Ure 2f051 Volume I

83 Questions | Total Attempts: 1232

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2f051 Quizzes & Trivia

2F051 CDCVolume I review


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    A technical order that lists all of the technical orders applicable to a specific military system is called a
    • A. 

      Technical order index

    • B. 

      Technical order catalog

    • C. 

      List of applicable publications (LOAP)

    • D. 

      Numerical index and requirements tables (NI&RT)

  • 2. 
    Specialized publications that cover installation, operation, troubleshooting, repairing, calibration, servicing, or handling of AF military systems are
    • A. 

      Index technical orders

    • B. 

      Time compliance technical orders (TCTO)

    • C. 

      Operations and maintenance technical orders

    • D. 

      Methods and procedures technical orders (MPTO)

  • 3. 
    Which technical order is issued to correct unsafe conditions that could cause a severe or fatal injury?
    • A. 

      Safety

    • B. 

      Abbreviated

    • C. 

      Time Compliance

    • D. 

      Methods and procedures

  • 4. 
    A technical order file authorized in a fuels flight that contains only those technical orders required to accomplish maintenance and other responsibilities of the fuels flight is called
    • A. 

      A work copy file

    • B. 

      An unlimited file

    • C. 

      An operational file

    • D. 

      A functional master file

  • 5. 
    The technical order that explains the procedures for reporting improvements in TOs is
    • A. 

      TO 00-2-1

    • B. 

      TO 00-5-1

    • C. 

      TO 00-5-2

    • D. 

      TO 00-1-01

  • 6. 
    Which of the two forms to report TO deficiencies would you most likely use?
    • A. 

      AF Form 457

    • B. 

      AF Form 847

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 22

    • D. 

      AFTO Form 422

  • 7. 
    Technical order emergency recommendation reports require the responsible technical content manager to take action within how many hours?
    • A. 

      6

    • B. 

      12

    • C. 

      24

    • D. 

      48

  • 8. 
    Which technical order (TO) improvement recommendation suggests improvements involving a potentially hazardous condition?
    • A. 

      Urgent

    • B. 

      Routine

    • C. 

      Emergency

    • D. 

      Critical hazard

  • 9. 
    The technical content manager must take action within 40 days on what type of recommendations?
    • A. 

      Urgent

    • B. 

      Routine

    • C. 

      Emergency

    • D. 

      Critical hazard

  • 10. 
    Specialized publications include
    • A. 

      Journals

    • B. 

      Staff digests

    • C. 

      Technical orders

    • D. 

      Narrative summaries

  • 11. 
    An example of a directive standard publication is a
    • A. 

      Bulletin

    • B. 

      Pamphlet

    • C. 

      Supplement

    • D. 

      Staff digest

  • 12. 
    What tyoe of publications are normally filed in a three-ring binder?
    • A. 

      Alphebetical indexes

    • B. 

      Standard publications

    • C. 

      Abbreviated technical orders

    • D. 

      Time compliance technical orders

  • 13. 
    Where in the file cabinet will the lowest numbered standard publication in a file be found?
    • A. 

      Upper left corner

    • B. 

      Lower left corner

    • C. 

      Upper right corner

    • D. 

      Lower right corner

  • 14. 
    What character refers to the ease that a liquid will change into a vapor state?
    • A. 

      Volatility

    • B. 

      Viscosity

    • C. 

      Boiling point

    • D. 

      Vapor pressure

  • 15. 
    What term is used to describe the temperature at which a liquid actively starts to vaporize?
    • A. 

      Volatility

    • B. 

      Flash point

    • C. 

      Fire point

    • D. 

      Boiling point

  • 16. 
    Combustible liquids have a flashpoint higher than
    • A. 

      100° F

    • B. 

      120° F

    • C. 

      140° F

    • D. 

      150°

  • 17. 
    Which fuel has the highest vapor pressure?
    • A. 

      Automotive gasoline

    • B. 

      JP-4 jet fuel

    • C. 

      JP-5 jet fuel

    • D. 

      JP-8 jet fuel

  • 18. 
    The lowest temperature at which a flammable liquid will give off sufficient vapors when mixed with air to support combustion is known as a product's
    • A. 

      Fire point

    • B. 

      Flash point

    • C. 

      Lower flammable limit

    • D. 

      Autoignition temperature

  • 19. 
    What is the freeze point for JP-8?
    • A. 

      -51° C

    • B. 

      -58° C

    • C. 

      -51° F

    • D. 

      -58° F

  • 20. 
    What manner of fuel poisoning is the most common way for fuel to enter the body?
    • A. 

      Ingestion

    • B. 

      Rejection

    • C. 

      Inhalation

    • D. 

      Absorption

  • 21. 
    At what atmospheric pressure, 1 cubic foot of liquid oxygen (LOX) expands to how many feet of gaseous oxygen?
    • A. 

      500

    • B. 

      760

    • C. 

      800

    • D. 

      860

  • 22. 
    Which is not a hazard of liquid nitrogen?
    • A. 

      Reduces the concentration of oxygen.

    • B. 

      Will freeze or badly damage human tissue upon contact.

    • C. 

      Will burn or explode upon contact with oil, grease, jet fuel, etc.

    • D. 

      Builds up to tremendous pressure if allowed to evaporate in a confined space

  • 23. 
    Much time and expense are involved in investigating and
    • A. 

      Solving accidents

    • B. 

      Discovering accidents

    • C. 

      Reporting accidents

    • D. 

      Validating accidents

  • 24. 
    What directive requires that an effective Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) program be established within the fuels flight?
    • A. 

      AFM 50-23

    • B. 

      AFM 88-15

    • C. 

      AFI 127-12

    • D. 

      AFI 91-301

  • 25. 
    Under the Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) program, how often must the fuels safety monitor brief all personnel on safety matters?
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      Weekly

    • C. 

      Monthly

    • D. 

      Semiannually

  • 26. 
    Which source of accidents is the principle cause
    • A. 

      Falls

    • B. 

      Using hand tools

    • C. 

      Handling heavy equipment

    • D. 

      Striking against material or equipment

  • 27. 
    What is the process of connecting two or more metallic objects together by means of a conductor?
    • A. 

      Bonding

    • B. 

      Grounding

    • C. 

      Equalizing

    • D. 

      Strapping

  • 28. 
    How many minutes must pass after filling a tank before using a tape and bob to determine the level of the fuel?
    • A. 

      15

    • B. 

      20

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      35

  • 29. 
    What actions must be taken when driving a fuel servicing vehicle while approaching a taxiing aircraft at night?
    • A. 

      Move out of the taxi path, slow down, and turn off the headlights and clearance lights.

    • B. 

      Move out of the taxi path, stop the vehicle, and leave the headlights and clearance lights on.

    • C. 

      Move out of the taxi path, slow down, leave the headlights on, and turn the clearance lights off.

    • D. 

      Move out of the taxi path, stop the vehiclem turn the headlights off, and leave the clearance light on.

  • 30. 
    Fuel servicing operations should not be conducted within how many feet of operating aircraft radar?
    • A. 

      100

    • B. 

      150

    • C. 

      200

    • D. 

      300

  • 31. 
    Which fuel spill classification should be given to a spill involving an area not more than 10 feet in any direction?
    • A. 

      Class I

    • B. 

      Class II

    • C. 

      Class III

    • D. 

      Class IV

  • 32. 
    Operating aircraft can produce noise levels of
    • A. 

      40 to 90 decibels

    • B. 

      80 to 100 decibels

    • C. 

      90 to 110 decibels

    • D. 

      110 to 130 decibels

  • 33. 
    What minimum safe distance (feet) should be maintained from the front and sides jet intakes?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      15

    • C. 

      25

    • D. 

      50

  • 34. 
    In instances where security fences are not provided around fuel storage areas, how many feet will signs be posted from diked areas, tank vents, low point drains and lateral control pits?
    • A. 

      50

    • B. 

      75

    • C. 

      100

    • D. 

      200

  • 35. 
    How often should fillstand emergency shutdown switches be tested for proper operation while the system is operating?
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      Weekly

    • C. 

      Monthly

    • D. 

      Semiannually

  • 36. 
    What is the minimum capacity for aboveground storage tanks that would require a dike area?
    • A. 

      561 gallons

    • B. 

      661 gallons

    • C. 

      561 barrels

    • D. 

      661 barrels

  • 37. 
    Prior to performing off loading operations in an unsecure area, danger signs should be placed how many feet in the front and to the rear of tank trucks?
    • A. 

      25

    • B. 

      50

    • C. 

      75

    • D. 

      100

  • 38. 
    Which of the following statements regarding cryogenic production in true?
    • A. 

      Cryogenic production should cease when electrical storms are within 1 nautical mile.

    • B. 

      Cryogenic production must be stopped when electrical storms are within 3 nautical miles.

    • C. 

      Cryogenic production will be discontinued when electrical storms are within 5 nautical miles.

    • D. 

      Cryogenic production may continue during electrical storms.

  • 39. 
    What is the minimum fire rating for all interior walls separating the laboratory from other portions of the building?
    • A. 

      30 minutes

    • B. 

      60 minutes

    • C. 

      90 minutes

    • D. 

      120 minutes

  • 40. 
    Self-closing metal containers used for disposal of combustible waste in fuels laboratories are identified by being painted
    • A. 

      Red with yellow letters designating COMBUSTIBLE SOLID WASTE

    • B. 

      Yellow with red letters designating COMBUSTIBLE SOLID WASTE

    • C. 

      Yellow with red band and COMBUSTIBLE SOLID WASTE stenciled in 2-inch letters inside of red band

    • D. 

      Red with yellow band and COMBUSTIBLE SOLID WASTE stenciled in 2-inch letters inside of yellow band

  • 41. 
    How many feet from the fuels laboratory must a 55-gallon waste drum be positioned?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      20

    • C. 

      50

    • D. 

      100

  • 42. 
    What minimum amount of time must pass to allow for static charges to dissipate before disassembling an in-line sampler?
    • A. 

      4 minutes

    • B. 

      3 minutes

    • C. 

      2 minutes

    • D. 

      1 minute

  • 43. 
    Where should fuel-soaked rags be placed after use?
    • A. 

      Solid waste disposal pits

    • B. 

      Containers filled with water

    • C. 

      Self-closing metal containers

    • D. 

      Hazardous waste storage area

  • 44. 
    What should be done first when fighting an electrical fire?
    • A. 

      Aim the fire extinguisher at the base of the fire.

    • B. 

      Contact the base interior electric shop.

    • C. 

      Locate a water-type fire extinguisher

    • D. 

      Disable the circuit

  • 45. 
    Water pressure fire extinguishers are effective on which class of fires?
    • A. 

      Class A

    • B. 

      Class B

    • C. 

      Class C

    • D. 

      Class D

  • 46. 
    Who should be contacted if a fire extinguisher with a broken seal is discovered?
    • A. 

      Fire department

    • B. 

      Base safety office

    • C. 

      Fuels service center

    • D. 

      Squadron safety element

  • 47. 
    What is the proper treatment for someone that has been splashed with cryogenic liquid?
    • A. 

      Rewarm the body part as soon as possible

    • B. 

      Wrap the exposed area in a cotton blanket

    • C. 

      Watch closely and treat for shock

    • D. 

      Give the victim plenty of fluids

  • 48. 
    To detect releases, underground storage tanks should be monitored every
    • A. 

      15 days

    • B. 

      30 days

    • C. 

      45 days

    • D. 

      60 days

  • 49. 
    Check dikes for deterioration
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      Weekly

    • C. 

      Monthly

    • D. 

      Semiannually

  • 50. 
    As a pollution control precaution, dike drain valves
    • A. 

      Must be locked open to constantly drain the dikes

    • B. 

      Should not be connected to the base industrial water system

    • C. 

      Are not required for dikes around above-ground tanks over 2,000 gallons

    • D. 

      Must be locked in the closed position when the dikes are not being drained

  • 51. 
    Compliance and environmental conducts inspections on each fuels element once every
    • A. 

      3 months

    • B. 

      6 months

    • C. 

      12 months

    • D. 

      18 months

  • 52. 
    What is the minimum amount of spot-checks compliance and environmental can conduct at bases with fewer than 20 full time fuels personnel?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      10

  • 53. 
    If a major safety violation is found during an inspection, an inspector from the compliance and environmental element should stop the operation and notify
    • A. 

      Management and chief of supply within 8 hours

    • B. 

      The Fuels Service Center and aircraft maintenance control within 4 hours

    • C. 

      The immediate supervisor and management as soon as possible

    • D. 

      The base safety office and the parent MAJCOM by telephone within 24 hours

  • 54. 
    Which of the following base agencies should the fuels management team (FMT) coordinate with to obtain equipment needed for entering toxic environments?
    • A. 

      Wing Safety

    • B. 

      Spill response team

    • C. 

      Base Civil Engineering

    • D. 

      Environmental protection committee

  • 55. 
    To which outside agency should the fuels management team (FMT) forward mishap reports?
    • A. 

      Major Command (MAJCOM)

    • B. 

      Air Force Petroleum Agency Office (AFPET)

    • C. 

      Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) region

    • D. 

      Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF)

  • 56. 
    What component on a filter separator prevents pressure surges from damaging dispensing pressure control systems?
    • A. 

      Air eliminator

    • B. 

      Water slug valve

    • C. 

      Float control valve

    • D. 

      Mainline control valve

  • 57. 
    What type of meter is used on most fuel dispensing systems?
    • A. 

      Tri-rotor, positive displacement

    • B. 

      Bi-rotor, positive displacement

    • C. 

      Single-stage, bi-directional

    • D. 

      Dual-stage, bi-directional

  • 58. 
    What type of lubricant is used to lubricate the power takeoff (PTO) on a fuel dispensing system?
    • A. 

      Thirty-weight motor oil

    • B. 

      Ninety-weight gear oil

    • C. 

      Synthetic gear oil

    • D. 

      Silicone grease

  • 59. 
    What component found on R-11s and R-12s prevents the auxiliary throttle from operating unless the power takeoff (PTO) is engaged?
    • A. 

      PTO interlock system

    • B. 

      Throttle interlock system

    • C. 

      Emergency shutdown switch

    • D. 

      Emergency engine kill switch

  • 60. 
    During bottom loading operations, what should occur when the signal to the bottom loading optic probe is lost?
    • A. 

      The bottom loading valve modulates to prevent deadheading.

    • B. 

      The electronic control module cuts power to the fillstand pump.

    • C. 

      The bottom loading valve cuts power to the electronic control module.

    • D. 

      The electronic control module cuts power to the bottom loading electric air solenoid.

  • 61. 
    What is the lifting force of a liquid called?
    • A. 

      Interface

    • B. 

      Buoyance

    • C. 

      Laminar flow

    • D. 

      Dynamic pressure

  • 62. 
    Which of the following units of measurement would indicate velocity of flow?
    • A. 

      Feet per second

    • B. 

      Gallons per minute

    • C. 

      Cubic feet per second

    • D. 

      Cubic gallons per minute

  • 63. 
    Fuels systems are designed so that normal operating flow will not exceed
    • A. 

      7 feet per second

    • B. 

      12 feet per second

    • C. 

      25 feet per second

    • D. 

      30 feet per second

  • 64. 
    A complete cycle of pressure waves and reversals of flow during hydraulic shock occupies the time required for
    • A. 

      One round trip

    • B. 

      Two round trips

    • C. 

      One-and-a-half round trips

    • D. 

      Two-and-a-half round trips

  • 65. 
    The intensity of the excess pressure in a water-hammer wave depends on the
    • A. 

      Size of the pipe

    • B. 

      Specific gravity of the fuel

    • C. 

      Change in gallons per minute

    • D. 

      Amount of extinguished velocity

  • 66. 
    Which of the following types of measurement may be used to express pressure?
    • A. 

      Kilograms

    • B. 

      Pounds

    • C. 

      Tons

    • D. 

      Pounds per square inch

  • 67. 
    The standard measure for atmospheric pressure is equal to how many pound per square inch?
    • A. 

      13.1 psi

    • B. 

      14.7 psi

    • C. 

      15.2 psi

    • D. 

      17.9 psi

  • 68. 
    What term is used to describe the total pressure acting as a gas?
    • A. 

      Overpressure

    • B. 

      Gauge pressure

    • C. 

      Absolute pressure

    • D. 

      Atmospheric pressure

  • 69. 
    How do the charges of protons and electrons differ?
    • A. 

      Protons have positive charges, electrons have neutral charges

    • B. 

      Protons have neutral charges, electrons have positive charges

    • C. 

      Protons have negative charges, electrons have positive charges

    • D. 

      Protons have positive charges, electrons have negative charges

  • 70. 
    The uniform movement of electrons in a specific direction is called
    • A. 

      Electrical potential

    • B. 

      Free electrons

    • C. 

      Electric current

    • D. 

      Ionization

  • 71. 
    The shell of the valence electrons that determines whether a material is a good or a poor conductor of electricity is the
    • A. 

      Outermost shell

    • B. 

      Middle shell

    • C. 

      Second shell

    • D. 

      First shell

  • 72. 
    A positive ion is an atom that
    • A. 

      Lost a proton and has more electrons

    • B. 

      Lost an electron and has more protons

    • C. 

      Has an equal number of electrons and protons

    • D. 

      Cannot throw off any protons

  • 73. 
    What is the unit of measurement for electrical power?
    • A. 

      Watts

    • B. 

      Volts

    • C. 

      Amps

    • D. 

      Ohms

  • 74. 
    A 3-horsepower motor consumes how many watts of power?
    • A. 

      755 W

    • B. 

      1,534 W

    • C. 

      2,023 W

    • D. 

      2,238 W

  • 75. 
    What items are required to construct an electromagnet?
    • A. 

      A battery, a switch, and a wire

    • B. 

      Iron filings and a power supply

    • C. 

      Primary and secondary windings

    • D. 

      A coil of wire, a core material, and current flow

  • 76. 
    • A. 

      Magnetic and heat

    • B. 

      Chemical and heat

    • C. 

      Chemical and mechanical

    • D. 

      Magnetic and mechanical

  • 77. 
    What type(s) of current flow cannot be  transformed from a higher voltage to a lower voltage?
    • A. 

      Latent current

    • B. 

      Direct current

    • C. 

      Latent and open current

    • D. 

      Alternating and direct current

  • 78. 
    What are the three things needed to produce voltage by the principle of electromagnetic induction?
    • A. 

      Coil, core, and current

    • B. 

      Magnet, housing, and prime mover

    • C. 

      Coil, conductors, and relative motion

    • D. 

      Magnetic field, conductor, and relative motion

  • 79. 
    How often should the Vehicle Maintenance Flight Material Control section conduct a written inventory on composite tool kits?
    • A. 

      Monthly

    • B. 

      Quarterly

    • C. 

      Semiannually

    • D. 

      Annually

  • 80. 
    Joint inventories are conducted on individual tool kits
    • A. 

      Annually

    • B. 

      Semiannually

    • C. 

      Monthly

    • D. 

      Daily

  • 81. 
    Which of the following is not a reason for adding items to bench stock?
    • A. 

      The unit of issue is not compatible with the unit of use.

    • B. 

      The fuels management flight commander (FMFC) feels the flight can't wait for items to be delivered from the warehouse.

    • C. 

      A geographically separated location uses the item and the item must be at the using location.

    • D. 

      The item is not included in the Air Force Material Command (AFMC) initial spares support list for the equipment being supported.

  • 82. 
    When may deletions from the bench stock listing be processed?
    • A. 

      When requested by the flight only.

    • B. 

      When requested by the flight, or when the bench stock review listing shows no consumption in the past 270 days.

    • C. 

      At the discretion of the Logistics Readiness Squadron(LRS) customer service element only.

    • D. 

      At the discretion of Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) customer service element, or when the bench stock review listing shows no consumption in the past 270 days.

  • 83. 
    How often are Phase I bench stock reviews conducted?
    • A. 

      Monthly

    • B. 

      Quarterly

    • C. 

      Semiannually

    • D. 

      Annually