 10.Generally, specially trained terrorists are of abover average intelligence and between the ages of
- A.
16-24
- B.
21-28
- C.
23-30
- D.
25-32
- 11.When are terrorist team members brought toegher for final rehearsal?
- A.
Before execution of attack
- B.
Just before departing for the target sight
- C.
One week prior to schduled attack exectuion
- D.
Never; terrorist team members do not conduct rehearsals.
- 12.The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is
- A.
Arson
- B.
Bombing
- C.
Hijacking
- D.
Assassination
- 13.The USAF antiterrorism program is designed around what three principles?
- A.
State department intelligence assessments, threat levels, and threat conditions
- B.
Force protection conditions, assessment factors, and threat levels
- C.
Intelligence gathersing, threat level, and THREATCONSs
- D.
Criminal threat, FPCONs, and the CARVER matrix
- 14.What factor is the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interets?
- A.
Activity
- B.
Intentions
- C.
Operational capability
- D.
Operating environment
- 15.Our first line o defense against intelligence collection efforts is
- A.
Communication security
- B.
Computer security
- C.
Information security
- D.
Operations security
- 16.The primary purpose of the operations security program is to
- A.
Support the OPSEC non commissioned officer-in-charge by ensuring the command or oragnization actively practices OPSEC.
- B.
Support the wing commander by ensuring the command or organization has an OPSEC program
- C.
Support the commander by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPESEC
- D.
Prevent our communications from fallig into the wrong hands
- 17.When should commanders and planners identify mission-critical information?
- A.
At the earliest possile moment
- B.
Only after the subordinate commanders have been notified
- C.
Only after the review and approval from higher-head quarters commanders
- D.
Never; commanders and planners should not have to identify and any critical information.
- 18.Which threat spectrum level consits of small tactical units, unconventional warfare forces, and guerrillas?
- A.
I
- B.
II
- C.
III
- D.
IV
- 19.Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?
- A.
Partisans
- B.
Terrorists
- C.
Sympathizers
- D.
Agent activity
- 20.Missions that primarilyy target nuclear weapons-related facilities are what threat spectrum levels?
- A.
IV
- B.
III
- C.
II
- D.
I
- 21.Which threat level uses doctrine that stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers?
- A.
I
- B.
II
- C.
III
- D.
IV
- 22.What group routinely manages the risk assessment process fro commanders?
- A.
Force protection working
- B.
Anti-terrorism working
- C.
Physical security
- D.
Threat working
- 23.Compliling and examining all available information concerning potential threats by threat analysts is a/an
- A.
Annual process
- B.
Bi-annual process
- C.
Monthly process
- D.
Continual process
- 24.What assesment addresses the broad range of physical threats to the security of personnel and assets, and should be conducted periodically?
- A.
Risk
- B.
Threat
- C.
Vulnerability
- D.
Anti-terrorism
- 25.The key to force protection countermeasure planning is
- A.
The classified protection plan
- B.
Protecting sensitive information
- C.
The offensive force protection plan
- D.
The defensive force protection plan
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