Therapeutics Exam 4

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Therapeutics Exam 4 - Quiz

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2. When determining what type of acute coronary syndrome (ACS) a patient is experiencing, what are the 3 signs and symptoms that need to be evaluated? EKG, cardiac enzymes and:
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3. Beta blockers improve angina symptoms in patients with stable ischemic heart disease, but do not affect mortality.
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4. Fibrinolytic therapy should ALWAYS be initiated for a STEMI at a non-PCI-capable facility even if it has been 2 days since symptom onset

Explanation

>12h IF SYMPTOMATIC AND HEMODYNAMICALLY UNSTABLE. benefit unestablished. meh.

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5. Clopidogrel has more rapid onset and more platelet inhibition than ticagrelor
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6. Which cardiac enzyme stays elevated for the longest period of time (on average)?
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7. Short-acting Nifedipine can be used for ischemic heart disease.

Explanation

Causes an INCREASE in mortality

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8. If a patient presents with decreased BP, ascites, pale skin, confusion, edema and worsening renal function, we could classify them as
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9. Which drug CAN be used for systolic HF but absolutely should not be used in diastolic HF?
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10. If a patient is on carvedilol, their response to dobutamine during decompensated HF will be increased.

Explanation

attenuated response (weakened)

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11. Angina Pectoris can be precipitated by all of the following except:

Explanation

A. is emotional stress/anger
B. anger
C. physical exertion
E. physical exertion/cold

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12. Which combination poses the greatest risk for thromboembolism?
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13. Norepinephrine generally works by promoting sodium retention, increasing ventricular hypertrophy, increased cardiac fibrosisis and oxidative stress. 

Explanation

NE works by increasing SNS activity and plasma renin activity.

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14. Which CCB is the drug of choice for stable ischemic heart disease if the patient also has systolic heart failure?
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15. Upon presenting to the ER for a NSTEMI, the patient should be given 81 mg ASA ASAP

Explanation

162 - 325 mg

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16. Cilostazol should be administered 2 hours before meals or 30 minutes after.

Explanation

30 minutes before or 2 hours after

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17. If a patient undergoes mitral valve replacement and has a mechanical 1st generation valve placed, they must be placed on VKA therapy with a goal INR of _______ and a treatment duration of ________.
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18. If a patient has had a recent MI, their LDL goal is 
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19. Which does not have a mortality benefit in systolic heart failure?

Explanation

Diuretics are for fluid overload/symptom relief only

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20. Patient A is undergoing aortic valve replacement therapy due to her severe aortic regurgitation and is going to have a 2nd generation mechanical valve placed.  Her BP is 160/90. Is she a candidate for vasodilator therapy?

Explanation

Short-term to improve hemodynamic parameters before surgery

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21. Which is the inotrope of choice if the patient is on a beta blocker and is not hypotensive.
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22. The EF in diastolic is usually decreased or preserved but the LV wall thickness is always:
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23. Loading dose/maintenance dose for ADP inhibitors:
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24. The correct morphine dosing for UA/NSTEMI is:
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25. If the patient is 76 years old and weights 130 pounds, she should be given the 5mg QD dose of Prasugrel

Explanation

Not recommended >75 due to increased bleeding risk

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26. If Jimmy believes he is having his 2nd acute coronary event, but doesn't feel like he is in too much pain, it is OK for his wife to drive him to the ER because he doesn't have insurance.

Explanation

MUST take ambulance if he thinks he is having an event -- ambulances have defibrillators!

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27. The COURAGE trial showed that patients who have stable ischemic heart disease who receive PCI have a decreased incidence mortality in 4 years than patients who are med treated

Explanation

NO difference in mortality in stent vs meds (in stable ischemic heart disease - not an attack)

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28. ACE-I should be considered for patients with Stable Ischemic Heart Disease with these other co-morbid diseases, EXCEPT
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29. Triple therapy for refractory angina includes all of the following EXCEPT:
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30. Goals for treating PAD include:
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31. In a patient who had a previous MI but was unaware of it, what will be different on their EKG?
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32. The recommended antithrombotic therapy for refractory IC is:
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33. The correct NTG IV dosing for a patient presenting with UA/NSTEMI is:
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34. If a patient has an ABI of .75, they are in the category of _____.
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35. All are appropriate IV loop doses for a patient who is "diuretic-naive" except:

Explanation

1 mg bumetanide

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36. 2/3 of heart failure hospitalizations are due to MIs.

Explanation

medication/lifestyle NONCOMPLIANCE

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37. Which is not a s/s of PAD?
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38. Patient has PAD and presents with the following symptoms...what is the treatment? Mild pain No motor deficit Inaudible artrial doppler Inaudible venous doppler Complete sensory deficit
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39. A BNP level of 453 is considered: 

Explanation

mild > 300, mod >600

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40. Patient B has mitral valve regurgitation and is undergoing a root canal. She is allergic to penicillin. Which prophylaxis antibiotic should she take?
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41. Which are risk factors for carotid atherosclerotic disease?
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42. Match the metabolic regulator to its function:
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43. Which is the inotrope of choice if the patient has a BP of 90/60?
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44. Which are considered non-modifiable CHD risk factors:
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45. If the fluid output after 40 mg furosemide IV is 125 mL after 2 hours, which of the following are options:
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46. Symptoms for Aortic Stenosis include:
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47. Which are counseling points when dispensing SL NTG?
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48. Which are negative inotropic medications?
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.asflasd
When determining what type of acute coronary syndrome (ACS) a patient...
Beta blockers improve angina symptoms in patients with stable ischemic...
Fibrinolytic therapy should ALWAYS be initiated for a STEMI at a...
Clopidogrel has more rapid onset and more platelet inhibition than...
Which cardiac enzyme stays elevated for the longest period of time (on...
Short-acting Nifedipine can be used for ischemic heart disease.
If a patient presents with decreased BP, ascites, pale skin,...
Which drug CAN be used for systolic HF but absolutely should not be...
If a patient is on carvedilol, their response to dobutamine during...
Angina Pectoris can be precipitated by all of the following except:
Which combination poses the greatest risk for thromboembolism?
Norepinephrine generally works by promoting sodium retention,...
Which CCB is the drug of choice for stable ischemic heart disease if...
Upon presenting to the ER for a NSTEMI, the patient should be given 81...
Cilostazol should be administered 2 hours before meals or 30 minutes...
If a patient undergoes mitral valve replacement and has a mechanical...
If a patient has had a recent MI, their LDL goal is 
Which does not have a mortality benefit in systolic heart failure?
Patient A is undergoing aortic valve replacement therapy due to her...
Which is the inotrope of choice if the patient is on a beta blocker...
The EF in diastolic is usually decreased or preserved but the LV wall...
Loading dose/maintenance dose for ADP inhibitors:
The correct morphine dosing for UA/NSTEMI is:
If the patient is 76 years old and weights 130 pounds, she should be...
If Jimmy believes he is having his 2nd acute coronary event, but...
The COURAGE trial showed that patients who have stable ischemic heart...
ACE-I should be considered for patients with Stable Ischemic Heart...
Triple therapy for refractory angina includes all of the following...
Goals for treating PAD include:
In a patient who had a previous MI but was unaware of it, what will be...
The recommended antithrombotic therapy for refractory IC is:
The correct NTG IV dosing for a patient presenting with UA/NSTEMI is:
If a patient has an ABI of .75, they are in the category of _____.
All are appropriate IV loop doses for a patient who is...
2/3 of heart failure hospitalizations are due to MIs.
Which is not a s/s of PAD?
Patient has PAD and presents with the following symptoms...what is the...
A BNP level of 453 is considered: 
Patient B has mitral valve regurgitation and is undergoing a root...
Which are risk factors for carotid atherosclerotic disease?
Match the metabolic regulator to its function:
Which is the inotrope of choice if the patient has a BP of 90/60?
Which are considered non-modifiable CHD risk factors:
If the fluid output after 40 mg furosemide IV is 125 mL after 2 hours,...
Symptoms for Aortic Stenosis include:
Which are counseling points when dispensing SL NTG?
Which are negative inotropic medications?
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