Usaf 2F071 CDC Quiz

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  • 1/249 Questions

    What is the lifting force of a liquid called?

    • Laminar.
    • Interface.
    • Buoyance.
    • Dynamic pressure.
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About This Quiz

The USAF 2F071 CDC Quiz assesses knowledge on fluid mechanics, focusing on differences between gases and liquids, buoyancy, immiscible liquids, flow velocity, and the impact of physical factors like gravity. It's designed for learners aiming to understand basic to advanced concepts in fluid dynamics.

Usaf 2F071 CDC Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which type of measurement may be used to express pressure?

    • Kilograms.

    • Pounds.

    • Tons.

    • Pounds per square inch.

    Correct Answer
    A. Pounds per square inch.
    Explanation
    Pressure is a measure of the force exerted on a surface area. It is commonly expressed in units such as pounds per square inch (psi) because it takes into account both the amount of force (pounds) and the area over which the force is distributed (square inch). Kilograms, pounds, and tons are units of mass, not pressure, so they are not suitable for expressing pressure.

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  • 3. 

    How do the charges of protons and electrons differ?

    • Protons have positive charges, and electrons have neutral charges.

    • Protons have neutral charges, and electrons have positive charges.

    • Protons have negative charges, and electrons have positive charges.

    • Protons have positive charges, and electrons have negative charges.

    Correct Answer
    A. Protons have positive charges, and electrons have negative charges.
    Explanation
    Protons and electrons have opposite charges. Protons have a positive charge, while electrons have a negative charge. This is a fundamental property of these particles in the atomic structure.

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  • 4. 

    What is the unit of measurement for electrical power?

    • Watts.

    • Volts.

    • Amps.

    • Ohms.

    Correct Answer
    A. Watts.
    Explanation
    The unit of measurement for electrical power is watts. Watts measure the rate at which electrical energy is transferred or used per unit of time. It is named after James Watt, a Scottish inventor who made significant contributions to the development of the steam engine. Watts are commonly used to measure the power output of electrical devices and the consumption of electricity in homes and businesses.

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  • 5. 

    When personnel are servicing aircraft with the type IV hydrant system, who is responsible for positioning the aircraft on the hot pad?

    • Fuels operator.

    • Fuels operations supervisor.

    • Hot refueling crewman

    • Hot refueling supervisor

    Correct Answer
    A. Hot refueling supervisor
    Explanation
    The hot refueling supervisor is responsible for positioning the aircraft on the hot pad when personnel are servicing aircraft with the type IV hydrant system. This role ensures that the aircraft is properly positioned and aligned for the fueling process to take place safely and efficiently. They oversee the entire hot refueling operation and coordinate the activities of the hot refueling crewman and other personnel involved in the process.

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  • 6. 

    How often should hot refueling personnel undergo certification for hot refueling operations?

    • Monthly.

    • Quarterly.

    • Semiannually.

    • Annually.

    Correct Answer
    A. Annually.
    Explanation
    Hot refueling personnel should undergo certification for hot refueling operations annually. This ensures that they stay up to date with the necessary skills, knowledge, and safety protocols required for this task. Regular certification helps maintain the highest level of proficiency and ensures that personnel are aware of any changes or updates in procedures or regulations that may affect their work.

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  • 7. 

    When configuring the automated data collection (ADC) system, what maximum number of dial retries can you configure the user interface terminal’s (UIT) to attempt?

    • 30.

    • 49.

    • 60.

    • 99.

    Correct Answer
    A. 99.
    Explanation
    When configuring the automated data collection (ADC) system, the user interface terminal (UIT) can be configured to attempt a maximum of 99 dial retries. This means that if the initial attempt to establish a connection fails, the UIT will continue to retry up to 99 times before giving up. This allows for a greater chance of successfully establishing a connection and retrieving the desired data.

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  • 8. 

    At no time will money that is collected for cash sales of aviation products be safeguarded by

    • FSC personnel.

    • Shift supervisors.

    • Off-duty personnel.

    • Operations expeditors.

    Correct Answer
    A. Off-duty personnel.
    Explanation
    Off-duty personnel refers to employees who are not currently working or on duty. Since they are not actively working, it would not be appropriate for them to safeguard the money collected for cash sales of aviation products. Only personnel who are currently on duty, such as FSC personnel, shift supervisors, and operations expeditors, should be responsible for safeguarding the money.

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  • 9. 

    Which best describes immiscible liquids?

    • They mix well together.

    • One liquid will float on the other.

    • They will become an intrained solution.

    • They will repel each other and react violently.

    Correct Answer
    A. One liquid will float on the other.
    Explanation
    Immiscible liquids are those that do not mix well together. Instead, one liquid will float on top of the other, forming distinct layers. This occurs because the intermolecular forces between the molecules of the two liquids are not strong enough to overcome the forces of attraction within each individual liquid. As a result, the liquids do not form a homogeneous solution and remain separate.

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  • 10. 

    Which temperature scale is commonly used for scientific measurements?

    • Kelvin scale.

    • Rankine scale.

    • Réaumur scale.

    • Fahrenheit scale.

    Correct Answer
    A. Kelvin scale.
    Explanation
    The Kelvin scale is commonly used for scientific measurements because it is an absolute temperature scale that starts at absolute zero, the point at which all molecular motion ceases. This makes it ideal for scientific calculations and experiments as it allows for precise measurements and comparisons of temperature. The other options, Rankine, Réaumur, and Fahrenheit scales, are not commonly used in scientific measurements as they are either based on arbitrary reference points or not widely adopted.

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  • 11. 

    According to the electron theory, atoms are composed of

    • Protons, neutrons, and electrons.

    • Neutrons, elements, and protons.

    • Electrons, molecules, and elements.

    • Electrons, neutrons, and matter.

    Correct Answer
    A. Protons, neutrons, and electrons.
    Explanation
    The electron theory states that atoms are composed of protons, neutrons, and electrons. Protons are positively charged particles found in the nucleus of an atom, while neutrons are neutral particles also located in the nucleus. Electrons are negatively charged particles that orbit the nucleus. This theory suggests that atoms are made up of these three fundamental particles. The other options in the question do not accurately represent the composition of atoms according to the electron theory.

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  • 12. 

    Which shell of the valence electrons determines whether a material is a good or a poor conductor of electricity?

    • The outermost shell.

    • The middle shell.

    • The second shell.

    • The first shell.

    Correct Answer
    A. The outermost shell.
    Explanation
    The outermost shell of valence electrons determines whether a material is a good or a poor conductor of electricity. This is because the outermost shell is responsible for the bonding and interaction between atoms, which affects the material's ability to conduct electricity. If the outermost shell is filled or tightly bound, the material is likely a poor conductor. However, if the outermost shell is not filled or loosely bound, the material is more likely to be a good conductor of electricity.

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  • 13. 

    What type of material is used to construct the fuel tank on the R–11?

    • Titanium.

    • Stainless steel.

    • Sheet aluminum alloy.

    • Steel-reinforced carbon fiber.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sheet aluminum alloy.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is sheet aluminum alloy. This type of material is commonly used to construct fuel tanks in aircraft due to its lightweight and corrosion-resistant properties. Aluminum alloys are strong and durable, making them suitable for containing and storing fuel safely. Additionally, sheet aluminum alloy can be easily formed and welded, allowing for the construction of complex shapes and designs required for fuel tanks.

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  • 14. 

    What term is used to define the process that takes place when water forms into droplets after passing through filter elements?

    • Separation.

    • Integration.

    • Coalescing.

    • Commingling.

    Correct Answer
    A. Coalescing.
    Explanation
    Coalescing is the term used to define the process that takes place when water forms into droplets after passing through filter elements. Coalescing refers to the merging or coming together of smaller droplets to form larger droplets. In this context, it describes the process of water droplets combining or coalescing into larger droplets as they pass through the filter elements. This helps to separate the water from any impurities or contaminants present in the filtration system.

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  • 15. 

    What may a filter separator differential pressure reading below 3 pounds per square inch (psi) indicate?

    • Clean coalescer elements.

    • Damaged coalescer screens.

    • Clogged or dirty coalescers.

    • A defective O-ring or ruptured coalescers.

    Correct Answer
    A. A defective O-ring or ruptured coalescers.
    Explanation
    A filter separator differential pressure reading below 3 psi may indicate a defective O-ring or ruptured coalescers. This is because a low differential pressure suggests that there is not enough resistance or obstruction in the system, which could be caused by a faulty O-ring or ruptured coalescers.

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  • 16. 

    Who may approve deviations from hot refueling policies when combat or emergency situations require the use of hot refueling?

    • FMFC.

    • HQ USAF/A4.

    • MAJCOM commander.

    • Air Force Petroleum Agency.

    Correct Answer
    A. MAJCOM commander.
    Explanation
    The MAJCOM commander may approve deviations from hot refueling policies when combat or emergency situations require the use of hot refueling. This individual has the authority and responsibility to make decisions regarding operational matters within their specific MAJCOM.

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  • 17. 

    During multiple source refueling, what action, if any, should be taken if backflow is detected?

    • No action is required.

    • Increase engine RPMs.

    • Decrease the engine RPMs.

    • Stop the operation immediately.

    Correct Answer
    A. Stop the operation immediately.
    Explanation
    If backflow is detected during multiple source refueling, it is important to stop the operation immediately. Backflow can occur when fuel flows in the opposite direction, which can be dangerous and potentially lead to spills or other hazards. Stopping the operation immediately helps to prevent any further backflow and ensures the safety of the refueling process.

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  • 18. 

    What is the maximum amount of time that can pass between the time a sample is obtained and the time a conductivity reading is taken?

    • 1 hour.

    • 6 hour.

    • 12 hour.

    • 24 hour.

    Correct Answer
    A. 24 hour.
    Explanation
    The maximum amount of time that can pass between the time a sample is obtained and the time a conductivity reading is taken is 24 hours. Conductivity is a measure of a substance's ability to conduct electric current, and it can change over time as the sample may undergo chemical reactions or evaporation. Therefore, it is important to take the conductivity reading within 24 hours to ensure accurate results.

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  • 19. 

    On what grades of fuel can the R–22 be designed to operate? a. . b. . c. . d. .

    • MOGAS

    • MOGAS and jet fuel

    • Diesel fuel

    • Diesel fuel and jet fuel

    Correct Answer
    A. Diesel fuel and jet fuel
    Explanation
    The R-22 can be designed to operate on diesel fuel and jet fuel.

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  • 20. 

    What is the simplest and most expedient method of fuel resupply?

    • ABFDS

    • Ocean tanker

    • Aircraft systems

    • The same source of supply used by the host airfield

    Correct Answer
    A. The same source of supply used by the host airfield
    Explanation
    The simplest and most expedient method of fuel resupply is using the same source of supply used by the host airfield. This means that the fuel can be obtained directly from the airfield's fuel storage or distribution system, minimizing the need for additional logistics or transportation. This method is efficient and convenient, as it eliminates the need for separate fuel resupply operations and ensures a steady and reliable fuel source for the aircraft.

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  • 21. 

    The uniform movement of electrons in a specific direction is called

    • Electrical potential.

    • Free electrons.

    • Electric current.

    • Ionization.

    Correct Answer
    A. Electric current.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is electric current. Electric current refers to the uniform movement of electrons in a specific direction. It is the flow of electric charge through a conductor, such as a wire. This movement of electrons creates a flow of energy, which is the basis for various electrical phenomena and devices. Electrical potential, free electrons, and ionization are related concepts but do not specifically refer to the uniform movement of electrons in a specific direction as electric current does.

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  • 22. 

    What item protects fuel dispensing system electrical components against overload?

    • Automatic reset-type circuit breakers.

    • Manual reset-type circuit breakers.

    • Twenty-five amp Bosch-type fuse.

    • Ten amp ATO fuse.

    Correct Answer
    A. Automatic reset-type circuit breakers.
    Explanation
    Automatic reset-type circuit breakers protect fuel dispensing system electrical components against overload. These circuit breakers automatically trip and then reset themselves when they detect excessive current flow, preventing damage to the electrical components. This ensures the safety and proper functioning of the fuel dispensing system by preventing overload situations that could lead to electrical failures or fires. Manual reset-type circuit breakers require manual intervention to reset after tripping, while the mentioned fuses do not provide the automatic reset feature.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following may direct shipment of a vehicle with less than 50 percent life expectancy to satisfy mission requirements?

    • LRS commander.

    • Wing commander.

    • MAJCOM.

    • HQ USAF.

    Correct Answer
    A. MAJCOM.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is MAJCOM. MAJCOM stands for Major Command, which is a level of command in the United States Air Force. They have the authority to make decisions regarding the shipment of vehicles to satisfy mission requirements. The LRS commander, Wing commander, and HQ USAF may not have the same level of authority or jurisdiction to make such decisions.

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  • 24. 

    What major command (MAJCOM) developed the type IV pressurized hot fueling system?

    • Pacific Air Force (PACAF).

    • Air Combat Command (ACC).

    • Air Mobility Command (AMC).

    • United States Air Force in Europe (USAFE).

    Correct Answer
    A. United States Air Force in Europe (USAFE).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is United States Air Force in Europe (USAFE). This is because the question asks about the major command (MAJCOM) that developed the type IV pressurized hot fueling system, and USAFE is the command responsible for operations and support of the United States Air Force in Europe.

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  • 25. 

    On the type IV hydrant system, how is fuel prevented from spilling onto the hot pad if a hose separates from the nozzle during a hot refueling operation?

    • A dry break coupler inside the hose closes automatically.

    • The flow switch senses a sudden surge in fuel flow, and shuts down the pumps.

    • The pressure switch senses a sudden drop in pressure, and shuts down the pumps.

    • The fusible link melts and falls out, causing the spring-loaded butterfly part of the valve to close.

    Correct Answer
    A. A dry break coupler inside the hose closes automatically.
    Explanation
    During a hot refueling operation, if a hose separates from the nozzle on a type IV hydrant system, a dry break coupler inside the hose will automatically close. This mechanism prevents fuel from spilling onto the hot pad.

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  • 26. 

    When performing a monthly inspection on emergency switches, check to ensure

    • The switches are not damaged.

    • Proper lubrication of the switches.

    • The switches are mechanically functional.

    • Proper operation while the system control panel/operation circuit is energized .

    Correct Answer
    A. Proper operation while the system control panel/operation circuit is energized .
    Explanation
    During a monthly inspection on emergency switches, it is important to check for proper operation while the system control panel/operation circuit is energized. This ensures that the switches are functioning correctly when the system is active and can be relied upon in case of an emergency. Checking for proper operation while energized helps identify any potential issues or malfunctions that may not be apparent when the system is not in use. This step is crucial to ensure the switches are fully operational and can effectively perform their intended function during an emergency situation.

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  • 27. 

    When performing a semiannual inspection of fillstand bonding receptacles for proper tension, you obtain a pull measurement of five pounds. This indicates a

    • Corroded bond plug.

    • Corroded bonding receptacle.

    • Weak or damaged bond plug.

    • Weak or damaged bonding receptacle.

    Correct Answer
    A. Weak or damaged bonding receptacle.
    Explanation
    A pull measurement of five pounds during a semiannual inspection indicates a weak or damaged bonding receptacle. The tension should be sufficient to ensure a proper bond, but a measurement of only five pounds suggests that the receptacle is not securely holding the bond plug. This weakness or damage could be due to various factors such as corrosion or physical damage, which may compromise the effectiveness of the bonding system.

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  • 28. 

    When performing a hydrant flushing operation, ensure enough fuel velocity is generated to remove water and sediment by flushing the system

    • Every 90 days.

    • With all issue pumps operating.

    • With at least two issue pumps operating.

    • At 50 percent of the rated system capacity.

    Correct Answer
    A. With all issue pumps operating.
    Explanation
    When performing a hydrant flushing operation, it is important to ensure that enough fuel velocity is generated to remove water and sediment by flushing the system. This means that all issue pumps should be operating during the flushing operation. By having all pumps operating, the fuel velocity will be maximized, which will effectively remove the water and sediment from the system.

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  • 29. 

    When preparing to issue liquid oxygen (LOX), what action, if any, should be taken if a review of a receiving tank’s Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 134 finds that the form is not properly filled out?

    • No action is required.

    • Do not service the receiving tank.

    • Contact the FSC and await further instructions.

    • Inform aircraft maintenance of the discrepancy.

    Correct Answer
    A. Do not service the receiving tank.
    Explanation
    If a review of a receiving tank's Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 134 finds that the form is not properly filled out, the correct action to take is to not service the receiving tank. This means that the tank should not be filled with liquid oxygen until the form is properly filled out. This is important to ensure proper documentation and adherence to safety protocols.

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  • 30. 

    When posting changes to publications, when, if ever, are “List of Effective Pages” checks mandatory?

    • Never.

    • As directed by MAJCOM.

    • At the discretion of the TO manager.

    • When changes and revisions are posted to paper TOs are posted.

    Correct Answer
    A. When changes and revisions are posted to paper TOs are posted.
  • 31. 

    What agency serves as the link between the Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) and its customers?

    • BFMO.

    • AFPET.

    • HQ USAF.

    • DESC regions.

    Correct Answer
    A. DESC regions.
    Explanation
    The Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) serves as the link between its customers and the agency that supports them. The DESC regions are responsible for coordinating and providing energy support to the customers, acting as the intermediary between them and the DESC. Therefore, the DESC regions serve as the link between the DESC and its customers.

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  • 32. 

    When determining authorizations for cash sales, you know that cash sales are only authorized when

    • Products are not normally stocked.

    • Military exchange facilities are available at the installation.

    • Adequate commercial facilities are available within reasonable distance.

    • Sales support by equipment and/or personnel do not interfere with military operations.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sales support by equipment and/or personnel do not interfere with military operations.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "sales support by equipment and/or personnel do not interfere with military operations." This means that cash sales can only be authorized if the equipment and personnel involved do not disrupt or hinder military operations. This ensures that the military's primary functions and activities are not compromised for the sake of cash sales.

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  • 33. 

    When encoding a vehicle identification link (VIL) key for a rental vehicle, what information should be entered in the vehicle identification field?

    • The word “Rental”.

    • The payment office DODAAC.

    • The vehicle license plate number.

    • The ORG code for the DFSP issuing the VIL key.

    Correct Answer
    A. The vehicle license plate number.
    Explanation
    The vehicle identification field should contain the vehicle license plate number when encoding a Vehicle Identification Link (VIL) key for a rental vehicle.

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  • 34. 

    If your base has experienced cold weather problems or anticipates cold weather problems, you should perform a cloud point test on all DF–2 that is received during

    • January through April.

    • October through December.

    • October through March.

    • November through January.

    Correct Answer
    A. October through March.
    Explanation
    During the months of October through March, the base may experience cold weather problems or anticipate them. Therefore, it is necessary to perform a cloud point test on all DF-2 fuel that is received during this period. This test helps determine the temperature at which the fuel starts to form solid wax crystals, which can clog fuel lines and cause engine problems in cold weather conditions. By conducting the test during these months, the base can ensure that the fuel is suitable for use and prevent any potential issues during the winter season.

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  • 35. 

    Who is responsible for administering the Caution Tag program?

    • Environmental coordinator.

    • NCOIC Fuels Laboratory.

    • NCOIC Compliance.

    • FSC personnel.

    Correct Answer
    A. NCOIC Fuels Laboratory.
    Explanation
    The NCOIC Fuels Laboratory is responsible for administering the Caution Tag program. This implies that they are in charge of managing and overseeing the implementation of the program. The other options, such as the Environmental coordinator, NCOIC Compliance, and FSC personnel, do not have the specific responsibility mentioned in the question.

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  • 36. 

    If an active duty airman cannot complete a core task due to nonavailability of equipment at the installation, submit a core task waiver request to the

    • Squadron training manager

    • LRS commander

    • Parent MAJCOM

    • Air Staff

    Correct Answer
    A. Parent MAJCOM
    Explanation
    When an active duty airman is unable to complete a core task because the necessary equipment is not available at their installation, they should submit a core task waiver request to the parent MAJCOM. The parent MAJCOM is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the activities of multiple installations, and they have the authority to grant waivers for specific tasks if the equipment is not available. The squadron training manager, LRS commander, and Air Staff are not directly involved in this process and do not have the authority to grant waivers.

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  • 37. 

    On which grades of fuel can the engine on the R–14 ATHRS operate?

    • Jet fuel and gasoline

    • Diesel fuel and jet fuel

    • Diesel fuel and gasoline

    • Diesel fuel, jet fuel, and gasoline

    Correct Answer
    A. Diesel fuel and jet fuel
    Explanation
    The engine on the R-14 ATHRS can operate on both diesel fuel and jet fuel. This means that it is designed to run on these two types of fuel, allowing for flexibility in its usage. It is not able to operate on gasoline alone, as this option is not included in the answer.

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  • 38. 

    Hearing protection is required within how many feet of an R–14 operation?

    • 10 ft

    • 20 ft

    • 50 ft

    • 100 ft

    Correct Answer
    A. 50 ft
    Explanation
    Hearing protection is required within 50 feet of an R-14 operation. This means that anyone within a 50-foot radius of the operation must wear hearing protection to prevent damage to their ears from the noise generated by the operation.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following steps is not accomplished when preparing the PMU–27M for air shipment?

    • Disconnect all hose assemblies

    • Drain all the fuel from the piping

    • Remove the filter separator elements

    • Install dust plugs and caps on all fittings and hoses

    Correct Answer
    A. Remove the filter separator elements
    Explanation
    When preparing the PMU-27M for air shipment, all of the mentioned steps are accomplished except for removing the filter separator elements.

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  • 40. 

    The ABFDS can carry what maximum number of gals. per sortie?

    • 3,000 gal

    • 6,000 gal

    • 9,000 gal

    • 30,000 gal

    Correct Answer
    A. 30,000 gal
    Explanation
    The ABFDS (Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System) is capable of carrying a maximum of 30,000 gallons per sortie.

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  • 41. 

    All of the following conditions require replacement of filter elements on the R–19 filter separator unit except

    • A reading of 16 pounds per square inch, differential (psid) on the differential pressure (DP) gauge

    • A reading of 22 psid on the DP gauge

    • Elements that have been in use for 36 months

    • Filter separator vessel performance is questionable

    Correct Answer
    A. A reading of 16 pounds per square inch, differential (psid) on the differential pressure (DP) gauge
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a reading of 16 pounds per square inch, differential (psid) on the differential pressure (DP) gauge. This is because a reading of 16 psid on the DP gauge does not indicate a need for filter element replacement. The other conditions mentioned, such as a reading of 22 psid on the DP gauge, elements that have been in use for 36 months, and questionable filter separator vessel performance, all indicate a need for replacement of filter elements.

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  • 42. 

    What determines the intensity of the excess pressure in a water-hammer wave?

    • The size of the pipe.

    • The specific gravity of the fuel.

    • The change in gallons per minute.

    • The amount of extinguished velocity.

    Correct Answer
    A. The amount of extinguished velocity.
    Explanation
    The intensity of the excess pressure in a water-hammer wave is determined by the amount of extinguished velocity. Water hammer occurs when there is a sudden change in flow velocity, causing a pressure wave to propagate through the pipe. The greater the change in velocity, the more intense the pressure wave will be. Therefore, the amount of extinguished velocity directly affects the intensity of the excess pressure in a water-hammer wave.

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  • 43. 

    Which statement best describes a positive ion?

    • An atom that lost a proton and has more electrons.

    • An atom that lost an electron and has more protons.

    • An atom that has an equal number of electrons and protons.

    • An atom that cannot throw off any protons.

    Correct Answer
    A. An atom that lost an electron and has more protons.
    Explanation
    A positive ion is formed when an atom loses one or more electrons. This results in an imbalance of positive protons and negative electrons, causing the atom to have a net positive charge. Therefore, the statement "An atom that lost an electron and has more protons" best describes a positive ion.

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  • 44. 

    How often should a filter separator vessel be cleaned?

    • Every year, or when high concentrations of water detected.

    • Every two years, or when sediment levels exceed tolerances.

    • Every three years, or when coalescer elements are changed.

    • Every five years, or when fiber sample fails.

    Correct Answer
    A. Every three years, or when coalescer elements are changed.
    Explanation
    Filter separator vessels are used to remove impurities and separate liquids and gases. Over time, sediment and contaminants can accumulate in the vessel, reducing its efficiency. Cleaning the vessel every three years ensures that it remains in optimal working condition. Additionally, the coalescer elements, which are responsible for separating liquids from gases, may need to be changed during this time. Therefore, cleaning the vessel every three years or when coalescer elements are changed helps maintain its effectiveness and prolong its lifespan.

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  • 45. 

    When documenting a significant maintenance action on an Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 95, what information should you enter in block 1?

    • The appropriate page number.

    • The serial number of the item.

    • The name of the equipment manufacturer.

    • The mission, design, series (MDS) of the equipment.

    Correct Answer
    A. The mission, design, series (MDS) of the equipment.
    Explanation
    In block 1 of an Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 95, you should enter the mission, design, series (MDS) of the equipment. This information helps to identify the specific equipment that the maintenance action is being documented for. It allows for accurate record-keeping and tracking of maintenance actions on specific equipment.

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  • 46. 

    What action, if any, should be taken if a commercial delivery operator does not provide a Department of Defense (DD) Form 250 with a liquid oxygen (LOX) shipment?

    • No action is required.

    • Notify the FMT and obtain an odor sample.

    • Contact AFPET for disposition instructions.

    • Inform the FSC and await further guidance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Inform the FSC and await further guidance.
    Explanation
    If a commercial delivery operator does not provide a Department of Defense (DD) Form 250 with a liquid oxygen (LOX) shipment, the appropriate action to take is to inform the FSC (Field Supply Center) and await further guidance. This is necessary because the DD Form 250 is a crucial document for tracking and verifying the shipment of goods, and its absence could indicate a potential issue or error in the delivery process. By informing the FSC, they can investigate the situation and provide instructions on how to proceed with the shipment.

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  • 47. 

    When preparing to issue liquid nitrogen (LIN), what action, if any, should you take if a receiving tank’s Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Forms 244/245 lists an open Red X condition?

    • No action is required.

    • Do not fill the receiving tank.

    • Inform the FMT and await further instructions.

    • Notify the FSC and request line expediter assistance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Do not fill the receiving tank.
    Explanation
    If a receiving tank's AFTO Forms 244/245 lists an open Red X condition, it means that there is a critical issue or defect with the tank that needs to be addressed before it can be filled with liquid nitrogen. Filling the tank in this condition could lead to safety hazards or damage. Therefore, the correct action to take is to not fill the receiving tank until the issue is resolved.

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  • 48. 

    When, if ever, is a particulate test on a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart required?

    • Never.

    • Once every 90 days.

    • After a LOX cart has been filled.

    • When particulate contamination is suspected.

    Correct Answer
    A. When particulate contamination is suspected.
    Explanation
    A particulate test on a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart is required when there is a suspicion of particulate contamination. This means that if there are any indications or concerns about the presence of particles in the LOX cart, a test should be conducted to confirm or rule out the contamination. The other options, such as never, once every 90 days, or after filling the cart, do not address the specific requirement for a particulate test in the case of suspected contamination.

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  • 49. 

    During concurrent servicing of cargo or passenger aircraft, deplaning personnel should not come closer than how many feet from any aircraft fuel vent outlet?

    • 10 feet.

    • 20 feet.

    • 25 feet.

    • 50 feet.

    Correct Answer
    A. 25 feet.
    Explanation
    During concurrent servicing of cargo or passenger aircraft, deplaning personnel should not come closer than 25 feet from any aircraft fuel vent outlet. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of personnel and prevent any potential accidents or fuel leaks. Being too close to the fuel vent outlet can pose a risk of ignition or fuel spillage, which could lead to fires or other hazardous situations. Therefore, it is important for deplaning personnel to maintain a safe distance of 25 feet to minimize any potential risks.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Apr 15, 2024 +

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  • Current Version
  • Apr 15, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Dec 14, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Brandon_tate_198
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