Security Forces Training Quiz & Questions

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Security Forces Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Range cards are a record of
    • A. 

      Range data

    • B. 

      Firing data

    • C. 

      Call signs

    • D. 

      Training

  • 2. 
    How many range cards are prepared for each position?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 3. 
    In addition to preparing a range card for the M4, what other fixed weapons require a range card?
    • A. 

      M240B, MK19, and .50 cal.

    • B. 

      M248, .50 cal, and MK 19

    • C. 

      M9, M203, and MK19

    • D. 

      MK19, .50 cal, and M17

  • 4. 
    What does the acronym FPL stand for?
    • A. 

      Final protective line

    • B. 

      Fire patrol liaison

    • C. 

      First protective line

    • D. 

      Fire profieciency line

  • 5. 
    Where would you sketch in magnetic north data on your range card?
    • A. 

      Where you can locate it quickly

    • B. 

      Marginal data area

    • C. 

      Upper right corner

    • D. 

      Part one

  • 6. 
    What information should you include on the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position?
    • A. 

      Prominent natural and man-made features that could be likely targets

    • B. 

      Prominent artificial terrain features that could be a likely target

    • C. 

      Prominent man-made featurs that will be a definite target

    • D. 

      Natural synthetic features only that could be a target

  • 7. 
    The space that cannot be engaged with grazing fire is called?
    • A. 

      Dead zone

    • B. 

      Dead area

    • C. 

      Dead space

    • D. 

      Dead spot

  • 8. 
    When clearing fields of fire, at least how many meters would you start at your position and work forward?
    • A. 

      25

    • B. 

      50

    • C. 

      75

    • D. 

      100

  • 9. 
    The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is
    • A. 

      Observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon

    • B. 

      Engage only those persons determined to be hostile

    • C. 

      Engage predetermined targets in the ara

    • D. 

      Detect the enemy and notify the chief, Security Forces

  • 10. 
    What is the function of the forward assist?
    • A. 

      Lock the charging handle in place prior to immediate action procedures

    • B. 

      Lock the bolt forard duing immediate action procedure

    • C. 

      Unlock the bolt and secure the charing handle

    • D. 

      Unlock the bolt during remedial action procedures

  • 11. 
    Any interruption in the cycle of operations is the definition of
    • A. 

      A stoppage

    • B. 

      A malfunction

    • C. 

      A failure to fire

    • D. 

      An operational failure

  • 12. 
    The acronym SPORTS stands for
    • A. 

      Slap, push, open, recall, tap, and shoot

    • B. 

      Smooth, pull, open, recoil, tap, and shoot

    • C. 

      Slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot

    • D. 

      Slap, push, observe, release, tap, and shoot

  • 13. 
    The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to keep weapons
    • A. 

      In brand new condition

    • B. 

      Clean, dry and lubricated

    • C. 

      Fully oiled and lubricated

    • D. 

      Clean and properly lubricated

  • 14. 
    How many different types of ammunition are there for the M4 carbine? 
    • A. 

      6

    • B. 

      8

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      12

  • 15. 
    What cartidge, used in the M4 carbine, is similar to the M196, except it has a longer tracer burnout distance?
    • A. 

      M249

    • B. 

      M199

    • C. 

      M855

    • D. 

      M856

  • 16. 
    What is the maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?
    • A. 

      50 meters

    • B. 

      60 meters

    • C. 

      70 meters

    • D. 

      80 meters

  • 17. 
    What is the maximum range for the M9 pistol?
    • A. 

      600 meters

    • B. 

      800 meters

    • C. 

      1,100 meters

    • D. 

      1,800 meters

  • 18. 
    If necessary, shooters are required to use what method when firing the M9 in order to engage targets?
    • A. 

      Approximate aiming point method

    • B. 

      Adjusted aiming point method

    • C. 

      Advanced aiming point method

    • D. 

      Altitude aiming point method

  • 19. 
    On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is case extractor and
    • A. 

      Loaded chamber indicator

    • B. 

      Reset the firing pin block

    • C. 

      Chambering

    • D. 

      Releasing slide

  • 20. 
    Cleaner, lubricant, preservative (CLP) or lubricating oil, semi-fluid, (LSA) are used on what part of the M9 to prevent rusting?
    • A. 

      Aluminum

    • B. 

      Rubber

    • C. 

      Plastic

    • D. 

      Steel

  • 21. 
    How many types of 9 mm ammunition are used with the M9 pistol?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      2

    • D. 

      1

  • 22. 
    What is the standard cartridge used with the M9?
    • A. 

      M855

    • B. 

      M856

    • C. 

      M882

    • D. 

      M917

  • 23. 
    Which M9 ammunition round is only issed to security forces, Office of Special Investigations (OSI) detachments, and USAF personnel assigned to air operations security (anti-jacking) duties?
    • A. 

      MK243 MOD 0

    • B. 

      M917 dummy round

    • C. 

      M882 ball, with cannelure

    • D. 

      M882 ball, without cannelure

  • 24. 
    In meters, what is the maximum deffective range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets?
    • A. 

      150

    • B. 

      250

    • C. 

      350

    • D. 

      400

  • 25. 
    What is the waiting period (in seconds) from the time of the failure before opening the barrel assembly to unload the M203?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      15

    • C. 

      20

    • D. 

      30

  • 26. 
    Which part of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker (smoke) rounds indicate the color of the smoke produced?
    • A. 

      Canopy

    • B. 

      Flangee

    • C. 

      Ogive

    • D. 

      Fin

  • 27. 
    What is the number of meters for the danger radius for the M781 practice round used in the M203?
    • A. 

      40

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      20

    • D. 

      10

  • 28. 
    Under what circumstances would you use MK19 ammunition in the M203?
    • A. 

      Under no circumstances

    • B. 

      When directed

    • C. 

      Emergancies

    • D. 

      Last resort

  • 29. 
    Which M203 round is most effective in thick vegetaion areas or for room clearing?
    • A. 

      White star cluster

    • B. 

      Ground marker

    • C. 

      Star parachute

    • D. 

      Buckshot

  • 30. 
    What is the M249 maximum effective range (in meters) for a point target using a bipod?
    • A. 

      800

    • B. 

      600

    • C. 

      400

    • D. 

      200

  • 31. 
    Which assembly on the M249 is the support for all major components?
    • A. 

      Slide assembly

    • B. 

      Receiver assembly

    • C. 

      Triger mechanism assembly

    • D. 

      Return rod and transfer assembly

  • 32. 
    An interruption in the cycle of operations caused by faulty action of te weapon or faulty ammunition is called?
    • A. 

      A stoppage

    • B. 

      A malfunction

    • C. 

      A remedial action

    • D. 

      An operator error

  • 33. 
    How many rounds does an M249 bandoleer contain?
    • A. 

      50

    • B. 

      100

    • C. 

      150

    • D. 

      200

  • 34. 
    What type of M249 ammunition is esed during mechanical training, dry-fire exercises, and function checks?
    • A. 

      M199 Dummy

    • B. 

      M200 Blank

    • C. 

      M856 Tracer

    • D. 

      M866 Ball

  • 35. 
    How is ammunition fed into the M240B?
    • A. 

      50 round bandoleer, split-link belt

    • B. 

      100 round bandoleer, split-link belt

    • C. 

      100 round bandoleer, solid-link belt

    • D. 

      50 round bandoleer, solid-link belt

  • 36. 
    In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M240B for a point target with tripod?
    • A. 

      200

    • B. 

      400

    • C. 

      600

    • D. 

      800

  • 37. 
    From what position is the M240B loaded?
    • A. 

      Bolt Open

    • B. 

      Bolt CLOSED

    • C. 

      Bolt OENED or CLOSED

    • D. 

      Blide OPENED or CLOSED

  • 38. 
    Which action in the cycle of operations for the M240B is initiated by squeezing the trigger?
    • A. 

      Ejecting

    • B. 

      Extracting

    • C. 

      Cocking

    • D. 

      Firing

  • 39. 
    What are the two most comon malfunctions for the M240B?
    • A. 

      Bad ammunnition and incorrect loading

    • B. 

      Sluggish operations and uncontrolled fire

    • C. 

      Sluggish operations and bad ammunition

    • D. 

      Shooter error and uncontrolled fire

  • 40. 
    At a minimum, you clean the M240B after firing a basic load of
    • A. 

      900 to 1,200 rounds

    • B. 

      1,200 to 1,500 rounds

    • C. 

      1,500 to 2,000 rounds

    • D. 

      2,000 to 2,500 rounds

  • 41. 
    What type of ammunition is used to engage lightly-armored targets?
    • A. 

      M808

    • B. 

      M63

    • C. 

      M62

    • D. 

      M61

  • 42. 
    Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing?
    • A. 

      M240B

    • B. 

      M249

    • C. 

      M780

    • D. 

      MK19

  • 43. 
    Which of the following tripods is the most often used gun mount for the MK19?
    • A. 

      M1

    • B. 

      M2

    • C. 

      M3

    • D. 

      M4

  • 44. 
    What is the standard round for the MK19?
    • A. 

      M383

    • B. 

      M430

    • C. 

      M918

    • D. 

      M922

  • 45. 
    Searching fire is the most often used on
    • A. 

      Level ground only

    • B. 

      Even ground only

    • C. 

      Sloped or hilly ground

    • D. 

      Level or evenly sloping ground

  • 46. 
    What is the maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caliber machine gun?
    • A. 

      2,000 yards

    • B. 

      2,200 yards

    • C. 

      2,500 yards

    • D. 

      2,750 yards

  • 47. 
    The maximum extent of grazing fire is obtainable to how many meters?
    • A. 

      800

    • B. 

      700

    • C. 

      600

    • D. 

      500

  • 48. 
    When selecting crew-served weapons position, which type of fire organizes the battlefield for the gunners?
    • A. 

      Direct

    • B. 

      Grazing

    • C. 

      Predetermined

    • D. 

      Distributed and effective

  • 49. 
    Abbreviated fire commands and previously recorded data enable the gunner to aim or adjust fire on the target
    • A. 

      Rapidly and effectively

    • B. 

      Quickly and accurately

    • C. 

      Accurately and timely

    • D. 

      Swiftly and deadly

  • 50. 
    Which of the following is an immediately available, prearranged barrier of fire to stop enemy movement across defensive lines or areas.
    • A. 

      Sector of fire

    • B. 

      Final protective line

    • C. 

      Principle of direct fire

    • D. 

      Final protective fire

  • 51. 
    Which of the following is fixed in direction and elevation?
    • A. 

      A final protective line (FPL)

    • B. 

      A principal of direct fire (PDF)

    • C. 

      A final protective fire (FPF)

    • D. 

      A directed prolonged fire (DPF)

  • 52. 
    Which of the following is assigned to the gun team to cover the most likely avanue of enemy approach from all types of defensive positions?
    • A. 

      Dead space protective line

    • B. 

      Final protective line

    • C. 

      Primary sector of fire

    • D. 

      Secondary sector of fire

  • 53. 
    Concerning machine guns in the offense, the primary objective of the offense is to advance, occupy, and
    • A. 

      Control and enemy

    • B. 

      Hold the enemy position

    • C. 

      Overwhelm the enemy

    • D. 

      Overpower the enemy

  • 54. 
    In meters, what is the maximum range of the M870 shotgun using "00" buckshot round?
    • A. 

      250

    • B. 

      345

    • C. 

      557

    • D. 

      640

  • 55. 
    The shotgun is an effective weapon when used in what type of role?
    • A. 

      The open-quarters battle role

    • B. 

      The close-quaters battle role

    • C. 

      High-density, low-visibility role

    • D. 

      Long-range fighting, heavy-combatant role

  • 56. 
    Sharpshooters will be well trained in tactical use of which of the following?
    • A. 

      Ammunition

    • B. 

      Vehicles

    • C. 

      Terrain

    • D. 

      Time

  • 57. 
    Optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement (CPE) marksmen and sharpshooter teams should include
    • A. 

      Squad leader

    • B. 

      Support element sniper

    • C. 

      Reconnaissance and close precision support

    • D. 

      A response, overwatch, screening, and reconnaisance

  • 58. 
    Sniper ammunition is produced to stringent tolerances to ensure superior
    • A. 

      Quality

    • B. 

      Accuracy

    • C. 

      Killing ratio

    • D. 

      Stopping power

  • 59. 
    The M107 sniper rifel operates by means of
    • A. 

      Short recoil principle

    • B. 

      Bolt action

    • C. 

      Belt fed

    • D. 

      Gas

  • 60. 
    The sniper's primary mission is to support combat operations by delivering precisse rifle fire from
    • A. 

      Aircraft

    • B. 

      Anywhere

    • C. 

      Rooftop positions

    • D. 

      Concealed positions

  • 61. 
    What are three common characteristics hand grenades share?
    • A. 

      Mid-range employment, easy to cary, and delay element for throwing

    • B. 

      Long employment range, medium casualty radius, and safe throwing

    • C. 

      Short employment range, small casualty radius, and delay element permits safe throwing

    • D. 

      Medium employment range, small casualty radius, and delay element permits safe throwing

  • 62. 
    How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenades?
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      7

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      15

  • 63. 
    How must live fragmentation grenades be thrown in the training enviroment?
    • A. 

      Underhand

    • B. 

      Overhand

    • C. 

      Overhead

    • D. 

      Sidearm

  • 64. 
    The claymore mine is used primarily as a/an
    • A. 

      Offensive weapon

    • B. 

      Defensive weapon

    • C. 

      Passive defense weapon

    • D. 

      Active defense weapon

  • 65. 
    When the claymore is employed in an uncontrolled role, it is considereda
    • A. 

      A precision engagement weapon

    • B. 

      Active force multiplier

    • C. 

      Lethal force weapon

    • D. 

      Mine or boobly trap

  • 66. 
    In what year was the M18A, a claymore mine standardized?
    • A. 

      1955

    • B. 

      1960

    • C. 

      1965

    • D. 

      1970

  • 67. 
    When employed in a controlled role, the claymore is treated as a
    • A. 

      One-shot weapon

    • B. 

      Two-shot weapon

    • C. 

      Three-shot weapon

    • D. 

      Four-shot weapon

  • 68. 
    The two detonator wells located on the top of the claymore allow for
    • A. 

      Single or multiple priming

    • B. 

      Multiple or dual priming

    • C. 

      Single or dual priming

    • D. 

      Single, dual, and multiple primimg

  • 69. 
    Before firing the light antiarmor weapon (LAW), what should you check?
    • A. 

      Wind

    • B. 

      Temperature

    • C. 

      Weapon trajectory

    • D. 

      Backblast area

  • 70. 
    A black and yellow band on the M136 AT4 launcher indicates what type of launcher?
    • A. 

      Field handling trainer

    • B. 

      Tracer bullet trainer

    • C. 

      HD antiarmor round

    • D. 

      High explosive (HE) antiarmor round

  • 71. 
    The M136 AT4's warhead has excellent penetration ability and lethal
    • A. 

      After-armor effects

    • B. 

      Pre-armor effects

    • C. 

      Kill radius

    • D. 

      Aim

  • 72. 
    Which of the following is used primarily to control direct-fire weapons but may also be used for indirect-fir weapons?
    • A. 

      Pirnciple determination of fire (PDF)

    • B. 

      Principle direction of enemy (PDE)

    • C. 

      Target reference point (TRP)

    • D. 

      Final protective line (FPL)

  • 73. 
    Applying immediate actions to remedy an M9 malfunction or stoppage should be
    • A. 

      Impossible

    • B. 

      Incredible

    • C. 

      Ineffective

    • D. 

      Instinctive

  • 74. 
    In meter, what is the maximum range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets?
    • A. 

      400

    • B. 

      350

    • C. 

      250

    • D. 

      150

  • 75. 
    What does the acronym blank firing adapter (BFA) stand for?
    • A. 

      Blank flash adapter

    • B. 

      Big flash adapter

    • C. 

      Blank firing adapter

    • D. 

      Bandoleer flap adapter