A Quiz Questions Over Hospital Client

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  • 1/232 Questions

    A client asks the nurse why it is important to be wieghed every day if he or she has right sided heart failure. How will the nurse respond.

    • Weight is the best indication that you are gaining or losing fluid
    • Weighing you every day will help us make sure taht you're eating properly
    • The hospital requires that all impatient be weighed daily
    • You need to lose weight to decrease to incidence of heart failure
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A Quiz Questions Over Hospital Client - Quiz
About This Quiz

This quiz focuses on assessing heart conditions in hospital clients, examining scenarios like myocardial infarction and mitral valve issues. It tests understanding of cardiac output, blood pressure monitoring, and electrophysiological studies, essential for healthcare professionals.

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  • 2. 

    The client presents with a heart rate of 40 beatsmin. The nurse expects that an electrophysiological study may determine an alteration in which structure?

    • Sinoartial (SA) node

    • Bachmann's bundle

    • Bundle of His

    • Purkinji fibers

    Correct Answer
    A. Sinoartial (SA) node
    Explanation
    The client's heart rate of 40 beats/min is lower than the normal range (60-100 beats/min) and suggests a potential alteration in the heart's electrical system. The electrophysiological study is used to evaluate the electrical activity of the heart and identify any abnormalities. The SA node is responsible for initiating the electrical impulses that regulate the heart rate. Therefore, the nurse expects that the electrophysiological study may determine an alteration in the SA node.

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  • 3. 

    Which statement made by a client would alert the nurse tot he presence of e dema

    • I wake up to go to the bathroom at night

    • My shoes fit tighter by the end of the day?

    • I seem to feel more anxious lately

    • I drink at least eight full glasses of water a day

    Correct Answer
    A. My shoes fit tighter by the end of the day?
    Explanation
    The statement "My shoes fit tighter by the end of the day?" would alert the nurse to the presence of edema. Edema refers to the accumulation of excess fluid in the body, which can cause swelling and tightness in the feet and ankles. If the client notices that their shoes are becoming tighter as the day progresses, it may indicate fluid retention and potential edema. This symptom should be further assessed by the nurse to determine the underlying cause and provide appropriate interventions.

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  • 4. 

    The nurse assess for which modifiable risk factor in the client with coronary artery disease

    • Age

    • Gender

    • Smoking

    • Family history

    Correct Answer
    A. Smoking
    Explanation
    Smoking is a modifiable risk factor for coronary artery disease. It is a behavior that can be changed, unlike age, gender, and family history, which are non-modifiable risk factors. Smoking increases the risk of developing coronary artery disease by damaging blood vessels, promoting the formation of plaque, and reducing oxygen supply to the heart. Therefore, assessing for smoking habits is important in order to provide appropriate interventions and support to help the client quit smoking and reduce their risk of further complications.

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  • 5. 

    Which client statement alerts the nurse to the occurance of heart failure?

    • I get short of breath when I climb stairs

    • I see halos floating by

    • I have trouble remembering things

    • I have lost my appetite

    Correct Answer
    A. I get short of breath when I climb stairs
    Explanation
    The client statement "I get short of breath when I climb stairs" alerts the nurse to the occurrence of heart failure because shortness of breath, especially during physical exertion, is a common symptom of heart failure. This symptom occurs due to the heart's inability to pump enough blood to meet the body's demand, leading to fluid accumulation in the lungs and difficulty in breathing. Therefore, this statement indicates a possible manifestation of heart failure and should be a cause for concern.

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  • 6. 

    A client consistently reports feeling dizzy and lightheaded when moving from supine position to a sitting position. Which assessment takes priority at this time

    • Pulse oximetry

    • Blood pressure

    • Respiratory rate

    • Neurological evaluation

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood pressure
    Explanation
    The client's consistent report of feeling dizzy and lightheaded when changing positions suggests orthostatic hypotension, a drop in blood pressure when moving from lying down to sitting or standing. Assessing the client's blood pressure takes priority in this situation as it will help determine if there is a significant decrease in blood pressure when changing positions, which may require further evaluation and intervention. Pulse oximetry, respiratory rate, and neurological evaluation may also be important assessments, but they are not the priority in this case.

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  • 7. 

    Which client statement alerts the nurse to a possible heart failure

    • I am drinking more water than usual

    • I have been awakened by the need to urinate at night

    • I have to stop halfway up the stairs to catch my breath

    • I have experienced blurred vision on several occasions

    Correct Answer
    A. I have to stop halfway up the stairs to catch my breath
    Explanation
    The client statement "I have to stop halfway up the stairs to catch my breath" alerts the nurse to a possible heart failure because it indicates exertional dyspnea, which is a common symptom of heart failure. In heart failure, the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's demands, leading to fluid accumulation in the lungs and difficulty breathing during physical activity. This symptom is often experienced when the heart is unable to adequately supply oxygenated blood to the muscles during exertion.

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  • 8. 

    The nurse assesses the client's cardiac  status. Which finding required immediate intervention

    • Swishing sound heard on either side of the neck

    • Bounding pulses

    • Pulse rate of 90 beats/min

    • Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg

    Correct Answer
    A. Swishing sound heard on either side of the neck
    Explanation
    A swishing sound heard on either side of the neck could indicate the presence of a carotid bruit, which is an abnormal sound caused by turbulent blood flow in the carotid arteries. This finding requires immediate intervention because it may indicate a blockage or narrowing in the carotid arteries, which can increase the risk of stroke or other cardiovascular events. The nurse should further assess the client's condition and notify the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention.

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  • 9. 

    The nurse assesses for modifiable risk factors in the client with coronary artery diseasae. which intervention is the priority to assist the client in decreasing the risk for coronary artery disease

    • Age

    • Gender

    • Smoking

    • Family history

    Correct Answer
    A. Smoking
    Explanation
    Smoking is the priority intervention to assist the client in decreasing the risk for coronary artery disease. Smoking is a modifiable risk factor that directly affects the health of the cardiovascular system. It contributes to the development and progression of coronary artery disease by causing damage to the blood vessels, increasing the risk of blood clots, and reducing the amount of oxygen in the blood. By quitting smoking, the client can significantly decrease their risk for coronary artery disease and improve their overall cardiovascular health.

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  • 10. 

    For which of the following clients is magnetic resonance imaging of the heart contraindicated?

    • A young woman who is lactating

    • An older man with an implanted pacemaker

    • A woman who had a thallium scan yesterday

    • A man 10 days after a myocardial infarction

    Correct Answer
    A. An older man with an implanted pacemaker
    Explanation
    Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) uses strong magnetic fields and radio waves to create detailed images of the organs and tissues in the body. However, it is contraindicated for clients with implanted pacemakers. Pacemakers contain metal components that can be affected by the strong magnetic fields of an MRI, potentially causing malfunction or damage to the device. Therefore, it is not safe for an older man with an implanted pacemaker to undergo MRI.

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  • 11. 

    A client has had a recent myocardial infarction involving the left ventricle. WHich assessment finding is expected?

    • Faint S1 and S2 sounds on auscultation

    • Decreased cardiac output

    • Increased blood pressure

    • Increased strength of peripheral pulses

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreased cardiac output
    Explanation
    After a myocardial infarction involving the left ventricle, the heart's ability to pump blood effectively is compromised. This leads to a decreased cardiac output, as the damaged ventricle is unable to efficiently pump blood out to the rest of the body. This can result in symptoms such as fatigue, shortness of breath, and decreased blood pressure. Therefore, a decreased cardiac output is an expected assessment finding in this scenario.

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  • 12. 

    The cleint aske the nurse to explain about his heart murmur. WHich is the nurse's best response?

    • It is the rushing sound that blood makes moving through narrow places

    • It is the sound of the heart muscle stretching in an area of weakness

    • It is a term doctors use to describe how well the blood circulated in teh heart

    • Itr is the sound the heart makes when it has to work too hard

    Correct Answer
    A. It is the rushing sound that blood makes moving through narrow places
    Explanation
    The nurse's best response would be "It is the rushing sound that blood makes moving through narrow places." This explanation accurately describes a heart murmur as the sound of blood flowing through narrow areas in the heart. Heart murmurs are often caused by turbulent blood flow due to narrowed or leaky heart valves, which can create a rushing or whooshing sound.

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  • 13. 

    The client is experiencing occasional premature atrial contraction (PAC's) accompanied by palpations. These episodes resolve spontaneously without treatment. What instruction will be included in a teaching plan for this client

    • Limit or abstain from caffeine

    • Lie on your left side until the attack subsides

    • Use your oxygen whenever you experience PAC's

    • Take your quinidine twice daily on the days that youexperience palpations

    Correct Answer
    A. Limit or abstain from caffeine
    Explanation
    Caffeine is a known trigger for premature atrial contractions (PAC's) and palpitations. By limiting or abstaining from caffeine, the client can reduce the frequency or severity of these episodes. This instruction would be included in the teaching plan to help manage and prevent future occurrences of PAC's and palpitations.

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  • 14. 

    Whihc nurssing diagnosis would be considered a priority for the client with heart failure?

    • Anxiety related to hospitalization

    • Altered health maintenance

    • Impaired gas exchange

    • Altered comfort

    Correct Answer
    A. Impaired gas exchange
    Explanation
    Impaired gas exchange would be considered a priority nursing diagnosis for a client with heart failure because it is directly related to the client's ability to breathe and oxygenate their body. Heart failure can lead to fluid accumulation in the lungs, causing difficulty in exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide. This can result in shortness of breath, decreased oxygen levels, and potential respiratory distress. Therefore, addressing impaired gas exchange is crucial to ensure the client's respiratory function and overall well-being.

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  • 15. 

    A client has been admitted to the acute care unity for an exacerbation of heart failure. which is the nurse's priority intervention?

    • Assessing respiratory status

    • Monitoring the serum electrolyte levels

    • Administering intravenous fluids

    • Inserting a Foley catheter

    Correct Answer
    A. Assessing respiratory status
    Explanation
    In a client with an exacerbation of heart failure, assessing respiratory status is the nurse's priority intervention. Heart failure can lead to fluid accumulation in the lungs, causing respiratory distress. By assessing respiratory status, the nurse can monitor for signs of respiratory distress such as shortness of breath, increased respiratory rate, and decreased oxygen saturation. Prompt intervention can then be initiated to optimize oxygenation and prevent further complications. Monitoring serum electrolyte levels, administering intravenous fluids, and inserting a Foley catheter may be important interventions, but they are not the priority in this situation.

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  • 16. 

    Which assessment finding does the nurse expect in a client diagnosed with aortic stenosis

    • Bounding arterial pulse

    • Slow, faint arterial pulse

    • Narrowed pulse pressure

    • Elevated systolic and diastolic pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. Narrowed pulse pressure
    Explanation
    Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, which obstructs blood flow from the left ventricle to the aorta. This obstruction leads to a decrease in the pressure difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure, resulting in a narrowed pulse pressure. Therefore, the nurse would expect to find a narrowed pulse pressure in a client diagnosed with aortic stenosis.

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  • 17. 

    A client brought to the emergency room following a myocardial infarction is f ound to be hypotension. Which compensatory change is expected as a result of baroreceptor stimulation?

    • Increased heart rate

    • Vasodilation

    • Hypoxemia

    • Decreased respiratory rate

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased heart rate
    Explanation
    Following a myocardial infarction, the body's baroreceptors are stimulated due to hypotension. Baroreceptors are pressure-sensitive receptors located in the walls of blood vessels and the heart. When stimulated, they send signals to the brain to increase sympathetic activity and decrease parasympathetic activity. This leads to an increase in heart rate as a compensatory response to maintain blood pressure and perfusion to vital organs. Therefore, an increased heart rate is expected as a result of baroreceptor stimulation in this scenario.

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  • 18. 

    Which illness in a client's history would alert the nurse to the possibility of an abnormality of the heart valves?

    • Tuberculosis

    • Recurrent viral pneumonia

    • Rheumatic Fever

    • Asthma

    Correct Answer
    A. Rheumatic Fever
    Explanation
    Rheumatic fever is the correct answer because it is known to cause damage to the heart valves. This condition occurs as a result of an untreated or inadequately treated streptococcal infection. The streptococcal bacteria can trigger an immune response in the body, leading to inflammation and damage to the heart valves. Therefore, a history of rheumatic fever would alert the nurse to the possibility of abnormality in the heart valves.

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  • 19. 

    A client has returned from an angiography via the left  femoral artery. two hours after the procedure. The nurse notes the left pedal pulse is weak. Which is the nurse's first action?

    • Elevates the left leg and applies a sandbag to teh entrance site

    • Increased the flow rate of the intravenous fluids to 125 mf/hr

    • Assesses the color and temperature of the left leg

    • Documents the finding as left pedal pulse of +1/4

    Correct Answer
    A. Assesses the color and temperature of the left leg
    Explanation
    The nurse's first action should be to assess the color and temperature of the left leg. This is because a weak pedal pulse could indicate a decrease in blood flow to the leg, which could be a sign of a complication from the angiography procedure. Assessing the color and temperature of the leg will help the nurse determine if there is any abnormality or potential issue that needs to be addressed.

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  • 20. 

    Which client does the nurse determine is at high risk for cardiovascular disease?

    • Older audlt with asthma

    • Asian american woman with breast cancer

    • Middle aged African Man with diabetes mellitus

    • Postmenopausal woman on estrogen hormone replacement therapy

    Correct Answer
    A. Middle aged African Man with diabetes mellitus
    Explanation
    The nurse determines that the middle-aged African man with diabetes mellitus is at high risk for cardiovascular disease. This is because diabetes is a known risk factor for cardiovascular disease, and middle age is also a risk factor. Additionally, African Americans have a higher prevalence of cardiovascular disease compared to other ethnic groups. Therefore, the combination of diabetes, middle age, and African American ethnicity puts this client at a higher risk for developing cardiovascular disease.

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  • 21. 

    A nurse is caring for a client with a chronic atrial fibrillation who is at risk for systemic emboli. Which drug should the nurse expect to administer to prevent this complication

    • Sotalol (Betapace)

    • Heparin (Heparin)

    • Atropine (Atropine

    • Lidocaine (Xylocaine)

    Correct Answer
    A. Heparin (Heparin)
    Explanation
    Heparin is the correct answer for preventing systemic emboli in a client with chronic atrial fibrillation. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that helps to prevent blood clots from forming. Atrial fibrillation increases the risk of blood clots, which can lead to systemic emboli, such as a stroke or pulmonary embolism. By administering heparin, the nurse can help to prevent these complications by keeping the blood from clotting excessively. Sotalol is a medication used to treat atrial fibrillation, but it does not specifically prevent systemic emboli. Atropine and lidocaine are not used for this purpose and are not indicated in the prevention of systemic emboli.

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  • 22. 

    Which cleint assessment takes priority prior to a cardiac catheterization?

    • The level of anxiety

    • The ability to move side to side

    • Knowledge of the procedure

    • Assessment for allergies to iodine and shellfish

    Correct Answer
    A. Assessment for allergies to iodine and shellfish
    Explanation
    The assessment for allergies to iodine and shellfish takes priority prior to a cardiac catheterization because iodine-based contrast dye is commonly used during the procedure. Allergic reactions to iodine and shellfish can be severe and potentially life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial to identify any allergies beforehand to prevent adverse reactions during the catheterization. This assessment ensures the safety and well-being of the patient during the procedure.

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  • 23. 

    What laboratory value is indicative of a myocardial infarctin

    • Troponin T=0.8 mg/ml

    • Myoglobin= 85mcg/L

    • CK creatine Kinase=180 units/L

    • HDL=60 mg/dl

    Correct Answer
    A. Troponin T=0.8 mg/ml
    Explanation
    Troponin T is a laboratory value that is indicative of a myocardial infarction. Troponin T is a protein found in cardiac muscle cells, and its presence in the blood indicates damage to the heart muscle. A level of 0.8 mg/ml suggests that there has been some damage to the heart, possibly indicating a myocardial infarction. Other laboratory values such as myoglobin, CK creatine kinase, and HDL do not specifically indicate a myocardial infarction.

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  • 24. 

    The client with heart failure experiencing respiratory difficult, Which is the nurse's priority action?

    • Place the client in a high Fowler's position

    • Suction the client

    • Auscultate the client heart and lungs

    • Place the client on fluid restriction

    Correct Answer
    A. Place the client in a high Fowler's position
    Explanation
    The nurse's priority action in this situation is to place the client in a high Fowler's position. This position helps to improve the client's breathing by allowing the lungs to expand fully and reducing the workload on the heart. It also helps to alleviate respiratory distress and promote oxygenation. Suctioning the client may be necessary, but it is not the priority action in this case. Auscultating the client's heart and lungs is important for assessment, but it is not the immediate priority. Placing the client on fluid restriction may be a part of the overall management plan, but it is not the priority action in this situation.

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  • 25. 

    A nurse is caring for a client who has undergone surgical repair of an AAA. the client has seveloped coolenss of the extremities and complains of a bloated feeling in the abdomen. What is the nurse's best action

    • Measuring the abdominal girth and check pulses

    • Raising the head of the bed to 90 degrees

    • Measuring the cardiac output

    • Irrigating the Foley catheter

    Correct Answer
    A. Measuring the abdominal girth and check pulses
    Explanation
    The nurse's best action is to measure the abdominal girth and check pulses. The client's symptoms of coolness of the extremities and a bloated feeling in the abdomen may indicate a potential complication such as compartment syndrome or thrombosis. Measuring the abdominal girth can help assess for abdominal distention or fluid accumulation, while checking pulses can help determine if there is any compromise in blood flow to the extremities. These assessments can provide important information for the nurse to further evaluate the client's condition and intervene appropriately.

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  • 26. 

    A client admitted to the coronary care  unit with a myocardial infarction begins to develope increased pulmonary congestion, an increased in heart rate  80 to 102 beats/min, and cold, clammy skin. Which is the nurse's best action prior to nitifying the physician?

    • Administering oxygen

    • Increasing the IV flow rate

    • Placing the client in supine position

    • Preparing the client for emergency echocardiography

    Correct Answer
    A. Administering oxygen
    Explanation
    Administering oxygen is the nurse's best action prior to notifying the physician because the client is showing signs of increased pulmonary congestion, which indicates decreased oxygenation. Administering oxygen will help improve oxygenation and relieve symptoms such as increased heart rate and cold, clammy skin. This intervention can be done immediately by the nurse and does not require a physician's order. It is important to address the client's oxygenation needs promptly to prevent further complications.

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  • 27. 

    A client is classified (staged) at level A heart fialure, What will the nurse teach the cleint?

    • Take digoxin daily

    • Limit activity when short of breath

    • Control blood pressure at 140/80 or below

    • Maintain a no added salt diet

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintain a no added salt diet
    Explanation
    The nurse will teach the client to maintain a no added salt diet because in level A heart failure, dietary modifications are important to manage the condition. A no added salt diet helps to reduce fluid retention and lower blood pressure, which are key goals in managing heart failure. By limiting salt intake, the client can prevent fluid overload and minimize symptoms such as shortness of breath. Taking digoxin daily, limiting activity when short of breath, and controlling blood pressure are also important aspects of managing heart failure, but the specific instruction related to the question is about maintaining a no added salt diet.

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  • 28. 

    A nurse is instructing a client with heart failure on energy conservation. WHich is the best instruction

    • Walk until you become short of breath and then walk back home

    • Gather everything you need for a chore before you begin

    • Pull rather than push or carry items heavier than 5 pounds

    • Take a walk after dinner every day

    Correct Answer
    A. Gather everything you need for a chore before you begin
    Explanation
    Gathering everything needed for a chore before beginning is the best instruction for energy conservation in a client with heart failure. This instruction promotes efficiency and minimizes the need for repeated trips or excessive movement, thus conserving energy. It helps the client avoid unnecessary exertion and reduces the risk of fatigue and shortness of breath.

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  • 29. 

    Which cleint will benefit from receiving treatment for hypertension with an angiotension ACE inhibitor and a calcium channel blocker?

    • An African American man

    • A Hispanic woman

    • A white man

    • A woman of Asian descent

    Correct Answer
    A. An African American man
    Explanation
    African Americans have a higher prevalence of hypertension compared to other ethnic groups. Studies have shown that African Americans respond better to combination therapy with an ACE inhibitor and a calcium channel blocker, resulting in better blood pressure control. Therefore, an African American man would benefit from receiving treatment for hypertension with this combination of medications.

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  • 30. 

    For which complication will the nurse monitor in the immediate post-procedure period in the client with peripheral arterial disease who has just undergone laser assisted angioplasty?

    • Bleeding

    • Aspiration

    • Hypertensive crisis

    • Chest Pain

    Correct Answer
    A. Bleeding
    Explanation
    The nurse will monitor for bleeding in the immediate post-procedure period in a client with peripheral arterial disease who has just undergone laser assisted angioplasty. This is because angioplasty involves the insertion of a catheter into the artery, which can cause damage and lead to bleeding. Monitoring for bleeding is important to detect any signs of hemorrhage and ensure prompt intervention to prevent complications.

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  • 31. 

    The cleint's blood pressure is 134/88 mm Hg. Which is the nurses best i ntervention?

    • Calling the health care provider because this is severe hypertension

    • Reassessing the blood pressure in 1 month because this is stage 2 hypertension

    • Reassessing the client's blood pressure at the next yearly physical

    • Teaching the client lifestyle modifications to decrease the blood pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. Teaching the client lifestyle modifications to decrease the blood pressure
    Explanation
    The client's blood pressure reading of 134/88 mm Hg falls within the prehypertension range, which is not considered severe hypertension. Therefore, calling the healthcare provider for this reading would not be the best intervention. Reassessing the blood pressure in 1 month or at the next yearly physical would not be necessary since the reading does not indicate stage 2 hypertension. Teaching the client lifestyle modifications to decrease blood pressure is the best intervention as it focuses on empowering the client to make necessary changes to their lifestyle, such as diet and exercise, to help lower their blood pressure.

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  • 32. 

    Which action will the nurse take to improve the quality of the electrocardiiographic rhythm transmission tot hemonitoring system?

    • Apply lotion to the client's chest before attaching the chest leads

    • Remove the hair from the chest area before attaching the chest leads

    • Instruct the client not to wear any clothing made from synthetic fabrics during the test

    • Apply skin protectant tot area prior to placing electrode.

    Correct Answer
    A. Remove the hair from the chest area before attaching the chest leads
    Explanation
    To improve the quality of the electrocardiographic rhythm transmission to the monitoring system, the nurse will remove the hair from the chest area before attaching the chest leads. This is because hair can interfere with the conduction of the electrical signals from the heart to the electrodes, resulting in poor signal quality and inaccurate readings. Removing the hair ensures better contact between the skin and the electrodes, allowing for more accurate transmission of the heart's electrical activity.

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  • 33. 

    The client with tachycardia is experiencing clinical manifestation. Which one alerts the nurse to the need for immediate intervention

    • Chest pain

    • Increased urine output

    • Mild orthostatic hypotension

    • P wave touching the T wave

    Correct Answer
    A. Chest pain
    Explanation
    Chest pain is a significant clinical manifestation that alerts the nurse to the need for immediate intervention in a client with tachycardia. Chest pain could indicate a potential myocardial infarction or angina, which require urgent medical attention. It is crucial for the nurse to assess the severity and characteristics of the chest pain and promptly notify the healthcare provider to initiate appropriate interventions and prevent further complications.

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  • 34. 

    Whihc precautions are appropriate when providieng care to a client with infective endocarditis

    • Standard percaustions

    • Enteric percautions

    • Protective isolation

    • Respiratory isolation

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard percaustions
    Explanation
    Standard precautions are appropriate when providing care to a client with infective endocarditis. Standard precautions are a set of infection control practices that should be used for all clients in healthcare settings, regardless of their diagnosis. These precautions include hand hygiene, use of personal protective equipment (such as gloves and masks), safe injection practices, and proper handling and disposal of contaminated materials. Standard precautions help to prevent the transmission of infectious agents and protect both the healthcare provider and the client from infection.

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  • 35. 

    Which cleint is most at risk for cardiovascular disease?

    • A woman on hormone replacement therapy

    • A woman who has never been pregnant

    • A woman with elevated HDL (high density lipoprotein) levels

    • A woman with abdominal obesity

    Correct Answer
    A. A woman with abdominal obesity
    Explanation
    Abdominal obesity is a known risk factor for cardiovascular disease. Excess fat around the abdomen can lead to increased levels of cholesterol and triglycerides, high blood pressure, and insulin resistance. These factors contribute to the development of atherosclerosis and increase the risk of heart disease and stroke. Therefore, a woman with abdominal obesity is most at risk for cardiovascular disease compared to the other options provided.

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  • 36. 

    Which client is most at risk for peripherial vascular disease

    • A middle aged man who smokes

    • A middle aged woman with a sedentary lifestyle

    • An older man who is moderately obese

    • A young adult with a famiy history of coronary artery disease

    Correct Answer
    A. A middle aged man who smokes
    Explanation
    A middle aged man who smokes is most at risk for peripheral vascular disease. Smoking is a major risk factor for the development of this condition as it causes damage to the blood vessels, leading to reduced blood flow to the extremities. Additionally, the combination of middle age and smoking further increases the risk. Other factors such as sedentary lifestyle, obesity, and family history of coronary artery disease may also contribute to the development of peripheral vascular disease, but smoking is considered the most significant risk factor in this scenario.

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  • 37. 

    Which assessment fidnign after a left sided cardiac catheterization requires immediate intervention?

    • Intake less than output

    • Bruising at the insertion site

    • Weak had grasps and confusion

    • Discomfort in the leg

    Correct Answer
    A. Weak had grasps and confusion
    Explanation
    Weak hand grasps and confusion after a left-sided cardiac catheterization indicate a potential neurological complication such as a stroke or embolism. These symptoms suggest a lack of blood flow to the brain and require immediate intervention to prevent further damage.

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  • 38. 

    A client who is scheduled for a echocardiography today asks why this test is being performed. How will the nurse respond?

    • This procedure is the best way to assessthe structure of your heart noninvasively

    • This procedure is to assess for abnormal electrical impulses from the sinoatrial node

    • This procedure will evaluate the oxygen saturation in your blood

    • This is the best way to evaluate the coronary arteries for any blockages that may be present.

    Correct Answer
    A. This procedure is the best way to assessthe structure of your heart noninvasively
    Explanation
    The nurse will respond by explaining that the echocardiography procedure is the best way to assess the structure of the client's heart noninvasively. This means that it allows the healthcare team to examine the heart's chambers, valves, and overall structure without the need for any invasive procedures or surgery. It provides valuable information about the heart's function and can help identify any abnormalities or potential issues.

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  • 39. 

    The client has exactly 8.0 R-R intervals in 150 small blocks on the ECG paper. Based on this information, the nurse calculates the client's ventricular heart rate to be which of the following

    • 40 beats/min

    • 80 beats/min

    • 160 beats/min

    • Cannot be calculated from the information provided

    Correct Answer
    A. 80 beats/min
    Explanation
    The nurse calculates the client's ventricular heart rate to be 80 beats/min based on the information provided. This is because there are exactly 8.0 R-R intervals in 150 small blocks on the ECG paper. Each small block represents 0.04 seconds, so 150 small blocks would represent 6 seconds (150 x 0.04 = 6). Since there are 8 R-R intervals in this 6-second period, the nurse can calculate the heart rate by dividing 8 by 6 and then multiplying by 60 to convert it to beats per minute. This calculation results in a heart rate of 80 beats/min.

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  • 40. 

    The client is experiencing sinus bradycardia withhyopotension and dizziness. Which will the nurse administer?

    • Atropine (Atropine)

    • Digoxin (Lanoxin

    • Lidocaine (Xylocaine)

    • Metroprolol (Lopressor)

    Correct Answer
    A. Atropine (Atropine)
    Explanation
    The client is experiencing sinus bradycardia with hypotension and dizziness. Atropine is the appropriate medication to administer in this situation. Atropine is a medication that increases heart rate and improves cardiac output. It is commonly used to treat bradycardia and can help to alleviate symptoms such as dizziness and hypotension. Digoxin is used to treat heart failure and atrial fibrillation, but it is not the best choice for sinus bradycardia. Lidocaine is used for ventricular arrhythmias, and metoprolol is a beta-blocker used for hypertension and angina, but neither of these medications would be effective in treating sinus bradycardia.

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  • 41. 

    A clients ECG tracing shows a run of sustained ventricular tachycardia. What is the first action that the nurse will take.

    • Assess the client's airway, breathing and level of consciousness

    • Administer verapamil IV push

    • Defibrillate the client

    • Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)

    Correct Answer
    A. Assess the client's airway, breathing and level of consciousness
    Explanation
    The first action that the nurse will take when a client's ECG tracing shows a run of sustained ventricular tachycardia is to assess the client's airway, breathing, and level of consciousness. This is because ventricular tachycardia can lead to decreased cardiac output and compromised perfusion to vital organs, which can result in respiratory distress or loss of consciousness. Assessing these parameters will help the nurse determine the immediate need for intervention and prioritize further actions accordingly.

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  • 42. 

    A client with systolic dysfunciton has an ejection fraction of 38%. the nurse expects to observe which physiologiv change

    • An increase in stroke volume

    • A decrease in tissue perfusion

    • An increase in oxygen saturation

    • A decrease in arterial vasoconstriction

    Correct Answer
    A. A decrease in tissue perfusion
    Explanation
    A client with systolic dysfunction has a decreased ejection fraction, indicating that the heart is not effectively pumping blood out to the body. This can lead to a decrease in tissue perfusion, as the tissues may not be receiving an adequate supply of oxygen and nutrients. Therefore, the nurse would expect to observe a decrease in tissue perfusion in this client.

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  • 43. 

    A client has jsut  undergone a balloon  valvuloplasty, For whch complication of this procedure should the nurse monitor this client

    • Bleeding

    • Acute tubulor necrosis

    • Short term memory loss

    • Pulmonary hypertension

    Correct Answer
    A. Bleeding
    Explanation
    After undergoing a balloon valvuloplasty, the client is at risk for bleeding as a complication. This procedure involves the insertion of a balloon catheter to widen a narrowed heart valve. During the procedure, there is a possibility of damage to blood vessels, leading to bleeding. The nurse should closely monitor the client for any signs of bleeding, such as excessive bleeding from the insertion site, bruising, or decreased blood pressure. Prompt identification and management of bleeding can help prevent further complications and ensure the client's safety.

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  • 44. 

    Which assessment finding does the nurse expect in a client with pericarditis

    • An irregular heart rate that speeds up ans slows down

    • A friction rub at the left lower sternal border

    • The presence ofa gallop rhythm

    • substernal lift at the apex

    Correct Answer
    A. A friction rub at the left lower sternal border
    Explanation
    In a client with pericarditis, the nurse would expect to find a friction rub at the left lower sternal border. Pericarditis is inflammation of the pericardium, the sac-like covering around the heart. This inflammation can cause a rubbing sound or sensation, known as a friction rub, which is typically heard best at the left lower sternal border. It is caused by the inflamed pericardial layers rubbing against each other. The other options, such as an irregular heart rate, a gallop rhythm, or a substernal lift at the apex, are not specifically associated with pericarditis.

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  • 45. 

    Prior to a resting electrocardiography, which direction is the most improtant for the nurse to give the client?

    • You cannot eat or drink before the procedure

    • You must lie as still as possible during the procedure

    • You are likely to feel warmth as the dye enters the heart

    • Increase your fluid intake to at least 3 L on the day of the test

    Correct Answer
    A. You must lie as still as possible during the procedure
    Explanation
    The most important direction for the nurse to give the client prior to a resting electrocardiography is to lie as still as possible during the procedure. This is because any movement during the procedure can interfere with the accuracy of the results.

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  • 46. 

    Which statement made by a client would alert the nurse to possibility of right sided heart failure

    • I sleep with four pillows at night

    • My shoes fit really tight

    • I wake up coughing every night

    • I have trouble catching my breath

    Correct Answer
    A. My shoes fit really tight
    Explanation
    The statement "My shoes fit really tight" would alert the nurse to the possibility of right-sided heart failure. This is because right-sided heart failure can lead to fluid retention in the body, causing swelling in the feet and ankles. This swelling can make it difficult for the client to fit into their shoes comfortably, resulting in a tight fit. Therefore, this statement indicates a potential symptom of right-sided heart failure.

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  • 47. 

    A client with heart failure is going through rehabilitation to increase his or her activitgy tolerance. The nurse will stop the cilent's activity if which symptom is assessed

    • Oxygen of 95%

    • Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min

    • Systolic blood pressure change for 136 to 96 mm hg

    • Heart rate increase form 86 to 100 beats/min

    Correct Answer
    A. Systolic blood pressure change for 136 to 96 mm hg
    Explanation
    If the client's systolic blood pressure changes from 136 to 96 mm Hg, it indicates a significant drop in blood pressure. This could be a sign of worsening heart failure and decreased cardiac output. In this case, the nurse should stop the client's activity to prevent further strain on the heart and potential complications.

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  • 48. 

    Which breakfast food recommendations are most appropriate for a client who has been placed on a low cholesterol diet

    • Eggs skim milk whole wheat toast, decaffeinated coffee

    • Skim milk, cereal, banana, decaffeinated coffee

    • Toast, margarine, one slice of bacon, coffee

    • Blueberry muffin, orange juice, coffee

    Correct Answer
    A. Skim milk, cereal, banana, decaffeinated coffee
    Explanation
    This answer is the most appropriate for a client on a low cholesterol diet because it includes low-fat options such as skim milk and decaffeinated coffee. Cereal and banana are also good choices as they are low in cholesterol and provide essential nutrients.

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  • 49. 

    The nurse is taking the history of a client with suspected CAD who has had episodes of chest discomfort whil mowing the lawn. Because the chest discomfort subsides when the client rests, the nurse correlates this with which condition

    • Variant angina

    • Stable angina

    • Myocardial infarction

    • Aortic aneurysm

    Correct Answer
    A. Stable angina
    Explanation
    The nurse correlates the client's chest discomfort subsiding when resting with stable angina. Stable angina is characterized by chest pain or discomfort that occurs during physical activity or emotional stress and is relieved with rest or nitroglycerin. This matches the client's symptoms of chest discomfort while mowing the lawn, which is a physical activity, and the pain subsiding when resting. Variant angina is characterized by chest pain at rest, myocardial infarction is a heart attack with prolonged chest pain, and aortic aneurysm is the dilation of the aorta and not directly related to chest discomfort.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 21, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Mflanagan2009

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