V1 Unit 3 CDC's Overall Review

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| By Ernestleeburns
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Ernestleeburns
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Quizzes Created: 6 | Total Attempts: 588
Questions: 19 | Attempts: 97

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Law Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (026) The budget program operates on a fiscal year basis beginning the first day of 

    • A.

      July and ending on 30 June.

    • B.

      August and ending on 30 July.

    • C.

      September and ending on 30 August.

    • D.

      October and ending on 30 September.

    Correct Answer
    D. October and ending on 30 September.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is October and ending on 30 September. This is because the budget program operates on a fiscal year basis, which typically starts in October and ends in September of the following year.

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  • 2. 

    (027) What two Air Force documents help you manage manpower resources? 

    • A.

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Unit Manpower Document (UMD).

    • B.

      Specialty Training Standard (STS) and Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).

    • C.

      UMD and UPMR.

    • D.

      CFETP and STS.

    Correct Answer
    C. UMD and UPMR.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is UMD and UPMR. The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) helps in managing manpower resources by providing information on the authorized positions, personnel assigned, and skill levels required for each position. The Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR) is used to track and manage the personnel assigned to each position, including their qualifications, training, and availability. These two documents together help in effectively managing and allocating manpower resources within the Air Force.

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  • 3. 

    (027) The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the primary document that reflects the 

    • A.

      Air Force specialty code (AFSC).

    • B.

      Member’s personnel readiness program (PRP) status.

    • C.

      Individual position number.

    • D.

      Positions authorized to accomplish the mission.

    Correct Answer
    D. Positions authorized to accomplish the mission.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "positions authorized to accomplish the mission." The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is a document that lists all the positions that are authorized within a unit to carry out its mission. It provides a comprehensive overview of the positions and their associated Air Force specialty codes (AFSCs). The UMD is used to determine the manpower requirements and ensure that the unit has the necessary personnel to fulfill its mission effectively. It does not reflect the member's personnel readiness program (PRP) status or individual position numbers.

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  • 4. 

    (028) Supply discipline is mandatory in order to 

    • A.

      Store, maintain, operate, and dispense materials on an as-needed basis.

    • B.

      Operate, dispense, and protect government bench stock items for future resale.

    • C.

      Maintain adequate stock levels, deplete old supplies, and free up necessary storage areas.

    • D.

      Conserve, protect, and maintain available government supplies, equipment, and real property.

    Correct Answer
    D. Conserve, protect, and maintain available government supplies, equipment, and real property.
    Explanation
    Supply discipline is necessary to conserve, protect, and maintain available government supplies, equipment, and real property. This ensures that these resources are used efficiently and effectively, preventing waste and damage. Additionally, supply discipline helps to ensure that necessary supplies are always available when needed, reducing the risk of shortages or delays in operations. By following supply discipline practices, organizations can effectively manage their inventory, prevent loss or theft, and maintain the overall readiness and capability of their resources.

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  • 5. 

    (028) Which of the following is not a general classification of supply items? 

    • A.

      Equipment authorized inventory data (EAID).

    • B.

      Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).

    • C.

      Custodian authorization/custody reciept listing (CA/CRL).

    • D.

      Non-EAID.

    Correct Answer
    D. Non-EAID.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Non-EAID". This answer is not a general classification of supply items because it refers to items that are not included in the Equipment Authorized Inventory Data (EAID). EAID is a system that tracks and manages authorized equipment inventory, while Non-EAID items are those that are not included in this system. Therefore, Non-EAID is not a general classification of supply items.

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  • 6. 

    (029) Collective actions executed quickly without applying a deliberate decision-making process  describes

    • A.

      Individual skills training.

    • B.

      Collective skills training.

    • C.

      Augmentation drills.

    • D.

      Battle drills.

    Correct Answer
    D. Battle drills.
    Explanation
    Battle drills involve collective actions that are executed quickly without applying a deliberate decision-making process. These drills are designed to train individuals to respond rapidly and effectively in combat situations. They focus on developing automatic and instinctive responses to specific scenarios, allowing units to act as a cohesive team without the need for extensive planning or coordination.

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  • 7. 

    (030) Under the Stan/Eval program, unit functional areas are inspected once 

    • A.

      A month.

    • B.

      Every 12 months.

    • C.

      Every 6 months.

    • D.

      A quarter.

    Correct Answer
    B. Every 12 months.
    Explanation
    Under the Stan/Eval program, unit functional areas are inspected every 12 months. This means that these inspections occur once a year. The program aims to ensure that unit functional areas are operating effectively and in compliance with regulations. By conducting inspections annually, the program allows for regular assessments of these areas without placing a burden on resources or disrupting daily operations.

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  • 8. 

    (030) Duty positions in direct support of nuclear resources are designated as 

    • A.

      Congressionally mandated.

    • B.

      Contingency.

    • C.

      Controlled.

    • D.

      Critical.

    Correct Answer
    D. Critical.
    Explanation
    Duty positions in direct support of nuclear resources are designated as critical because they are of utmost importance and require special attention and expertise. These positions are essential for the safe and efficient operation of nuclear resources, and any failure or negligence can have severe consequences. Therefore, they are considered critical in order to emphasize their significance and ensure that they are given the highest level of priority and scrutiny.

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  • 9. 

    (030) Within how many duty days after an individual completes qualification training will  Stan/Evals be conducted? 

    • A.

      120.

    • B.

      90.

    • C.

      60.

    • D.

      30.

    Correct Answer
    D. 30.
    Explanation
    Within 30 duty days after an individual completes qualification training, Stan/Evals will be conducted.

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  • 10. 

    (031) Under the National Law Enforcement Telecommunicatons System (NLETS) program,  where is the communications terminal located? 

    • A.

      On a stand-alone computer.

    • B.

      At authorized security forces (SF) control centers.

    • C.

      At the SF law enforcement desk.

    • D.

      On all SF members’ individual desks.

    Correct Answer
    B. At authorized security forces (SF) control centers.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is at authorized security forces (SF) control centers. This means that the communications terminal under the National Law Enforcement Telecommunications System (NLETS) program is located at specific control centers that are authorized for security forces. It is not located on individual desks or at the law enforcement desk, but rather at these designated control centers.

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  • 11. 

    (032) Who enters information about lost or stolen firearms into the National Crime Information  Center (NCIC)? 

    • A.

      Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI) personnel.

    • B.

      Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI) personnel.

    • C.

      Security Forces Manager (SFM).

    • D.

      Chief of Security Forces (CSF).

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI) personnel.
    Explanation
    Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI) personnel enter information about lost or stolen firearms into the National Crime Information Center (NCIC).

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  • 12. 

    (033) Within how many months after qualification training must Security Forces and battlefield  Airmen complete unit live-fire sustainment training on their primary weapon?

    • A.

      One to three.

    • B.

      Two to four.

    • C.

      Three to six.

    • D.

      Five to seven.

    Correct Answer
    D. Five to seven.
    Explanation
    Security Forces and battlefield Airmen must complete unit live-fire sustainment training on their primary weapon within five to seven months after qualification training. This training is essential to ensure that they maintain their proficiency and readiness in handling and using their primary weapon effectively in combat situations.

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  • 13. 

    (034) Which AF form is used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis? 

    • A.

      522 Ground Weapon Training Data.

    • B.

      629, Small Arms Hand Receipt.

    • C.

      1297, Temporary Issue Receipt.

    • D.

      797, Job Qualification Standard.

    Correct Answer
    C. 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt.
    Explanation
    The AF form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt, is used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis. This form is used to document the temporary issue of a firearm to an individual and serves as a receipt for the firearm. It helps track the temporary use of firearms and ensures accountability for their safe return.

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  • 14. 

    (035) The use of pro-words in radio communication help 

    • A.

      Aid in transmitting and reception.

    • B.

      Clarify understanding of the message being sent.

    • C.

      Distract and confuse unauthorized listeners.

    • D.

      Shorten transmissions and facilitate message reception.

    Correct Answer
    D. Shorten transmissions and facilitate message reception.
    Explanation
    The use of pro-words in radio communication helps to shorten transmissions and facilitate message reception. Pro-words are standardized words or phrases that have specific meanings in radio communication, allowing for quick and efficient communication. By using pro-words, unnecessary words and phrases can be eliminated, reducing the length of transmissions. This not only saves time but also helps in ensuring that the message is received and understood accurately.

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  • 15. 

    (036) Persons will not be tasked to supervise inmates if they 

    • A.

      Are of the same sex as inmate.

    • B.

      Are of the opposite sex of the inmate.

    • C.

      Have an unfavorable information file.

    • D.

      Are personally involved with the inmate.

    Correct Answer
    C. Have an unfavorable information file.
    Explanation
    Persons will not be tasked to supervise inmates if they have an unfavorable information file. This means that if a person has a negative record or unfavorable information in their file, they will not be assigned to supervise inmates. This is likely because having a negative record may indicate that the person is not suitable or trustworthy to supervise inmates.

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  • 16. 

    (036) A level II facility can house inmates serving a confinement sentence up to how many years? 

    • A.

      5.

    • B.

      7.

    • C.

      10.

    • D.

      15.

    Correct Answer
    A. 5.
    Explanation
    A level II facility can house inmates serving a confinement sentence up to 5 years. This means that the facility is equipped to handle inmates who have been sentenced to a medium-length term of imprisonment. Inmates with longer sentences would typically be housed in higher-level facilities that have more security measures in place.

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  • 17. 

    (037) Inmates are ordered into confinement utilizing which DD form? 

    • A.

      2707, Confinement Order.

    • B.

      2708 Inmate Fitness Certification.

    • C.

      2711, Initial Custody Classification.

    • D.

      2703. Inmate Classification Document.

    Correct Answer
    A. 2707, Confinement Order.
    Explanation
    Inmates are ordered into confinement using the DD form 2707, Confinement Order.

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  • 18. 

    (037) All inmates are assigned a custody status and classified as either 

    • A.

      Pretrial detainee, post-trial inmates, or casual.

    • B.

      Pretrial detainee or post-trial detainee.

    • C.

      Post-trial inmate or trial inmate.

    • D.

      Pretrial casual or casual.

    Correct Answer
    A. Pretrial detainee, post-trial inmates, or casual.
    Explanation
    This answer is correct because it accurately identifies the three possible classifications for inmates: pretrial detainee, post-trial inmate, or casual.

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  • 19. 

    (038) The two types of searches used in confinement facilities are 

    • A.

      Complete and frisk.

    • B.

      Simple and complete.

    • C.

      Initial and simple searches.

    • D.

      Complete and simple frisks.

    Correct Answer
    B. Simple and complete.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "simple and complete." In confinement facilities, two types of searches are conducted: simple and complete. A simple search involves a quick inspection of the person's outer clothing and belongings, while a complete search involves a more thorough examination, including a strip search if necessary. These searches are essential for maintaining security and ensuring that no prohibited items are brought into the facility.

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