Tc 1, May E-test For DSM's.

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  • 1/20 Questions

    Typhoid Conclave is all about

    • Prevalence of typhoid
    • Diagnosis of Typhoid
    • Treatment of Typhoid
    • All of the options
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About This Quiz

Hi ! Welcome to the May E-test. Only 1 attempt per user is is permitted. First attempt only will be considered for score record purpose.

Tc 1, May E-test For DSMs. - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Key reasons for increase in Typhoid 

    • Poor hygiene

    • Lack of knowledge

    • Rainy season

    • All of the options

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the options
    Explanation
    All of the options - Poor hygiene, lack of knowledge, and rainy season - can contribute to an increase in typhoid cases. Poor hygiene practices, such as not washing hands properly or using contaminated water, can lead to the spread of the bacteria that causes typhoid. Lack of knowledge about the disease and its prevention can result in people not taking necessary precautions. The rainy season can create favorable conditions for the growth and spread of the bacteria, as stagnant water can become a breeding ground for the disease. Therefore, all of these factors combined can contribute to an increase in typhoid cases.

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  • 3. 

    Clean India Healthy India campaign is on which brand

    • Cefi-O

    • Cefi

    • Anafortan

    • Fightox

    Correct Answer
    A. Anafortan
    Explanation
    Anafortan is the brand associated with the Clean India Healthy India campaign.

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  • 4. 

    Anafortan injection relieves abdominal pain in 

    • 8-15 mins

    • 5-7 mins

    • 15-20 mins

    • None of the options

    Correct Answer
    A. 15-20 mins
    Explanation
    Anafortan injection is a medication commonly used to relieve abdominal pain. The correct answer is 15-20 mins because this is the expected time frame in which the injection starts to provide relief. It suggests that the medication takes around 15-20 minutes to take effect and alleviate the abdominal pain.

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  • 5. 

    Dilatation of pupils is a ____________ side effect

    • Eye side effect

    • Anticholinergic side effects

    • Peripheral Side effects

    • None of the options

    Correct Answer
    A. Anticholinergic side effects
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Anticholinergic side effects." Dilatation of pupils is a common side effect of medications that have anticholinergic properties. Anticholinergic drugs work by blocking the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that regulates various bodily functions. This blockade can lead to pupil dilation, along with other side effects such as dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and urinary retention. Therefore, the correct answer is anticholinergic side effects.

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  • 6. 

    Cefi-O clinical trail was presented in

    • CSI 2014

    • Indian Medical Gazette 2015

    • APICON 2015

    • PEDICON 2014

    Correct Answer
    A. APICON 2015
    Explanation
    The correct answer is APICON 2015. This is because APICON (Association of Physicians of India Conference) is an annual conference where medical professionals and researchers present their clinical trials and research findings. Therefore, it is likely that the Cefi-O clinical trial was presented at APICON 2015.

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  • 7. 

    1 in 16 patients of UTI suffer from recurrence within 6 months

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The statement suggests that 1 in 16 patients with urinary tract infection (UTI) experience a recurrence within 6 months. However, the correct answer is False, indicating that this statement is not true. It implies that the rate of recurrence for UTI patients within 6 months is not as high as 1 in 16.

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  • 8. 

    Cefixime has low MIC against RTI pathogens, except

    • S.pneumoniae

    • E.Coli

    • H.Influenzae

    • M.catarhallis

    Correct Answer
    A. E.Coli
    Explanation
    Cefixime has a low minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) against most respiratory tract infection (RTI) pathogens, including S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, and M. catarhallis. However, it is not effective against E. coli, meaning that the MIC for E. coli is higher compared to the other pathogens listed.

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  • 9. 

    RISE CME module is based on ?

    • UTI

    • RTI

    • TYPHOID

    • SSTI

    Correct Answer
    A. UTI
    Explanation
    The RISE CME module is based on UTI, which stands for Urinary Tract Infection. This suggests that the module focuses on providing education and information related to the diagnosis, treatment, and management of urinary tract infections. The module may cover topics such as the causes and risk factors of UTIs, clinical presentations, appropriate diagnostic tests, and evidence-based treatment options. It aims to enhance healthcare professionals' knowledge and skills in effectively managing UTIs in clinical practice.

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  • 10. 

    Rise against typhoid campaign is for which speciality

    • Gyneac

    • CP

    • GP&Rural

    • Peadiatrics

    Correct Answer
    A. GP&Rural
    Explanation
    The "Rise against typhoid" campaign is specifically targeted towards General Practitioners (GPs) and healthcare professionals working in rural areas. This suggests that the campaign aims to raise awareness, educate, and provide resources for GPs and healthcare workers in rural settings to effectively combat and prevent the spread of typhoid. The campaign may focus on providing training on diagnosing and treating typhoid, promoting vaccination, and implementing preventive measures in rural communities where access to healthcare services may be limited.

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  • 11. 

    World Hand Hygiene Day was celebrated on

    • 7th May

    • 6th May

    • 10th May

    • 5th May

    Correct Answer
    A. 5th May
    Explanation
    World Hand Hygiene Day is celebrated on 5th May. This day aims to raise awareness about the importance of hand hygiene in preventing the spread of infections. By promoting proper handwashing techniques and the use of hand sanitizers, World Hand Hygiene Day encourages individuals to protect themselves and others from harmful germs.

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  • 12. 

    Cefixime shows rapid improvement and high clinical cure rate in

    • RTI

    • UTI

    • TYPHOID

    • SSTI

    Correct Answer
    A. RTI
    Explanation
    Cefixime is known for its effectiveness in treating respiratory tract infections (RTIs). It exhibits rapid improvement and a high clinical cure rate in patients with RTIs, making it a suitable choice for this condition. However, it may not be as effective or commonly used for urinary tract infections (UTIs), typhoid, or skin and soft tissue infections (SSTIs). Therefore, the correct answer is RTI.

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  • 13. 

    In uncomplicated UTI, Cefi shows high bacterial eradication rate compared to

    • Amoxycillin

    • Cefpodoxime

    • Ciprofloxacin

    • Ceftriaxone

    Correct Answer
    A. Ciprofloxacin
    Explanation
    Ciprofloxacin is the correct answer because it has a high bacterial eradication rate compared to the other antibiotics listed. This means that Ciprofloxacin is more effective in killing the bacteria that cause uncomplicated urinary tract infections (UTIs) compared to Amoxycillin, Cefpodoxime, and Ceftriaxone. The high bacterial eradication rate of Ciprofloxacin makes it a suitable choice for treating uncomplicated UTIs.

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  • 14. 

    Indications of Finecef Injection

    • SSTI,RTI,UTI

    • RTI,UTI,Typhoid

    • SSTI & Typhoid

    • Rhinitis,Sinusitis

    Correct Answer
    A. RTI,UTI,Typhoid
    Explanation
    The indications of Finecef Injection include respiratory tract infections (RTI), urinary tract infections (UTI), and typhoid fever. This means that Finecef Injection is used to treat infections in the respiratory and urinary systems, as well as typhoid fever.

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  • 15. 

    Fightox is been manufactured in ______________ plant

    • EUGMP Plant

    • MOH approved Plant

    • WHO-GMP certified plant

    • None of the options

    Correct Answer
    A. WHO-GMP certified plant
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "WHO-GMP certified plant". This means that Fightox is manufactured in a plant that has been certified by the World Health Organization (WHO) as meeting Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) standards. GMP certification ensures that the plant follows strict quality control measures in the production of pharmaceutical products. Therefore, the answer indicates that Fightox is manufactured in a plant that meets international standards for quality and safety.

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  • 16. 

    Fightox offers clinical success rate of ____________% in AECB

    • 85.70%

    • 83.90%

    • 90.80%

    • None of the options

    Correct Answer
    A. 90.80%
    Explanation
    Fightox offers a clinical success rate of 90.80% in AECB. This means that 90.80% of patients who use Fightox experience successful clinical outcomes in treating their AECB (Acute Exacerbation of Chronic Bronchitis) condition. This high success rate suggests that Fightox is an effective treatment option for AECB patients.

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  • 17. 

    Punch Line of ATP UP is

    • Recharges Illness to wellness cycle

    • Recharges wellness to illness cycle

    • Bridges Gaps,Recharges Life

    • Bridges Energy Gaps,Recharges Life

    Correct Answer
    A. Bridges Energy Gaps,Recharges Life
    Explanation
    The punch line of ATP UP is "Bridges Energy Gaps, Recharges Life." This suggests that ATP UP helps to fill the energy gaps in one's life and rejuvenate their energy levels. It implies that the product has the ability to provide a boost of energy and vitality, ultimately leading to a more fulfilling and energized life.

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  • 18. 

    ATP binds to __________ receptor of the blood vessles to cause vasoialation

    • Muscarinic Receptor

    • Purinergic Receptor

    • H2 Receptor

    • None of the options

    Correct Answer
    A. Purinergic Receptor
    Explanation
    ATP binds to purinergic receptors of the blood vessels to cause vasodilation. Purinergic receptors are a type of cell surface receptors that are activated by purines, such as ATP. When ATP binds to purinergic receptors on the smooth muscle cells of blood vessels, it triggers a signaling cascade that leads to relaxation of the smooth muscle, resulting in vasodilation. This allows for increased blood flow and oxygen delivery to the tissues. Muscarinic receptors are not involved in this process, and neither are H2 receptors. Therefore, the correct answer is Purinergic Receptor.

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  • 19. 

    ATP UP removes ___________ from body

    • Energy

    • Nutrients

    • Metabolic waste products

    • Oxygen

    Correct Answer
    A. Metabolic waste products
    Explanation
    ATP UP removes metabolic waste products from the body. ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is the primary energy currency in cells, and it is involved in various metabolic processes. As these processes occur, waste products are produced, such as carbon dioxide and urea. ATP UP helps in the elimination of these waste products, ensuring that they do not accumulate and cause harm to the body. By removing metabolic waste products, ATP UP supports the overall functioning and health of the body's systems.

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  • 20. 

    ATP UP increases blood supply to skeletal muscles by

    • Increasing blood vessel dilatation

    • Blood vessel constriction

    • Narrowing of blood vessels

    • None of the options

    Correct Answer
    A. Increasing blood vessel dilatation
    Explanation
    ATP UP increases blood supply to skeletal muscles by increasing blood vessel dilatation. When ATP UP is present, it promotes the release of nitric oxide, which causes the smooth muscles in the blood vessels to relax. This relaxation leads to the dilation of the blood vessels, allowing for increased blood flow to the skeletal muscles. This increased blood supply ensures that the muscles receive an adequate amount of oxygen and nutrients, which is essential for their proper functioning during physical activity.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 17, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Suman

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