Take Home Quiz Chapter 13

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  • 1/74 Questions

    Which of the following types of infections would be classified as an UTI?

    • Bladder
    • Lung
    • Nasal
    • Throat
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Take Home Quiz Chapter 13 - Quiz
About This Quiz

The 'Take home quiz chapter 13' assesses knowledge on microbiology, focusing on antibiotic susceptibility, pathogens like Clostridium difficile, and specimen collection methods. It is crucial for understanding infection control and effective treatment in medical settings.


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  • 2. 

    Suspected pregnancy is typically confirmed by testing urine for the presence of:

    • ADH

    • FSH

    • HCG

    • TSH

    Correct Answer
    A. HCG
    Explanation
    HCG stands for Human Chorionic Gonadotropin, a hormone that is produced during pregnancy. Testing urine for the presence of HCG is a common method to confirm suspected pregnancy. HCG levels increase rapidly in the early stages of pregnancy and can be detected in urine as early as 10 days after conception. This hormone is not typically present in non-pregnant individuals, making it a reliable indicator of pregnancy. Therefore, testing urine for the presence of HCG is a reliable method to confirm suspected pregnancy.

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  • 3. 

    This fluid comes from the male reproductive system.

    • Pleural

    • Seminal

    • Serous

    • Synovial

    Correct Answer
    A. Seminal
    Explanation
    Seminal fluid is the correct answer because it is a fluid that is produced in the male reproductive system. It is a mixture of sperm and various secretions from the seminal vesicles, prostate gland, and bulbourethral glands. Seminal fluid plays a crucial role in nourishing and transporting sperm during ejaculation.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following can occur in urine specimens that are not processed in a timely fashion?

    • Breakdown of bilirubin

    • Decomposition of cells

    • Overgrowth of bacteria

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    If urine specimens are not processed in a timely fashion, several changes can occur. The breakdown of bilirubin can occur, which may lead to a change in color of the urine. Decomposition of cells can also occur, which may result in the release of cellular components into the urine. Additionally, if the specimens are not processed promptly, there is a higher chance of overgrowth of bacteria, which can affect the accuracy of the test results. Therefore, all of the given options can occur in urine specimens that are not processed in a timely fashion.

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  • 5. 

    What type of specimen is collected during a biopsy?

    • Blood

    • Stool

    • Sweat

    • Tissue

    Correct Answer
    A. Tissue
    Explanation
    During a biopsy, a small sample of tissue is collected from the body for examination under a microscope. This allows doctors to diagnose diseases or conditions such as cancer. Blood, stool, and sweat are not collected during a biopsy as they do not provide the necessary information about the specific area being examined.

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  • 6. 

    What special information in addition to routine identification information is required in labeling a non-blood specimen?

    • Any special handling needs

    • Biohazard warning sticker

    • Ordering physician's name

    • Type and source of specimen

    Correct Answer
    A. Type and source of specimen
    Explanation
    In addition to routine identification information, labeling a non-blood specimen requires the inclusion of the type and source of the specimen. This information is important for proper identification and tracking of the specimen throughout the testing process. It helps ensure that the correct tests are performed and that the results are accurately interpreted.

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  • 7. 

    A minimally invasive way of obtaining cells for dna analysis is to collect a:

    • Breath sample.

    • Buccal swab.

    • Stool sample.

    • Throat swab.

    Correct Answer
    A. Buccal swab.
    Explanation
    A buccal swab is a minimally invasive way of obtaining cells for DNA analysis. It involves using a small brush or swab to collect cells from the inside of the cheek. This method is non-invasive, painless, and can provide a sufficient amount of DNA for analysis. Breath samples may not contain enough DNA or may be contaminated with environmental factors. Stool samples may contain a mixture of DNA from different sources and may not be as reliable. Throat swabs may also be invasive and may not provide enough DNA for analysis. Therefore, the most suitable option for minimally invasive DNA analysis is a buccal swab.

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  • 8. 

    CSF is the abbreviation for fluid that comes from the:

    • Joint cavities.

    • Lung cavity.

    • Pelvic cavity.

    • Spinal cavity.

    Correct Answer
    A. Spinal cavity.
    Explanation
    CSF stands for cerebrospinal fluid, which is a clear, colorless fluid that surrounds the brain and spinal cord. It is produced in the ventricles of the brain and circulates throughout the central nervous system, providing cushioning and protection to the brain and spinal cord. Therefore, the correct answer is "Spinal cavity" because CSF comes from the spinal cavity.

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  • 9. 

    A test that identifies bacteria and the antibiotics that can be used against them is the:

    • AFP test.

    • C&S test.

    • Guaiac test.

    • O&P test.

    Correct Answer
    A. C&S test.
    Explanation
    The C&S test, also known as the Culture and Sensitivity test, is used to identify bacteria and determine the antibiotics that can effectively treat them. This test involves taking a sample of the bacteria and growing it in a laboratory culture. The cultured bacteria are then exposed to various antibiotics to see which ones are most effective in inhibiting their growth. The results of the C&S test help healthcare professionals select the most appropriate antibiotic treatment for bacterial infections.

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  • 10. 

    Fluid aspirated from the sac that surrounds the heart is called:

    • Amniotic fluid.

    • Pericardial fluid.

    • Peritoneal fluid.

    • Synovial fluid.

    Correct Answer
    A. Pericardial fluid.
    Explanation
    Pericardial fluid is the correct answer because it is the fluid that is aspirated from the sac that surrounds the heart. The pericardial sac acts as a protective layer around the heart, and the fluid within it helps to reduce friction and provide lubrication for the movement of the heart. Aspirating this fluid can be done for diagnostic purposes or to relieve excess fluid buildup in conditions like pericarditis or pericardial effusion. Amniotic fluid is the fluid that surrounds the fetus in the amniotic sac during pregnancy. Peritoneal fluid is found in the peritoneal cavity, and synovial fluid is found in joint cavities.

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  • 11. 

    ROutine urinalysis specimens that cannot be analyzed within 2 hours require:

    • 25C storage.

    • A preservative.

    • Recollection.

    • Refrigeration.

    Correct Answer
    A. Refrigeration.
    Explanation
    Routine urinalysis specimens that cannot be analyzed within 2 hours require refrigeration. This is because refrigeration helps to slow down the degradation of the specimen and preserve its integrity for a longer period of time. By keeping the specimen at a lower temperature, the growth of bacteria and other microorganisms is inhibited, preventing any potential changes in the composition of the urine. Refrigeration also helps to maintain the physical and chemical properties of the specimen, ensuring accurate analysis when it is eventually tested. Therefore, refrigeration is necessary to ensure the reliability and accuracy of the urinalysis results.

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  • 12. 

    Midstream clean-catch urine specimens require:

    • A preservative in the container.

    • Collection in a sterile container.

    • Timing of specimen collection.

    • Transportation at 37C.

    Correct Answer
    A. Collection in a sterile container.
    Explanation
    Midstream clean-catch urine specimens require collection in a sterile container because it helps to ensure that the sample is not contaminated with any external bacteria or substances. A sterile container reduces the risk of false-positive or false-negative results by maintaining the integrity of the specimen. It also helps to accurately diagnose any potential urinary tract infections or other urinary system disorders.

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  • 13. 

    This test can be used to evaulate stomach acid production.

    • C-urea breath

    • Gastric analysis

    • Hydrogen breath

    • Sweat chloride

    Correct Answer
    A. Gastric analysis
    Explanation
    Gastric analysis is a test that can be used to evaluate stomach acid production. This test involves collecting and analyzing samples of stomach fluid to determine the levels of acid present. It can help diagnose conditions such as gastritis, gastric ulcers, and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. By measuring the acid levels, gastric analysis can provide valuable information about the functioning of the stomach and help guide appropriate treatment plans for patients.

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  • 14. 

    A urine C&S is typically ordered to:

    • Check for glucose in the urine.

    • Diagnose urinary tract infection.

    • Evaluate the function of the kidneys.

    • Monitor urinary protein levels.

    Correct Answer
    A. Diagnose urinary tract infection.
    Explanation
    A urine C&S (Culture and Sensitivity) test is typically ordered to diagnose urinary tract infections (UTIs). This test involves culturing a urine sample to identify the presence of bacteria or other pathogens that may be causing the infection. It also helps determine the most effective antibiotic treatment by performing sensitivity testing on the isolated bacteria. Monitoring urinary protein levels, evaluating kidney function, and checking for glucose in the urine are different tests that serve different purposes and are not directly related to a urine C&S test.

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  • 15. 

    Amniotic fluid comes from the:

    • Cavity surrounding the spinal cord.

    • Membranes that enclose the lungs.

    • Sac containing a fetus in the womb.

    • Spaces within the moveable joints.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sac containing a fetus in the womb.
    Explanation
    Amniotic fluid comes from the sac containing a fetus in the womb. This fluid is produced by the fetal kidneys and is essential for the development and protection of the fetus. It helps cushion the fetus from external pressure, maintains a constant temperature, allows movement and growth, and provides a sterile environment. The amniotic sac acts as a protective barrier and contains the amniotic fluid, which surrounds and supports the fetus throughout pregnancy.

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  • 16. 

    Semen analysis can be performed to:

    • Detect bladder infection.

    • Evaluate fertility status.

    • Identify cancerous cells.

    • Monitor prostate growth.

    Correct Answer
    A. Evaluate fertility status.
    Explanation
    Semen analysis is a test that examines the quality and quantity of sperm in a man's semen. It is commonly used to evaluate fertility status by assessing various parameters such as sperm count, motility, and morphology. By analyzing these factors, doctors can determine if a man has any fertility issues that may be affecting his ability to conceive a child. The other options mentioned in the question, such as detecting bladder infection, identifying cancerous cells, or monitoring prostate growth, are not directly related to semen analysis and are not the primary purposes of this test.

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  • 17. 

    The most frequently analyzed non-blood specimen is:

    • Feces.

    • Saliva.

    • CSF

    • Urine.

    Correct Answer
    A. Urine.
    Explanation
    Urine is the most frequently analyzed non-blood specimen because it provides valuable information about the body's metabolic and excretory functions. It can be easily collected and contains various substances that can indicate the presence of diseases or abnormalities, such as glucose, proteins, and metabolites. Urine analysis is commonly used to diagnose urinary tract infections, kidney diseases, and monitor drug usage. Additionally, urine can be tested for pregnancy hormones, drugs of abuse, and other toxic substances. Therefore, urine is the preferred non-blood specimen for routine diagnostic testing.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following fluids is obtained through lumbar puncture?

    • Amniotic

    • Gastric

    • Pleural

    • Spinal

    Correct Answer
    A. Spinal
    Explanation
    Spinal fluid is obtained through a procedure called lumbar puncture, also known as a spinal tap. During this procedure, a needle is inserted into the lower back, into the spinal canal, to collect a sample of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). This fluid surrounds the brain and spinal cord, providing protection and nutrients. Lumbar puncture is commonly done to diagnose various conditions affecting the central nervous system, such as infections, bleeding, or certain neurological disorders. It can also be used to measure CSF pressure or administer medications directly into the spinal canal.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following midstream urine collection steps are in the proper order?

    • Void into container; void into second container; void last urine into toilet

    • Void into container; void into tilet; void remaining urine into container

    • Void into tiolet; void into container; void any remaining urine into toilet

    • Void into toilet; void into container; void into toilet; void into container

    Correct Answer
    A. Void into tiolet; void into container; void any remaining urine into toilet
  • 20. 

    Tests commonly performed on CSF include:

    • Cell counts.

    • Glucose.

    • Total Protein

    • All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above" because cell counts, glucose, and total protein are all commonly tested in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis. Cell counts are performed to determine the presence and quantity of different types of cells, such as red blood cells or white blood cells, which can indicate various conditions or infections. Glucose levels in CSF are measured to assess the brain's energy metabolism and can be altered in certain diseases. Total protein levels are measured to evaluate inflammation, infections, or other abnormalities in the central nervous system. Therefore, all these tests are routinely conducted on CSF samples.

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  • 21. 

    Fluid from joint cavities is called:

    • Pericardial fluid

    • Peritoneal fluid.

    • Pleural fluid.

    • Synovial fluid.

    Correct Answer
    A. Synovial fluid.
    Explanation
    Synovial fluid is the correct answer because it is the fluid found in joint cavities. It acts as a lubricant and shock absorber, reducing friction between the bones and allowing smooth movement of the joints. Pericardial fluid is found in the pericardial cavity surrounding the heart, peritoneal fluid is found in the peritoneal cavity in the abdomen, and pleural fluid is found in the pleural cavity surrounding the lungs. None of these fluids are specifically related to joint cavities.

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  • 22. 

    A term used to describe blood that cannot be seen with the naked eye is:

    • Guaiac.

    • Micro.

    • Occult.

    • Serous.

    Correct Answer
    A. Occult.
    Explanation
    Occult is the correct answer because it refers to blood that cannot be seen with the naked eye. The term is commonly used in medical contexts to describe small amounts of blood in the stool or urine that are not visible but can be detected through laboratory tests. Guaiac is a test used to detect hidden blood in the stool, while micro and serous do not specifically relate to blood visibility.

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  • 23. 

    Which urine specimen is normally the most concentrated?

    • 24-hour

    • First morning

    • Random

    • Timed

    Correct Answer
    A. First morning
    Explanation
    The first morning urine specimen is normally the most concentrated because it has been in the bladder for a longer period of time, allowing for the accumulation of waste products. This specimen is usually collected after a night of sleep, during which the body has had time to concentrate the urine due to reduced fluid intake and increased reabsorption of water by the kidneys. In contrast, a 24-hour urine specimen is collected over a longer period of time and may be more diluted, while a random or timed specimen can vary in concentration depending on recent fluid intake.

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  • 24. 

    A type of bacterium that can damage the stomach lining is:

    • Bordetella pertussis.

    • Helicobacter pylori.

    • Neisseria meningitidis.

    • Staphylococcus aureus.

    Correct Answer
    A. Helicobacter pylori.
    Explanation
    Helicobacter pylori is a type of bacterium that can damage the stomach lining. It is known to cause various gastrointestinal diseases, including gastritis and peptic ulcers. This bacterium is able to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach and can weaken the protective mucus layer, allowing it to damage the stomach lining. Helicobacter pylori is also associated with an increased risk of developing stomach cancer.

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  • 25. 

    Urine cytology studies look for the presence of:

    • Abnormal cells.

    • Heavy metals.

    • Illegal drugs.

    • Microbe toxins.

    Correct Answer
    A. Abnormal cells.
    Explanation
    Urine cytology studies are a diagnostic test used to examine urine samples for the presence of abnormal cells. This can help in the detection and diagnosis of various conditions, such as urinary tract infections, bladder cancer, or kidney disease. The test involves examining the cells under a microscope to identify any abnormalities, such as changes in size, shape, or structure. It is not used to detect heavy metals, illegal drugs, or microbe toxins, as these require different testing methods.

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  • 26. 

    A semen specimen is unlikely to be accepted for testing if it is:

    • Collected in a condom.

    • Collected on site.

    • In a sterile container.

    • Kept at 37C.

    Correct Answer
    A. Collected in a condom.
    Explanation
    A semen specimen collected in a condom is unlikely to be accepted for testing because condoms are typically made of materials that can interfere with the analysis of the specimen. The latex or other materials used in condoms can release substances that may affect the accuracy of the test results or even cause damage to the sperm cells. Therefore, it is recommended to collect semen specimens in sterile containers specifically designed for this purpose to ensure the integrity of the sample and obtain reliable test results.

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  • 27. 

    Synovial fluid can be tested to identify:

    • Arthritis and gout.

    • H. Pylori and TB.

    • Hemolytic anemia.

    • Lactose intolerance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Arthritis and gout.
    Explanation
    Synovial fluid can be tested to identify arthritis and gout because these conditions often cause inflammation in the joints, leading to an increased production of synovial fluid. By analyzing the composition of the fluid, doctors can determine if the patient has arthritis or gout, which helps in diagnosing and treating the respective conditions.

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  • 28. 

    A catheterized urine specimen is collected:

    • After stimulating urine production with intravenous histamine.

    • By aspirating it with a sterile syringe inserted into the bladder.

    • Following midstream, clean-catch urine collection procedures.

    • From a sterile tube passed through the urethra into the bladder.

    Correct Answer
    A. From a sterile tube passed through the urethra into the bladder.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "From a sterile tube passed through the urethra into the bladder." This answer suggests that a catheterized urine specimen is collected by inserting a sterile tube through the urethra and into the bladder. This method allows for direct access to the bladder and ensures that the urine sample is collected in a sterile manner. Other options mentioned in the question, such as stimulating urine production with intravenous histamine or using a sterile syringe inserted into the bladder, are not typically associated with catheterized urine specimen collection.

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  • 29. 

    CSF analysis is used in the diagnosis of:

    • Meningitis.

    • Osteoporosis.

    • Pneumonia.

    • Renal failure.

    Correct Answer
    A. Meningitis.
    Explanation
    CSF analysis, or cerebrospinal fluid analysis, is a diagnostic procedure used to examine the fluid that surrounds the brain and spinal cord. It is primarily used in the diagnosis of meningitis, which is an inflammation of the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord. By analyzing the CSF, healthcare professionals can determine if there is an infection present, as well as the specific type of infection, allowing for appropriate treatment to be administered. Osteoporosis, pneumonia, and renal failure are not typically diagnosed using CSF analysis.

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  • 30. 

    What type of specimen is required for a "rapid strep" test?

    • Buccal swab

    • Stool sample

    • Throat swab

    • Urine sample

    Correct Answer
    A. Throat swab
    Explanation
    A "rapid strep" test is used to detect the presence of streptococcal bacteria in the throat. To perform this test, a throat swab is required. This involves using a cotton swab to collect a sample from the back of the throat, specifically the tonsils and the area surrounding them. The swab is then tested for the presence of streptococcal bacteria, which can cause strep throat. A throat swab is the most appropriate specimen for this type of test as it allows for the detection of the bacteria in the area where it is most likely to be present.

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  • 31. 

    An antibiotic susceptibility test determines which antibiotics:

    • Are effective against a particular microbe.

    • Cause an allergic reaction in the patient.

    • Cause the fewest side effects in the patient.

    • Reduce a patient's susceptibility to infection.

    Correct Answer
    A. Are effective against a particular microbe.
    Explanation
    An antibiotic susceptibility test is used to determine which antibiotics are effective against a particular microbe. This test helps healthcare professionals choose the most appropriate antibiotic treatment for an infection, as different microbes may have varying levels of susceptibility to different antibiotics. By identifying the most effective antibiotic, the test helps ensure that the patient receives the most targeted and efficient treatment, minimizing the risk of antibiotic resistance and improving the chances of a successful outcome.

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  • 32. 

    This test includes a physical, chemical, and microscopic analysis of the specimen.

    • AFP

    • C&S

    • GTT

    • UA

    Correct Answer
    A. UA
    Explanation
    The correct answer is UA because the given statement mentions that the test includes a physical, chemical, and microscopic analysis of the specimen. UA stands for Urinalysis, which is a diagnostic test that examines the urine sample for various substances and abnormalities. This test involves both physical examination (color, odor, clarity) and chemical analysis (pH, specific gravity, presence of glucose, protein, etc.) as well as microscopic examination to detect the presence of cells, bacteria, crystals, or other substances. Therefore, UA is the appropriate choice based on the information provided.

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  • 33. 

    Which type of specimen must be handled and analyzed stat?

    • Buccal swab

    • Gastric fluid

    • Spinal fluid

    • Throat swab

    Correct Answer
    A. Spinal fluid
    Explanation
    Spinal fluid must be handled and analyzed stat because it is a clear, colorless fluid that surrounds the brain and spinal cord. It is crucial to analyze spinal fluid quickly in order to diagnose and monitor conditions such as meningitis, encephalitis, and other neurological disorders. The analysis of spinal fluid can provide important information about the presence of infection, inflammation, or bleeding in the central nervous system. Therefore, prompt handling and analysis of spinal fluid is essential for timely and accurate diagnosis and treatment.

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  • 34. 

    Sputum specimens are collected in the diagnosis of:

    • Genetic defects.

    • Lung maturity.

    • Strep throat.

    • Tuberculosis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tuberculosis.
    Explanation
    Sputum specimens are collected in the diagnosis of tuberculosis. Sputum, which is the mucus coughed up from the lungs, can contain the bacteria that cause tuberculosis. By analyzing the sputum sample, laboratory tests can detect the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacteria responsible for tuberculosis infection. This diagnostic method is important in identifying and treating individuals with tuberculosis, as early detection and treatment can help prevent the spread of the disease.

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  • 35. 

    A technician collects a specimen from a child's mouse by rubbing a swab on the inside of the cheek, what type of specimen is most likely being collected?

    • Breath

    • Buccal

    • Sputum

    • Throat

    Correct Answer
    A. Buccal
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Buccal." When a technician collects a specimen from the inside of a child's cheek by rubbing a swab, it is most likely a buccal specimen. Buccal refers to the inside lining of the cheek, and collecting a sample from this area is a common method for DNA testing or diagnosing certain genetic conditions.

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  • 36. 

    What is the recommended procedure for collecting a 24-hour urine specimen?

    • Collect the first morning specimen and all other urine for 24 hours except the first specimen the following morning.

    • Collect the first morning specimen and all urine for 24 hours including the first specimen the following morning.

    • Discard the first morning specimen, start timing, collect all urine for 24 hours including the next morning specimen.

    • Start the timing and collect and preserve every urine specimen that is voided in any consecutive 24-hour period.

    Correct Answer
    A. Discard the first morning specimen, start timing, collect all urine for 24 hours including the next morning specimen.
  • 37. 

    Bone marrow is studied to identify:

    • Arthritic disease.

    • Blood disorders.

    • Diabetes Mellitus.

    • Osteochondritis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood disorders.
    Explanation
    Bone marrow is studied to identify blood disorders. Bone marrow is responsible for producing blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. By studying the bone marrow, doctors can assess the production and maturation of these cells, as well as detect any abnormalities or diseases affecting the blood cells. This can help in diagnosing conditions such as leukemia, anemia, lymphoma, and other blood disorders.

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  • 38. 

    Pleural fluid is aspirated from the:

    • Lungs.

    • Joints.

    • Spine.

    • Stomach.

    Correct Answer
    A. Lungs.
    Explanation
    Pleural fluid is a fluid that surrounds the lungs and helps in their smooth movement during breathing. Aspiration refers to the process of removing fluid or air from a specific area using a needle or a tube. In this case, pleural fluid is aspirated from the lungs, as it is the specific area where this fluid is present. Aspiration of pleural fluid is commonly done for diagnostic purposes, to analyze the fluid for any abnormalities or infections.

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  • 39. 

    A process called iontophoresis is used to collect:

    • Breath.

    • Semen.

    • Sweat.

    • Tears.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sweat.
    Explanation
    Iontophoresis is a process that involves the use of a weak electrical current to transport ions through the skin. It is commonly used to treat excessive sweating or hyperhidrosis. By applying a small electrical current to the skin, iontophoresis can help reduce sweat production in the treated area. Therefore, the correct answer is sweat, as iontophoresis is used to collect and treat excessive sweating.

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  • 40. 

    Clean-catch refers to the collection of urine:

    • After cleaning the genital area.

    • From a catheter in the bladder.

    • In a container that is sterile.

    • The first thing in the morning.

    Correct Answer
    A. After cleaning the genital area.
    Explanation
    Clean-catch refers to the collection of urine after cleaning the genital area. This method is used to obtain a urine sample for testing, as it helps to prevent contamination from bacteria or other substances that may be present on the skin. By cleaning the genital area before collecting the urine, the sample is more likely to be accurate and representative of the individual's urinary tract.

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  • 41. 

    This type of specimen is obtained by inserting a flexible swab through the nose.

    • AFP

    • Buccal

    • Gastric

    • NP

    Correct Answer
    A. NP
    Explanation
    This type of specimen is obtained by inserting a flexible swab through the nose. The abbreviation "NP" stands for Nasopharyngeal, which refers to the area at the back of the nose and upper part of the throat. Therefore, this type of specimen is obtained by inserting a flexible swab through the nose to collect samples from the nasopharynx.

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  • 42. 

    Which urine test requries a midstream clean-catch specimen?

    • Creatinine clearance

    • Culture and sensitivity

    • Glucose tolerance test

    • Routine urinalysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Culture and sensitivity
    Explanation
    A midstream clean-catch specimen is required for a urine culture and sensitivity test. This method involves collecting urine in the middle of the stream after the initial flow, which helps to minimize contamination from the urethra or external genitalia. This type of specimen collection is important for accurate results in identifying and determining the sensitivity of bacteria or other microorganisms present in the urine. It is commonly used to diagnose urinary tract infections and guide appropriate antibiotic treatment.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following tests is sometimes performed on amniotic fluid?

    • Alkaline phosphatase

    • Alpha-fetoprotein

    • Lactic dehydrogenase

    • Reticulocyte count

    Correct Answer
    A. Alpha-fetoprotein
    Explanation
    Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is sometimes performed on amniotic fluid. AFP is a protein produced by the fetus and is found in high levels in the amniotic fluid during pregnancy. This test is commonly used to screen for certain birth defects, such as neural tube defects and Down syndrome. High levels of AFP in the amniotic fluid may indicate a potential problem with the fetus, while low levels may suggest a risk for chromosomal abnormalities. Therefore, performing an AFP test on amniotic fluid can provide valuable information about the health and development of the fetus.

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  • 44. 

    What is sputum?

    • Gastric fluid

    • Nasal fluid

    • Phlegm

    • Saliva

    Correct Answer
    A. Phlegm
    Explanation
    Sputum refers to the mucus that is coughed up from the respiratory system. It is commonly associated with respiratory infections or conditions such as bronchitis or pneumonia. Phlegm is a thick, sticky substance that is produced by the lungs and respiratory tract. Therefore, the correct answer is phlegm.

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  • 45. 

    This microbe is often the causative agent of hospital-acquired diarrhea.

    • Clostridium difficile

    • Helicobacter pylori

    • Neisseria menirzgitidis

    • Staphylococcus aureus

    Correct Answer
    A. Clostridium difficile
    Explanation
    Clostridium difficile is often the causative agent of hospital-acquired diarrhea. This bacterium is commonly found in healthcare settings and can cause infections in patients who have been exposed to antibiotics. It produces toxins that damage the lining of the intestines, leading to symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and fever. Clostridium difficile infections are a significant concern in hospitals and other healthcare facilities, as they can be difficult to treat and can spread easily among patients. Therefore, Clostridium difficile is the correct answer as it is known to be a common cause of hospital-acquired diarrhea.

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  • 46. 

    The guaiac test detects:

    • Cystic fibrosis.

    • Lung maturity.

    • Occult blood.

    • Tuberculosis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Occult blood.
    Explanation
    The guaiac test is a screening test used to detect the presence of occult blood in the stool or other body fluids. Occult blood refers to blood that is not visible to the naked eye. This test is commonly used to screen for gastrointestinal bleeding, such as from ulcers, polyps, or colorectal cancer. It works by detecting the activity of an enzyme called peroxidase, which is found in the heme component of hemoglobin. If the test is positive, it suggests the presence of blood in the sample, indicating a possible underlying condition.

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  • 47. 

    This type of sample is sometimes collected for drug testing because it is not easily tampered with or altered.

    • Bone marrow

    • Buccal swab

    • Hair sample

    • Urine sample

    Correct Answer
    A. Hair sample
    Explanation
    Hair samples are sometimes collected for drug testing because they are not easily tampered with or altered. Unlike urine samples, which can be diluted or substituted, or buccal swabs, which can be contaminated, hair samples provide a more reliable and accurate representation of an individual's drug use history. Hair samples can detect drug use over a longer period of time, making them a preferred choice for drug testing in certain situations.

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  • 48. 

    Which site is typically used when performing a sweat chloride test on a toddler?

    • Arm

    • Hand

    • Thigh

    • Wrist

    Correct Answer
    A. Thigh
    Explanation
    The thigh is typically used when performing a sweat chloride test on a toddler. This is because the thigh area provides a larger surface area for collecting sweat, which is necessary for accurate testing. Additionally, the thigh is a less sensitive area compared to the arm or hand, making it more comfortable for the toddler during the procedure. The wrist is not typically used because it may not provide enough sweat for testing purposes.

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  • 49. 

    Which type of urine specimen is best for pregnancy testing?

    • 24-hour

    • Clean-catch

    • First voided

    • Random

    Correct Answer
    A. First voided
    Explanation
    The first voided urine specimen is the best for pregnancy testing because it contains a higher concentration of the pregnancy hormone hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin). This hormone is produced by the placenta shortly after implantation and its levels are highest in the morning, making the first urine of the day the most ideal for testing. The first voided urine is also less diluted compared to later urine samples, providing a more accurate result.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 10, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Phbmuststudy
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