A Quiz Questions Over Hospital Client

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1. A client asks the nurse why it is important to be wieghed every day if he or she has right sided heart failure. How will the nurse respond.

Explanation

The nurse will respond that weight is the best indication of gaining or losing fluid. This is because in right-sided heart failure, fluid can accumulate in the body, leading to weight gain. By monitoring weight daily, the nurse can assess if there is an increase in fluid retention, which may require adjustments in the treatment plan. Weight fluctuations can also indicate if the client is responding well to diuretic therapy and if dietary modifications are effective in managing fluid balance.

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About This Quiz
A Quiz Questions Over Hospital Client - Quiz

This quiz focuses on assessing heart conditions in hospital clients, examining scenarios like myocardial infarction and mitral valve issues. It tests understanding of cardiac output, blood pressure monitoring, and electrophysiological studies, essential for healthcare professionals.

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2. The nurse assess for which modifiable risk factor in the client with coronary artery disease

Explanation

Smoking is a modifiable risk factor for coronary artery disease. It is a behavior that can be changed, unlike age, gender, and family history, which are non-modifiable risk factors. Smoking increases the risk of developing coronary artery disease by damaging blood vessels, promoting the formation of plaque, and reducing oxygen supply to the heart. Therefore, assessing for smoking habits is important in order to provide appropriate interventions and support to help the client quit smoking and reduce their risk of further complications.

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3. The client presents with a heart rate of 40 beatsmin. The nurse expects that an electrophysiological study may determine an alteration in which structure?

Explanation

The client's heart rate of 40 beats/min is lower than the normal range (60-100 beats/min) and suggests a potential alteration in the heart's electrical system. The electrophysiological study is used to evaluate the electrical activity of the heart and identify any abnormalities. The SA node is responsible for initiating the electrical impulses that regulate the heart rate. Therefore, the nurse expects that the electrophysiological study may determine an alteration in the SA node.

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4. Which statement made by a client would alert the nurse tot he presence of e dema

Explanation

The statement "My shoes fit tighter by the end of the day?" would alert the nurse to the presence of edema. Edema refers to the accumulation of excess fluid in the body, which can cause swelling and tightness in the feet and ankles. If the client notices that their shoes are becoming tighter as the day progresses, it may indicate fluid retention and potential edema. This symptom should be further assessed by the nurse to determine the underlying cause and provide appropriate interventions.

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5. Which client statement alerts the nurse to the occurance of heart failure?

Explanation

The client statement "I get short of breath when I climb stairs" alerts the nurse to the occurrence of heart failure because shortness of breath, especially during physical exertion, is a common symptom of heart failure. This symptom occurs due to the heart's inability to pump enough blood to meet the body's demand, leading to fluid accumulation in the lungs and difficulty in breathing. Therefore, this statement indicates a possible manifestation of heart failure and should be a cause for concern.

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6. A client consistently reports feeling dizzy and lightheaded when moving from supine position to a sitting position. Which assessment takes priority at this time

Explanation

The client's consistent report of feeling dizzy and lightheaded when changing positions suggests orthostatic hypotension, a drop in blood pressure when moving from lying down to sitting or standing. Assessing the client's blood pressure takes priority in this situation as it will help determine if there is a significant decrease in blood pressure when changing positions, which may require further evaluation and intervention. Pulse oximetry, respiratory rate, and neurological evaluation may also be important assessments, but they are not the priority in this case.

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7. Which client statement alerts the nurse to a possible heart failure

Explanation

The client statement "I have to stop halfway up the stairs to catch my breath" alerts the nurse to a possible heart failure because it indicates exertional dyspnea, which is a common symptom of heart failure. In heart failure, the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's demands, leading to fluid accumulation in the lungs and difficulty breathing during physical activity. This symptom is often experienced when the heart is unable to adequately supply oxygenated blood to the muscles during exertion.

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8. The nurse assesses for modifiable risk factors in the client with coronary artery diseasae. which intervention is the priority to assist the client in decreasing the risk for coronary artery disease

Explanation

Smoking is the priority intervention to assist the client in decreasing the risk for coronary artery disease. Smoking is a modifiable risk factor that directly affects the health of the cardiovascular system. It contributes to the development and progression of coronary artery disease by causing damage to the blood vessels, increasing the risk of blood clots, and reducing the amount of oxygen in the blood. By quitting smoking, the client can significantly decrease their risk for coronary artery disease and improve their overall cardiovascular health.

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9. The nurse assesses the client's cardiac  status. Which finding required immediate intervention

Explanation

A swishing sound heard on either side of the neck could indicate the presence of a carotid bruit, which is an abnormal sound caused by turbulent blood flow in the carotid arteries. This finding requires immediate intervention because it may indicate a blockage or narrowing in the carotid arteries, which can increase the risk of stroke or other cardiovascular events. The nurse should further assess the client's condition and notify the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention.

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10. For which of the following clients is magnetic resonance imaging of the heart contraindicated?

Explanation

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) uses strong magnetic fields and radio waves to create detailed images of the organs and tissues in the body. However, it is contraindicated for clients with implanted pacemakers. Pacemakers contain metal components that can be affected by the strong magnetic fields of an MRI, potentially causing malfunction or damage to the device. Therefore, it is not safe for an older man with an implanted pacemaker to undergo MRI.

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11. Whihc nurssing diagnosis would be considered a priority for the client with heart failure?

Explanation

Impaired gas exchange would be considered a priority nursing diagnosis for a client with heart failure because it is directly related to the client's ability to breathe and oxygenate their body. Heart failure can lead to fluid accumulation in the lungs, causing difficulty in exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide. This can result in shortness of breath, decreased oxygen levels, and potential respiratory distress. Therefore, addressing impaired gas exchange is crucial to ensure the client's respiratory function and overall well-being.

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12. A client has had a recent myocardial infarction involving the left ventricle. WHich assessment finding is expected?

Explanation

After a myocardial infarction involving the left ventricle, the heart's ability to pump blood effectively is compromised. This leads to a decreased cardiac output, as the damaged ventricle is unable to efficiently pump blood out to the rest of the body. This can result in symptoms such as fatigue, shortness of breath, and decreased blood pressure. Therefore, a decreased cardiac output is an expected assessment finding in this scenario.

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13. A client has been admitted to the acute care unity for an exacerbation of heart failure. which is the nurse's priority intervention?

Explanation

In a client with an exacerbation of heart failure, assessing respiratory status is the nurse's priority intervention. Heart failure can lead to fluid accumulation in the lungs, causing respiratory distress. By assessing respiratory status, the nurse can monitor for signs of respiratory distress such as shortness of breath, increased respiratory rate, and decreased oxygen saturation. Prompt intervention can then be initiated to optimize oxygenation and prevent further complications. Monitoring serum electrolyte levels, administering intravenous fluids, and inserting a Foley catheter may be important interventions, but they are not the priority in this situation.

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14. The cleint aske the nurse to explain about his heart murmur. WHich is the nurse's best response?

Explanation

The nurse's best response would be "It is the rushing sound that blood makes moving through narrow places." This explanation accurately describes a heart murmur as the sound of blood flowing through narrow areas in the heart. Heart murmurs are often caused by turbulent blood flow due to narrowed or leaky heart valves, which can create a rushing or whooshing sound.

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15. Which assessment finding does the nurse expect in a client diagnosed with aortic stenosis

Explanation

Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, which obstructs blood flow from the left ventricle to the aorta. This obstruction leads to a decrease in the pressure difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure, resulting in a narrowed pulse pressure. Therefore, the nurse would expect to find a narrowed pulse pressure in a client diagnosed with aortic stenosis.

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16. The client is experiencing occasional premature atrial contraction (PAC's) accompanied by palpations. These episodes resolve spontaneously without treatment. What instruction will be included in a teaching plan for this client

Explanation

Caffeine is a known trigger for premature atrial contractions (PAC's) and palpitations. By limiting or abstaining from caffeine, the client can reduce the frequency or severity of these episodes. This instruction would be included in the teaching plan to help manage and prevent future occurrences of PAC's and palpitations.

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17. A client brought to the emergency room following a myocardial infarction is f ound to be hypotension. Which compensatory change is expected as a result of baroreceptor stimulation?

Explanation

Following a myocardial infarction, the body's baroreceptors are stimulated due to hypotension. Baroreceptors are pressure-sensitive receptors located in the walls of blood vessels and the heart. When stimulated, they send signals to the brain to increase sympathetic activity and decrease parasympathetic activity. This leads to an increase in heart rate as a compensatory response to maintain blood pressure and perfusion to vital organs. Therefore, an increased heart rate is expected as a result of baroreceptor stimulation in this scenario.

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18. Which illness in a client's history would alert the nurse to the possibility of an abnormality of the heart valves?

Explanation

Rheumatic fever is the correct answer because it is known to cause damage to the heart valves. This condition occurs as a result of an untreated or inadequately treated streptococcal infection. The streptococcal bacteria can trigger an immune response in the body, leading to inflammation and damage to the heart valves. Therefore, a history of rheumatic fever would alert the nurse to the possibility of abnormality in the heart valves.

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19. A client has returned from an angiography via the left  femoral artery. two hours after the procedure. The nurse notes the left pedal pulse is weak. Which is the nurse's first action?

Explanation

The nurse's first action should be to assess the color and temperature of the left leg. This is because a weak pedal pulse could indicate a decrease in blood flow to the leg, which could be a sign of a complication from the angiography procedure. Assessing the color and temperature of the leg will help the nurse determine if there is any abnormality or potential issue that needs to be addressed.

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20. A nurse is caring for a client with a chronic atrial fibrillation who is at risk for systemic emboli. Which drug should the nurse expect to administer to prevent this complication

Explanation

Heparin is the correct answer for preventing systemic emboli in a client with chronic atrial fibrillation. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that helps to prevent blood clots from forming. Atrial fibrillation increases the risk of blood clots, which can lead to systemic emboli, such as a stroke or pulmonary embolism. By administering heparin, the nurse can help to prevent these complications by keeping the blood from clotting excessively. Sotalol is a medication used to treat atrial fibrillation, but it does not specifically prevent systemic emboli. Atropine and lidocaine are not used for this purpose and are not indicated in the prevention of systemic emboli.

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21. Which client does the nurse determine is at high risk for cardiovascular disease?

Explanation

The nurse determines that the middle-aged African man with diabetes mellitus is at high risk for cardiovascular disease. This is because diabetes is a known risk factor for cardiovascular disease, and middle age is also a risk factor. Additionally, African Americans have a higher prevalence of cardiovascular disease compared to other ethnic groups. Therefore, the combination of diabetes, middle age, and African American ethnicity puts this client at a higher risk for developing cardiovascular disease.

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22. Which cleint assessment takes priority prior to a cardiac catheterization?

Explanation

The assessment for allergies to iodine and shellfish takes priority prior to a cardiac catheterization because iodine-based contrast dye is commonly used during the procedure. Allergic reactions to iodine and shellfish can be severe and potentially life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial to identify any allergies beforehand to prevent adverse reactions during the catheterization. This assessment ensures the safety and well-being of the patient during the procedure.

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23. The client with heart failure experiencing respiratory difficult, Which is the nurse's priority action?

Explanation

The nurse's priority action in this situation is to place the client in a high Fowler's position. This position helps to improve the client's breathing by allowing the lungs to expand fully and reducing the workload on the heart. It also helps to alleviate respiratory distress and promote oxygenation. Suctioning the client may be necessary, but it is not the priority action in this case. Auscultating the client's heart and lungs is important for assessment, but it is not the immediate priority. Placing the client on fluid restriction may be a part of the overall management plan, but it is not the priority action in this situation.

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24. A nurse is caring for a client who has undergone surgical repair of an AAA. the client has seveloped coolenss of the extremities and complains of a bloated feeling in the abdomen. What is the nurse's best action

Explanation

The nurse's best action is to measure the abdominal girth and check pulses. The client's symptoms of coolness of the extremities and a bloated feeling in the abdomen may indicate a potential complication such as compartment syndrome or thrombosis. Measuring the abdominal girth can help assess for abdominal distention or fluid accumulation, while checking pulses can help determine if there is any compromise in blood flow to the extremities. These assessments can provide important information for the nurse to further evaluate the client's condition and intervene appropriately.

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25. What laboratory value is indicative of a myocardial infarctin

Explanation

Troponin T is a laboratory value that is indicative of a myocardial infarction. Troponin T is a protein found in cardiac muscle cells, and its presence in the blood indicates damage to the heart muscle. A level of 0.8 mg/ml suggests that there has been some damage to the heart, possibly indicating a myocardial infarction. Other laboratory values such as myoglobin, CK creatine kinase, and HDL do not specifically indicate a myocardial infarction.

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26. A client admitted to the coronary care  unit with a myocardial infarction begins to develope increased pulmonary congestion, an increased in heart rate  80 to 102 beats/min, and cold, clammy skin. Which is the nurse's best action prior to nitifying the physician?

Explanation

Administering oxygen is the nurse's best action prior to notifying the physician because the client is showing signs of increased pulmonary congestion, which indicates decreased oxygenation. Administering oxygen will help improve oxygenation and relieve symptoms such as increased heart rate and cold, clammy skin. This intervention can be done immediately by the nurse and does not require a physician's order. It is important to address the client's oxygenation needs promptly to prevent further complications.

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27. Which cleint will benefit from receiving treatment for hypertension with an angiotension ACE inhibitor and a calcium channel blocker?

Explanation

African Americans have a higher prevalence of hypertension compared to other ethnic groups. Studies have shown that African Americans respond better to combination therapy with an ACE inhibitor and a calcium channel blocker, resulting in better blood pressure control. Therefore, an African American man would benefit from receiving treatment for hypertension with this combination of medications.

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28. For which complication will the nurse monitor in the immediate post-procedure period in the client with peripheral arterial disease who has just undergone laser assisted angioplasty?

Explanation

The nurse will monitor for bleeding in the immediate post-procedure period in a client with peripheral arterial disease who has just undergone laser assisted angioplasty. This is because angioplasty involves the insertion of a catheter into the artery, which can cause damage and lead to bleeding. Monitoring for bleeding is important to detect any signs of hemorrhage and ensure prompt intervention to prevent complications.

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29. A nurse is instructing a client with heart failure on energy conservation. WHich is the best instruction

Explanation

Gathering everything needed for a chore before beginning is the best instruction for energy conservation in a client with heart failure. This instruction promotes efficiency and minimizes the need for repeated trips or excessive movement, thus conserving energy. It helps the client avoid unnecessary exertion and reduces the risk of fatigue and shortness of breath.

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30. A client is classified (staged) at level A heart fialure, What will the nurse teach the cleint?

Explanation

The nurse will teach the client to maintain a no added salt diet because in level A heart failure, dietary modifications are important to manage the condition. A no added salt diet helps to reduce fluid retention and lower blood pressure, which are key goals in managing heart failure. By limiting salt intake, the client can prevent fluid overload and minimize symptoms such as shortness of breath. Taking digoxin daily, limiting activity when short of breath, and controlling blood pressure are also important aspects of managing heart failure, but the specific instruction related to the question is about maintaining a no added salt diet.

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31. The cleint's blood pressure is 134/88 mm Hg. Which is the nurses best i ntervention?

Explanation

The client's blood pressure reading of 134/88 mm Hg falls within the prehypertension range, which is not considered severe hypertension. Therefore, calling the healthcare provider for this reading would not be the best intervention. Reassessing the blood pressure in 1 month or at the next yearly physical would not be necessary since the reading does not indicate stage 2 hypertension. Teaching the client lifestyle modifications to decrease blood pressure is the best intervention as it focuses on empowering the client to make necessary changes to their lifestyle, such as diet and exercise, to help lower their blood pressure.

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32. Whihc precautions are appropriate when providieng care to a client with infective endocarditis

Explanation

Standard precautions are appropriate when providing care to a client with infective endocarditis. Standard precautions are a set of infection control practices that should be used for all clients in healthcare settings, regardless of their diagnosis. These precautions include hand hygiene, use of personal protective equipment (such as gloves and masks), safe injection practices, and proper handling and disposal of contaminated materials. Standard precautions help to prevent the transmission of infectious agents and protect both the healthcare provider and the client from infection.

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33. Which action will the nurse take to improve the quality of the electrocardiiographic rhythm transmission tot hemonitoring system?

Explanation

To improve the quality of the electrocardiographic rhythm transmission to the monitoring system, the nurse will remove the hair from the chest area before attaching the chest leads. This is because hair can interfere with the conduction of the electrical signals from the heart to the electrodes, resulting in poor signal quality and inaccurate readings. Removing the hair ensures better contact between the skin and the electrodes, allowing for more accurate transmission of the heart's electrical activity.

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34. The client with tachycardia is experiencing clinical manifestation. Which one alerts the nurse to the need for immediate intervention

Explanation

Chest pain is a significant clinical manifestation that alerts the nurse to the need for immediate intervention in a client with tachycardia. Chest pain could indicate a potential myocardial infarction or angina, which require urgent medical attention. It is crucial for the nurse to assess the severity and characteristics of the chest pain and promptly notify the healthcare provider to initiate appropriate interventions and prevent further complications.

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35. Which cleint is most at risk for cardiovascular disease?

Explanation

Abdominal obesity is a known risk factor for cardiovascular disease. Excess fat around the abdomen can lead to increased levels of cholesterol and triglycerides, high blood pressure, and insulin resistance. These factors contribute to the development of atherosclerosis and increase the risk of heart disease and stroke. Therefore, a woman with abdominal obesity is most at risk for cardiovascular disease compared to the other options provided.

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36. Which client is most at risk for peripherial vascular disease

Explanation

A middle aged man who smokes is most at risk for peripheral vascular disease. Smoking is a major risk factor for the development of this condition as it causes damage to the blood vessels, leading to reduced blood flow to the extremities. Additionally, the combination of middle age and smoking further increases the risk. Other factors such as sedentary lifestyle, obesity, and family history of coronary artery disease may also contribute to the development of peripheral vascular disease, but smoking is considered the most significant risk factor in this scenario.

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37. A client has jsut  undergone a balloon  valvuloplasty, For whch complication of this procedure should the nurse monitor this client

Explanation

After undergoing a balloon valvuloplasty, the client is at risk for bleeding as a complication. This procedure involves the insertion of a balloon catheter to widen a narrowed heart valve. During the procedure, there is a possibility of damage to blood vessels, leading to bleeding. The nurse should closely monitor the client for any signs of bleeding, such as excessive bleeding from the insertion site, bruising, or decreased blood pressure. Prompt identification and management of bleeding can help prevent further complications and ensure the client's safety.

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38. Which assessment finding does the nurse expect in a client with pericarditis

Explanation

In a client with pericarditis, the nurse would expect to find a friction rub at the left lower sternal border. Pericarditis is inflammation of the pericardium, the sac-like covering around the heart. This inflammation can cause a rubbing sound or sensation, known as a friction rub, which is typically heard best at the left lower sternal border. It is caused by the inflamed pericardial layers rubbing against each other. The other options, such as an irregular heart rate, a gallop rhythm, or a substernal lift at the apex, are not specifically associated with pericarditis.

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39. Which assessment fidnign after a left sided cardiac catheterization requires immediate intervention?

Explanation

Weak hand grasps and confusion after a left-sided cardiac catheterization indicate a potential neurological complication such as a stroke or embolism. These symptoms suggest a lack of blood flow to the brain and require immediate intervention to prevent further damage.

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40. A client who is scheduled for a echocardiography today asks why this test is being performed. How will the nurse respond?

Explanation

The nurse will respond by explaining that the echocardiography procedure is the best way to assess the structure of the client's heart noninvasively. This means that it allows the healthcare team to examine the heart's chambers, valves, and overall structure without the need for any invasive procedures or surgery. It provides valuable information about the heart's function and can help identify any abnormalities or potential issues.

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41. A client with systolic dysfunciton has an ejection fraction of 38%. the nurse expects to observe which physiologiv change

Explanation

A client with systolic dysfunction has a decreased ejection fraction, indicating that the heart is not effectively pumping blood out to the body. This can lead to a decrease in tissue perfusion, as the tissues may not be receiving an adequate supply of oxygen and nutrients. Therefore, the nurse would expect to observe a decrease in tissue perfusion in this client.

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42. The client has exactly 8.0 R-R intervals in 150 small blocks on the ECG paper. Based on this information, the nurse calculates the client's ventricular heart rate to be which of the following

Explanation

The nurse calculates the client's ventricular heart rate to be 80 beats/min based on the information provided. This is because there are exactly 8.0 R-R intervals in 150 small blocks on the ECG paper. Each small block represents 0.04 seconds, so 150 small blocks would represent 6 seconds (150 x 0.04 = 6). Since there are 8 R-R intervals in this 6-second period, the nurse can calculate the heart rate by dividing 8 by 6 and then multiplying by 60 to convert it to beats per minute. This calculation results in a heart rate of 80 beats/min.

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43. A clients ECG tracing shows a run of sustained ventricular tachycardia. What is the first action that the nurse will take.

Explanation

The first action that the nurse will take when a client's ECG tracing shows a run of sustained ventricular tachycardia is to assess the client's airway, breathing, and level of consciousness. This is because ventricular tachycardia can lead to decreased cardiac output and compromised perfusion to vital organs, which can result in respiratory distress or loss of consciousness. Assessing these parameters will help the nurse determine the immediate need for intervention and prioritize further actions accordingly.

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44. The client is experiencing sinus bradycardia withhyopotension and dizziness. Which will the nurse administer?

Explanation

The client is experiencing sinus bradycardia with hypotension and dizziness. Atropine is the appropriate medication to administer in this situation. Atropine is a medication that increases heart rate and improves cardiac output. It is commonly used to treat bradycardia and can help to alleviate symptoms such as dizziness and hypotension. Digoxin is used to treat heart failure and atrial fibrillation, but it is not the best choice for sinus bradycardia. Lidocaine is used for ventricular arrhythmias, and metoprolol is a beta-blocker used for hypertension and angina, but neither of these medications would be effective in treating sinus bradycardia.

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45. Which breakfast food recommendations are most appropriate for a client who has been placed on a low cholesterol diet

Explanation

This answer is the most appropriate for a client on a low cholesterol diet because it includes low-fat options such as skim milk and decaffeinated coffee. Cereal and banana are also good choices as they are low in cholesterol and provide essential nutrients.

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46. The nurse prioritizes which assessment in the older cleint who has had CABG surgery?

Explanation

After a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery, it is crucial for the nurse to prioritize a mental status assessment in an older client. This is because older adults are at a higher risk of developing postoperative delirium or confusion. By assessing the client's mental status, the nurse can identify any cognitive changes, confusion, or disorientation that may indicate a complication or adverse reaction to the surgery or anesthesia. Prompt identification and intervention can help prevent further complications and ensure the client's safety and well-being.

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47. Prior to a resting electrocardiography, which direction is the most improtant for the nurse to give the client?

Explanation

The most important direction for the nurse to give the client prior to a resting electrocardiography is to lie as still as possible during the procedure. This is because any movement during the procedure can interfere with the accuracy of the results.

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48. Which statement made by a client would alert the nurse to possibility of right sided heart failure

Explanation

The statement "My shoes fit really tight" would alert the nurse to the possibility of right-sided heart failure. This is because right-sided heart failure can lead to fluid retention in the body, causing swelling in the feet and ankles. This swelling can make it difficult for the client to fit into their shoes comfortably, resulting in a tight fit. Therefore, this statement indicates a potential symptom of right-sided heart failure.

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49. The nurse is taking the history of a client with suspected CAD who has had episodes of chest discomfort whil mowing the lawn. Because the chest discomfort subsides when the client rests, the nurse correlates this with which condition

Explanation

The nurse correlates the client's chest discomfort subsiding when resting with stable angina. Stable angina is characterized by chest pain or discomfort that occurs during physical activity or emotional stress and is relieved with rest or nitroglycerin. This matches the client's symptoms of chest discomfort while mowing the lawn, which is a physical activity, and the pain subsiding when resting. Variant angina is characterized by chest pain at rest, myocardial infarction is a heart attack with prolonged chest pain, and aortic aneurysm is the dilation of the aorta and not directly related to chest discomfort.

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50. A client with heart failure is going through rehabilitation to increase his or her activitgy tolerance. The nurse will stop the cilent's activity if which symptom is assessed

Explanation

If the client's systolic blood pressure changes from 136 to 96 mm Hg, it indicates a significant drop in blood pressure. This could be a sign of worsening heart failure and decreased cardiac output. In this case, the nurse should stop the client's activity to prevent further strain on the heart and potential complications.

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51. The nurse deermines that the client has clubbing. Which is the best intervention?

Explanation

Assessing the client's pulse oxygen level is the best intervention because clubbing is often associated with decreased oxygenation. By assessing the client's pulse oxygen level, the nurse can determine if there is a decrease in oxygen saturation and take appropriate actions to improve oxygenation if necessary. Calling the healthcare provider, assessing capillary refill, and monitoring the client's heart rate may also be important interventions, but assessing the client's pulse oxygen level takes priority in this situation.

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52. A client is starting Lininopril (Prinivil) therapy. The nurse will monitor for the development of which potiental side effect

Explanation

Orthostatic hypotension is a potential side effect that the nurse should monitor for when a client starts Lininopril (Prinivil) therapy. Orthostatic hypotension refers to a sudden drop in blood pressure when the client changes position from lying down to standing up. This can lead to symptoms such as dizziness, lightheadedness, and even fainting. Monitoring for orthostatic hypotension is important to ensure the client's safety and to make any necessary adjustments to their medication or treatment plan.

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53. A client is admitted with early stage heart failure, which assessment finding does the nurse expect

Explanation

In early stage heart failure, the heart is not able to pump blood effectively, leading to decreased oxygen supply to the body. This triggers the body's compensatory mechanisms, causing an increase in heart rate and respiratory rate. The body tries to compensate by increasing the heart rate to pump more blood and by increasing the respiratory rate to improve oxygenation. This physiological response helps to maintain adequate oxygen supply to the tissues. Therefore, an increase in heart rate and respiratory rate is an expected assessment finding in a client with early stage heart failure.

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54. Which instructions would be most appropriate to include ina teching plan for a client ready to be discharge after the repair of an AAA

Explanation

The instruction to avoid lifting heavy objects for about 3 months is the most appropriate to include in a teaching plan for a client ready to be discharged after the repair of an AAA. This is because lifting heavy objects can put strain on the abdominal area and potentially disrupt the healing process. By avoiding heavy lifting, the client can ensure that their abdominal area has enough time to heal properly and reduce the risk of complications.

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55. A nurse is performing an admission assessment on an older adult client with multiple chronic diseases. The nurse finds the heart rate to be 48 beats/min. What will the nurse do first?

Explanation

The nurse should first assess the client's medication because certain medications can cause bradycardia, which is a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. By assessing the client's medication, the nurse can determine if any of the medications the client is taking are known to cause bradycardia. This will help the nurse identify a potential cause for the client's low heart rate and guide further assessment and intervention.

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56. A cleint is preparing to be discharged home following mitral valve replacement. Which stataemtn indicates that the client requires further education

Explanation

The statement "I will have my teeth cleaned by the dentist in 2 weeks" indicates that the client requires further education. After a mitral valve replacement, it is important for the client to take precautions to prevent infection, including avoiding dental procedures for a certain period of time. Therefore, the client should be educated that dental procedures should be postponed until further clearance from the healthcare provider.

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57. The nurse notes that the client's apical pulse is displaced to the left. What conclusion can be drawn from the assessment?

Explanation

The nurse can conclude that the client's apical pulse being displaced to the left indicates that the heart is hypertrophied. This means that the muscle of the heart has thickened, which can occur due to conditions such as high blood pressure or heart disease. The displacement of the apical pulse suggests that the left ventricle, which is responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the body, has enlarged. This finding is not considered normal and may require further evaluation and treatment.

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58. A client with a history of having several myocardial infarctions has excessive filling of the ventricles as a result. Which physiologic response will the nurse expect to see in this client?

Explanation

Excessive filling of the ventricles in a client with a history of several myocardial infarctions can lead to decreased cardiac output. This is because the ventricles are not able to effectively pump blood out to the rest of the body, resulting in a reduced amount of blood being circulated. This can lead to symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, and shortness of breath.

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59. The client is being given a drug that block the action of the sympathetic nervous system. Which assessment finding does the nurse expect

Explanation

When the action of the sympathetic nervous system is blocked, the parasympathetic nervous system becomes dominant. The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for slowing down the heart rate. Therefore, the nurse would expect a decreased heart rate as an assessment finding when the client is given a drug that blocks the action of the sympathetic nervous system.

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60. A client has been diagnosed as having New York Heart Association Class I functional status. What will the nurse teach the client?

Explanation

The correct answer is "you have no limitations on ordinary physical activity." This is because New York Heart Association Class I functional status indicates that the client has no limitations and can engage in normal physical activity without experiencing discomfort or symptoms.

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61. The client post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) has a serum potassium level of 4.5 mEq/L. what is the nurse's best action?

Explanation

The nurse's best action in this situation is to document the finding as the only action. A serum potassium level of 4.5 mEq/L is within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L), so there is no need to notify the physician or take any immediate action. However, it is important for the nurse to document the finding to ensure accurate and complete patient records. There is no indication to decrease the IV solution flow rate or administer potassium replacement as ordered, as the potassium level is already within the normal range.

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62. A client with end stage heart failure is awaiting a transplant. The client appears depressed and states I know a transplant is my last chance but I dont want to become a vegetable. What is the nurse's best response

Explanation

The nurse's best response of offering information about advance directives is appropriate in this situation. The client's statement suggests concerns about the potential outcome of the transplant and the possibility of being in a vegetative state. By providing information about advance directives, the nurse can address the client's fears and help them make decisions about their medical care in the event that they are unable to communicate their wishes in the future. This response shows empathy, understanding, and a proactive approach to addressing the client's concerns.

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63. The nurse recognizes which client is at greatest risk for developing intimal injury leading to artherosclerosis

Explanation

The correct answer is a client with diabetes who also smokes one pack of cigarettes daily. Both diabetes and smoking are known risk factors for developing intimal injury leading to atherosclerosis. Diabetes can cause damage to blood vessels and increase the risk of plaque buildup. Smoking also damages blood vessels and increases inflammation, making it easier for plaque to form. Therefore, the combination of diabetes and smoking puts this client at the greatest risk for developing intimal injury and atherosclerosis.

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64. On auscultation of the carotoid arteries of a client with arthersclerosis, the nurse hears a swishing sound over the rish carotid, which would be the nurse;s best action?

Explanation

The nurse should notify the healthcare provider because hearing a swishing sound over the carotid arteries in a client with atherosclerosis could indicate the presence of carotid artery stenosis or narrowing. This can lead to decreased blood flow to the brain and increase the risk of stroke. The healthcare provider needs to be informed so that further assessment and interventions can be initiated to prevent any complications.

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65. Which is a priority intervention for the client experiencing atrial fibrillation

Explanation

Assessing for shortness of breath is a priority intervention for a client experiencing atrial fibrillation because this condition can lead to decreased cardiac output and impaired oxygenation. Shortness of breath is a common symptom of atrial fibrillation and can indicate worsening cardiac function or the development of complications such as heart failure or pulmonary edema. Prompt assessment and management of shortness of breath can help prevent further deterioration and ensure appropriate interventions are implemented.

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66. For which clinical manifestations of myocardial infarction should the nurse monitor in the older adult

Explanation

In older adults, disorientation or confusion can be a clinical manifestation of myocardial infarction. This is because reduced blood flow to the brain can lead to cognitive impairment and confusion. It is important for the nurse to monitor for these symptoms in older adults as they may not present with typical chest pain or other common symptoms of a heart attack. Prompt recognition and treatment of myocardial infarction in older adults can help prevent further complications and improve outcomes.

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67. The client has a heart rate averaging 56 beats/min. The client has had no adverse symptoms associated with this bradycaredia and is not being treated for it. Which of the following activity modifications should the nurse suggest to avoid further slowing of the heart rate

Explanation

Straining or bearing down during a bowel movement can increase intra-abdominal pressure and stimulate the vagus nerve, which can further slow down the heart rate. Therefore, suggesting the client to avoid straining or bearing down while having a bowel movement would help prevent any further slowing of the heart rate.

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68. A nurse is caring for a client with newly diagnosed hypertension. Which dietary teaching will be included in the plan of care for this client

Explanation

The correct answer is to avoid the use of canned or processed foods. Canned or processed foods often contain high amounts of sodium, which can contribute to high blood pressure. By avoiding these types of foods, the client can reduce their sodium intake and better manage their newly diagnosed hypertension.

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69. What does the P wave on an ECG tracing represent

Explanation

The P wave on an ECG tracing represents the depolarization of the atria. Depolarization refers to the electrical activation of the heart muscle cells, causing them to contract. In this case, the P wave specifically represents the depolarization of the atria, which is the first step in the cardiac cycle. This electrical signal spreads through the atria, leading to their contraction and the subsequent filling of the ventricles. Therefore, the correct answer is "Depolarization of the atria."

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70. A client with a history of myocardial infarction calls the clinic report the  onset of a cough that is troublesome only at night. What direction will the nurse give to the client.

Explanation

The nurse will advise the client to come to the clinic after evaluation because a cough that is troublesome only at night could be a symptom of heart failure. Since the client has a history of myocardial infarction, it is important to assess the cause of the cough and determine if it is related to cardiac issues. This requires a thorough evaluation by a healthcare professional at the clinic.

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71. The client is  undergoing progressive ambulation on the third day after a myocardial infaction. which clinical manifestation would indicate to the nurse that the client should not yet be advanced to the next level

Explanation

The onset of chest pain would indicate that the client should not yet be advanced to the next level of ambulation. Chest pain can be a sign of myocardial ischemia or angina, which suggests that the client's heart is not receiving enough oxygen during exercise. Advancing to the next level of ambulation could potentially worsen the ischemia and lead to a more serious cardiac event. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to closely monitor the client's chest pain and consult with the healthcare provider before advancing their level of activity.

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72. In reviewing the menu selections of a client who is ordered a low cholesterol diet, the nurse questions which selection

Explanation

Eggs are typically high in cholesterol, so the nurse questions this selection for a client on a low cholesterol diet. The other options, such as oatmeal, banana, and wheat toast, are generally considered to be low in cholesterol and suitable for a low cholesterol diet.

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73. A client withthird degree heart block is admitted to the telemetry unit. The nurse observes wide QRS complexes, with a heart rate of 35 beats/min on the monitor. What physical assessment parameter would be importantto incorporate for this client

Explanation

Confusion or syncope would be an important physical assessment parameter to incorporate for a client with third-degree heart block and a heart rate of 35 beats/min. Third-degree heart block is a condition where there is a complete blockage of electrical signals between the atria and ventricles, resulting in a slow heart rate. With such a low heart rate, the brain may not receive an adequate blood supply, leading to symptoms such as confusion or syncope (fainting). Therefore, monitoring for these symptoms is crucial in assessing the client's condition and providing appropriate interventions.

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74. PriorA nurse is monotoring a client undergoing exercise electrocardiography (stress test) which assessment finding necessitiates that the test be stopped?

Explanation

The correct answer is the client's electrocardiogram indicates significant ST segment depression. ST segment depression on an electrocardiogram can indicate myocardial ischemia, which means that the heart muscle is not receiving enough oxygen. This is a serious finding that necessitates stopping the stress test to prevent further harm to the client.

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75. A client's cardiac catheterization has shown an 80% blockage of the right coronary artery (RCA). While waiting for bypass surgery. What is essential to have on hand?

Explanation

An external pacemaker is essential to have on hand because a blockage of the right coronary artery can lead to a decrease in blood flow to the heart, which can cause arrhythmias or heart rhythm disturbances. An external pacemaker can be used to regulate the heart's rhythm and prevent any life-threatening arrhythmias until the bypass surgery can be performed. Furosemide (Lasix) is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention and is not directly related to the blockage of the right coronary artery. Lidocaine is a local anesthetic and is not necessary in this situation. A central venous catheter may be used for various purposes, but it is not specifically essential for this scenario.

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76. The client who has a prosthetic valve replacemtn asks the nurse why he must take anticoagulants for the rest of his life. How will the nurse respond?

Explanation

Blood clots form more easily on artificial replacement valves. Prosthetic valves are foreign objects in the body, and the body's natural response is to form blood clots around them. These blood clots can cause blockages and lead to serious complications such as heart attacks or strokes. Taking anticoagulants helps to prevent the formation of these blood clots and reduces the risk of these complications.

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77. A client is taking triamterene-hydrochlorothiazide (Dyazide) and furosemide (lasix) which assessment finding alers the nurse to a serious side effect

Explanation

The nurse should be alerted to hypokalemia as a serious side effect because both triamterene-hydrochlorothiazide and furosemide are diuretic medications that can cause potassium loss. Hypokalemia, or low potassium levels, can lead to various complications such as muscle weakness, cardiac arrhythmias, and even life-threatening conditions like cardiac arrest. Therefore, monitoring potassium levels and addressing hypokalemia promptly is crucial to prevent serious complications in the client.

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78. A client with a stenotic mitral valve has presented to the clienic for further evaluation. WHich intervention is the highest priority?

Explanation

Assessment of blood pressure is the highest priority intervention for a client with a stenotic mitral valve. Stenotic mitral valve can lead to increased pressure in the left atrium, which can result in pulmonary congestion and increased systemic vascular resistance. Assessing the blood pressure helps in determining the severity of the condition and guiding the appropriate management. It also helps in identifying any complications such as hypertensive crisis or hypotension, which may require immediate intervention. Monitoring the blood pressure is crucial in managing the hemodynamic stability of the client and preventing further complications.

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79. The physician is about to perform carotid sinus massage on a client withsupraventricular tachycardia. What equiptment or supplies will the nurse have ready for possible compplications.

Explanation

The nurse should have a resuscitation cart ready for possible complications during carotid sinus massage on a client with supraventricular tachycardia. This procedure can potentially cause a sudden drop in heart rate or blood pressure, leading to a loss of consciousness or cardiac arrest. The resuscitation cart contains essential equipment and supplies such as oxygen, cardiac monitors, defibrillator, medications, and airway management devices that can be used to manage and stabilize the client in case of an emergency.

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80. The client with heart failure is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec) what is the nurse's focus for teaching

Explanation

The nurse's focus for teaching the client with heart failure to avoid salt substitutes is because they often contain high levels of potassium, which can be harmful for individuals with heart failure. High levels of potassium can lead to an irregular heartbeat and potentially worsen heart failure symptoms. Therefore, it is important for the client to avoid salt substitutes in order to maintain a stable potassium level and prevent complications.

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81. Which client statement indicates a need for further teaching about hypertension therapy

Explanation

The client statement "when my blood pressure becomes normal, I will no longer need to take medication" indicates a need for further teaching about hypertension therapy. This statement suggests a misunderstanding that medication is only necessary when blood pressure is high. It is important to educate the client that hypertension is a chronic condition that requires ongoing management, even when blood pressure levels are within the normal range. Medication may still be necessary to maintain healthy blood pressure levels and reduce the risk of complications.

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82. Which client statment indicates a need for additional teaching about pentoxifylline therapy for peripherial arterial disease

Explanation

The client's statement that they stopped taking the medication after 2 weeks because their pain did not get relief indicates a need for additional teaching about pentoxifylline therapy for peripheral arterial disease. This suggests that the client may not have understood the expected timeframe for pain relief or the importance of continued medication use. They may benefit from further education on the medication's mechanism of action, expected outcomes, and the need for adherence to the prescribed treatment plan.

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83. How will the nurse position the client in severe heart failure

Explanation

The nurse will position the client in severe heart failure in High Fowler's position with pillows under the arms. This position allows for maximum lung expansion and promotes easier breathing. Placing pillows under the arms helps to support the upper body and prevent slumping, which can further compromise respiratory function. Elevating the legs may not be necessary in this case as it is more commonly done to improve venous return in clients with hypotension or peripheral edema. Placing the client on their left side in Semi Fowler's position may also be beneficial for some clients with heart failure, but the question specifically asks for the position with pillows under the arms.

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84. What will the nurse do to ensure the validity of comparison of electrocardiograms (ECGs) taken at different times?

Explanation

To ensure the validity of comparison of electrocardiograms (ECGs) taken at different times, the nurse needs to ensure that the electrode placement is identical for each ECG. This is important because any variation in electrode placement can lead to differences in the recorded electrical activity of the heart, making it difficult to compare the ECGs accurately. By maintaining consistent electrode placement, the nurse can ensure that any changes in the ECGs over time are due to actual changes in the client's cardiac function rather than differences in electrode positioning.

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85. A nurse notes that the PE interval on a client's ECG tracing is 0.14 second. What action will the nurse take?

Explanation

The nurse will document the finding as the only action because a PE interval of 0.14 second is within the normal range (0.12-0.20 second) and does not indicate any abnormalities or need for intervention.

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86. Which alteration, when manifested in a client with atrial fibrillation, should alert the nurse tot he possibility of an embolic stoke

Explanation

Speech alterations in a client with atrial fibrillation should alert the nurse to the possibility of an embolic stroke. Atrial fibrillation can cause the formation of blood clots in the heart, which can then travel to the brain and cause a stroke. Speech alterations, such as slurred speech or difficulty finding words, can be indicative of a stroke affecting the language centers of the brain. Therefore, if a client with atrial fibrillation experiences speech alterations, it is important for the nurse to assess for other signs of stroke and seek immediate medical attention.

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87. The client with a history of stable angina describes a recent increase in the number of attacks and the intensity of the pain. The nurse correlates this with which condition

Explanation

The client's recent increase in the number and intensity of angina attacks suggests unstable angina. Unlike stable angina, which occurs predictably with exertion or stress and resolves with rest or medication, unstable angina is characterized by a change in the pattern of angina. It may occur at rest or with minimal exertion and is often more severe and prolonged. Unstable angina is a serious condition that requires immediate medical attention as it may progress to a heart attack or acute myocardial infarction. Subendocardial necrosis refers to damage to the inner layer of the heart muscle and is not directly related to the client's symptoms.

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88. A nurse is caring for a cleint admitted with tachycardia, a perciardial friction rub, and the development of a murmur. which finding in the client's history leads the  nurse to suspect rheumatic carditis

Explanation

The presence of a sore throat for one week in the client's history leads the nurse to suspect rheumatic carditis. Rheumatic carditis is often preceded by a streptococcal infection, particularly strep throat. This infection can lead to the development of rheumatic fever, which can cause inflammation and damage to the heart, leading to symptoms such as tachycardia, pericardial friction rub, and the development of a murmur. Therefore, the client's history of a sore throat is indicative of a possible link to rheumatic carditis.

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89. Which assessment finding alerts  the nurse to the possibility of pulmonary edema in an older adult

Explanation

Confusion in an older adult can be an indication of pulmonary edema. Pulmonary edema occurs when fluid accumulates in the lungs, leading to impaired oxygenation. This can cause a decrease in oxygen supply to the brain, resulting in confusion. Other symptoms of pulmonary edema may include shortness of breath, coughing, and wheezing. However, in older adults, confusion may be the only noticeable sign of this condition. Therefore, if an older adult presents with confusion, it is important for the nurse to consider the possibility of pulmonary edema and take appropriate actions to ensure their respiratory status is stable.

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90. Which instructions will the nurse include in the teaching plan for a cient with a permenant pacemaker

Explanation

The nurse will include the instruction to report pulse rates lower than the pacemaker setting because this could indicate a malfunction or problem with the pacemaker. It is important for the client to be aware of any abnormal changes in their pulse rate and to report them to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and adjustment of the pacemaker if necessary. This instruction ensures the client's safety and helps to maintain the proper functioning of the pacemaker.

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91. The nurse hears a splitting an atrila gallop (S4) in an older adult client. Which is the best intervention?

Explanation

The best intervention in this scenario is to document the finding. Splitting of an atrial gallop (S4) is an abnormal heart sound that may indicate underlying cardiac conditions. By documenting this finding, the nurse ensures that it is properly recorded in the client's medical record, allowing other healthcare providers to be aware of the abnormality and potentially take further action if necessary. Administering a diuretic, decreasing the intravenous flow rate, or evaluating the client's medications may not be appropriate interventions based solely on the presence of a splitting S4 sound.

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92. A nurse obtains a pulmonary artery pressure reading of 25/12 in a client recovering from a myocardial infarction. Which  is th enurse's first intervention based on these findings?

Explanation

The nurse's first intervention should be to compare the result with previous readings. This is important to determine if the pulmonary artery pressure is within an acceptable range or if it has significantly increased. By comparing the current reading with previous ones, the nurse can identify any potential changes or trends that may require further intervention or medical attention. This allows for a more accurate assessment of the client's condition and helps guide the nurse's next steps in providing appropriate care.

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93. The nurse has administered adenosine (adenocard) what is the expected therapeutic response?

Explanation

Adenosine (Adenocard) is a medication commonly used to treat certain heart rhythm disorders. It works by slowing down the electrical conduction in the heart, which can help restore a normal heart rhythm. One of the expected therapeutic responses of adenosine is a short period of asystole, which refers to a temporary cessation of the heart's electrical activity. This brief pause allows the heart's natural pacemaker to regain control and restore a normal rhythm. Therefore, the administration of adenosine is expected to cause a short period of asystole as part of its therapeutic effect.

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94. The nurse assesses a client and notes the presence of an S3 gallop. Which is the nurse's priority intervention

Explanation

The nurse's priority intervention is to assess for symptoms of left sided heart failure. The presence of an S3 gallop can be an indication of heart failure, specifically left sided heart failure. Assessing for symptoms such as shortness of breath, crackles in the lungs, and fluid retention will help the nurse determine the severity of the client's condition and initiate appropriate interventions. This is important in order to prevent further deterioration of the client's health and provide timely and appropriate care.

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95. Which percaustion will the nurse teach to the client bein discharged after a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) who is prescribed a calcium channel blocking agent.

Explanation

After a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA), the client may be prescribed a calcium channel blocking agent to help manage their condition. Calcium channel blockers can cause a drop in blood pressure, which can lead to dizziness or fainting when changing positions quickly. Therefore, the nurse will teach the client to change their position slowly to avoid sudden drops in blood pressure and reduce the risk of falls or injuries.

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96. Which dysrhythemia may develope in a client with frequent premature ventricular contractions

Explanation

Ventricular tachycardia may develop in a client with frequent premature ventricular contractions. Premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) are abnormal heartbeats that originate in the ventricles instead of the normal electrical pathway. If PVCs occur frequently, they can disrupt the normal rhythm of the heart and lead to ventricular tachycardia. Ventricular tachycardia is a fast heart rhythm that originates in the ventricles and can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. Therefore, it is important to monitor and manage PVCs in order to prevent the development of ventricular tachycardia.

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97. Which assessment will  the nurse perform whenever a client has any type of dysrhthmia

Explanation

The nurse will perform the assessment of measuring apical and radial pulses for a full minute whenever a client has any type of dysrhythmia. This is because dysrhythmias can affect the heart's electrical conduction system, leading to irregular heartbeats. Measuring both the apical and radial pulses allows the nurse to assess the heart's rhythm and rate accurately. By measuring for a full minute, the nurse can detect any irregularities or abnormalities that may occur intermittently. This assessment helps in monitoring the client's cardiac status and determining the appropriate interventions or treatments needed.

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98. A client diagnosed with essential hypertension asks how this type of hypertension develops. which is the nurse's best response

Explanation

Essential hypertension is the most common type of hypertension and it does not have a known cause. It is typically a result of a combination of genetic and environmental factors, such as family history, age, obesity, stress, and lifestyle choices. Therefore, the nurse's response that there is no known cause for this type of hypertension is accurate.

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99. Which assessment finding supports a diagnosis of impaired tissue perfusion in teh client with heart failure

Explanation

Dyspnea on exertion is a common symptom of impaired tissue perfusion in clients with heart failure. Impaired tissue perfusion means that the tissues are not receiving an adequate supply of oxygenated blood, which can lead to difficulty breathing during physical activity. This symptom occurs because the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's demands, resulting in reduced oxygen delivery to the tissues. Therefore, dyspnea on exertion is a significant assessment finding that supports a diagnosis of impaired tissue perfusion in a client with heart failure.

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100. A nurse is preparing to measure a client's pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP). In what position will thenurse place the client for the most accurate results

Explanation

The nurse will place the client in a supine position with the head elevated to 45 degrees for the most accurate results when measuring the client's pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP). This position helps to prevent blood from pooling in the lungs and provides optimal venous return, which allows for more accurate measurement of the pressure in the pulmonary artery.

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101. A client who has has a myocardial infarction complies with the treatment regimen but avoids discussing the illness with health care providers and family members. What is the nurse's interpretation of this client's behavior.

Explanation

The nurse interprets that the client is in denial about their illness. This means that the client is refusing to acknowledge or accept the reality of their myocardial infarction. They comply with the treatment regimen, but avoid discussing the illness with healthcare providers and family members, indicating their unwillingness to confront the situation.

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102. The client's heart rate increases slightly during inspiration and decreases slightly  during expiration. what action will the nurse take

Explanation

The nurse will document the finding as the only action because a slight increase in heart rate during inspiration and decrease during expiration is a normal physiological response known as sinus arrhythmia. It is not necessary to notify the physician or administer any drugs in this situation. Assessing the client for chest pain is also not indicated as there is no indication of any discomfort or abnormality.

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103. What assessment finding will the nurse expect as the client's mean arterial blood pressure decreases below 60 mm Hg?

Explanation

As the client's mean arterial blood pressure decreases below 60 mm Hg, the nurse would expect the assessment finding of chest pain. Chest pain is a common symptom of inadequate blood supply to the heart muscle, which can occur when the mean arterial blood pressure falls to a dangerously low level. This can be a sign of myocardial ischemia or angina, indicating that the heart is not receiving enough oxygen and nutrients due to decreased blood flow. Therefore, chest pain is a significant finding that should be promptly addressed by the healthcare team.

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104. A client who has returned to the unit after arterial revascularization states that pain simular tot hat before the procedure is felt in the affected limb. which is the nurses best action

Explanation

The client's complaint of pain similar to before the arterial revascularization procedure indicates a potential complication or failure of the procedure. The nurse should notify the surgeon immediately to assess the situation and determine the appropriate course of action. This is important to ensure the client's safety and prevent any further complications.

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105. A client's mixed venous oxygen saturation (SvO2) is 44% Which is the nurse's primary intervention?

Explanation

A mixed venous oxygen saturation (SvO2) of 44% indicates that the client's oxygen levels are lower than normal. In order to improve oxygenation, the nurse's primary intervention would be to increase the client's oxygen percentage. This can be done by adjusting the oxygen flow rate or providing supplemental oxygen if necessary.

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106. Whiat physical assessment finding finding are expected in a client with atrial flutter and a rapid ventricular response?

Explanation

A client with atrial flutter and a rapid ventricular response may experience shortness of breath due to the inefficient pumping of blood by the heart. This can lead to a decrease in oxygen supply to the body, causing respiratory distress. Additionally, anxiety can be a common symptom in such clients as they may feel worried or stressed about their condition and the symptoms they are experiencing. Therefore, the presence of shortness of breath and anxiety can be expected physical assessment findings in a client with atrial flutter and a rapid ventricular response.

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107. Which laboratory results alerts the nurse that a female client is at high risk for a cardiovascular disease?

Explanation

Homocysteine is an amino acid that is produced during the breakdown of proteins. High levels of homocysteine in the blood have been associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease. Therefore, a homocysteine level of 25 mmol/dl indicates that the female client is at high risk for cardiovascular disease.

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108. A client's heart disease has resulted in a reduction of stroke volume. Which compensatory mechanism is expected?

Explanation

When a client's heart disease leads to a reduction in stroke volume (the amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each beat), the body compensates by increasing the heart rate. By increasing the heart rate, the heart can pump more frequently to maintain an adequate cardiac output. This compensatory mechanism helps to ensure that enough blood is being circulated throughout the body, despite the decreased stroke volume caused by the heart disease.

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109. Which statement made by the client with coronary artery disease alerts the nurse that the client may be experiencing difficulty in adapting to the illness

Explanation

The statement "I usually wait about 2 hours after I feel chest discomfort before calling my doctor to be sure it is really angina" suggests that the client may be experiencing difficulty in adapting to the illness. This delay in seeking medical attention for chest discomfort indicates a lack of understanding or acceptance of the seriousness of their condition. It is important for individuals with coronary artery disease to seek immediate medical attention for chest discomfort, as it could be a sign of angina or a heart attack.

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110. Which technique will the nurse use to assess the point of maximal impulse (PMI)

Explanation

The nurse will use the technique of inspecting the chest for prominent precordial pulsations to assess the point of maximal impulse (PMI). This involves observing the chest for any visible pulsations, which can indicate the location of the PMI. This technique is non-invasive and does not require any additional equipment. The other options mentioned in the question are not relevant to assessing the PMI.

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111. The home care nurse is assessing the client receiving antibiotic therapy in the home for inefective endocarditis, Which of the following clinical manifestations requires reevaluation of the treatment regimen?

Explanation

A temperature of 101.6°F indicates a fever, which is a common sign of infection. In the context of the client receiving antibiotic therapy for ineffective endocarditis, a persistent or worsening fever suggests that the treatment regimen may not be effectively addressing the infection. Therefore, reevaluation of the treatment regimen is necessary to ensure appropriate management of the client's condition.

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112. The nurse  includes which content in the teaching plan for a client being discharged after CABG surgery

Explanation

The nurse includes taking the pulse before, midway through, and after exercising in the teaching plan for a client being discharged after CABG surgery because it is important for the client to monitor their heart rate during physical activity. This will help them gauge their exercise intensity and ensure they are not overexerting themselves. Monitoring the pulse can also help identify any potential complications or abnormalities in heart rhythm.

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113. When teaching is essential for a cleint discharged after a heart transplant whi is prescribed cyclosporine (Sandimmune)

Explanation

After a heart transplant, the client's immune system is suppressed with cyclosporine to prevent rejection of the new organ. This makes the client more susceptible to infections. Therefore, it is important for the client to avoid crowds and people who are sick to minimize the risk of contracting infections.

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114. A client's cardiac status is being observed by telemetry monitoring. A nurse observes a P wave that changes shape in lead II. What conconclusion will the nurse make from this?

Explanation

The nurse will conclude that the P wave is originating from an ectopic focus. This means that the electrical impulse responsible for the P wave is not coming from the sinoatrial (SA) node, which is the normal pacemaker of the heart. Instead, it is originating from another location within the atria. This can indicate an abnormality in the electrical conduction system of the heart and may require further investigation and intervention.

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115. The health care provider has prescribed the clietn sodium warfarin (Coumadin) while he or she is still receiving intravenous heparin. Which is the nurse's best action

Explanation

The nurse's best action is to administer the medications as prescribed. This is because both sodium warfarin (Coumadin) and heparin are anticoagulants, but they work in different ways. Heparin works quickly and has a short half-life, while warfarin takes longer to reach therapeutic levels and has a longer half-life. Therefore, it is common practice to overlap the two medications for a period of time to ensure continuous anticoagulation. The nurse should closely monitor the client's coagulation levels and adjust the dosages as necessary.

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116. Which health teacing will the nurse in teh continuing plan of care for a client with chronic venous stasis ulcers

Explanation

The nurse should apply anti-embolism stockings before the client gets out of bed in the morning. This is because chronic venous stasis ulcers are caused by poor circulation in the legs, and anti-embolism stockings can help improve blood flow and prevent blood clots. By applying the stockings before getting out of bed, the client can benefit from their effects throughout the day. This intervention is an important part of the continuing plan of care for clients with chronic venous stasis ulcers.

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117. What specific instruction should the nurse give to the client with arthersclerosis who is attempting to stop cigarrette smoking with the use of a nicotine patch

Explanation

The nurse should instruct the client that smoking while using the nicotine patch increases the risk of a heart attack. This is because nicotine is a vasoconstrictor, meaning it narrows the blood vessels and increases blood pressure. Arteriosclerosis already narrows the blood vessels, so combining smoking with the nicotine patch can further increase the risk of a heart attack.

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118. The n urse incorporates which dietary teaching into the plan for a client with an LDL level of 142 mg/dl. who has been placed on a step one diet

Explanation

The correct answer emphasizes the importance of limiting saturated fat intake to less than 10% of total calories. This is a key teaching point for a client with high LDL levels who is following a step one diet. By reducing saturated fat intake, the client can help lower their LDL cholesterol levels and improve their overall cardiovascular health.

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119. Which instruction will be given to a client who is about to begin treatment with simvastin

Explanation

The correct answer is to report any muscle tenderness to your health care provider. This is because simvastatin is a medication used to lower cholesterol levels and it can sometimes cause muscle tenderness or muscle pain as a side effect. It is important for the client to be aware of this potential side effect and to report it to their health care provider so that appropriate action can be taken if necessary. This instruction ensures that the client is informed about a potential adverse effect and knows what to do if it occurs.

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120. Which is the priority intervention for a client who has recieved the first dose of captopril (Capiten)

Explanation

The priority intervention for a client who has received the first dose of captopril (Capiten) is to instruct the client to ask for assistance when arising from bed. This is because captopril can cause orthostatic hypotension, which is a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions from lying down to standing up. Asking for assistance when getting out of bed can help prevent falls and injuries that may occur due to dizziness or fainting caused by low blood pressure.

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121. Which instruction are essential in a teaching plan for a client with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)

Explanation

Reporting episodes of dizziness and fainting is essential in a teaching plan for a client with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) because these symptoms could indicate a worsening of the condition or potential complications. It is important for the client to communicate any changes in their symptoms to their healthcare provider to ensure appropriate management and timely intervention if needed.

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122. Which intervention suggested to the client with Raynaud's disease is aimed at preventing complicaitons?

Explanation

Wearing warm clothing when exposed to cool temperatures is suggested to prevent complications in clients with Raynaud's disease. Raynaud's disease is a condition that causes the blood vessels in the fingers and toes to narrow, leading to reduced blood flow and potential complications. Exposure to cold temperatures can trigger symptoms and worsen the condition. By wearing warm clothing, the client can protect their extremities from cold temperatures, maintain proper blood flow, and prevent complications such as tissue damage or ulcers.

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123. WHich statement by the client ordered sublingual nitroglycerin for chest pain indicates a need for further teaching regarding this therapy

Explanation

The statement suggests a lack of understanding about the proper storage and handling of nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin should be stored in its original container, away from heat and light, to maintain its potency. Storing it in a clear plastic bag in a purse may expose it to light and heat, potentially reducing its effectiveness. Therefore, further teaching is needed to educate the client on the appropriate storage of nitroglycerin.

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124. Which technique will the nurse use to ausculate the second heart sound?

Explanation

The nurse will use the diaphragm of the stethoscope at the base of the heart to auscultate the second heart sound. The diaphragm is used to detect high-pitched sounds, such as the closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves during the second heart sound. The base of the heart is the area where these valves are best heard. The bell of the stethoscope is typically used to detect low-pitched sounds, such as the third and fourth heart sounds, which are not relevant to auscultating the second heart sound.

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125. In monitoring the client recovering form aortofemoral bypass surgery, which clinical manifestation are consistent with compartment syndrom

Explanation

Swelling, pain, and tension of the affected limb are consistent with compartment syndrome. Compartment syndrome occurs when there is increased pressure within a closed anatomical space, leading to compromised blood flow and tissue damage. Swelling occurs due to the accumulation of fluid within the compartment, causing pain and tension. If left untreated, compartment syndrome can result in tissue necrosis and permanent damage. Therefore, recognizing these clinical manifestations is crucial for timely intervention and prevention of complications.

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126. The client with moderate heart failure is being discharged, Which is of priority to teach the client?

Explanation

The client with moderate heart failure is being discharged, and it is important to prioritize teaching the client to weigh themselves every day in the morning before breakfast. This is because weight gain can be an early sign of fluid retention, which can worsen heart failure symptoms. By monitoring their weight regularly, the client can detect any sudden weight gain and notify their healthcare provider for appropriate intervention. This teaching helps the client to actively participate in managing their condition and prevent exacerbations.

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127. A nurse monotors for which clincal manifestation of poor prgan perfusion in the client with left ventrical failure secondary to a myocardial infarction

Explanation

In left ventricular failure secondary to a myocardial infarction, poor organ perfusion can occur due to decreased cardiac output. One of the clinical manifestations of poor organ perfusion is a urine output of less than 30 ml/hr. This indicates decreased kidney perfusion and impaired renal function, which can be a result of reduced blood flow to the kidneys. Monitoring urine output is important in assessing the effectiveness of cardiac function and identifying potential complications in patients with left ventricular failure.

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128. A clients heart rate and rhythm is regular. What does the nurse assume from this finding?

Explanation

The nurse assumes that the automaticity of the cells in the conduction system is normal because a regular heart rate and rhythm indicate that the heart is able to generate electrical impulses at a consistent pace. This suggests that the cells in the conduction system are functioning properly and initiating the electrical signals that regulate the heart's contraction.

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129. Eight hours after presenting tot he emergency department with complaints of substernal chest pain, a client's laboratory results demonstrate that myoglobin levels have not risin . What is the nurse's interpretation of these results

Explanation

The nurse can interpret the results as indicating that the client has not experienced a myocardial infarction. Myoglobin levels typically rise within a few hours after a myocardial infarction and peak within 12 hours. Since the myoglobin levels have not risen after eight hours, it suggests that there has been no recent myocardial infarction.

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130. Which intervention does the nurse teach to the client with Buerger's disease to limit disease progression

Explanation

Smoking cessation is the correct answer because Buerger's disease is strongly associated with smoking. Smoking damages the blood vessels and increases the risk of blood clots, which can worsen the symptoms and progression of the disease. By quitting smoking, the client can reduce further damage to their blood vessels and potentially slow down the progression of the disease.

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131. A client with hyperlipidemia, who is being treated with dietary fat restrictions and an exercise program, asks the nurse why hi serum lipid levels are still elevated. What is the nurse's best response

Explanation

The nurse's best response is that the client may have a genetic predisposition to hyperlipidemia. This means that the client's genes make them more likely to have high lipid levels, even with dietary fat restrictions and exercise. This genetic factor can make it more challenging for the client to lower their lipid levels through lifestyle changes alone.

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132.
  • Which intervention reduces the risk of complications in the client with a myocardial infarction who has been treated with thrombolytic therapy

Explanation

Administration of heparin reduces the risk of complications in a client with a myocardial infarction who has been treated with thrombolytic therapy. Thrombolytic therapy is used to dissolve blood clots, but it can also increase the risk of bleeding. Heparin is an anticoagulant that helps prevent further clot formation and can reduce the risk of complications such as reocclusion or embolization. By administering heparin, healthcare providers can help maintain blood flow and prevent the formation of new clots, reducing the risk of complications in the client.

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133. The client who just started taking isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil) complains of a headache. What is the nurse's first action

Explanation

Administering PRN acetaminophen is the nurse's first action because isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil) is a medication used to treat angina, which can cause headaches as a side effect. Acetaminophen is a commonly used pain reliever that can help alleviate the client's headache. It is important to address the client's discomfort and provide relief while monitoring for any other adverse effects or complications. The other options, such as titrating oxygen, holding the next dose of Isordil, or instructing the client to drink water, may not directly address the client's headache.

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134. The nurse observes a prominent U wave on the clients ECG tracing. What is the nurses interpretation of this finding

Explanation

The nurse interprets the prominent U wave on the client's ECG tracing as a possible indication of a potassium imbalance. U waves are small, rounded waveforms that follow the T wave and represent the repolarization of the Purkinje fibers. A prominent U wave can be a sign of hypokalemia, which is a low level of potassium in the blood. This finding suggests that further assessment and monitoring of the client's potassium levels may be necessary.

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135. Whihc assessment finding indicates arterial insufficiency

Explanation

Dependent rubor is a clinical finding that indicates arterial insufficiency. Arterial insufficiency occurs when there is inadequate blood flow to the extremities, usually due to narrowing or blockage of the arteries. Dependent rubor refers to the redness or dusky discoloration of the affected area, typically the lower extremities, when they are in a dependent position. This occurs because of the lack of oxygenated blood reaching the area, leading to tissue hypoxia. Therefore, dependent rubor is a characteristic sign of arterial insufficiency.

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136. The nurse evaluates the results of which laboratory test as a diagnostic for acute coronary syndrome in the client with unstable angina

Explanation

Tropinin T is evaluated as a diagnostic laboratory test for acute coronary syndrome in the client with unstable angina. Tropinin T is a cardiac biomarker that is released into the bloodstream when there is damage to the heart muscle. Elevated levels of Tropinin T indicate myocardial injury and can help diagnose acute coronary syndrome, including unstable angina. Serum Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), Serum Myoglobin, and Creatine kinase (CK)-MB isoenzyme are also cardiac biomarkers but are not as specific or sensitive as Tropinin T for diagnosing acute coronary syndrome.

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137. The nurse monitors for which complication in the client who has PTCA 1 hour ago

Explanation

After undergoing PTCA (percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty), there is a risk of bleeding as a complication. During the procedure, a catheter is inserted into the blocked artery to widen it, which can cause damage to the blood vessels and lead to bleeding. The nurse needs to monitor the client closely for any signs of bleeding, such as excessive bleeding from the insertion site, drop in blood pressure, or changes in hemoglobin levels. Prompt identification and management of bleeding are crucial to prevent further complications and ensure the client's safety.

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138. A client in severe heart failure is to receive nesiride (Natrecor). Which intervention is essential prior to starting this medication

Explanation

Before starting nesiride (Natrecor) for a client in severe heart failure, it is essential to insert a separate IV access. This is because nesiride is administered intravenously and requires its own dedicated line for infusion. By having a separate IV access, the medication can be safely and effectively administered without any interference or risk of contamination from other medications or fluids being administered concurrently through the same line.

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139. In assessing a clietn with complaint of clausication after walking a distance of one block, the nurse notes a painful ulcer on the toes of the client's right toe, The nurse correlates these findings with which condition

Explanation

The nurse correlates the client's complaint of claudication (painful cramping in the legs after walking) and the presence of a painful ulcer on the toes with peripheral arterial disease. Peripheral arterial disease is a condition where there is reduced blood flow to the limbs due to narrowing or blockage of the arteries. This can lead to symptoms such as pain, ulcers, and poor wound healing. In this case, the ulcer on the client's toes is likely a result of poor blood flow to the area caused by peripheral arterial disease.

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140. The client with chronic peripheral arterial  disease and claduication tells the nurse that burning pain often awakens him from sleep. what is the nurse's interpretation of this change

Explanation

The nurse interprets that the client's disease is worsening because the burning pain that often awakens him from sleep indicates an increase in symptoms. This suggests that the blood flow to the affected area is further compromised, leading to increased pain and discomfort.

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141. A client who has survived a cardiac arrest is s cheduled for an electophysiology study (EPS) which is the highest priority to teach this client?

Explanation

Teaching the client that electrophysiology is a controlled event is the highest priority because it helps to alleviate any anxiety or fear the client may have about the procedure. This information reassures the client that the procedure is carefully monitored and conducted by healthcare professionals, which can help to ease their concerns and promote a sense of trust and confidence in the medical team.

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142. The clients ECG reveals tachycardia with a heart rate of 170 beats/min that was initiated after a premature atrial contraction. this rhythm resolved spontaneously withut treatment. WHat is the nurse;s interpretation of this finding>

Explanation

The nurse's interpretation of the finding is paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT). This is indicated by the description of tachycardia with a heart rate of 170 beats/min that was initiated after a premature atrial contraction. PSVT is a type of abnormal heart rhythm that originates above the ventricles, usually in the atria. It can cause rapid heart rates but typically resolves spontaneously without treatment.

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143. A client;s ECG tracing shows normal sinus rhythm followed by a complexs of three PVC's with a return to normal sunus rhy thm. What is the nurse's interpretation of this finding/

Explanation

The nurse's interpretation of this finding is nonsustained ventricular tachycardia. This is indicated by the presence of three premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) following a normal sinus rhythm. Nonsustained ventricular tachycardia refers to a brief episode of rapid heart rate originating from the ventricles, which lasts for less than 30 seconds and then returns to normal sinus rhythm.

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144. The nurse hears a splitting of S1 on the auscultation of a young adult child, Which is the nurse's best action?

Explanation

The nurse should document the finding of a splitting of S1 on auscultation. This is because splitting of S1 can be a normal variation in young adults, especially during inspiration. It is caused by a delay in closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves. Documenting the finding allows for accurate and complete documentation of the patient's assessment, which is important for continuity of care and communication with other healthcare providers. Repeating the auscultation or notifying the healthcare provider may not be necessary in this case, as it is a normal finding in young adults.

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145. Which client statement alerts thenurse to the possibility of cardiovascular disease (CVD)

Explanation

The client statement "I hope this isn't going to take long, I have an important meeting in an hour that I can't miss" suggests a sense of urgency and stress, which can be indicative of cardiovascular disease. Stress is a known risk factor for CVD, and the client's concern about missing an important meeting due to the duration of the activity may imply that they are experiencing symptoms or limitations related to their cardiovascular health.

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146. The client is receiving heparin theraly for a venous thromboembolism (VTE). which activated partial thromplastin time (PTT) indicated that anticoagulation is adequate

Explanation

The correct answer is that the client's aPPT is twice the control value. This indicates that the client's anticoagulation therapy with heparin is adequate. A PTT (partial thromboplastin time) test measures the time it takes for blood to clot. In a client receiving heparin therapy for VTE, the goal is to prolong the clotting time to prevent further clot formation. A PTT value that is twice the control value suggests that the client's blood is taking twice as long to clot, indicating that the anticoagulation therapy is working effectively.

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147. A client who is receiving unfractionated heparin is experiencing excessive bleeding, which mediacition will the nurse administer

Explanation

Protamine sulfate is the correct answer because it is the antidote for unfractionated heparin. Unfractionated heparin is an anticoagulant medication that can cause excessive bleeding. Protamine sulfate works by binding to heparin and neutralizing its effects, thus reversing its anticoagulant effects and stopping the bleeding. Warfarin is not the correct answer because it is a different type of anticoagulant medication and does not directly reverse the effects of heparin. Vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Enoxaparin is a low molecular weight heparin and would not be used to reverse the effects of unfractionated heparin.

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148. A client with unstable ventricular tachycardia is receiving amiodarone hydrochloride by intravenous infusion. The nurse notes that the client's heart rate has decreased from 68 to 50 beats/min. The client is asymptomatic. What is the nurse's priority intervention

Explanation

The nurse's priority intervention should be to slow the infusion rate of amiodarone hydrochloride. The client's heart rate has decreased significantly, which may be a result of the medication. Slowing down the infusion rate can help prevent further decrease in heart rate and potential complications. Stopping the infusion may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the priority intervention in this situation as the client is asymptomatic. Administering a precordial thump or placing the client in a side-lying position are not appropriate interventions for this scenario.

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149. A client is to begin taking hydrochlorthiazide (Microzide) for control of hypertension. which instruction will be given to this client before begining therapy

Explanation

The correct answer is "your diet should include foods high in potassium." This instruction is given because hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can cause potassium loss in the body. Including foods high in potassium in the diet can help prevent potassium deficiency and maintain electrolyte balance.

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150. A young adult p resents with a fecer , symptoms of heart failure, and amurmur. Which additional data will the nurse obtain

Explanation

The nurse will obtain the history of any systemic infection or dental work within the past month because these factors can contribute to the development of infective endocarditis, which can cause symptoms of heart failure and a murmur. This information is important for determining the possible cause of the patient's symptoms and guiding further diagnostic and treatment decisions. Family history of coronary artery disease, recent travel to third-world countries, and responsibility for cleaning pet litter boxes may be relevant in other situations, but they are not directly related to the patient's current symptoms and are therefore not the most pertinent additional data to obtain.

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151. How will the nurse intervent for the cient with ventricular fibrillation

Explanation

The nurse will intervene for the client with ventricular fibrillation by carrying out defibrillation. Ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening arrhythmia characterized by chaotic and ineffective contractions of the ventricles. Defibrillation is the delivery of an electrical shock to the heart to restore a normal rhythm. It is the most effective treatment for ventricular fibrillation and should be done as soon as possible to increase the chances of survival. Initiating CPR, providing airway management, and administering oxygen via nasal cannula are also important interventions, but defibrillation takes precedence in this situation.

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152. Which monitoring technique being performed by a new graduate nurse should be questioned in the client with an unrepaired abdominal aortic aneyrysm

Explanation

Palpation of the abdominal mid line area should be questioned in a client with an unrepaired abdominal aortic aneurysm. Palpation can potentially cause rupture or dissection of the aneurysm, leading to life-threatening complications. Therefore, it is important to avoid palpating the abdominal mid line area in these patients to prevent any harm.

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153. In Health people 2010, which is a priority of the primary nurse caring forolder adults with heart failure

Explanation

The priority of the primary nurse caring for older adults with heart failure is to provide follow-up care by the multidisciplinary team. This means involving a team of healthcare professionals from different disciplines, such as doctors, nurses, pharmacists, and social workers, to collaborate and provide comprehensive care to the patient. This approach ensures that the patient receives holistic care, addressing their physical, emotional, and social needs. It also allows for better coordination and communication among the healthcare team, leading to improved patient outcomes and reduced hospitalizations.

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154. What instructions will the nurse provide to a cient at risk for VTE who is being discharge home with low molecular weight heparin

Explanation

The nurse will instruct the client to notify their healthcare provider if their stools appear tarry. This is because tarry stools can be a sign of gastrointestinal bleeding, which is a potential complication of low molecular weight heparin therapy. It is important for the client to report any changes in stool appearance to their healthcare provider to ensure appropriate management and monitoring of their condition.

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155. A client has been admitted to the intensive care unit with worsening pulmonary manifestation of heart failure. Which primary ccollaborative intervention should the nurse perform?

Explanation

Administering loop diuretics is the most appropriate primary collaborative intervention for a client with worsening pulmonary manifestation of heart failure. Loop diuretics help to reduce fluid volume overload by promoting diuresis and removing excess fluid from the body. This can help to alleviate symptoms such as shortness of breath and edema, which are common in heart failure. Maintaining the head of the bed in followers position, keeping the client on bed-rest with passive range of motion, and limiting visitors and activity to a minimum may also be beneficial for the client, but they are not the primary collaborative intervention for this specific situation.

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156. Which additional physical assessment will the nurse include in the examination of a client diagnosed with hypertension

Explanation

A funduscopic examination of the retina is important in the examination of a client diagnosed with hypertension because hypertension can cause damage to the blood vessels in the retina. This examination allows the nurse to assess for any signs of hypertensive retinopathy, such as narrowing of the blood vessels, hemorrhages, or exudates. Early detection of these changes can help in the management and prevention of further complications related to hypertension, such as vision loss or retinal detachment.

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157. An older adult client is admitted with fluid volume excess. which diagnostic or laboratory study would best assist in the diagnosis of heart failure

Explanation

The electrocardiograph would best assist in the diagnosis of heart failure because it is a non-invasive test that measures the electrical activity of the heart. Abnormalities in the ECG can indicate heart rhythm disturbances, which are common in heart failure. This test can help identify any arrhythmias or abnormalities in the heart's electrical conduction system, which can be useful in diagnosing heart failure. The other options, such as chest x-ray, T4, TSH, and arterial blood gases, may provide valuable information in assessing the client's condition but are not specifically targeted at diagnosing heart failure.

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158. In assessing the client with an aortic aneyrysm before surgery, a nurse notes that the clients systolic blood pressure has increased by 30 mm hg compared with the reading 1 hour ago. What is the nurse's best first action

Explanation

The nurse's best first action would be measuring the client's abdominal girth. An increase in systolic blood pressure by 30 mm Hg compared to a previous reading could indicate the possibility of an expanding aortic aneurysm. Measuring the abdominal girth would help assess for any changes in the size of the aneurysm, which could be a critical finding before surgery. This action would provide valuable information to the healthcare team and help determine the appropriate course of action for the client.

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159. A client ECG shows slow, irregular, wide QRS complexes and regular atrial rhythm. What is the nurse's interpretation of this observation

Explanation

The nurse's interpretation of the observation of slow, irregular, wide QRS complexes and regular atrial rhythm is an atrioventricular (AV) conduction block. This is because the irregularity in the QRS complexes suggests a disruption in the normal conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles. The regular atrial rhythm indicates that the atria are still functioning normally, but the conduction block is preventing the impulses from reaching the ventricles in a regular manner.

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160. After receiving a total of three nitroglycerin sublingual tablets, a client admitted to the hospital with complaints of chest pain states there is not change in the level of discomfort. what will the nurse do next

Explanation

The correct answer is to notify the health care provider. This is because the client has received three nitroglycerin sublingual tablets, which are typically used to relieve chest pain associated with angina. However, the client states that there is no change in the level of discomfort, indicating that the medication is not effective in relieving the symptoms. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to notify the health care provider so that further assessment and management can be done to address the client's chest pain.

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161. A cleint with a diagnosed abdominal aneurysm (AAA) developes lower back pain radiating to the groin. Which is the nurse's interpretation of this information

Explanation

The nurse's interpretation of the client's lower back pain radiating to the groin is that the aneurysm may be undergoing expansion. This is because the symptoms described are consistent with an expanding aneurysm, which can cause pain as it puts pressure on surrounding tissues and structures. It is important to monitor the client closely and notify the healthcare provider of any changes or worsening symptoms.

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162. The result of a client who underwent myocardial nuclear perfusion imaging (MNPI) with thallium during exercises show diffuse uptake of the thallium in all areas of the heart 10 minutes after injection. What is the interpretation of this finding

Explanation

The diffuse uptake of thallium in all areas of the heart after exercise indicates that there is no myocardial scarring or impairment of myocardial perfusion at rest or after exercise. This suggests that the client has a normal cardiac function and does not have any signs of ischemia or impaired blood flow to the heart muscle.

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163. A client w ith heart failure developes an increase in preload. Which mechanism contributes to this increase?

Explanation

Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system contributes to an increase in preload in a client with heart failure. This system is activated in response to decreased blood flow to the kidneys, leading to the release of renin. Renin then converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, which is further converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE). Angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction and stimulates the release of aldosterone, which promotes sodium and water retention. This increased fluid volume leads to an increase in preload, or the amount of blood returning to the heart, exacerbating the symptoms of heart failure.

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164. Which client is at highest risk for the development of high output heart failure

Explanation

The young woman taking large doses of Synthroid to promote weight loss is at the highest risk for the development of high output heart failure. Synthroid is a medication used to treat hypothyroidism, and taking large doses can lead to excessive thyroid hormone levels in the body. This can cause an increase in heart rate and cardiac output, putting strain on the heart and potentially leading to heart failure. The other clients mentioned in the options do not have risk factors that directly contribute to high output heart failure.

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165. The cleint has a consistent and regular heart rate of 128 beats/min. Which psychologic alterations would be consistent wth this finding?

Explanation

A consistent and regular heart rate of 128 beats/min suggests that the client's heart is pumping blood efficiently, resulting in a decrease in cardiac output. This decrease in cardiac output would also lead to a decrease in blood pressure, as there is less force pushing blood through the arteries. Therefore, the answer of "A decrease in cardiac output and blood pressure" is consistent with the finding of a consistent and regular heart rate of 128 beats/min.

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166. The nurse observes the presence of a pacind spike but no QRS on the client's ECG tracing. How will the nurse interpret this event?

Explanation

The nurse will interpret the presence of a pacing spike but no QRS on the client's ECG tracing as a loss of capture. This means that the electrical impulse from the pacemaker is not successfully stimulating the heart to contract and produce a QRS complex. This could be due to various reasons such as lead dislodgement, battery failure, or electrode malfunction. The nurse would need to assess the client's symptoms and vital signs, notify the healthcare provider, and take appropriate actions to address the loss of capture.

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167. An older adult client with heart failure has developed arterial fibrillation. what diagnositc or laboratory test would the nurse expect to be ordered

Explanation

The nurse would expect T4 (thyroxine) and TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone) to be ordered because an older adult client with heart failure and arterial fibrillation may have an underlying thyroid dysfunction. Thyroid dysfunction can contribute to the development and exacerbation of heart failure and arrhythmias. Therefore, assessing the levels of T4 and TSH can help determine if there is an abnormality in thyroid function that needs to be addressed in the client's overall treatment plan.

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168. The nurse correlates which tationale with the administration of aspirin plus nitroglycerin tot he client experiencing angina like chest pain

Explanation

The nurse correlates the administration of aspirin plus nitroglycerin to the client experiencing angina-like chest pain with the inhibition of platelet aggregation and clot formation. This is because aspirin is known to have antiplatelet properties, meaning it helps prevent the formation of blood clots by inhibiting platelet aggregation. Nitroglycerin, on the other hand, is a vasodilator that helps improve blood flow by relaxing the blood vessels. By combining these two medications, the nurse aims to address the underlying cause of the chest pain and prevent further complications related to clot formation.

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169. A client with arherosclerosis asks a nurse which factors are responsible for this condition. what is the nurse's best response?

Explanation

Atherosclerosis is a condition characterized by the accumulation of plaque, which consists of a combination of platelets and fats, in the arteries. This plaque buildup narrows the arteries, reducing blood flow to the affected areas. This is the best response because it accurately describes the process of atherosclerosis and the factors responsible for this condition.

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170. Which intervention is essential to teach the client starting on digoxin therapy

Explanation

Taking digoxin and antacids together can decrease the absorption of digoxin, reducing its effectiveness. Therefore, it is essential to teach the client not to take digoxin within 1 hour of taking an antacid to ensure proper absorption and therapeutic effect of the medication.

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171. Inassessing for skin changes in an African American client admitted with peripheral artery disease. the nurse monitors for which change

Explanation

Cyanosis of the nail bed may indicate poor peripheral circulation, which is a common symptom of peripheral artery disease. This condition affects the blood flow to the extremities, leading to inadequate oxygen supply to the tissues. Cyanosis occurs when there is a lack of oxygen in the blood, causing the nail beds to appear bluish or purple. Monitoring for this change is important as it can help the nurse assess the severity of the client's condition and determine the effectiveness of the treatment plan.

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172. The nurse notes absent P waves and a heart rate of 200 beats/min on the client's telemetry. How does the nurse interpret these finding

Explanation

The nurse interprets these findings as supraventricular tachycardia because the absence of P waves suggests that the electrical impulses in the heart are not originating from the sinus node. Additionally, a heart rate of 200 beats/min is characteristic of supraventricular tachycardia, which is an abnormally fast heart rate originating above the ventricles.

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173. What is the nurse's interpretation of a large wide Q wave on the ECG of the client undergoing preadmission testing for surgery

Explanation

A large wide Q wave on the ECG is indicative of a myocardial infarction in the past. This is because a Q wave represents the depolarization of the interventricular septum. In the case of a myocardial infarction, the Q wave becomes larger and wider due to the damage to the heart muscle. This finding is important for the nurse to assess the client's cardiac history and consider appropriate interventions or precautions during the preadmission testing for surgery.

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174. A client  is admitted with early stage heart failure. Which immediate compensatory response would the nurse expect to see in this client

Explanation

In early stage heart failure, the heart's ability to pump blood effectively is compromised. As a compensatory response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, leading to the stimulation of adrenergic receptors. This causes an increase in heart rate, which helps to maintain cardiac output. This compensatory response aims to ensure that an adequate amount of blood is being pumped to meet the body's demands. Therefore, the nurse would expect to see the stimulation of adrenergic receptors and an increase in heart rate in a client with early stage heart failure.

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175. The nurse has sdministered a drug that causes vasoconstriction. Which finding indicates an expected response?

Explanation

When a drug causes vasoconstriction, it means that the blood vessels are narrowing, which leads to an increase in blood pressure. Diastolic blood pressure specifically measures the pressure in the arteries when the heart is at rest between beats. Therefore, an expected response to a drug that causes vasoconstriction would be an increased diastolic blood pressure.

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176. A client with hypertension has been prescribed clonidine hydrochloride (Catapres). Which instruction will the nurse give to this client

Explanation

The correct answer is to take this medication at bedtime. Clonidine hydrochloride is an antihypertensive medication that works by relaxing blood vessels and reducing blood pressure. Taking it at bedtime can help control blood pressure during sleep, when it tends to be higher. Additionally, taking it at night may help minimize side effects such as drowsiness, which is a common side effect of clonidine.

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177. The nurse assesses for which client outcome as indicative of effective hy pertension management

Explanation

The absence of target organ damage is indicative of effective hypertension management. Target organ damage refers to the damage caused by high blood pressure to vital organs such as the heart, kidneys, brain, and eyes. When hypertension is well-managed, the blood pressure is controlled within a normal range, reducing the risk of organ damage. Therefore, the absence of target organ damage suggests that the client's hypertension is being effectively managed.

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178. Which statement made by the client with peripherial arterial disease concerning positioning of edamatous lower extremities requires further clarification

Explanation

The client with peripheral arterial disease should not elevate their legs above the level of their heart. This is because it can further compromise blood flow to the lower extremities. Elevating the legs above the heart level can lead to decreased arterial blood flow and increased venous pooling, worsening the edema and potentially causing further damage to the already compromised blood vessels. Therefore, it is important for the client to understand the correct positioning to manage the edematous lower extremities.

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179. Which assessment finding does the nurse expect in a client diagnosed with aortic stenosis

Explanation

Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, which obstructs blood flow from the left ventricle to the aorta. This obstruction leads to a decrease in the pressure difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure, resulting in a narrowed pulse pressure. Therefore, the nurse would expect to find a narrowed pulse pressure in a client diagnosed with aortic stenosis.

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180. The client with ventricular tachycardia is unresponsive and has no pulse. What will the nurse do first?

Explanation

In a client with ventricular tachycardia who is unresponsive and has no pulse, the nurse should prioritize defibrillation as the first action. Defibrillation is the delivery of an electrical shock to the heart to restore a normal rhythm. It is the most effective treatment for ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation, which are life-threatening arrhythmias. CPR and administration of medications like epinephrine may be necessary after defibrillation, but defibrillation takes precedence in order to restore a normal heart rhythm and circulation.

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181. A cleint brought to the emergency room has been diagnosed with an acute myocardial infacrtion and is ordered thrombolytic therapy with reteplase. The nurse correlates wihc rationale with the administration of this medicaiton

Explanation

The rationale for administering reteplase in a client with an acute myocardial infarction is to restore perfusion to the injured area, which helps in reducing the size of the infarct. Reteplase is a thrombolytic medication that helps dissolve blood clots in the coronary arteries, allowing blood flow to be restored to the affected area of the heart. By restoring perfusion, the medication helps to minimize the damage caused by the myocardial infarction and reduce the size of the infarct.

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182. Which client is most at risk for atrial fibrillation

Explanation

A client who is 3 days post coronary artery bypass surgery is most at risk for atrial fibrillation. This is because atrial fibrillation is a common complication after cardiac surgery, especially in the immediate postoperative period. The surgery itself can disrupt the electrical signals in the heart, leading to an irregular heartbeat. Additionally, the client may already have underlying heart disease that increases their risk for atrial fibrillation. Therefore, this client has the highest risk compared to the other options given.

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183. In analyzing a client's ECG tracing, the nurse observes that nor all QRS complexes are preceded by a P wave. What is the nurse's interpretation of this observation

Explanation

The nurse's interpretation of the observation that not all QRS complexes are preceded by a P wave is that ventricular depolarization is being initiated at a site separate from atrial depolarization. This suggests a conduction abnormality in the heart, where the electrical impulses are not being properly conducted from the atria to the ventricles. This can be seen in conditions such as atrioventricular block, where there is a delay or blockage in the conduction pathway between the atria and ventricles.

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184. The nurse correlates which clinical manifestation with a diagnosis of variant (Prinzmetal's) angina?

Explanation

The correct answer suggests that variant (Prinzmetal's) angina is characterized by chest pain that occurs with minimal exertion and limits the client's activity. This type of angina is caused by coronary artery spasms, which can occur even at rest or during sleep. The chest pain is often severe and can be accompanied by other symptoms such as shortness of breath, dizziness, and nausea. Nitroglycerin may not provide relief for this type of angina.

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185. The client who is post PTCA complains of severe chest pain. which is the nurse's best action?

Explanation

The nurse's best action in this situation is to notify the physician. Severe chest pain in a client who has undergone PTCA (percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty) could indicate a potential complication or a need for further medical intervention. It is important for the nurse to communicate this information to the physician promptly so that appropriate actions can be taken to address the client's condition.

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186. A client with myocardial ischemia is having freauent PVC's. Which intervetnion will the nurse administer

Explanation

Lidocaine is the correct intervention for a client with frequent PVCs (premature ventricular contractions) in the setting of myocardial ischemia. Lidocaine is an antiarrhythmic medication that works by stabilizing the electrical activity of the heart and suppressing abnormal rhythms. It is commonly used to treat PVCs and other ventricular arrhythmias. Lanoxin (digoxin) is not indicated for PVCs and is primarily used for heart failure and atrial arrhythmias. Dobutamine is a medication used to increase cardiac output in cases of low blood pressure or heart failure, but it is not specifically indicated for PVCs. Atropine sulfate is a medication used to increase heart rate in cases of bradycardia, but it is not indicated for PVCs.

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187. For which clinical manifestation does the nurse monitor in the client who has just undergone a PTCA and is ordered to receive an IV infusion of abciximab (ReoPro)

Explanation

The nurse monitors for urticaria in the client who has just undergone a PTCA and is receiving an IV infusion of abciximab (ReoPro) because urticaria, also known as hives, is a potential allergic reaction to the medication. Urticaria presents as red, raised, and itchy welts on the skin. It is important for the nurse to monitor for this clinical manifestation to ensure early detection and prompt treatment of the allergic reaction. Joint pain, pedal edema, and excessive thirst are not specifically associated with abciximab infusion and PTCA.

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188. A client is about to undergo noninvasive temporary pacing (NCP) which action is most appropriate for preparing this client for the procedure

Explanation

Before undergoing noninvasive temporary pacing (NCP), it is important to prepare the skin by washing it with soap and water. This helps to remove any dirt, oil, or bacteria from the skin, ensuring a clean surface for electrode placement. Applying alcohol to the skin before electrode placement may not be sufficient to thoroughly cleanse the area. Shaving the area where the electrode will be placed is not necessary for NCP. Placing the electrodes at the V1 position is not mentioned as a step for preparing the client for the procedure.

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189. A nurse is caring for a client with second degree AV block type II. which is the nurse's priority intervention

Explanation

The nurse's priority intervention for a client with second degree AV block type II is prophylactic pacing. This intervention involves the placement of a pacemaker to regulate the client's heart rate and rhythm. Second degree AV block type II is a condition where some electrical signals from the atria fail to reach the ventricles, leading to an irregular heart rate. Prophylactic pacing helps to ensure that the ventricles receive the necessary electrical signals and maintain an adequate heart rate. Cardiopversion, carotid massage, and administration of IV dioxin are not appropriate interventions for this condition.

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190. Which assessment finding does the nurse expect in the client with mitral insufficiency?

Explanation

In mitral insufficiency, the mitral valve fails to close properly during systole, leading to backward flow of blood into the left atrium. This causes a high pitched holosystolic murmur, which is heard throughout systole. A systolic click is associated with mitral valve prolapse, not mitral insufficiency. Angina with exertion is commonly seen in coronary artery disease, not specifically in mitral insufficiency. A cough with hemoptysis is more commonly associated with conditions such as pulmonary embolism or lung cancer, and is not a typical finding in mitral insufficiency.

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191. The nurse cautions the client who has recieved a heart transplant to change positions slowly, Why is the instructers priority

Explanation

After a heart transplant, the new heart is denervated, meaning it lacks the normal nerve connections that would allow it to respond to changes in blood pressure. This means that the client's heart may not be able to compensate for decreases in blood pressure that occur when changing positions quickly. This can lead to symptoms such as dizziness or fainting, and in severe cases, it can even cause a stroke. Therefore, the nurse's priority is to caution the client to change positions slowly in order to prevent these complications.

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192. The client with heart failute has been ordered to receive a daily nitroglycerin transdermal patch. Which is the priority nursing intervention

Explanation

The priority nursing intervention is removing the patch overnight. Nitroglycerin is a potent vasodilator used to relieve angina in patients with heart failure. However, it can cause tolerance to develop over time, leading to decreased effectiveness. By removing the patch overnight, the client can have a nitrate-free period, which helps prevent tolerance and maintains the patch's effectiveness. This intervention ensures that the client receives maximum benefit from the nitroglycerin therapy and reduces the risk of complications.

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193. The client has been diagnosed with Cushings syndrom. Which assessment will the nurse perform to detect vascular complications of this illness

Explanation

Assessing blood pressure regularly is important in detecting vascular complications of Cushing's syndrome because this condition can cause hypertension. By monitoring blood pressure regularly, the nurse can identify any abnormal changes and take appropriate actions to manage and prevent further complications.

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194. Which assessment finding does the nurse  expect in a client with mitral valve prolapse

Explanation

A midsystolic click and late systolic murmur is an expected assessment finding in a client with mitral valve prolapse. Mitral valve prolapse is a condition where the mitral valve does not close properly, causing a clicking sound during systole. This is followed by a late systolic murmur, which is caused by blood regurgitating back into the left atrium during systole. These findings can be heard upon auscultation of the heart and are characteristic of mitral valve prolapse.

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195. Which additional assessment finding does the nurse expect in the client with a venous ulcer on the left ankle

Explanation

The nurse would expect to find brownish discoloration of the lower extremity at the ulcer site in a client with a venous ulcer on the left ankle. This is because venous ulcers are typically associated with chronic venous insufficiency, which can cause pooling of blood in the lower extremities. This pooling of blood can lead to brownish discoloration of the skin, known as hemosiderin staining.

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196. Which intravention will the nurse suggest to promote vasodilation in a client with peripheral arterial disease

Explanation

Smoking is a major risk factor for peripheral arterial disease (PAD) and can worsen the condition by constricting blood vessels and reducing blood flow. Therefore, abstaining from smoking would be the most appropriate intervention to promote vasodilation in a client with PAD. By quitting smoking, the client can reduce the vasoconstrictive effects of nicotine and improve blood flow to the affected limb. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and slow the progression of the disease.

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197. An older adult has returned from a cardiac catherization. After the initail assessment done by the RN, which activities can the nurse delegate tot he unlicensed assisitive personal?

Explanation

The nurse can delegate the task of assessing urine color and changes to the unlicensed assistive personnel. This task does not require specialized knowledge or skills and can be easily performed by the unlicensed personnel under the supervision of the nurse. Assessing for dysrhythmias and pulses every 15 minutes requires more expertise and should be done by the nurse. Measuring intake and output may also require more knowledge and should be done by the nurse unless specifically trained and delegated to the unlicensed personnel.

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198. A client is classified (staged) at level A heart fialure, What will the nurse teach the cleint?

Explanation

The nurse will teach the client to maintain a no added salt diet because a client classified at level A heart failure needs to manage their sodium intake to prevent fluid retention and worsening of symptoms. A low-sodium diet helps to reduce fluid buildup in the body, which can put strain on the heart and lead to shortness of breath and other complications. By following a no added salt diet, the client can better control their fluid balance and improve their heart health.

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199. What will the nurse administer to a client withsustained supraventrical tachycardia?

Explanation

Dilitiazem is the correct answer because it is commonly used to treat sustained supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). SVT is a rapid heart rate that originates in the upper chambers of the heart. Dilitiazem works by slowing down the electrical conduction in the heart, which helps to restore a normal heart rhythm. Atropine is not typically used to treat SVT, but rather for bradycardia (slow heart rate). Epinephrine is used for cardiac arrest or severe allergic reactions. Lidocaine is used for ventricular arrhythmias.

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200. Which client is most at risk for developing left sided heart failure

Explanation

Aortic stenosis is a condition where the aortic valve becomes narrow, restricting blood flow from the heart to the rest of the body. This can lead to increased pressure and workload on the left side of the heart, eventually causing left-sided heart failure. Therefore, the middle-aged woman with aortic stenosis is most at risk for developing left-sided heart failure.

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A client asks the nurse why it is important to be wieghed every day if...
The nurse assess for which modifiable risk factor in the client with...
The client presents with a heart rate of 40 beatsmin. The nurse...
Which statement made by a client would alert the nurse tot he presence...
Which client statement alerts the nurse to the occurance of heart...
A client consistently reports feeling dizzy and lightheaded when...
Which client statement alerts the nurse to a possible heart failure
The nurse assesses for modifiable risk factors in the client with...
The nurse assesses the client's cardiac  status. Which...
For which of the following clients is magnetic resonance imaging of...
Whihc nurssing diagnosis would be considered a priority for the client...
A client has had a recent myocardial infarction involving the left...
A client has been admitted to the acute care unity for an exacerbation...
The cleint aske the nurse to explain about his heart murmur. WHich is...
Which assessment finding does the nurse expect in a client diagnosed...
The client is experiencing occasional premature atrial contraction...
A client brought to the emergency room following a myocardial...
Which illness in a client's history would alert the nurse to the...
A client has returned from an angiography via the left  femoral...
A nurse is caring for a client with a chronic atrial fibrillation who...
Which client does the nurse determine is at high risk for...
Which cleint assessment takes priority prior to a cardiac...
The client with heart failure experiencing respiratory difficult,...
A nurse is caring for a client who has undergone surgical repair of an...
What laboratory value is indicative of a myocardial infarctin
A client admitted to the coronary care  unit with a myocardial...
Which cleint will benefit from receiving treatment for hypertension...
For which complication will the nurse monitor in the immediate...
A nurse is instructing a client with heart failure on energy...
A client is classified (staged) at level A heart fialure, What will...
The cleint's blood pressure is 134/88 mm Hg. Which is the nurses...
Whihc precautions are appropriate when providieng care to a client...
Which action will the nurse take to improve the quality of the...
The client with tachycardia is experiencing clinical manifestation....
Which cleint is most at risk for cardiovascular disease?
Which client is most at risk for peripherial vascular disease
A client has jsut  undergone a balloon  valvuloplasty, For...
Which assessment finding does the nurse expect in a client with...
Which assessment fidnign after a left sided cardiac catheterization...
A client who is scheduled for a echocardiography today asks why this...
A client with systolic dysfunciton has an ejection fraction of 38%....
The client has exactly 8.0 R-R intervals in 150 small blocks on the...
A clients ECG tracing shows a run of sustained ventricular...
The client is experiencing sinus bradycardia withhyopotension and...
Which breakfast food recommendations are most appropriate for a client...
The nurse prioritizes which assessment in the older cleint who has had...
Prior to a resting electrocardiography, which direction is the most...
Which statement made by a client would alert the nurse to possibility...
The nurse is taking the history of a client with suspected CAD who has...
A client with heart failure is going through rehabilitation to...
The nurse deermines that the client has clubbing. Which is the best...
A client is starting Lininopril (Prinivil) therapy. The nurse will...
A client is admitted with early stage heart failure, which assessment...
Which instructions would be most appropriate to include ina teching...
A nurse is performing an admission assessment on an older adult client...
A cleint is preparing to be discharged home following mitral valve...
The nurse notes that the client's apical pulse is displaced to the...
A client with a history of having several myocardial infarctions has...
The client is being given a drug that block the action of the...
A client has been diagnosed as having New York Heart Association Class...
The client post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) has a serum...
A client with end stage heart failure is awaiting a transplant. The...
The nurse recognizes which client is at greatest risk for developing...
On auscultation of the carotoid arteries of a client with...
Which is a priority intervention for the client experiencing atrial...
For which clinical manifestations of myocardial infarction should the...
The client has a heart rate averaging 56 beats/min. The client has had...
A nurse is caring for a client with newly diagnosed hypertension....
What does the P wave on an ECG tracing represent
A client with a history of myocardial infarction calls the clinic...
The client is  undergoing progressive ambulation on the third day...
In reviewing the menu selections of a client who is ordered a low...
A client withthird degree heart block is admitted to the telemetry...
PriorA nurse is monotoring a client undergoing exercise...
A client's cardiac catheterization has shown an 80% blockage of...
The client who has a prosthetic valve replacemtn asks the nurse why he...
A client is taking triamterene-hydrochlorothiazide (Dyazide) and...
A client with a stenotic mitral valve has presented to the clienic for...
The physician is about to perform carotid sinus massage on a client...
The client with heart failure is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec) what...
Which client statement indicates a need for further teaching about...
Which client statment indicates a need for additional teaching about...
How will the nurse position the client in severe heart failure
What will the nurse do to ensure the validity of comparison of...
A nurse notes that the PE interval on a client's ECG tracing is...
Which alteration, when manifested in a client with atrial...
The client with a history of stable angina describes a recent increase...
A nurse is caring for a cleint admitted with tachycardia, a...
Which assessment finding alerts  the nurse to the possibility of...
Which instructions will the nurse include in the teaching plan for a...
The nurse hears a splitting an atrila gallop (S4) in an older adult...
A nurse obtains a pulmonary artery pressure reading of 25/12 in a...
The nurse has administered adenosine (adenocard) what is the expected...
The nurse assesses a client and notes the presence of an S3 gallop....
Which percaustion will the nurse teach to the client bein discharged...
Which dysrhythemia may develope in a client with frequent premature...
Which assessment will  the nurse perform whenever a client has...
A client diagnosed with essential hypertension asks how this type of...
Which assessment finding supports a diagnosis of impaired tissue...
A nurse is preparing to measure a client's pulmonary artery wedge...
A client who has has a myocardial infarction complies with the...
The client's heart rate increases slightly during inspiration and...
What assessment finding will the nurse expect as the client's mean...
A client who has returned to the unit after arterial revascularization...
A client's mixed venous oxygen saturation (SvO2) is 44% Which is...
Whiat physical assessment finding finding are expected in a client...
Which laboratory results alerts the nurse that a female client is at...
A client's heart disease has resulted in a reduction of stroke...
Which statement made by the client with coronary artery disease alerts...
Which technique will the nurse use to assess the point of maximal...
The home care nurse is assessing the client receiving antibiotic...
The nurse  includes which content in the teaching plan for a...
When teaching is essential for a cleint discharged after a heart...
A client's cardiac status is being observed by telemetry...
The health care provider has prescribed the clietn sodium warfarin...
Which health teacing will the nurse in teh continuing plan of care for...
What specific instruction should the nurse give to the client with...
The n urse incorporates which dietary teaching into the plan for a...
Which instruction will be given to a client who is about to begin...
Which is the priority intervention for a client who has recieved the...
Which instruction are essential in a teaching plan for a client with...
Which intervention suggested to the client with Raynaud's disease...
WHich statement by the client ordered sublingual nitroglycerin for...
Which technique will the nurse use to ausculate the second heart...
In monitoring the client recovering form aortofemoral bypass surgery,...
The client with moderate heart failure is being discharged, Which is...
A nurse monotors for which clincal manifestation of poor prgan...
A clients heart rate and rhythm is regular. What does the nurse assume...
Eight hours after presenting tot he emergency department with...
Which intervention does the nurse teach to the client with...
A client with hyperlipidemia, who is being treated with dietary fat...
Which intervention reduces the risk of complications in the client...
The client who just started taking isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil)...
The nurse observes a prominent U wave on the clients ECG tracing. What...
Whihc assessment finding indicates arterial insufficiency
The nurse evaluates the results of which laboratory test as a...
The nurse monitors for which complication in the client who has PTCA 1...
A client in severe heart failure is to receive nesiride (Natrecor)....
In assessing a clietn with complaint of clausication after walking a...
The client with chronic peripheral arterial  disease and...
A client who has survived a cardiac arrest is s cheduled for an...
The clients ECG reveals tachycardia with a heart rate of 170 beats/min...
A client;s ECG tracing shows normal sinus rhythm followed by a...
The nurse hears a splitting of S1 on the auscultation of a young adult...
Which client statement alerts thenurse to the possibility of...
The client is receiving heparin theraly for a venous thromboembolism...
A client who is receiving unfractionated heparin is experiencing...
A client with unstable ventricular tachycardia is receiving amiodarone...
A client is to begin taking hydrochlorthiazide (Microzide) for control...
A young adult p resents with a fecer , symptoms of heart failure, and...
How will the nurse intervent for the cient with ventricular...
Which monitoring technique being performed by a new graduate nurse...
In Health people 2010, which is a priority of the primary nurse caring...
What instructions will the nurse provide to a cient at risk for VTE...
A client has been admitted to the intensive care unit with worsening...
Which additional physical assessment will the nurse include in the...
An older adult client is admitted with fluid volume excess. which...
In assessing the client with an aortic aneyrysm before surgery, a...
A client ECG shows slow, irregular, wide QRS complexes and regular...
After receiving a total of three nitroglycerin sublingual tablets, a...
A cleint with a diagnosed abdominal aneurysm (AAA) developes lower...
The result of a client who underwent myocardial nuclear perfusion...
A client w ith heart failure developes an increase in preload. Which...
Which client is at highest risk for the development of high output...
The cleint has a consistent and regular heart rate of 128 beats/min....
The nurse observes the presence of a pacind spike but no QRS on the...
An older adult client with heart failure has developed arterial...
The nurse correlates which tationale with the administration of...
A client with arherosclerosis asks a nurse which factors are...
Which intervention is essential to teach the client starting on...
Inassessing for skin changes in an African American client admitted...
The nurse notes absent P waves and a heart rate of 200 beats/min on...
What is the nurse's interpretation of a large wide Q wave on the...
A client  is admitted with early stage heart failure. Which...
The nurse has sdministered a drug that causes vasoconstriction. Which...
A client with hypertension has been prescribed clonidine hydrochloride...
The nurse assesses for which client outcome as indicative of effective...
Which statement made by the client with peripherial arterial disease...
Which assessment finding does the nurse expect in a client diagnosed...
The client with ventricular tachycardia is unresponsive and has no...
A cleint brought to the emergency room has been diagnosed with an...
Which client is most at risk for atrial fibrillation
In analyzing a client's ECG tracing, the nurse observes that nor...
The nurse correlates which clinical manifestation with a diagnosis of...
The client who is post PTCA complains of severe chest pain. which is...
A client with myocardial ischemia is having freauent PVC's. Which...
For which clinical manifestation does the nurse monitor in the client...
A client is about to undergo noninvasive temporary pacing (NCP) which...
A nurse is caring for a client with second degree AV block type II....
Which assessment finding does the nurse expect in the client with...
The nurse cautions the client who has recieved a heart transplant to...
The client with heart failute has been ordered to receive a daily...
The client has been diagnosed with Cushings syndrom. Which assessment...
Which assessment finding does the nurse  expect in a client with...
Which additional assessment finding does the nurse expect in the...
Which intravention will the nurse suggest to promote vasodilation in a...
An older adult has returned from a cardiac catherization. After the...
A client is classified (staged) at level A heart fialure, What will...
What will the nurse administer to a client withsustained...
Which client is most at risk for developing left sided heart failure
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