Usaf 2F071 CDC Quiz

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1. How often should hot refueling personnel undergo certification for hot refueling operations?

Explanation

Hot refueling personnel should undergo certification for hot refueling operations annually. This ensures that they stay up to date with the necessary skills, knowledge, and safety protocols required for this task. Regular certification helps maintain the highest level of proficiency and ensures that personnel are aware of any changes or updates in procedures or regulations that may affect their work.

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About This Quiz
Usaf 2F071 CDC Quiz - Quiz

The USAF 2F071 CDC Quiz assesses knowledge on fluid mechanics, focusing on differences between gases and liquids, buoyancy, immiscible liquids, flow velocity, and the impact of physical factors... see morelike gravity. It's designed for learners aiming to understand basic to advanced concepts in fluid dynamics. see less

2. When configuring the automated data collection (ADC) system, what maximum number of dial retries can you configure the user interface terminal's (UIT) to attempt?

Explanation

When configuring the automated data collection (ADC) system, the user interface terminal (UIT) can be configured to attempt a maximum of 99 dial retries. This means that if the initial attempt to establish a connection fails, the UIT will continue to retry up to 99 times before giving up. This allows for a greater chance of successfully establishing a connection and retrieving the desired data.

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3. At no time will money that is collected for cash sales of aviation products be safeguarded by

Explanation

Off-duty personnel refers to employees who are not currently working or on duty. Since they are not actively working, it would not be appropriate for them to safeguard the money collected for cash sales of aviation products. Only personnel who are currently on duty, such as FSC personnel, shift supervisors, and operations expeditors, should be responsible for safeguarding the money.

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4. What is the lifting force of a liquid called?

Explanation

Buoyancy is the correct answer because it refers to the upward force exerted on an object submerged in a fluid, such as a liquid. This force is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the object and is responsible for objects floating or sinking in a liquid. Laminar, interface, and dynamic pressure are not related to the lifting force of a liquid.

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5. Which type of measurement may be used to express pressure?

Explanation

Pressure is a measure of the force exerted on a surface area. It is commonly expressed in units such as pounds per square inch (psi) because it takes into account both the amount of force (pounds) and the area over which the force is distributed (square inch). Kilograms, pounds, and tons are units of mass, not pressure, so they are not suitable for expressing pressure.

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6. How do the charges of protons and electrons differ?

Explanation

Protons and electrons have opposite charges. Protons have a positive charge, while electrons have a negative charge. This is a fundamental property of these particles in the atomic structure.

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7. What is the unit of measurement for electrical power?

Explanation

The unit of measurement for electrical power is watts. Watts measure the rate at which electrical energy is transferred or used per unit of time. It is named after James Watt, a Scottish inventor who made significant contributions to the development of the steam engine. Watts are commonly used to measure the power output of electrical devices and the consumption of electricity in homes and businesses.

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8. When personnel are servicing aircraft with the type IV hydrant system, who is responsible for positioning the aircraft on the hot pad?

Explanation

The hot refueling supervisor is responsible for positioning the aircraft on the hot pad when personnel are servicing aircraft with the type IV hydrant system. This role ensures that the aircraft is properly positioned and aligned for the fueling process to take place safely and efficiently. They oversee the entire hot refueling operation and coordinate the activities of the hot refueling crewman and other personnel involved in the process.

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9. Who may approve deviations from hot refueling policies when combat or emergency situations require the use of hot refueling?

Explanation

The MAJCOM commander may approve deviations from hot refueling policies when combat or emergency situations require the use of hot refueling. This individual has the authority and responsibility to make decisions regarding operational matters within their specific MAJCOM.

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10. During multiple source refueling, what action, if any, should be taken if backflow is detected?

Explanation

If backflow is detected during multiple source refueling, it is important to stop the operation immediately. Backflow can occur when fuel flows in the opposite direction, which can be dangerous and potentially lead to spills or other hazards. Stopping the operation immediately helps to prevent any further backflow and ensures the safety of the refueling process.

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11. What is the simplest and most expedient method of fuel resupply?

Explanation

The simplest and most expedient method of fuel resupply is using the same source of supply used by the host airfield. This means that the fuel can be obtained directly from the airfield's fuel storage or distribution system, minimizing the need for additional logistics or transportation. This method is efficient and convenient, as it eliminates the need for separate fuel resupply operations and ensures a steady and reliable fuel source for the aircraft.

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12. What is the maximum amount of time that can pass between the time a sample is obtained and the time a conductivity reading is taken?

Explanation

The maximum amount of time that can pass between the time a sample is obtained and the time a conductivity reading is taken is 24 hours. Conductivity is a measure of a substance's ability to conduct electric current, and it can change over time as the sample may undergo chemical reactions or evaporation. Therefore, it is important to take the conductivity reading within 24 hours to ensure accurate results.

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13. On what grades of fuel can the R–22 be designed to operate? a. . b. . c. . d. .

Explanation

The R-22 can be designed to operate on diesel fuel and jet fuel.

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14. Which best describes immiscible liquids?

Explanation

Immiscible liquids are those that do not mix well together. Instead, one liquid will float on top of the other, forming distinct layers. This occurs because the intermolecular forces between the molecules of the two liquids are not strong enough to overcome the forces of attraction within each individual liquid. As a result, the liquids do not form a homogeneous solution and remain separate.

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15. Which temperature scale is commonly used for scientific measurements?

Explanation

The Kelvin scale is commonly used for scientific measurements because it is an absolute temperature scale that starts at absolute zero, the point at which all molecular motion ceases. This makes it ideal for scientific calculations and experiments as it allows for precise measurements and comparisons of temperature. The other options, Rankine, Réaumur, and Fahrenheit scales, are not commonly used in scientific measurements as they are either based on arbitrary reference points or not widely adopted.

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16. According to the electron theory, atoms are composed of

Explanation

The electron theory states that atoms are composed of protons, neutrons, and electrons. Protons are positively charged particles found in the nucleus of an atom, while neutrons are neutral particles also located in the nucleus. Electrons are negatively charged particles that orbit the nucleus. This theory suggests that atoms are made up of these three fundamental particles. The other options in the question do not accurately represent the composition of atoms according to the electron theory.

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17. Which shell of the valence electrons determines whether a material is a good or a poor conductor of electricity?

Explanation

The outermost shell of valence electrons determines whether a material is a good or a poor conductor of electricity. This is because the outermost shell is responsible for the bonding and interaction between atoms, which affects the material's ability to conduct electricity. If the outermost shell is filled or tightly bound, the material is likely a poor conductor. However, if the outermost shell is not filled or loosely bound, the material is more likely to be a good conductor of electricity.

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18. What type of material is used to construct the fuel tank on the R–11?

Explanation

The correct answer is sheet aluminum alloy. This type of material is commonly used to construct fuel tanks in aircraft due to its lightweight and corrosion-resistant properties. Aluminum alloys are strong and durable, making them suitable for containing and storing fuel safely. Additionally, sheet aluminum alloy can be easily formed and welded, allowing for the construction of complex shapes and designs required for fuel tanks.

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19. What term is used to define the process that takes place when water forms into droplets after passing through filter elements?

Explanation

Coalescing is the term used to define the process that takes place when water forms into droplets after passing through filter elements. Coalescing refers to the merging or coming together of smaller droplets to form larger droplets. In this context, it describes the process of water droplets combining or coalescing into larger droplets as they pass through the filter elements. This helps to separate the water from any impurities or contaminants present in the filtration system.

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20. What may a filter separator differential pressure reading below 3 pounds per square inch (psi) indicate?

Explanation

A filter separator differential pressure reading below 3 psi may indicate a defective O-ring or ruptured coalescers. This is because a low differential pressure suggests that there is not enough resistance or obstruction in the system, which could be caused by a faulty O-ring or ruptured coalescers.

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21. When preparing to issue liquid oxygen (LOX), what action, if any, should be taken if a review of a receiving tank's Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 134 finds that the form is not properly filled out?

Explanation

If a review of a receiving tank's Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 134 finds that the form is not properly filled out, the correct action to take is to not service the receiving tank. This means that the tank should not be filled with liquid oxygen until the form is properly filled out. This is important to ensure proper documentation and adherence to safety protocols.

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22. When posting changes to publications, when, if ever, are "List of Effective Pages" checks mandatory?

Explanation

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23. The ABFDS can carry what maximum number of gals. per sortie?

Explanation

The ABFDS (Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System) is capable of carrying a maximum of 30,000 gallons per sortie.

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24. What agency serves as the link between the Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) and its customers?

Explanation

The Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) serves as the link between its customers and the agency that supports them. The DESC regions are responsible for coordinating and providing energy support to the customers, acting as the intermediary between them and the DESC. Therefore, the DESC regions serve as the link between the DESC and its customers.

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25. When determining authorizations for cash sales, you know that cash sales are only authorized when

Explanation

The correct answer is "sales support by equipment and/or personnel do not interfere with military operations." This means that cash sales can only be authorized if the equipment and personnel involved do not disrupt or hinder military operations. This ensures that the military's primary functions and activities are not compromised for the sake of cash sales.

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26. When encoding a vehicle identification link (VIL) key for a rental vehicle, what information should be entered in the vehicle identification field?

Explanation

The vehicle identification field should contain the vehicle license plate number when encoding a Vehicle Identification Link (VIL) key for a rental vehicle.

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27. If your base has experienced cold weather problems or anticipates cold weather problems, you should perform a cloud point test on all DF–2 that is received during

Explanation

During the months of October through March, the base may experience cold weather problems or anticipate them. Therefore, it is necessary to perform a cloud point test on all DF-2 fuel that is received during this period. This test helps determine the temperature at which the fuel starts to form solid wax crystals, which can clog fuel lines and cause engine problems in cold weather conditions. By conducting the test during these months, the base can ensure that the fuel is suitable for use and prevent any potential issues during the winter season.

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28. Who is responsible for administering the Caution Tag program?

Explanation

The NCOIC Fuels Laboratory is responsible for administering the Caution Tag program. This implies that they are in charge of managing and overseeing the implementation of the program. The other options, such as the Environmental coordinator, NCOIC Compliance, and FSC personnel, do not have the specific responsibility mentioned in the question.

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29. If an active duty airman cannot complete a core task due to nonavailability of equipment at the installation, submit a core task waiver request to the

Explanation

When an active duty airman is unable to complete a core task because the necessary equipment is not available at their installation, they should submit a core task waiver request to the parent MAJCOM. The parent MAJCOM is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the activities of multiple installations, and they have the authority to grant waivers for specific tasks if the equipment is not available. The squadron training manager, LRS commander, and Air Staff are not directly involved in this process and do not have the authority to grant waivers.

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30. On which grades of fuel can the engine on the R–14 ATHRS operate?

Explanation

The engine on the R-14 ATHRS can operate on both diesel fuel and jet fuel. This means that it is designed to run on these two types of fuel, allowing for flexibility in its usage. It is not able to operate on gasoline alone, as this option is not included in the answer.

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31. Hearing protection is required within how many feet of an R–14 operation?

Explanation

Hearing protection is required within 50 feet of an R-14 operation. This means that anyone within a 50-foot radius of the operation must wear hearing protection to prevent damage to their ears from the noise generated by the operation.

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32. Which of the following steps is not accomplished when preparing the PMU–27M for air shipment?

Explanation

When preparing the PMU-27M for air shipment, all of the mentioned steps are accomplished except for removing the filter separator elements.

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33. All of the following conditions require replacement of filter elements on the R–19 filter separator unit except

Explanation

The correct answer is a reading of 16 pounds per square inch, differential (psid) on the differential pressure (DP) gauge. This is because a reading of 16 psid on the DP gauge does not indicate a need for filter element replacement. The other conditions mentioned, such as a reading of 22 psid on the DP gauge, elements that have been in use for 36 months, and questionable filter separator vessel performance, all indicate a need for replacement of filter elements.

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34. The uniform movement of electrons in a specific direction is called

Explanation

The correct answer is electric current. Electric current refers to the uniform movement of electrons in a specific direction. It is the flow of electric charge through a conductor, such as a wire. This movement of electrons creates a flow of energy, which is the basis for various electrical phenomena and devices. Electrical potential, free electrons, and ionization are related concepts but do not specifically refer to the uniform movement of electrons in a specific direction as electric current does.

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35. What item protects fuel dispensing system electrical components against overload?

Explanation

Automatic reset-type circuit breakers protect fuel dispensing system electrical components against overload. These circuit breakers automatically trip and then reset themselves when they detect excessive current flow, preventing damage to the electrical components. This ensures the safety and proper functioning of the fuel dispensing system by preventing overload situations that could lead to electrical failures or fires. Manual reset-type circuit breakers require manual intervention to reset after tripping, while the mentioned fuses do not provide the automatic reset feature.

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36. Which of the following may direct shipment of a vehicle with less than 50 percent life expectancy to satisfy mission requirements?

Explanation

The correct answer is MAJCOM. MAJCOM stands for Major Command, which is a level of command in the United States Air Force. They have the authority to make decisions regarding the shipment of vehicles to satisfy mission requirements. The LRS commander, Wing commander, and HQ USAF may not have the same level of authority or jurisdiction to make such decisions.

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37. What major command (MAJCOM) developed the type IV pressurized hot fueling system?

Explanation

The correct answer is United States Air Force in Europe (USAFE). This is because the question asks about the major command (MAJCOM) that developed the type IV pressurized hot fueling system, and USAFE is the command responsible for operations and support of the United States Air Force in Europe.

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38. On the type IV hydrant system, how is fuel prevented from spilling onto the hot pad if a hose separates from the nozzle during a hot refueling operation?

Explanation

During a hot refueling operation, if a hose separates from the nozzle on a type IV hydrant system, a dry break coupler inside the hose will automatically close. This mechanism prevents fuel from spilling onto the hot pad.

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39. When performing a monthly inspection on emergency switches, check to ensure

Explanation

During a monthly inspection on emergency switches, it is important to check for proper operation while the system control panel/operation circuit is energized. This ensures that the switches are functioning correctly when the system is active and can be relied upon in case of an emergency. Checking for proper operation while energized helps identify any potential issues or malfunctions that may not be apparent when the system is not in use. This step is crucial to ensure the switches are fully operational and can effectively perform their intended function during an emergency situation.

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40. When performing a semiannual inspection of fillstand bonding receptacles for proper tension, you obtain a pull measurement of five pounds. This indicates a

Explanation

A pull measurement of five pounds during a semiannual inspection indicates a weak or damaged bonding receptacle. The tension should be sufficient to ensure a proper bond, but a measurement of only five pounds suggests that the receptacle is not securely holding the bond plug. This weakness or damage could be due to various factors such as corrosion or physical damage, which may compromise the effectiveness of the bonding system.

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41. When performing a hydrant flushing operation, ensure enough fuel velocity is generated to remove water and sediment by flushing the system

Explanation

When performing a hydrant flushing operation, it is important to ensure that enough fuel velocity is generated to remove water and sediment by flushing the system. This means that all issue pumps should be operating during the flushing operation. By having all pumps operating, the fuel velocity will be maximized, which will effectively remove the water and sediment from the system.

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42. When documenting a significant maintenance action on an Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 95, what information should you enter in block 1?

Explanation

In block 1 of an Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 95, you should enter the mission, design, series (MDS) of the equipment. This information helps to identify the specific equipment that the maintenance action is being documented for. It allows for accurate record-keeping and tracking of maintenance actions on specific equipment.

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43. What action, if any, should be taken if a commercial delivery operator does not provide a Department of Defense (DD) Form 250 with a liquid oxygen (LOX) shipment?

Explanation

If a commercial delivery operator does not provide a Department of Defense (DD) Form 250 with a liquid oxygen (LOX) shipment, the appropriate action to take is to inform the FSC (Field Supply Center) and await further guidance. This is necessary because the DD Form 250 is a crucial document for tracking and verifying the shipment of goods, and its absence could indicate a potential issue or error in the delivery process. By informing the FSC, they can investigate the situation and provide instructions on how to proceed with the shipment.

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44. When preparing to issue liquid nitrogen (LIN), what action, if any, should you take if a receiving tank's Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Forms 244/245 lists an open Red X condition?

Explanation

If a receiving tank's AFTO Forms 244/245 lists an open Red X condition, it means that there is a critical issue or defect with the tank that needs to be addressed before it can be filled with liquid nitrogen. Filling the tank in this condition could lead to safety hazards or damage. Therefore, the correct action to take is to not fill the receiving tank until the issue is resolved.

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45. When, if ever, is a particulate test on a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart required?

Explanation

A particulate test on a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart is required when there is a suspicion of particulate contamination. This means that if there are any indications or concerns about the presence of particles in the LOX cart, a test should be conducted to confirm or rule out the contamination. The other options, such as never, once every 90 days, or after filling the cart, do not address the specific requirement for a particulate test in the case of suspected contamination.

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46. During concurrent servicing of cargo or passenger aircraft, deplaning personnel should not come closer than how many feet from any aircraft fuel vent outlet?

Explanation

During concurrent servicing of cargo or passenger aircraft, deplaning personnel should not come closer than 25 feet from any aircraft fuel vent outlet. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of personnel and prevent any potential accidents or fuel leaks. Being too close to the fuel vent outlet can pose a risk of ignition or fuel spillage, which could lead to fires or other hazardous situations. Therefore, it is important for deplaning personnel to maintain a safe distance of 25 feet to minimize any potential risks.

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47. When you are performing fuels controller duties, how often should you reconcile with the Fuels Enterprise Server (FES) and clear rejects?

Explanation

When performing fuels controller duties, it is important to reconcile with the Fuels Enterprise Server (FES) and clear rejects on a daily basis. This ensures that any discrepancies or errors in fuel transactions are promptly identified and resolved, maintaining accurate records and preventing any potential issues or delays in the fuel supply chain. Regular reconciliation and clearing of rejects also help in maintaining the integrity of the fuel management system and minimizing any financial or operational risks associated with fuel handling and distribution.

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48. When making a cash sale, what others forms of currency besides United States currency are acceptable for cash sale payments?

Explanation

The question asks about the acceptable forms of currency for cash sale payments besides United States currency. The correct answer is "None" because no other forms of currency are acceptable for cash sale payments. This means that only United States currency is accepted for cash transactions.

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49. When investigating fuel gains and losses, you determine an excessive variance was caused by a pipeline rupture. This variance should fall into what category?

Explanation

The excessive variance caused by a pipeline rupture falls into the category of "Peacetime losses." This is because the incident occurred during a period of peace and not during a major disaster or combat situation. The rupture resulted in fuel losses, which can be considered as part of the overall losses incurred during peacetime operations.

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50. Who is responsible for enforcing radio transmission discipline over the radio net?

Explanation

The correct answer is Fuels controller. The fuels controller is responsible for enforcing radio transmission discipline over the radio net. They ensure that proper procedures are followed and that all radio communications are clear and concise. This is important to maintain effective communication and ensure the safety and efficiency of operations.

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51. Where is the correct place to take the reading for the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test?

Explanation

The correct place to take the reading for the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test is the horizontal plane surface of the liquid. This is because the API gravity test measures the density of petroleum liquids relative to water, and taking the reading at the horizontal plane surface ensures an accurate measurement of the liquid's density. The bottom of the hydrometer, top of the hydrometer, and top of the cylinder are not the correct places to take the reading for this test.

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52. How often should the Aqua Glo water detector be calibrated?

Explanation

The Aqua Glo water detector should be calibrated daily. Regular calibration ensures accurate and reliable detection of water, allowing for prompt action to prevent potential damage or hazards. Daily calibration helps maintain the device's sensitivity and effectiveness, providing continuous monitoring and protection against water leaks or flooding.

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53. What cleaning agent should be used to clean the probe on the conductivity meter?

Explanation

Isopropyl alcohol is the recommended cleaning agent for the probe on the conductivity meter because it is a commonly used solvent that effectively removes dirt, oils, and other contaminants from surfaces. It is also safe to use on sensitive electronic equipment like conductivity meters as it evaporates quickly and leaves no residue behind. Petroleum ether and turbine fuel are not suitable for cleaning purposes as they are flammable and may damage the equipment. Acetone, although a solvent, may be too harsh and can potentially damage the probe. Therefore, isopropyl alcohol is the best choice for cleaning the conductivity meter probe.

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54. How long should the fuel and water mixture in the separatory funnel be shaken when performing a fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) test?

Explanation

In order to perform a fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) test, the fuel and water mixture in the separatory funnel should be shaken for 5 minutes. This duration allows for a thorough mixing of the fuel and water, ensuring that the FSII is evenly distributed throughout the mixture. After 5 minutes of shaking, the mixture should be allowed to settle, and a clear separation between the fuel and water layers should be observed. This indicates that the FSII is effective in preventing icing in the fuel system.

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55. When, if ever, is it necessary to prime the PMU–27M?

Explanation

The PMU-27M needs to be primed whenever the system has been purged of fuel. This means that if the fuel has been completely drained or removed from the system, the PMU-27M needs to be primed before it can operate properly. Priming is necessary to ensure that the fuel system is properly pressurized and fuel can flow smoothly through the system. Without priming, the PMU-27M may not function correctly or may not start at all. Therefore, priming is necessary in this specific situation.

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56. What determines the intensity of the excess pressure in a water-hammer wave?

Explanation

The intensity of the excess pressure in a water-hammer wave is determined by the amount of extinguished velocity. Water hammer occurs when there is a sudden change in flow velocity, causing a pressure wave to propagate through the pipe. The greater the change in velocity, the more intense the pressure wave will be. Therefore, the amount of extinguished velocity directly affects the intensity of the excess pressure in a water-hammer wave.

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57. Which statement best describes a positive ion?

Explanation

A positive ion is formed when an atom loses one or more electrons. This results in an imbalance of positive protons and negative electrons, causing the atom to have a net positive charge. Therefore, the statement "An atom that lost an electron and has more protons" best describes a positive ion.

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58. How often should a filter separator vessel be cleaned?

Explanation

Filter separator vessels are used to remove impurities and separate liquids and gases. Over time, sediment and contaminants can accumulate in the vessel, reducing its efficiency. Cleaning the vessel every three years ensures that it remains in optimal working condition. Additionally, the coalescer elements, which are responsible for separating liquids from gases, may need to be changed during this time. Therefore, cleaning the vessel every three years or when coalescer elements are changed helps maintain its effectiveness and prolong its lifespan.

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59. All of the following conditions would prevent a remote terminal workstation (RTW) from receiving data except

Explanation

If the remote terminal workstation is turned on, it means that it is powered and ready to receive data. Therefore, this condition would not prevent the RTW from receiving data. The other three conditions: the remote terminal unit being turned off, an inoperative remote terminal unit modem, and an inoperative remote terminal workstation modem, would all prevent the RTW from receiving data.

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60. When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 134, what information should be entered block 4?

Explanation

In block 4 of the AFTO Form 134, the information that should be entered is the initials of the individual that filled the cart. This is important because it allows for accountability and traceability of the cryogenic product issue. By noting the initials of the person who filled the cart, any issues or discrepancies can be easily identified and addressed. It ensures that there is a record of who was responsible for the filling process, which can be helpful in case of any further investigations or inquiries.

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61. Which aircraft does not require a hot brake check before entering the hot refueling pad?

Explanation

The F-15 aircraft does not require a hot brake check before entering the hot refueling pad. This means that the brakes do not need to be checked for excessive heat buildup before the aircraft can be refueled. The other aircraft mentioned in the options, B-1, F-16, and F-22, may require a hot brake check before entering the hot refueling pad.

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62. At a minimum, how often should underground storage tanks be monitored to detect releases?

Explanation

Underground storage tanks should be monitored every 30 days to detect releases. This frequent monitoring ensures that any potential leaks or spills can be identified and addressed promptly, minimizing the risk of environmental contamination and damage. Regular monitoring also helps in maintaining the integrity of the tanks and prevents the release of hazardous substances into the surrounding soil and groundwater.

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63. When performing fuel servicing operations with the R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform, the deadman switch on the hand-held remote should be pressed and released at intervals no greater than how many minutes?

Explanation

The deadman switch on the hand-held remote of the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform should be pressed and released at intervals no greater than 2 minutes. This is important to ensure the safety of the fuel servicing operations. By regularly pressing and releasing the deadman switch, it ensures that the operator is actively monitoring the operation and ready to stop it if necessary. Waiting longer than 2 minutes between intervals may increase the risk of accidents or malfunctions going unnoticed, which could lead to dangerous situations.

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64. When you are inputting a transaction in the Business Systems Modernization-Energy (BSM-E) log sheet, what information should you enter in the Defuel field when entering a defuel request?

Explanation

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65. When investigating fuel gains and losses, you know that variances in inventory levels may be caused by all of the following conditions except

Explanation

When investigating fuel gains and losses, variances in inventory levels can be caused by factors such as temperature, mode of delivery, and volume of the product. However, tank size does not affect the inventory levels directly. The size of the tank may determine the maximum capacity of fuel that can be stored, but it does not cause any variations in the inventory levels. Therefore, tank size is not a condition that can cause variances in inventory levels.

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66. What temperature is used to dry filters prior to performing the bottle method test?

Explanation

The correct answer is 90°C. This temperature is used to dry filters prior to performing the bottle method test. Drying the filters at this temperature helps to remove any moisture or contaminants that may be present, ensuring accurate and reliable test results. Higher temperatures may cause damage to the filters, while lower temperatures may not effectively dry them. Therefore, 90°C is the optimal temperature for this process.

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67. How often should government purchase card (GPC) cardholders reconcile their statement of account?

Explanation

Government purchase card (GPC) cardholders should reconcile their statement of account on a monthly basis. This allows for regular monitoring and verification of transactions made with the GPC. Monthly reconciliation ensures that any discrepancies or errors can be promptly identified and resolved, helping to maintain accurate financial records and prevent fraud or misuse of the GPC.

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68. To aid in priming, the PMU–27M is equipped with a priming

Explanation

The PMU-27M is equipped with a priming valve to aid in priming. This valve allows for the control and regulation of the flow of fluid during the priming process. It ensures that the correct amount of fluid is being delivered to the system, preventing over-priming or under-priming. The valve also allows for easy connection and disconnection of the priming hose, making the priming process more efficient and convenient.

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69. Fuels personnel identify the tank vent valve by using a locally manufactured

Explanation

Fuels personnel identify the tank vent valve by using a round aluminum disc. This suggests that the round aluminum disc is specifically designed and used for labeling or marking the tank vent valve. The use of aluminum material ensures durability and resistance to corrosion, making it suitable for outdoor and fuel-related environments. The round shape may also provide ease of identification and visibility for personnel. The other options, such as bronze disc, adhesive label, and wooden placard, do not seem to be as suitable or commonly used for this purpose.

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70. What pressure should the surge suppressor gauge on the R–20 multi-aircraft servicing unit indicate when the fueling system is not operating?

Explanation

The surge suppressor gauge on the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing unit should indicate a pressure of 90 psi when the fueling system is not operating. This pressure level is necessary to maintain the stability and safety of the system during idle periods. It ensures that the system is ready to operate efficiently when needed and prevents any potential damage or malfunctioning.

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71. The standard measure for atmospheric pressure is equal to how many pounds per square inch?

Explanation

The standard measure for atmospheric pressure is commonly known as 1 atmosphere, which is equivalent to 14.7 pounds per square inch (psi). This value represents the average atmospheric pressure at sea level on Earth.

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72. When do the magnetic lines of force in a magnet cross?

Explanation

Magnetic lines of force never cross each other because they represent the direction of the magnetic field. If they were to cross, it would imply that the magnetic field has two different directions at the same point, which is not possible. The lines always flow from the north pole to the south pole of a magnet, and they do not intersect or cross each other.

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73. What type of current flow is the result of voltages produced by batteries and thermocouples?

Explanation

The correct answer is direct current. Direct current (DC) is the type of current flow that is produced by batteries and thermocouples. DC flows in only one direction and has a constant magnitude. It is commonly used in electronic devices and systems that require a steady and consistent flow of current.

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74. Which is not a type of positive displacement pump?

Explanation

The question asks for a type of positive displacement pump that is not included in the options. The options provided are gear, piston, and rotary. These are all types of positive displacement pumps, as they use a mechanism to displace a fixed amount of fluid with each cycle. However, centrifugal pumps are not positive displacement pumps. They work by using centrifugal force to increase the fluid's velocity and then convert it into pressure. Therefore, the correct answer is centrifugal.

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75. What filter separator component prevents pressure surges from damaging dispensing pressure control systems?

Explanation

An air eliminator is a filter separator component that is designed to remove air or gas from a liquid flow. It prevents pressure surges by eliminating air pockets or bubbles that can cause fluctuations in pressure. By removing air, the air eliminator ensures a consistent and stable flow of liquid, protecting the dispensing pressure control systems from any damage that could be caused by sudden pressure changes.

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76. What type of meter is used on most fuel dispensing systems?

Explanation

Bi-rotor, positive displacement meters are commonly used on most fuel dispensing systems. These meters work by measuring the volume of fuel passing through the system. The bi-rotor design consists of two rotors that rotate in opposite directions, creating chambers that fill and empty as the fuel flows through. This design ensures accurate measurement of the fuel volume, making it an ideal choice for fuel dispensing systems where precise measurement is crucial. Positive displacement meters are known for their reliability and accuracy, making them the preferred choice in the industry.

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77. What type of lubricant is used to lubricate the power takeoff (PTO) on a fuel dispensing system?

Explanation

Ninety-weight gear oil is the correct answer for lubricating the power takeoff (PTO) on a fuel dispensing system. Gear oil is specifically designed to lubricate gears and other high-pressure components, making it suitable for the PTO mechanism. The "ninety-weight" refers to the viscosity of the oil, indicating its thickness and ability to withstand high temperatures and heavy loads. This type of lubricant ensures smooth operation and reduces friction, extending the lifespan of the PTO system.

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78. What happens if the tank outlet manual valve on the type III hydrant system is open during an emergency stop situation?

Explanation

If the tank outlet manual valve on the type III hydrant system is open during an emergency stop situation, a horn will sound. This is likely a safety measure to alert individuals that the valve is open and needs to be closed immediately. The horn serves as a warning signal to prevent any potential accidents or further damage that may occur if the valve remains open.

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79. What happens when the type III hydrant system product recovery tank is 70 percent full?

Explanation

When the type III hydrant system product recovery tank is 70 percent full, the float assembly closes the inlet valve to prevent further filling of the tank. However, the switch assembly automatically turns the pump on to start the process of transferring the product from the tank to another location. This ensures that the tank does not overflow and allows for continuous operation of the system.

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80. On the type V hydrant system, what size are the stainless steel pantographs that are installed inside the hardened shelters?

Explanation

The stainless steel pantographs installed inside the hardened shelters on the type V hydrant system are 3 inches in size.

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81. When documenting a cryogenic product receipt on the Air Force Form 1231, from which of the following documents is the contract number obtained?

Explanation

The contract number for a cryogenic product receipt on the Air Force Form 1231 is obtained from the DD Form 250.

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82. Who should you notify if, while performing fuels expediter duties, you use the spill response kit?

Explanation

The correct answer is Fuels Environmental coordinator. When performing fuels expediter duties, if you use the spill response kit, it is important to notify the Fuels Environmental coordinator. This individual is responsible for overseeing environmental concerns related to fuel operations and will need to be informed about any spills or potential environmental hazards.

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83. When you are maintaining and updating statuses in Business Systems Modernization- Energy (BSM-E) which status board should you use to document transfers?

Explanation

When maintaining and updating statuses in Business Systems Modernization-Energy (BSM-E), the appropriate status board to use for documenting transfers is the "Move" board. This board is specifically designed for recording and tracking the movement of items, equipment, or resources from one location to another within the business system.

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84. Accountability for a transferred MRSP kit temporary rests with the

Explanation

The correct answer is the Expeditionary LRS at the forward location. When a MRSP (Mobile Redistribution and Storage Point) kit is transferred, it is temporarily the responsibility of the Expeditionary LRS at the forward location. This means that they are accountable for the kit and its contents until it reaches its final destination or is transferred to another organization. The using organization, accountable officer, and home unit LRS customer service element may have roles in the transfer process, but the Expeditionary LRS at the forward location is the one who has immediate accountability.

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85. When you are generating queries in Business Systems Modernization-Energy (BSM-E), the query should consist of at least one field, comparison and

Explanation

In Business Systems Modernization-Energy (BSM-E), when generating queries, it is necessary to include at least one field, a comparison, and a value. This means that the query should specify the field to be searched, the comparison operator (such as equals, greater than, less than), and the specific value to be compared against. The value is crucial as it determines the criteria for the search and helps retrieve the desired information from the system.

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86. When you are submitting an 1884 inventory report, the report should reflect product quantities as of

Explanation

The correct answer is ".0800 local each Friday." This means that the inventory report should reflect product quantities as of 0800 local time every Friday. The local time is important because it ensures consistency across different time zones and allows for accurate reporting of inventory levels at the same point in time each week.

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87. When should Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) receive the non-Department of Defense (DOD) sales report and supporting documents?

Explanation

The Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) should receive the non-Department of Defense (DOD) sales report and supporting documents within 5 working days after the end of the month. This means that DESC should receive the report and documents within 5 business days, excluding weekends and holidays, following the end of the month.

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88. Who is responsible for establishing minimum essential levels (MEL) for assigned equipment and facilities?

Explanation

The FMT (Functional Manager Training) is responsible for establishing minimum essential levels (MEL) for assigned equipment and facilities. This role is responsible for ensuring that the equipment and facilities meet the required standards and are maintained at the minimum essential levels. The FMT works closely with the LRS commander, Fuels Operations Superintendent, and FISC Superintendent to ensure that the MEL requirements are met and maintained.

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89. When performing fuels controller duties, in the event of an emergency, you must notify each element in the Fuels management flight, the squadron commander and the

Explanation

When performing fuels controller duties, in the event of an emergency, it is necessary to notify the wing command post. This is because the wing command post is responsible for overseeing and coordinating operations within the entire wing, including the Fuels management flight. They have the authority and resources to handle emergency situations and ensure proper communication and decision-making at the highest level. Notifying the wing command post ensures that all necessary personnel and authorities are informed and can take appropriate action in response to the emergency.

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90. To obtain meaningful results with the bottle method test, the vacuum must read in excess of

Explanation

In the bottle method test, the vacuum must read in excess of 20 inches of mercury in order to obtain meaningful results. This means that the vacuum pressure should be higher than 20 inches of mercury. If the vacuum pressure is lower than this threshold, the test may not be accurate or reliable. Therefore, 20 inches of mercury is the minimum requirement for obtaining meaningful results in the bottle method test.

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91. How often should all fuels personnel complete task qualification training?

Explanation

All fuels personnel should complete task qualification training every 12 months. This ensures that they stay updated with the latest procedures and safety protocols related to handling fuels. Regular training helps to maintain their skills and knowledge, ensuring that they are competent and capable of performing their duties effectively. By having training every year, any changes or updates in the industry can be effectively communicated to the personnel, ensuring their continued competence and safety.

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92. What size sealing clamp should be used to repair a 5 in. hole in a fuel bladder?

Explanation

The correct answer is 7 ½ in. This size sealing clamp should be used to repair a 5 in. hole in a fuel bladder. The sealing clamp needs to be larger than the hole in order to effectively seal it and prevent any fuel leakage. A 7 ½ in. clamp will provide enough coverage to ensure a secure repair.

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93. What are the two positions of the throttle switch located on the R–18 pumping unit's handheld remote?

Explanation

The correct answer is RUN and IDLE. The throttle switch on the R-18 pumping unit's handheld remote has two positions: RUN and IDLE. The RUN position is used when the pumping unit needs to be operational and running at full speed. The IDLE position is used when the pumping unit needs to be in a standby mode or running at a lower speed.

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94. What is a major difference between a gas and a liquid?

Explanation

The major difference between a gas and a liquid is their compressibility. A gas can be easily compressed because its particles are far apart and have a lot of empty space between them. On the other hand, a liquid is much less compressible because its particles are closely packed together. Therefore, the correct answer is that a liquid is far less compressible than a gas.

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95. Two or more atoms combined is called a

Explanation

When two or more atoms combine, they form a molecule. A molecule is a group of atoms held together by chemical bonds. In this case, the question is asking for the term used to describe the combination of atoms, and the correct answer is "a molecule." A compound refers to a substance composed of two or more different elements, while an element is a pure substance made up of only one type of atom. A mixture, on the other hand, is a combination of two or more substances that are not chemically bonded.

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96. What are the two most common methods of producing voltage?

Explanation

The correct answer is chemical and mechanical because voltage can be produced through chemical reactions, such as in batteries, where chemical energy is converted into electrical energy. Voltage can also be produced through mechanical methods, such as in generators, where mechanical energy is converted into electrical energy through the motion of a magnet within a coil of wire.

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97. What causes the automatic bypass valve on the type III hydrant system to open and let fuel bypass the filter separator when receiving fuel by cross-country pipeline?

Explanation

When receiving fuel by cross-country pipeline, the automatic bypass valve on the type III hydrant system opens and lets fuel bypass the filter separator when a differential pressure of 20 psi is sensed across the receiving filter separator. This means that when the pressure difference between the inlet and outlet of the filter separator reaches 20 psi, the bypass valve opens to allow fuel to bypass the filter and continue flowing through the system. This is done to prevent excessive pressure build-up and potential damage to the system.

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98. On the type III hydrant system, where is the ball float assembly for the high-level shutoff valve located on an aboveground operating storage tank?

Explanation

The ball float assembly for the high-level shutoff valve is located on the exterior of the tank at the required shut-off height. This means that it is positioned outside of the tank, rather than inside. The shut-off height is the designated level at which the valve will close to prevent any overflow or overfilling of the tank. Placing the ball float assembly on the exterior allows for easy access and maintenance of the valve without the need to enter the tank.

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99. On the type IV hydrant system, how many aircraft can be hot refueled simultaneously in about 8 to 12 minutes, depending on the type of aircraft?

Explanation

The correct answer is 2. The type IV hydrant system allows for hot refueling of two aircraft simultaneously in approximately 8 to 12 minutes, depending on the type of aircraft. This means that two aircraft can be fueled at the same time, which helps to save time and increase efficiency in the refueling process.

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100. What symbol should you enter on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244/245 if a routine inspection on a cryotainer goes overdue?

Explanation

If a routine inspection on a cryotainer goes overdue, the symbol that should be entered on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244/245 is a red dash. The red dash symbolizes that the inspection was not completed within the required timeframe. This helps to indicate that there was a delay in the inspection and allows for proper documentation and follow-up actions to be taken.

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101. When preparing the R–20 filter separator unit for shipment, drain all of the following components except the

Explanation

When preparing the R-20 filter separator unit for shipment, it is necessary to drain all components except for the surge suppressors. This means that the sump tank, control valves, and micronic filter should be drained, but the surge suppressors should not be drained.

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102. The amount of bulk petroleum war reserve requirement (BPWRR) a defense fuel supply point (DFSP) is authorized to store is referred to as

Explanation

The correct answer is "bulk petroleum war reserve stock." This is because the amount of bulk petroleum war reserve requirement (BPWRR) that a defense fuel supply point (DFSP) is authorized to store is referred to as bulk petroleum war reserve stock. This stock is specifically designated for use during times of war or national emergencies to ensure an adequate supply of petroleum for military operations.

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103. When entering an order into the Paperless Ordering and Receipt Tracking Screens (PORTS) system, what agencies receive fuel request e-mails from after you have placed the ground products order?

Explanation

When entering an order into the PORTS system, fuel request e-mails are received by the vendor and DESC (Defense Energy Support Center). This means that both the vendor responsible for fulfilling the order and DESC, which is the organization overseeing fuel procurement for the military, receive the e-mails.

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104. During a flash point test, apply the flame to the vapor cup for

Explanation

During a flash point test, it is recommended to apply the flame to the vapor cup for 1 second. This duration allows for sufficient heating of the sample and vaporization of any flammable substances present. Applying the flame for a shorter duration may not provide accurate results, while applying it for a longer duration may lead to excessive heating or combustion of the sample, potentially affecting the test outcome.

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105. Personnel attending Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) or Forward Area Refueling Point (FARP) training must have a minimum of how many months retainability?

Explanation

Personnel attending Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) or Forward Area Refueling Point (FARP) training must have a minimum of 24 months retainability. This means that individuals must commit to serving in the military for at least 24 more months after completing the training. This requirement ensures that the military can retain trained personnel and maximize the investment in their training.

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106. What does a steady red light on the battery status LED of the R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform indicate?

Explanation

A steady red light on the battery status LED of the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform indicates that the battery is disconnected. This means that the battery is not properly connected or there is a problem with the battery connection.

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107. A magnet that is magnetized by induction from an external source is called

Explanation

An artificial magnet is a magnet that is magnetized by induction from an external source. This means that the magnet does not have inherent magnetic properties but acquires them through the influence of an external magnetic field. Unlike natural magnets, which occur naturally in the form of minerals like magnetite, artificial magnets are man-made and can be created using materials like iron or steel. Therefore, the correct answer is an artificial magnet.

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108. What component found on R–11s and R–12s prevents the auxiliary throttle from operating unless the power takeoff (PTO) is engaged?

Explanation

The throttle interlock system is the component found on R-11s and R-12s that prevents the auxiliary throttle from operating unless the power takeoff (PTO) is engaged. This system ensures that the auxiliary throttle can only be used when the PTO is active, adding an extra layer of safety and preventing accidental throttle operation.

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109. Which hose is exempt from annual hydrostatic hose testing requirements?

Explanation

Hoses used for hot refueling E–4B aircraft are exempt from annual hydrostatic hose testing requirements. This means that these particular hoses do not need to undergo the regular testing process. The other options, such as hoses for FAM carts, hoses used for hot/rapid defueling, and hoses used for concurrent servicing operations supporting sortie generation operations, are not exempt and would still need to undergo annual hydrostatic hose testing.

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110. Since manning is not required for the type V hydrant system, how often must inspections be performed when it is operating?

Explanation

The correct answer is Every 3 hours. This is because the type V hydrant system does not require manning, meaning there is no personnel actively monitoring it. Therefore, inspections must be performed more frequently to ensure the system is functioning properly and to address any issues that may arise. Performing inspections every 3 hours allows for regular checks and maintenance of the system to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

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111. When encoding vehicle identification link (VIL) keys, how long should you maintain copies of a vehicle identification link (VIL) key requests in the defense fuel supply point (DSFP) document control file?

Explanation

The correct answer is 36 months. This means that copies of vehicle identification link (VIL) key requests should be maintained in the defense fuel supply point (DSFP) document control file for a period of 36 months. This is likely to ensure that there is a sufficient record of the VIL key requests for reference and auditing purposes.

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112. The PMU–27M may be connected to what maximum number of 500-gal. sealed drums?

Explanation

The PMU-27M may be connected to a maximum of four 500-gal. sealed drums.

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113. Which gas law declares that cooling a gas decreases its volume?

Explanation

Charles' law states that the volume of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature, assuming that the pressure and amount of gas remain constant. According to this law, as the temperature of a gas decreases, its volume will also decrease. Therefore, Charles' law explains why cooling a gas decreases its volume.

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114. Concurrent servicing operations supporting sortie generation operations (CSO/SGO) are authorized on all following aircraft except the

Explanation

The correct answer is F–117. The F-117 is excluded from concurrent servicing operations supporting sortie generation operations (CSO/SGO). This means that while other aircraft like the A-10, F-15, and F-22 are authorized for CSO/SGO, the F-117 is not.

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115. A temporary movement of a MRSP kit from home station to another location for a period of less than 30 days is referred to as a

Explanation

A temporary movement of a MRSP kit from home station to another location for a period of less than 30 days is referred to as a deployment. This suggests that the MRSP kit is being sent to a different location for a short duration, possibly for a specific task or mission. It is not a permanent transfer or relocation, as it is only for a temporary period of less than 30 days. Reassignment refers to a change in job or position, which is not applicable in this context.

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116. What is the proper tire pressure setting for highway towing of an R–14 air transportable hydrant refueling system (ATHRS)?

Explanation

The proper tire pressure setting for highway towing of an R-14 air transportable hydrant refueling system (ATHRS) is 65 psi. This is the correct answer because maintaining the appropriate tire pressure is crucial for safe and efficient towing of heavy equipment. Higher tire pressure helps to distribute the weight evenly and provides better stability and control during towing. It also helps to prevent tire damage and blowouts, especially when carrying heavy loads on highways. Therefore, 65 psi is the recommended tire pressure setting for highway towing of an ATHRS.

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117. Which of the following agencies can initiate a Reporting Emergency Petroleum, Oils and Lubricants (REPOL)?

Explanation

The Joint Staff is the correct answer because it is a military agency that has the authority to initiate a Reporting Emergency Petroleum, Oils and Lubricants (REPOL). The Joint Staff is responsible for coordinating and integrating the efforts of different military branches, and they have the necessary knowledge and resources to handle emergencies related to petroleum, oils, and lubricants. The other options, DESC, AFPET, and MAJCOM, do not have the same level of authority or responsibility in this matter.

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118. When determining authorizations for sales to non-DOD aircraft, you know that "T" Department of Defense address activity codes (DODAAC) are assigned to non-DOD organizations by

Explanation

The correct answer is DESC because the Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) Distribution is responsible for assigning Department of Defense Activity Codes (DODAAC) to non-DOD organizations. The DLA Distribution Executive Support Center (DESC) is specifically responsible for managing and assigning these codes. The other options, AFPET, DAASC, and MAJCOM, are not responsible for assigning DODAACs to non-DOD organizations.

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119. How often should cryotainers be sampled for purity, odor and minor constituents?

Explanation

Cryotainers should be sampled for purity, odor, and minor constituents every 90 days. This frequency allows for regular monitoring of the cryotainers to ensure that they maintain their desired levels of purity and do not have any unusual odors or minor constituents that could affect their performance. Sampling every 90 days strikes a balance between frequent monitoring and practicality, allowing for timely detection of any potential issues while minimizing the burden of frequent sampling.

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120. The FFU–15E filter separator is equipped with how many filter elements?

Explanation

The FFU-15E filter separator is equipped with 6 filter elements.

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121. Each R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is equipped with how many feet of communication wire?

Explanation

Each R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is equipped with 1,500 feet of communication wire.

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122. What form is used to annotate fuel bladder inspections?

Explanation

The correct answer is "A locally developed form." This means that there is no specific standardized form used to annotate fuel bladder inspections. Instead, each organization or location may have their own form that they use for this purpose.

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123. Which unit of measurement would indicate velocity of flow?

Explanation

The unit of measurement that indicates the velocity of flow is "Feet per second." This unit is commonly used to measure the speed at which a fluid or substance is flowing. It represents the distance traveled in feet divided by the time taken in seconds, giving a measure of how quickly the flow is moving.

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124. A 3-horsepower motor consumes how much power?

Explanation

The correct answer is 2,238 W because 1 horsepower is equal to 745.7 watts. Therefore, a 3-horsepower motor would consume 3 times that amount, which is 2,237.1 watts. Rounded to the nearest whole number, the answer is 2,238 W.

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125. What are the three things needed to produce voltage by the principle of electromagnetic induction?

Explanation

To produce voltage by the principle of electromagnetic induction, three things are required: a magnetic field, a conductor, and relative motion between the magnetic field and the conductor. The magnetic field provides the force necessary for the induction process, the conductor allows for the flow of electrons, and the relative motion between the two creates a change in the magnetic field, inducing a voltage in the conductor. The other options mentioned do not accurately describe the necessary components for electromagnetic induction.

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126. What fuel dispensing system component controls system fuel pressure?

Explanation

The bypass system is responsible for controlling the fuel pressure in the fuel dispensing system. It allows excess fuel to bypass the mainline system, regulating the pressure and ensuring that it remains within the desired range. This component is crucial in maintaining the proper functioning of the fuel dispensing system and preventing any potential damage or malfunctions.

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127. During bottom loading operations, what occurs when the signal to the bottom loading optic probe is lost?

Explanation

When the signal to the bottom loading optic probe is lost, the electronic control module cuts power to the bottom loading electric air solenoid. This means that the solenoid, which controls the flow of air to the bottom loading valve, will no longer receive power and will be deactivated. This action is taken to prevent any further flow of product during the loading operation, ensuring safety and preventing any potential accidents or spills.

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128. When performing meter calibrations, what is the acceptable difference between the master meter and the meter being calibrated?

Explanation

The acceptable difference between the master meter and the meter being calibrated is ½ gallon for each 100 gallons passing through the meter. This means that for every 100 gallons that pass through the meter being calibrated, there can be a difference of up to ½ gallon compared to the master meter. This allows for a small margin of error in the calibration process.

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129. Urgent action time compliance technical orders (TCTO) require compliance within what maximum amount of days?

Explanation

Urgent action time compliance technical orders (TCTO) are time-sensitive directives that require immediate attention and compliance. These orders are issued to address critical safety or operational issues. In this case, the correct answer is 10 days, which means that the personnel must comply with the TCTO within a maximum of 10 days from the issuance. This emphasizes the urgency and importance of addressing the specified issue promptly to ensure safety and operational effectiveness.

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130. What type of publication is issued when a commercial manufacturer discovers dangerous or unsafe conditions with a product?

Explanation

A manufacturer's recall is issued when a commercial manufacturer discovers dangerous or unsafe conditions with a product. This means that the manufacturer is recalling the product from the market and requesting customers to return it for repair or replacement. This is done to ensure the safety of the consumers and prevent any potential harm or accidents that may occur due to the product's defects.

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131. What size mesh screen is used in the type III hydrant system receiving strainer?

Explanation

The correct answer for the size of the mesh screen used in the type III hydrant system receiving strainer is 60.

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132. On the type III hydrant system, which function of the filter separator control valve prevents the elements from bursting and allowing contaminated fuel downstream?

Explanation

The differential pressure shutoff function of the filter separator control valve prevents the elements from bursting and allowing contaminated fuel downstream. This is because it monitors the pressure difference between the upstream and downstream sides of the valve. If the pressure difference exceeds a certain threshold, the valve automatically shuts off, preventing any further flow of fuel and protecting the system from potential damage or contamination.

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133. How many tanks are used with the type IV hydrant system, and what is the capacity of each?

Explanation

The correct answer is four; 50,000 gallons. This means that there are four tanks used with the type IV hydrant system, and each tank has a capacity of 50,000 gallons.

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134. What type(s) of current flow cannot be transformed from a higher voltage to a lower voltage?

Explanation

Direct current cannot be transformed from a higher voltage to a lower voltage. This is because direct current flows in only one direction and does not change its polarity over time. Therefore, it cannot be easily stepped down or transformed to a lower voltage like alternating current, which can be easily transformed using transformers.

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135. The R–22 trailer mounted transfer pump has the capability of transferring a maximum of how many gals. of fuel per day?

Explanation

The R-22 trailer mounted transfer pump has the capability of transferring a maximum of 500,000 gallons of fuel per day.

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136. When you are reconciling accounts, what is the allowable tolerance for motor (automotive) gasoline (MOGAS)?

Explanation

When reconciling accounts, the allowable tolerance for motor (automotive) gasoline (MOGAS) is .005. This means that there can be a difference of up to .005 in the recorded amount of gasoline compared to the actual amount without it being considered an error.

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137. Who is responsible for reviewing aircraft flying schedules and organizing work shifts to meet fuel support requirements?

Explanation

The Fuels Operations Superintendent is responsible for reviewing aircraft flying schedules and organizing work shifts to meet fuel support requirements. This role involves overseeing the operations of the fuel department, ensuring that fuel is available for aircraft as needed, and coordinating with other departments to ensure smooth operations. The Fuels Operations Superintendent is in a leadership position and plays a crucial role in ensuring that fuel support requirements are met efficiently and effectively.

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138. The Tank Group window in FuelsManager allows operators to create tabular lists of up to how many tanks?

Explanation

The Tank Group window in FuelsManager allows operators to create tabular lists of up to 20 tanks. This means that operators can view and manage information for a maximum of 20 tanks at a time.

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139. How often are the printed standards for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) test replaced?

Explanation

The printed standards for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) test are replaced annually. This means that every year, new printed standards are implemented for the test.

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140. What is the primary purpose of the R–14 ATHRS?

Explanation

The primary purpose of the R-14 ATHRS is to service aircraft where permanent systems are not available. This suggests that the R-14 ATHRS is a portable or temporary system that can be used to fuel or service aircraft in locations where permanent infrastructure is not in place.

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141. All of the following items should be accomplished prior to shipping the R–22 except

Explanation

The unit should be thoroughly cleaned, all fuel should be drained from the piping, and all hose assemblies should be disconnected and drained prior to shipping the R-22. However, placing the unit in the low mobility position is not necessary before shipping it.

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142. When should Bourdon gauges be calibrated?

Explanation

Bourdon gauges should be calibrated annually. Calibrating these gauges on a yearly basis ensures that they continue to provide accurate measurements. Regular calibration helps to identify any deviations or inaccuracies in the gauge's readings, allowing for adjustments or repairs to be made as necessary. This ensures the reliability and precision of the gauge's measurements, which is crucial in various industries where Bourdon gauges are commonly used, such as oil and gas, manufacturing, and HVAC.

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143. What type of inspection is performed to determine the condition of a vehicle or piece of equipment?

Explanation

A limited technical inspection is performed to determine the condition of a vehicle or piece of equipment. This type of inspection focuses on specific components or systems of the vehicle or equipment, rather than a comprehensive evaluation. It is typically conducted to ensure that the specific components or systems are functioning properly and meet the required standards. Unlike an annual inspection, which covers all aspects of the vehicle or equipment, a limited technical inspection is more targeted and may be performed more frequently to address specific concerns or issues. Preventative maintenance and inspection, on the other hand, refers to routine maintenance and inspection activities aimed at preventing breakdowns and ensuring optimal performance. Special inspection is a vague term and does not provide a clear explanation for determining the condition of a vehicle or equipment.

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144. When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 134, how should odor test results be annotated in block 2?

Explanation

The odor test results should be annotated as either "FAIL" or "PASS" in column D when documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 134.

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145. What environmental regulation establishes "cradle to grave" control of hazardous substances?

Explanation

The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) is the correct answer because it establishes "cradle to grave" control of hazardous substances. This means that the regulation covers the entire lifecycle of these substances, from their creation or generation (cradle) to their disposal or management (grave). RCRA sets standards for the storage, transportation, treatment, and disposal of hazardous waste, with the goal of protecting human health and the environment. The other options listed, such as 40 CFR 280, TO 42B-1-23, and DOD Directive 4140.25M, are not specifically related to "cradle to grave" control of hazardous substances.

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146. When selecting a fuel site, what factor will drive span of control decisions?

Explanation

Force protection is the factor that will drive span of control decisions when selecting a fuel site. Force protection refers to the measures taken to safeguard personnel, equipment, and resources from hostile actions or threats. In the context of a fuel site, force protection considerations would involve assessing the level of security required to protect the site and its assets from potential attacks or sabotage. This would include factors such as the presence of security personnel, surveillance systems, and physical barriers to deter and prevent unauthorized access. The level of force protection needed would influence the span of control decisions, determining the number of personnel and resources required to effectively secure and protect the fuel site.

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147. What type of fabric are fuel bladders made of?

Explanation

Fuel bladders are made of single ply nylon because nylon is a strong and durable fabric that is resistant to fuel and chemicals. It is also lightweight, flexible, and has a high tensile strength, making it suitable for containing and storing fuel. The single ply construction means that the bladder is made from a single layer of nylon fabric, which helps to minimize the weight and maximize the flexibility of the bladder.

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148. Which condition would require you to clean a cryotainer filter?

Explanation

A decrease in liquid flow would require cleaning a cryotainer filter because it indicates that the filter is clogged or blocked, which is hindering the flow of liquid. Cleaning the filter would help remove any debris or contaminants that are causing the blockage and restore the normal flow of liquid through the cryotainer.

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149. When performing fuel servicing operations with the R–18 pumping unit, the throttle control should manually be set to what rpm setting?

Explanation

The correct answer is 2,250 rpm. When performing fuel servicing operations with the R-18 pumping unit, it is recommended to manually set the throttle control to 2,250 rpm. This specific rpm setting ensures efficient fuel servicing operations and helps maintain the optimal performance of the unit.

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150. How many filtrations, if any, are required for reclaimed products returned to storage which will be reissued to ground support equipment?

Explanation

Only one filtration is required for reclaimed products returned to storage before they are reissued to ground support equipment. This suggests that the reclaimed products undergo a single filtration process to ensure their quality and suitability for reuse.

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151. At least how many days before the due date must flight physicals and physiological training for Forward Area Refueling Point (FARP) and Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) trained personnel be scheduled?

Explanation

Flight physicals and physiological training for Forward Area Refueling Point (FARP) and Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) trained personnel must be scheduled at least 45 days before the due date.

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152. What form should be completed for awarding skill levels when all upgrade training (UGT) requirements have been met?

Explanation

The AF Form 2096 should be completed for awarding skill levels when all upgrade training (UGT) requirements have been met.

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153. How many feet of connecting hose does the ABFDS contain?

Explanation

The ABFDS contains 186 feet of connecting hose.

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154. At what maximum flow rate can the FAM cart pump deliver fuel?

Explanation

The FAM cart pump can deliver fuel at a maximum flow rate of 365 gpm. This means that it is capable of pumping fuel at a rate of 365 gallons per minute. It is important to note that this is the highest flow rate that the pump can achieve, indicating its maximum capacity.

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155. Which publication is a memorandum issued by commercial manufacturers advising maintainers of minor defects with a product?

Explanation

A service bulletin is a publication issued by commercial manufacturers to inform maintainers about minor defects with a product. It provides guidance on how to address these issues and ensure the proper functioning of the product. Unlike a TCTO (Time Compliance Technical Order) which is used for mandatory modifications or repairs, a service bulletin is advisory in nature. A technical manual provides detailed instructions on how to operate or maintain a product, while a manufacturer's recall is a formal request to return or repair a defective product.

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156. How many differential pressure transmitters (DPT) are installed on the issue line of a type III hydrant system that has a refueling capability of more than 2,400 gallons per minutes (gpm)?

Explanation

A differential pressure transmitter (DPT) is a device used to measure the difference in pressure between two points in a system. In the context of a type III hydrant system with a refueling capability of over 2,400 gpm, it is necessary to have multiple DPTs installed on the issue line to accurately monitor and control the pressure. The correct answer, 4, suggests that there are four DPTs installed on the issue line of the hydrant system.

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157. How often should dikes be checked for deterioration?

Explanation

Dikes should be checked for deterioration on a weekly basis. This frequency allows for regular monitoring of the condition of the dikes and ensures that any signs of deterioration or damage can be identified and addressed promptly. Weekly checks also help in preventing potential failures or breaches in the dikes, which could lead to flooding and other hazards. Regular inspections are crucial in maintaining the structural integrity of the dikes and ensuring the safety of the surrounding areas.

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158. Who must establish procedures for the collection, safekeeping, and deposit of funds received for cash sales of aviation fuels?

Explanation

The FMT (Financial Management Technician) must establish procedures for the collection, safekeeping, and deposit of funds received for cash sales of aviation fuels. As a financial management professional, the FMT is responsible for managing financial transactions and ensuring proper procedures are in place for the handling of funds. This includes establishing protocols for the collection, safekeeping, and deposit of funds received from cash sales of aviation fuels.

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159. How much fuel is passed through the test pad to obtain an Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) sample?

Explanation

The correct answer is 300 milliliters. This is because the question is asking for the amount of fuel that is passed through the test pad to obtain an Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) sample. Out of the given options, 300 milliliters is the only measurement that is in milliliters, which is a common unit for measuring fuel. The other options, quart and gallon, are larger units of measurement and would not be appropriate for a small sample size. Therefore, 300 milliliters is the most suitable answer.

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160. When testing for fiber particles after an element change, how much fuel must be flush through a filter separator?

Explanation

After an element change, it is necessary to flush a sufficient amount of fuel through a filter separator to test for fiber particles. The correct answer is 2,000 gallons, indicating that this is the recommended amount of fuel that should be flushed through the filter separator in order to effectively test for fiber particles.

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161. What is the normal range of use limits for fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) in turbine fuel?

Explanation

The normal range of use limits for fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) in turbine fuel is 0.07 to 0.20 percent.

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162. What type of thermometer should you use when performing a cloud point analysis?

Explanation

The correct answer is ASTM 5F. ASTM 5F is the type of thermometer that should be used when performing a cloud point analysis.

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163. Which physical factor affects the behavior of liquids in both rest and motion?

Explanation

The behavior of liquids in both rest and motion is influenced by gravity, atmospheric pressure, and applied forces. Gravity affects the downward flow of liquids and determines their level in containers. Atmospheric pressure affects the ability of liquids to flow against it, such as in siphoning. Applied forces, such as pushing or pulling, can cause liquids to move or change shape. These three factors work together to determine how liquids behave and interact with their surroundings.

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164. How often should a water slug valve test be performed on the Fuel Filter Unit (FFU)–15E?

Explanation

A water slug valve test should be performed on the Fuel Filter Unit (FFU)–15E on a monthly basis. This is because regular testing is necessary to ensure the proper functioning of the valve and to detect any potential issues or malfunctions. Monthly testing allows for timely identification and resolution of any problems, helping to maintain the efficiency and reliability of the FFU–15E.

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165. What grade of fuel should be used to flush the R–14 prior to air shipment?

Explanation

JP-5 should be used to flush the R-14 prior to air shipment. This is because JP-5 is a type of jet fuel that is specifically designed for use in aircraft engines. It has a high flash point and low volatility, making it suitable for transportation and storage. Using JP-5 to flush the R-14 ensures that any residual fuel or contaminants are removed, preparing it for safe air shipment.

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166. What type of time compliance technical order (TCTO) is issued for safety conditions which, if left uncorrected, could result in fatality or serious injury to personnel or extensive damage to or destruction of valuable property?

Explanation

Immediate action is the correct answer because it refers to a type of time compliance technical order (TCTO) that is issued for safety conditions that, if not corrected immediately, could result in fatal or serious injuries to personnel or significant damage to valuable property. This type of TCTO requires immediate attention and corrective action to prevent any potential harm or damage.

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167. Where do the type III hydrant system pressure indicating transmitters sense pressure?

Explanation

The type III hydrant system pressure indicating transmitters sense pressure in the issue line and atmosphere. This means that they measure the pressure in the line where the fluid is being issued or supplied, as well as the atmospheric pressure. By sensing the pressure in these two locations, the transmitters can provide accurate readings and ensure the proper functioning of the hydrant system.

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168. What agency should the fuels management team (FMT) consult with on all matters regarding the provision of or changes to personal protective equipment (PPE) for workers?

Explanation

The fuels management team (FMT) should consult with the base bioenvironmental engineer on all matters regarding the provision of or changes to personal protective equipment (PPE) for workers. The base bioenvironmental engineer is responsible for assessing and managing potential hazards in the workplace, including the selection and use of appropriate PPE. They have the expertise and knowledge to advise the FMT on the proper PPE requirements to ensure the safety and protection of workers.

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169. How often should correlation samples be submitted to the area laboratory to check the accuracy of tests performed at base level?

Explanation

Correlation samples should be submitted to the area laboratory every 90 days to check the accuracy of tests performed at the base level. This time frame allows for a sufficient period to gather a representative sample of data and identify any discrepancies or inconsistencies in the test results. By conducting these regular checks, the laboratory can ensure the accuracy and reliability of their testing procedures and make any necessary adjustments or improvements.

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170. During air shipment, the cryotainer inner tank pressure should not exceed what maximum psi reading?

Explanation

During air shipment, the cryotainer inner tank pressure should not exceed 40 psi. This is important to ensure the safety and integrity of the cryotainer during transportation. If the pressure exceeds this limit, it could lead to potential leaks, ruptures, or other hazardous situations. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor and maintain the pressure within the specified range to prevent any accidents or damage to the cryotainer.

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171. What effect of current causes an electric motor to produce mechanical energy?

Explanation

When an electric current flows through the coils of an electric motor, it creates a magnetic field. This magnetic field interacts with the permanent magnets within the motor, causing the rotor to spin and producing mechanical energy. Therefore, the effect of current that causes an electric motor to produce mechanical energy is magnetism.

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172. What maximum number of base stations may be configured to operate with the automated data collection (ADC) system?

Explanation

The maximum number of base stations that may be configured to operate with the automated data collection (ADC) system is 10. This means that the system can support up to 10 base stations for collecting and transmitting data.

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173. When maintaining Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) files, upon successful completion of end-of year closeout actions, how long should you retain the twelve monthly electronic backup disks as the fiscal year backup?

Explanation

Upon successful completion of end-of-year closeout actions, the twelve monthly electronic backup disks should be retained as the fiscal year backup for a period of 6 years and 3 months. This ensures that the files are securely stored and can be accessed if needed for any future reference or audits. Retaining the backups for this duration helps in maintaining data integrity and complying with record retention policies.

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174. Which recoverable and waste (R&W) petroleum product category covers motor crankcase oils and reciprocating aircraft engine oils?

Explanation

Category 3 of recoverable and waste (R&W) petroleum products covers motor crankcase oils and reciprocating aircraft engine oils. This category is specifically designed for these types of oils and is meant to ensure their proper disposal and recovery. Other categories may cover different types of petroleum products, but Category 3 is the correct one for motor crankcase oils and reciprocating aircraft engine oils.

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175. When should a refractometer used for fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) tests be calibrated?

Explanation

A refractometer is a device used to measure the refractive index of a substance, in this case, fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) in test water. Regular calibration is necessary to ensure accurate and reliable measurements. Daily calibration is recommended to account for any variations that may occur during the day. Additionally, calibration should also be done when changing the test water as it may have different properties that can affect the readings. Therefore, the refractometer should be calibrated daily or when changing test water to maintain accuracy.

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176. The fuels training supervisor should review all training records

Explanation

The correct answer is semiannually because reviewing training records on a regular basis is important to ensure that all employees have received the necessary training and are up to date. Reviewing the records semiannually strikes a balance between reviewing them too frequently, which could be time-consuming, and not reviewing them often enough, which could lead to potential gaps in training. This allows the fuels training supervisor to stay informed about the training progress of their team and make any necessary adjustments or improvements to the training program.

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177. What type of meter, if any, is installed on the TPI–4T–4A portable additive injector?

Explanation

The correct answer is "None" because the question is asking about the type of meter installed on the portable additive injector, and the answer options are different types of meters. However, the answer "None" indicates that there is no meter installed on the injector, suggesting that it may not have a built-in metering system for measuring the flow or quantity of the additive.

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178. When starting the PMU–27M, the throttle should be placed at

Explanation

When starting the PMU-27M, it is recommended to place the throttle at half speed. This is because starting the engine at full speed can cause excessive wear and tear on the engine components. On the other hand, starting at idle speed may not provide enough power to start the engine effectively. Therefore, starting at half speed strikes a balance between providing sufficient power to start the engine and avoiding unnecessary strain on the engine.

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179. What term is used to describe the total pressure acting as a gas?

Explanation

Absolute pressure is the term used to describe the total pressure acting as a gas. It refers to the total pressure exerted by a gas, which includes both the atmospheric pressure and any additional pressure applied. It is measured relative to a perfect vacuum, meaning it includes the pressure of the atmosphere as well. Gauge pressure, on the other hand, only measures the pressure above atmospheric pressure, while atmospheric pressure refers specifically to the pressure exerted by the Earth's atmosphere. Overpressure is not the correct term for describing the total pressure acting as a gas.

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180. What size graduated cylinder is used to perform the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test?

Explanation

The American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test is a method used to measure the density of petroleum liquids. It requires the use of a graduated cylinder to measure the volume of the liquid. The most appropriate size of graduated cylinder for this test is 1,000 ml. This size allows for accurate measurement of the liquid's volume while providing enough space for any necessary adjustments or additions during the testing process.

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181. Fuel bladders can withstand temperatures from

Explanation

Fuel bladders are designed to be durable and withstand a wide range of temperatures. The given answer of -40° F to 160° F indicates the temperature range within which fuel bladders can function effectively. This range covers extremely cold temperatures of -40° F as well as moderately high temperatures of 160° F. This suggests that fuel bladders are made from materials that can handle both extreme cold and heat, making them suitable for various environments and climates.

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182. With which of the following alternate fuels should special precautions be taken due to its high volatility?

Explanation

Jet B is the correct answer because it is known for its high volatility. Volatility refers to the tendency of a substance to evaporate or vaporize quickly. Jet B has a low flash point and a high vapor pressure, making it highly volatile. This means that it can easily ignite and has a higher risk of explosion compared to other alternate fuels like JP-5, Jet A, and Jet A-1. Therefore, special precautions should be taken when handling and storing Jet B to ensure safety.

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183. The FAM cart is equipped with all of the following nozzles except

Explanation

The FAM cart is equipped with various types of nozzles for refueling aircraft. The options provided include overwing nozzle, D–1 single point nozzle, and closed circuit refueling nozzle. The correct answer is D–2 single point nozzle, which means that this specific type of nozzle is not included in the FAM cart's equipment.

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184. What component on the R–18 pumping unit will illuminate to indicate a serious problem with the engine?

Explanation

The stop light on the R-18 pumping unit will illuminate to indicate a serious problem with the engine. This light serves as a warning signal to alert the operator that there is a critical issue with the engine that needs immediate attention. It is designed to grab the operator's attention and prompt them to take necessary actions to address the problem and prevent further damage or accidents.

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185. When rating an inspection, the compliance and environmental element may use the five-tier rating system at the discretion of the

Explanation

The FMT (Functional Management Team) may use the five-tier rating system when rating an inspection. The FMT is responsible for managing and overseeing the functional aspects of an organization, including compliance and environmental matters. Therefore, it is within their discretion to determine the rating system to be used. The squadron commander, group commander, and parent MAJCOM may have authority in other areas, but in this case, the FMT is the correct answer.

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186. When selecting a site for bladder operations, the site should have less than what degree of slope?

Explanation

When selecting a site for bladder operations, it is important to choose a site with a slope that is less than 3°. This is because a steeper slope could make the operation more challenging and increase the risk of complications. By selecting a site with a slope of 3° or less, the surgeon can ensure a more stable and controlled environment for the operation.

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187. What agency is responsible for formulating and disseminating instructions and other directives that cover operations not specified in detail in Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 23–110, Volume 2?

Explanation

MAJCOM, or Major Command, is the correct answer because it is responsible for formulating and disseminating instructions and directives that cover operations not specified in detail in Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 23-110, Volume 2. MAJCOMs are responsible for specific functional areas within the Air Force and have the authority to issue instructions and directives to subordinate units. They provide guidance and direction for operations that are not covered in the AFMAN, ensuring that all operations are carried out efficiently and effectively.

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188. At what flow rate is the R–14 capable of servicing through one 2-inch hose?

Explanation

The R-14 is capable of servicing a flow rate of 100 gallons per minute (gpm) through one 2-inch hose.

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189. What is the total flow rate of the ABFDS?

Explanation

The correct answer is 600 gpm because it is the highest flow rate option provided. This suggests that the ABFDS (whatever it may be) has a total flow rate of 600 gallons per minute, which is greater than the other options given.

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190. How many fillstand assemblies are included in the FORCE system?

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 because the question asks how many fillstand assemblies are included in the FORCE system. The options provided are numbers, and the number 2 is the correct answer choice.

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191. When reporting inspection results, what form should be used to report inspection result findings?

Explanation

The correct answer is AF Form 2420. This form should be used to report inspection result findings.

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192. What is the first factor that the senior ranking deployed fuels member must consider when selecting a site for fuels operations?

Explanation

The first factor that the senior ranking deployed fuels member must consider when selecting a site for fuels operations is safety. This is crucial as it ensures the well-being and security of personnel and equipment involved in the operations. By prioritizing safety, potential hazards and risks can be identified and mitigated effectively, minimizing the chances of accidents or incidents. Additionally, a safe site promotes efficient and smooth operations, enhancing overall effectiveness and productivity.

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193. What is the preferable time after obtaining a sample to take a conductivity reading?

Explanation

The preferable time after obtaining a sample to take a conductivity reading is 2 minutes. Conductivity is a measure of how well a solution can conduct electricity, which is influenced by the ions present in the solution. By waiting for 2 minutes, any air bubbles or disturbances in the sample will have settled, allowing for a more accurate and consistent reading of the sample's conductivity. Waiting longer than 2 minutes may lead to evaporation or changes in the sample's temperature, which can affect the conductivity measurement.

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194. Providing supply and equipment budget forecasts through the fuels management team (FMT) to the squadron commander is the responsibility of the

Explanation

The Fuels Material Control Supervisor is responsible for providing supply and equipment budget forecasts through the Fuels Management Team (FMT) to the squadron commander. They oversee the control and management of fuels materials, ensuring that the necessary supplies and equipment are available for operations. This role is crucial in maintaining the fuel supply and ensuring that budgetary requirements are met.

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195. At what flow rate does adjustable pilot valve on the R–14 limit high flow?

Explanation

The adjustable pilot valve on the R-14 limits high flow at a rate of 600 gpm. This means that once the flow rate reaches 600 gpm, the valve will start to restrict or control the flow to prevent it from going higher.

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196. What is the proper tire pressure setting for the R–18 pumping unit?

Explanation

The proper tire pressure setting for the R-18 pumping unit is 75 psi. This is the recommended pressure for maintaining optimal performance and safety of the tires on the unit. It is important to ensure that the tire pressure is regularly checked and adjusted to this level to prevent issues such as uneven wear, reduced traction, and potential tire failure.

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197. How is the fueling control valve opened to perform hot refueling operations?

Explanation

The fueling control valve is opened to perform hot refueling operations by air pressure from the deadman control valve. This means that the valve is activated and opened when air pressure is applied from the deadman control valve. This method ensures that the fueling control valve can be opened safely and efficiently during hot refueling operations.

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198. When preparing to perform an annual inspection, review all of the following forms for annotated discrepancies except

Explanation

During an annual inspection, it is important to review all the forms for annotated discrepancies except for AFTO Form 134. This implies that AFTO Form 134 does not contain any information or annotations regarding discrepancies. The other forms mentioned (AFTO Form 95, AFTO Form 244, and AFTO Form 245) should be reviewed as they may contain annotations highlighting any discrepancies found during the inspection.

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199. What agency is responsible for the procurement of fuel at deployed locations?

Explanation

The Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) is responsible for the procurement of fuel at deployed locations. DESC is a part of the Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) and is tasked with providing energy solutions to the Department of Defense. They work closely with the military services and other agencies to ensure a reliable and efficient supply of fuel to support military operations.

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200. All of the following are important considerations when planning for cryogenics support except

Explanation

When planning for cryogenics support, it is crucial to consider various factors such as required tankage, product requirements, and sufficient product availability. These factors are essential in ensuring that the cryogenic support system can meet the demands for storing and supplying cryogenic materials. However, the resupply method is not a consideration in the planning process as it pertains to the logistics of replenishing cryogenic materials rather than the initial planning and design of the support system.

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How often should hot refueling personnel undergo certification for hot...
When configuring the automated data collection (ADC) system, what...
At no time will money that is collected for cash sales of aviation...
What is the lifting force of a liquid called?
Which type of measurement may be used to express pressure?
How do the charges of protons and electrons differ?
What is the unit of measurement for electrical power?
When personnel are servicing aircraft with the type IV hydrant system,...
Who may approve deviations from hot refueling policies when combat or...
During multiple source refueling, what action, if any, should be taken...
What is the simplest and most expedient method of fuel resupply?
What is the maximum amount of time that can pass between the time a...
On what grades of fuel can the R–22 be designed to operate?...
Which best describes immiscible liquids?
Which temperature scale is commonly used for scientific measurements?
According to the electron theory, atoms are composed of
Which shell of the valence electrons determines whether a material is...
What type of material is used to construct the fuel tank on the...
What term is used to define the process that takes place when water...
What may a filter separator differential pressure reading below 3...
When preparing to issue liquid oxygen (LOX), what action, if any,...
When posting changes to publications, when, if ever, are "List of...
The ABFDS can carry what maximum number of gals. per sortie?
What agency serves as the link between the Defense Energy Support...
When determining authorizations for cash sales, you know that cash...
When encoding a vehicle identification link (VIL) key for a rental...
If your base has experienced cold weather problems or anticipates cold...
Who is responsible for administering the Caution Tag program?
If an active duty airman cannot complete a core task due to...
On which grades of fuel can the engine on the R–14 ATHRS...
Hearing protection is required within how many feet of an R–14...
Which of the following steps is not accomplished when preparing the...
All of the following conditions require replacement of filter elements...
The uniform movement of electrons in a specific direction is called
What item protects fuel dispensing system electrical components...
Which of the following may direct shipment of a vehicle with less than...
What major command (MAJCOM) developed the type IV pressurized hot...
On the type IV hydrant system, how is fuel prevented from spilling...
When performing a monthly inspection on emergency switches, check to...
When performing a semiannual inspection of fillstand bonding...
When performing a hydrant flushing operation, ensure enough fuel...
When documenting a significant maintenance action on an Air Force...
What action, if any, should be taken if a commercial delivery operator...
When preparing to issue liquid nitrogen (LIN), what action, if any,...
When, if ever, is a particulate test on a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart...
During concurrent servicing of cargo or passenger aircraft, deplaning...
When you are performing fuels controller duties, how often should you...
When making a cash sale, what others forms of currency besides United...
When investigating fuel gains and losses, you determine an excessive...
Who is responsible for enforcing radio transmission discipline over...
Where is the correct place to take the reading for the American...
How often should the Aqua Glo water detector be calibrated?
What cleaning agent should be used to clean the probe on the...
How long should the fuel and water mixture in the separatory funnel be...
When, if ever, is it necessary to prime the PMU–27M?
What determines the intensity of the excess pressure in a water-hammer...
Which statement best describes a positive ion?
How often should a filter separator vessel be cleaned?
All of the following conditions would prevent a remote terminal...
When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX)...
Which aircraft does not require a hot brake check before entering the...
At a minimum, how often should underground storage tanks be monitored...
When performing fuel servicing operations with the R–20...
When you are inputting a transaction in the Business Systems...
When investigating fuel gains and losses, you know that variances in...
What temperature is used to dry filters prior to performing the bottle...
How often should government purchase card (GPC) cardholders reconcile...
To aid in priming, the PMU–27M is equipped with a priming
Fuels personnel identify the tank vent valve by using a locally...
What pressure should the surge suppressor gauge on the R–20...
The standard measure for atmospheric pressure is equal to how many...
When do the magnetic lines of force in a magnet cross?
What type of current flow is the result of voltages produced by...
Which is not a type of positive displacement pump?
What filter separator component prevents pressure surges from damaging...
What type of meter is used on most fuel dispensing systems?
What type of lubricant is used to lubricate the power takeoff (PTO) on...
What happens if the tank outlet manual valve on the type III hydrant...
What happens when the type III hydrant system product recovery tank is...
On the type V hydrant system, what size are the stainless steel...
When documenting a cryogenic product receipt on the Air Force Form...
Who should you notify if, while performing fuels expediter duties, you...
When you are maintaining and updating statuses in Business Systems...
Accountability for a transferred MRSP kit temporary rests with the
When you are generating queries in Business Systems...
When you are submitting an 1884 inventory report, the report should...
When should Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) receive the...
Who is responsible for establishing minimum essential levels (MEL) for...
When performing fuels controller duties, in the event of an emergency,...
To obtain meaningful results with the bottle method test, the vacuum...
How often should all fuels personnel complete task qualification...
What size sealing clamp should be used to repair a 5 in. hole in a...
What are the two positions of the throttle switch located on the...
What is a major difference between a gas and a liquid?
Two or more atoms combined is called a
What are the two most common methods of producing voltage?
What causes the automatic bypass valve on the type III hydrant system...
On the type III hydrant system, where is the ball float assembly for...
On the type IV hydrant system, how many aircraft can be hot refueled...
What symbol should you enter on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO)...
When preparing the R–20 filter separator unit for shipment,...
The amount of bulk petroleum war reserve requirement (BPWRR) a defense...
When entering an order into the Paperless Ordering and Receipt...
During a flash point test, apply the flame to the vapor cup for
Personnel attending Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) or...
What does a steady red light on the battery status LED of the...
A magnet that is magnetized by induction from an external source is...
What component found on R–11s and R–12s prevents the...
Which hose is exempt from annual hydrostatic hose testing...
Since manning is not required for the type V hydrant system, how often...
When encoding vehicle identification link (VIL) keys, how long should...
The PMU–27M may be connected to what maximum number of 500-gal....
Which gas law declares that cooling a gas decreases its volume?
Concurrent servicing operations supporting sortie generation...
A temporary movement of a MRSP kit from home station to another...
What is the proper tire pressure setting for highway towing of an...
Which of the following agencies can initiate a Reporting Emergency...
When determining authorizations for sales to non-DOD aircraft, you...
How often should cryotainers be sampled for purity, odor and minor...
The FFU–15E filter separator is equipped with how many filter...
Each R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is equipped with how...
What form is used to annotate fuel bladder inspections?
Which unit of measurement would indicate velocity of flow?
A 3-horsepower motor consumes how much power?
What are the three things needed to produce voltage by the principle...
What fuel dispensing system component controls system fuel pressure?
During bottom loading operations, what occurs when the signal to the...
When performing meter calibrations, what is the acceptable difference...
Urgent action time compliance technical orders (TCTO) require...
What type of publication is issued when a commercial manufacturer...
What size mesh screen is used in the type III hydrant system receiving...
On the type III hydrant system, which function of the filter separator...
How many tanks are used with the type IV hydrant system, and what is...
What type(s) of current flow cannot be transformed from a higher...
The R–22 trailer mounted transfer pump has the capability of...
When you are reconciling accounts, what is the allowable tolerance for...
Who is responsible for reviewing aircraft flying schedules and...
The Tank Group window in FuelsManager allows operators to create...
How often are the printed standards for the Aeronautical Engine...
What is the primary purpose of the R–14 ATHRS?
All of the following items should be accomplished prior to shipping...
When should Bourdon gauges be calibrated?
What type of inspection is performed to determine the condition of a...
When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX)...
What environmental regulation establishes "cradle to grave" control of...
When selecting a fuel site, what factor will drive span of control...
What type of fabric are fuel bladders made of?
Which condition would require you to clean a cryotainer filter?
When performing fuel servicing operations with the R–18 pumping...
How many filtrations, if any, are required for reclaimed products...
At least how many days before the due date must flight physicals and...
What form should be completed for awarding skill levels when all...
How many feet of connecting hose does the ABFDS contain?
At what maximum flow rate can the FAM cart pump deliver fuel?
Which publication is a memorandum issued by commercial manufacturers...
How many differential pressure transmitters (DPT) are installed on the...
How often should dikes be checked for deterioration?
Who must establish procedures for the collection, safekeeping, and...
How much fuel is passed through the test pad to obtain an Aeronautical...
When testing for fiber particles after an element change, how much...
What is the normal range of use limits for fuel system icing inhibitor...
What type of thermometer should you use when performing a cloud point...
Which physical factor affects the behavior of liquids in both rest and...
How often should a water slug valve test be performed on the Fuel...
What grade of fuel should be used to flush the R–14 prior to air...
What type of time compliance technical order (TCTO) is issued for...
Where do the type III hydrant system pressure indicating transmitters...
What agency should the fuels management team (FMT) consult with on all...
How often should correlation samples be submitted to the area...
During air shipment, the cryotainer inner tank pressure should not...
What effect of current causes an electric motor to produce mechanical...
What maximum number of base stations may be configured to operate with...
When maintaining Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) files, upon...
Which recoverable and waste (R&W) petroleum product category...
When should a refractometer used for fuel system icing inhibitor...
The fuels training supervisor should review all training records
What type of meter, if any, is installed on the TPI–4T–4A...
When starting the PMU–27M, the throttle should be placed at
What term is used to describe the total pressure acting as a gas?
What size graduated cylinder is used to perform the American Petroleum...
Fuel bladders can withstand temperatures from
With which of the following alternate fuels should special precautions...
The FAM cart is equipped with all of the following nozzles except
What component on the R–18 pumping unit will illuminate to...
When rating an inspection, the compliance and environmental element...
When selecting a site for bladder operations, the site should have...
What agency is responsible for formulating and disseminating...
At what flow rate is the R–14 capable of servicing through one...
What is the total flow rate of the ABFDS?
How many fillstand assemblies are included in the FORCE system?
When reporting inspection results, what form should be used to report...
What is the first factor that the senior ranking deployed fuels member...
What is the preferable time after obtaining a sample to take a...
Providing supply and equipment budget forecasts through the fuels...
At what flow rate does adjustable pilot valve on the R–14 limit...
What is the proper tire pressure setting for the R–18 pumping...
How is the fueling control valve opened to perform hot refueling...
When preparing to perform an annual inspection, review all of the...
What agency is responsible for the procurement of fuel at deployed...
All of the following are important considerations when planning for...
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