Take Home Quiz Chapter 13

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1/74 Questions

An antibiotic susceptibility test determines which antibiotics:
- Are effective against a particular microbe.
- Cause an allergic reaction in the patient.
- Cause the fewest side effects in the patient.
- Reduce a patient's susceptibility to infection.

About This Quiz

The 'Take home quiz chapter 13' assesses knowledge on microbiology, focusing on antibiotic susceptibility, pathogens like Clostridium difficile, and specimen collection methods. It is crucial for understanding infection control and effective treatment in medical settings.

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2.

This microbe is often the causative agent of hospital-acquired diarrhea.
- Clostridium difficile
- Helicobacter pylori
- Neisseria menirzgitidis
- Staphylococcus aureus
Correct Answer

A. Clostridium difficile

Explanation

Clostridium difficile is often the causative agent of hospital-acquired diarrhea. This bacterium is commonly found in healthcare settings and can cause infections in patients who have been exposed to antibiotics. It produces toxins that damage the lining of the intestines, leading to symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and fever. Clostridium difficile infections are a significant concern in hospitals and other healthcare facilities, as they can be difficult to treat and can spread easily among patients. Therefore, Clostridium difficile is the correct answer as it is known to be a common cause of hospital-acquired diarrhea.

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3.

A catheterized urine specimen is collected:
- After stimulating urine production with intravenous histamine.
- By aspirating it with a sterile syringe inserted into the bladder.
- Following midstream, clean-catch urine collection procedures.
- From a sterile tube passed through the urethra into the bladder.
Correct Answer

A. From a sterile tube passed through the urethra into the bladder.

Explanation

The correct answer is "From a sterile tube passed through the urethra into the bladder." This answer suggests that a catheterized urine specimen is collected by inserting a sterile tube through the urethra and into the bladder. This method allows for direct access to the bladder and ensures that the urine sample is collected in a sterile manner. Other options mentioned in the question, such as stimulating urine production with intravenous histamine or using a sterile syringe inserted into the bladder, are not typically associated with catheterized urine specimen collection.

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4.

CSF is the abbreviation for fluid that comes from the:
- Joint cavities.
- Lung cavity.
- Pelvic cavity.
- Spinal cavity.
Correct Answer

A. Spinal cavity.

Explanation

CSF stands for cerebrospinal fluid, which is a clear, colorless fluid that surrounds the brain and spinal cord. It is produced in the ventricles of the brain and circulates throughout the central nervous system, providing cushioning and protection to the brain and spinal cord. Therefore, the correct answer is "Spinal cavity" because CSF comes from the spinal cavity.

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5.

Clean-catch refers to the collection of urine:
- After cleaning the genital area.
- From a catheter in the bladder.
- In a container that is sterile.
- The first thing in the morning.
Correct Answer

A. After cleaning the genital area.

Explanation

Clean-catch refers to the collection of urine after cleaning the genital area. This method is used to obtain a urine sample for testing, as it helps to prevent contamination from bacteria or other substances that may be present on the skin. By cleaning the genital area before collecting the urine, the sample is more likely to be accurate and representative of the individual's urinary tract.

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6.

A test that identifies bacteria and the antibiotics that can be used against them is the:
- AFP test.
- C&S test.
- Guaiac test.
- O&P test.
Correct Answer

A. C&S test.

Explanation

The C&S test, also known as the Culture and Sensitivity test, is used to identify bacteria and determine the antibiotics that can effectively treat them. This test involves taking a sample of the bacteria and growing it in a laboratory culture. The cultured bacteria are then exposed to various antibiotics to see which ones are most effective in inhibiting their growth. The results of the C&S test help healthcare professionals select the most appropriate antibiotic treatment for bacterial infections.

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7.

Which of the following types of infections would be classified as an UTI?
- Bladder
- Lung
- Nasal
- Throat
Correct Answer

A. Bladder

Explanation

A urinary tract infection (UTI) refers to an infection that occurs in any part of the urinary system, which includes the bladder, kidneys, ureters, and urethra. The bladder is a specific part of the urinary system, responsible for storing urine before it is eliminated from the body. Therefore, a bladder infection is classified as a UTI. In contrast, the lung, nasal, and throat infections mentioned in the options do not involve the urinary system and are unrelated to UTIs.

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8.

Fluid aspirated from the sac that surrounds the heart is called:
- Amniotic fluid.
- Pericardial fluid.
- Peritoneal fluid.
- Synovial fluid.
Correct Answer

A. Pericardial fluid.

Explanation

Pericardial fluid is the correct answer because it is the fluid that is aspirated from the sac that surrounds the heart. The pericardial sac acts as a protective layer around the heart, and the fluid within it helps to reduce friction and provide lubrication for the movement of the heart. Aspirating this fluid can be done for diagnostic purposes or to relieve excess fluid buildup in conditions like pericarditis or pericardial effusion. Amniotic fluid is the fluid that surrounds the fetus in the amniotic sac during pregnancy. Peritoneal fluid is found in the peritoneal cavity, and synovial fluid is found in joint cavities.

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9.

This test includes a physical, chemical, and microscopic analysis of the specimen.
- AFP
- C&S
- GTT
- UA
Correct Answer

A. UA

Explanation

The correct answer is UA because the given statement mentions that the test includes a physical, chemical, and microscopic analysis of the specimen. UA stands for Urinalysis, which is a diagnostic test that examines the urine sample for various substances and abnormalities. This test involves both physical examination (color, odor, clarity) and chemical analysis (pH, specific gravity, presence of glucose, protein, etc.) as well as microscopic examination to detect the presence of cells, bacteria, crystals, or other substances. Therefore, UA is the appropriate choice based on the information provided.

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10.

A technician is aspirating a speciemen from flexible tube coming out of a patient's nose. What type of was was most likely ordered?
- Gastric analysis
- H. Pylori culture
- Sputum culture
- Stomach biopsy
Correct Answer

A. Gastric analysis

Explanation

The correct answer is gastric analysis. Gastric analysis involves collecting a sample of gastric fluid from the stomach for laboratory testing. In this scenario, the technician is aspirating a specimen from a flexible tube coming out of the patient's nose, which is a common method used to collect gastric fluid. This procedure helps to evaluate the acid production and other components of the gastric fluid, aiding in the diagnosis and management of various gastrointestinal disorders.

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11.

This type of specimen is obtained by inserting a flexible swab through the nose.
- AFP
- Buccal
- Gastric
- NP
Correct Answer

A. NP

Explanation

This type of specimen is obtained by inserting a flexible swab through the nose. The abbreviation "NP" stands for Nasopharyngeal, which refers to the area at the back of the nose and upper part of the throat. Therefore, this type of specimen is obtained by inserting a flexible swab through the nose to collect samples from the nasopharynx.

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12.

This test can be used to evaulate stomach acid production.
- C-urea breath
- Gastric analysis
- Hydrogen breath
- Sweat chloride
Correct Answer

A. Gastric analysis

Explanation

Gastric analysis is a test that can be used to evaluate stomach acid production. This test involves collecting and analyzing samples of stomach fluid to determine the levels of acid present. It can help diagnose conditions such as gastritis, gastric ulcers, and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. By measuring the acid levels, gastric analysis can provide valuable information about the functioning of the stomach and help guide appropriate treatment plans for patients.

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13.

A technician collects a specimen from a child's mouse by rubbing a swab on the inside of the cheek, what type of specimen is most likely being collected?
- Breath
- Buccal
- Sputum
- Throat
Correct Answer

A. Buccal

Explanation

The correct answer is "Buccal." When a technician collects a specimen from the inside of a child's cheek by rubbing a swab, it is most likely a buccal specimen. Buccal refers to the inside lining of the cheek, and collecting a sample from this area is a common method for DNA testing or diagnosing certain genetic conditions.

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14.

A type of bacterium that can damage the stomach lining is:
- Bordetella pertussis.
- Helicobacter pylori.
- Neisseria meningitidis.
- Staphylococcus aureus.
Correct Answer

A. Helicobacter pylori.

Explanation

Helicobacter pylori is a type of bacterium that can damage the stomach lining. It is known to cause various gastrointestinal diseases, including gastritis and peptic ulcers. This bacterium is able to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach and can weaken the protective mucus layer, allowing it to damage the stomach lining. Helicobacter pylori is also associated with an increased risk of developing stomach cancer.

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15.

An exocrine gland disorder that primarily affects the lungs, upper respiratory tract, liver, and pancreas is:
- Cystic fibrosis.
- Emphysema.
- Herpes zoster.
- Tuberculosis.
Correct Answer

A. Cystic fibrosis.

Explanation

Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the exocrine glands, which are responsible for producing and secreting various substances such as mucus and digestive enzymes. This disorder primarily affects the lungs, upper respiratory tract, liver, and pancreas. It causes the production of thick and sticky mucus, leading to respiratory problems, digestive issues, and other complications. Emphysema is a lung condition characterized by the destruction of the air sacs in the lungs, while herpes zoster is a viral infection causing a painful rash. Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection primarily affecting the lungs. Therefore, the correct answer is cystic fibrosis.

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16.

A term used to describe blood that cannot be seen with the naked eye is:
- Guaiac.
- Micro.
- Occult.
- Serous.
Correct Answer

A. Occult.

Explanation

Occult is the correct answer because it refers to blood that cannot be seen with the naked eye. The term is commonly used in medical contexts to describe small amounts of blood in the stool or urine that are not visible but can be detected through laboratory tests. Guaiac is a test used to detect hidden blood in the stool, while micro and serous do not specifically relate to blood visibility.

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17.

What special information in addition to routine identification information is required in labeling a non-blood specimen?
- Any special handling needs
- Biohazard warning sticker
- Ordering physician's name
- Type and source of specimen
Correct Answer

A. Type and source of specimen

Explanation

In addition to routine identification information, labeling a non-blood specimen requires the inclusion of the type and source of the specimen. This information is important for proper identification and tracking of the specimen throughout the testing process. It helps ensure that the correct tests are performed and that the results are accurately interpreted.

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18.

Which type of specimen must be handled and analyzed stat?
- Buccal swab
- Gastric fluid
- Spinal fluid
- Throat swab
Correct Answer

A. Spinal fluid

Explanation

Spinal fluid must be handled and analyzed stat because it is a clear, colorless fluid that surrounds the brain and spinal cord. It is crucial to analyze spinal fluid quickly in order to diagnose and monitor conditions such as meningitis, encephalitis, and other neurological disorders. The analysis of spinal fluid can provide important information about the presence of infection, inflammation, or bleeding in the central nervous system. Therefore, prompt handling and analysis of spinal fluid is essential for timely and accurate diagnosis and treatment.

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19.

The most frequently analyzed non-blood specimen is:
- Feces.
- Saliva.
- CSF
- Urine.
Correct Answer

A. Urine.

Explanation

Urine is the most frequently analyzed non-blood specimen because it provides valuable information about the body's metabolic and excretory functions. It can be easily collected and contains various substances that can indicate the presence of diseases or abnormalities, such as glucose, proteins, and metabolites. Urine analysis is commonly used to diagnose urinary tract infections, kidney diseases, and monitor drug usage. Additionally, urine can be tested for pregnancy hormones, drugs of abuse, and other toxic substances. Therefore, urine is the preferred non-blood specimen for routine diagnostic testing.

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20.

Which of the following can occur in urine specimens that are not processed in a timely fashion?
- Breakdown of bilirubin
- Decomposition of cells
- Overgrowth of bacteria
- All of the above
Correct Answer

A. All of the above

Explanation

If urine specimens are not processed in a timely fashion, several changes can occur. The breakdown of bilirubin can occur, which may lead to a change in color of the urine. Decomposition of cells can also occur, which may result in the release of cellular components into the urine. Additionally, if the specimens are not processed promptly, there is a higher chance of overgrowth of bacteria, which can affect the accuracy of the test results. Therefore, all of the given options can occur in urine specimens that are not processed in a timely fashion.

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21.

Which specimen is ideal for most urine tests?
- 8-hour
- 24-hour
- Fasting
- Random
Correct Answer

A. 8-hour

Explanation

The 8-hour specimen is ideal for most urine tests because it is a timed collection that ensures the urine sample is representative of the body's normal metabolic state. This specimen is collected over an 8-hour period, typically starting in the morning after the first void, and includes all urine produced during that time. It is useful for assessing kidney function, detecting urinary tract infections, and monitoring certain medical conditions. The 8-hour specimen provides a standardized and controlled collection method, making it a reliable choice for urine testing.

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22.

ROutine urinalysis specimens that cannot be analyzed within 2 hours require:
- 25C storage.
- A preservative.
- Recollection.
- Refrigeration.
Correct Answer

A. Refrigeration.

Explanation

Routine urinalysis specimens that cannot be analyzed within 2 hours require refrigeration. This is because refrigeration helps to slow down the degradation of the specimen and preserve its integrity for a longer period of time. By keeping the specimen at a lower temperature, the growth of bacteria and other microorganisms is inhibited, preventing any potential changes in the composition of the urine. Refrigeration also helps to maintain the physical and chemical properties of the specimen, ensuring accurate analysis when it is eventually tested. Therefore, refrigeration is necessary to ensure the reliability and accuracy of the urinalysis results.

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23.

Which of the following is typically included in a routine UA?
- Chemical analysis
- C&S
- Cytological analysis
- Drug screening
Correct Answer

A. Chemical analysis

Explanation

A routine UA (urinalysis) typically includes a chemical analysis. This involves testing the urine for various substances such as glucose, protein, blood, and pH levels. This analysis helps in diagnosing and monitoring conditions like urinary tract infections, kidney diseases, and diabetes. C&S (culture and sensitivity) is a separate test used to identify and determine the susceptibility of bacteria causing a urinary tract infection. Cytological analysis involves examining cells under a microscope and is not typically included in a routine UA. Drug screening is also a separate test used to detect the presence of drugs or their metabolites in the urine.

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24.

A urine C&S is typically ordered to:
- Check for glucose in the urine.
- Diagnose urinary tract infection.
- Evaluate the function of the kidneys.
- Monitor urinary protein levels.
Correct Answer

A. Diagnose urinary tract infection.

Explanation

A urine C&S (Culture and Sensitivity) test is typically ordered to diagnose urinary tract infections (UTIs). This test involves culturing a urine sample to identify the presence of bacteria or other pathogens that may be causing the infection. It also helps determine the most effective antibiotic treatment by performing sensitivity testing on the isolated bacteria. Monitoring urinary protein levels, evaluating kidney function, and checking for glucose in the urine are different tests that serve different purposes and are not directly related to a urine C&S test.

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25.

Urine cytology studies look for the presence of:
- Abnormal cells.
- Heavy metals.
- Illegal drugs.
- Microbe toxins.
Correct Answer

A. Abnormal cells.

Explanation

Urine cytology studies are a diagnostic test used to examine urine samples for the presence of abnormal cells. This can help in the detection and diagnosis of various conditions, such as urinary tract infections, bladder cancer, or kidney disease. The test involves examining the cells under a microscope to identify any abnormalities, such as changes in size, shape, or structure. It is not used to detect heavy metals, illegal drugs, or microbe toxins, as these require different testing methods.

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26.

Urine drug screening is unable to:
- Detect prescription drug abuse.
- Detect the use of illegal drugs.
- Identify a deliberate overdose.
- Monitor therapeutic drug use.
Correct Answer

A. Identify a deliberate overdose.

Explanation

Urine drug screening is a method used to detect the presence of drugs in a person's system. It can be used to identify the use of illegal drugs and monitor therapeutic drug use, as well as detect prescription drug abuse. However, it is not able to specifically identify a deliberate overdose. While an overdose may be detected through the presence of high levels of a drug in the urine, the test itself cannot determine whether the overdose was intentional or accidental. This distinction would require additional information and investigation.

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27.

Suspected pregnancy is typically confirmed by testing urine for the presence of:
- ADH
- FSH
- HCG
- TSH
Correct Answer

A. HCG

Explanation

HCG stands for Human Chorionic Gonadotropin, a hormone that is produced during pregnancy. Testing urine for the presence of HCG is a common method to confirm suspected pregnancy. HCG levels increase rapidly in the early stages of pregnancy and can be detected in urine as early as 10 days after conception. This hormone is not typically present in non-pregnant individuals, making it a reliable indicator of pregnancy. Therefore, testing urine for the presence of HCG is a reliable method to confirm suspected pregnancy.

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28.

Which type of urine specimen is best for pregnancy testing?
- 24-hour
- Clean-catch
- First voided
- Random
Correct Answer

A. First voided

Explanation

The first voided urine specimen is the best for pregnancy testing because it contains a higher concentration of the pregnancy hormone hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin). This hormone is produced by the placenta shortly after implantation and its levels are highest in the morning, making the first urine of the day the most ideal for testing. The first voided urine is also less diluted compared to later urine samples, providing a more accurate result.

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29.

Which type of specimen is typically used for routine urinalysis?
- 24-hour
- Double-voided
- First morning
- Random
Correct Answer

A. Random

Explanation

Random specimens are typically used for routine urinalysis because they provide a representative sample of the patient's urine at any given time. This type of specimen can be collected at any time during the day, without any specific instructions regarding timing or preparation. It is convenient for both patients and healthcare providers, as it does not require strict adherence to specific collection protocols. Random specimens are commonly used to evaluate various aspects of urine, such as color, appearance, pH, specific gravity, and the presence of abnormal substances like glucose, protein, or blood.

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30.

Which urine specimen is normally the most concentrated?
- 24-hour
- First morning
- Random
- Timed
Correct Answer

A. First morning

Explanation

The first morning urine specimen is normally the most concentrated because it has been in the bladder for a longer period of time, allowing for the accumulation of waste products. This specimen is usually collected after a night of sleep, during which the body has had time to concentrate the urine due to reduced fluid intake and increased reabsorption of water by the kidneys. In contrast, a 24-hour urine specimen is collected over a longer period of time and may be more diluted, while a random or timed specimen can vary in concentration depending on recent fluid intake.

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31.

This test may require serial urine specimens collected at specific times.
- Creatinine clearance
- Glucose tolerance test
- Urine drug screening
- Urine pregnancy test
Correct Answer

A. Glucose tolerance test

Explanation

The glucose tolerance test is a diagnostic test used to evaluate how the body metabolizes glucose. It involves collecting serial urine specimens at specific times to measure glucose levels and assess the body's ability to regulate blood sugar. This test is commonly used to diagnose diabetes and gestational diabetes.

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32.

What is the recommended procedure for collecting a 24-hour urine specimen?
- Collect the first morning specimen and all other urine for 24 hours except the first specimen the following morning.
- Collect the first morning specimen and all urine for 24 hours including the first specimen the following morning.
- Discard the first morning specimen, start timing, collect all urine for 24 hours including the next morning specimen.
- Start the timing and collect and preserve every urine specimen that is voided in any consecutive 24-hour period.
Correct Answer

A. Discard the first morning specimen, start timing, collect all urine for 24 hours including the next morning specimen.
33.

Which of the following statements is true of a urine creatinine clearance test?
- A 24-hour urine specimen is required.
- A fasting blood creatinine is required.
- All of te urine is to be double-voided.
- The urine is kept at body temperature.
Correct Answer

A. A 24-hour urine specimen is required.

Explanation

A urine creatinine clearance test requires a 24-hour urine specimen. This is because the test measures the amount of creatinine, a waste product, that is cleared from the blood by the kidneys and excreted in the urine over a 24-hour period. By collecting all the urine produced in a day, the test can provide an accurate measurement of kidney function. Fasting blood creatinine is not required for this test, and there is no mention of double-voiding or keeping the urine at body temperature in the question.

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34.

This type of specimen is sometimes used to compare urine concentrations of glucose and ketones to blood concentrations.
- 8-hour
- 24-hour
- Double-voided
- Pooked timed
Correct Answer

A. Double-voided

Explanation

Double-voided specimens are sometimes used to compare urine concentrations of glucose and ketones to blood concentrations. This is because a double-voided specimen is collected by collecting urine twice in a short period of time, typically within a few hours. This allows for a more accurate comparison between urine and blood concentrations, as it reduces the potential for variations in urine concentration due to factors such as hydration levels or time of day.

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35.

Which urine test requries a midstream clean-catch specimen?
- Creatinine clearance
- Culture and sensitivity
- Glucose tolerance test
- Routine urinalysis
Correct Answer

A. Culture and sensitivity

Explanation

A midstream clean-catch specimen is required for a urine culture and sensitivity test. This method involves collecting urine in the middle of the stream after the initial flow, which helps to minimize contamination from the urethra or external genitalia. This type of specimen collection is important for accurate results in identifying and determining the sensitivity of bacteria or other microorganisms present in the urine. It is commonly used to diagnose urinary tract infections and guide appropriate antibiotic treatment.

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36.

Which of the following midstream urine collection steps are in the proper order?
- Void into container; void into second container; void last urine into toilet
- Void into container; void into tilet; void remaining urine into container
- Void into tiolet; void into container; void any remaining urine into toilet
- Void into toilet; void into container; void into toilet; void into container
Correct Answer

A. Void into tiolet; void into container; void any remaining urine into toilet
37.

Midstream clean-catch urine specimens require:
- A preservative in the container.
- Collection in a sterile container.
- Timing of specimen collection.
- Transportation at 37C.
Correct Answer

A. Collection in a sterile container.

Explanation

Midstream clean-catch urine specimens require collection in a sterile container because it helps to ensure that the sample is not contaminated with any external bacteria or substances. A sterile container reduces the risk of false-positive or false-negative results by maintaining the integrity of the specimen. It also helps to accurately diagnose any potential urinary tract infections or other urinary system disorders.

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38.

Which urine specimen is obtained by inserting a sterile needle directly into the urinary bladder and aspirating a sample of urine?
- Catheterized
- Double-voided
- Pediatric
- Suprapubic
Correct Answer

A. Suprapubic

Explanation

Suprapubic urine specimen is obtained by inserting a sterile needle directly into the urinary bladder and aspirating a sample of urine. This method is used when a clean catch or catheterized urine specimen cannot be obtained, or when a more accurate sample is needed for diagnostic purposes.

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39.

Which of the following tests is sometimes performed on amniotic fluid?
- Alkaline phosphatase
- Alpha-fetoprotein
- Lactic dehydrogenase
- Reticulocyte count
Correct Answer

A. Alpha-fetoprotein

Explanation

Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is sometimes performed on amniotic fluid. AFP is a protein produced by the fetus and is found in high levels in the amniotic fluid during pregnancy. This test is commonly used to screen for certain birth defects, such as neural tube defects and Down syndrome. High levels of AFP in the amniotic fluid may indicate a potential problem with the fetus, while low levels may suggest a risk for chromosomal abnormalities. Therefore, performing an AFP test on amniotic fluid can provide valuable information about the health and development of the fetus.

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40.

Amniotic fluid comes from the:
- Cavity surrounding the spinal cord.
- Membranes that enclose the lungs.
- Sac containing a fetus in the womb.
- Spaces within the moveable joints.
Correct Answer

A. Sac containing a fetus in the womb.

Explanation

Amniotic fluid comes from the sac containing a fetus in the womb. This fluid is produced by the fetal kidneys and is essential for the development and protection of the fetus. It helps cushion the fetus from external pressure, maintains a constant temperature, allows movement and growth, and provides a sterile environment. The amniotic sac acts as a protective barrier and contains the amniotic fluid, which surrounds and supports the fetus throughout pregnancy.

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41.

CSF analysis is used in the diagnosis of:
- Meningitis.
- Osteoporosis.
- Pneumonia.
- Renal failure.
Correct Answer

A. Meningitis.

Explanation

CSF analysis, or cerebrospinal fluid analysis, is a diagnostic procedure used to examine the fluid that surrounds the brain and spinal cord. It is primarily used in the diagnosis of meningitis, which is an inflammation of the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord. By analyzing the CSF, healthcare professionals can determine if there is an infection present, as well as the specific type of infection, allowing for appropriate treatment to be administered. Osteoporosis, pneumonia, and renal failure are not typically diagnosed using CSF analysis.

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42.

Tests commonly performed on CSF include:
- Cell counts.
- Glucose.
- Total Protein
- All of the above.
Correct Answer

A. All of the above.

Explanation

The correct answer is "All of the above" because cell counts, glucose, and total protein are all commonly tested in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis. Cell counts are performed to determine the presence and quantity of different types of cells, such as red blood cells or white blood cells, which can indicate various conditions or infections. Glucose levels in CSF are measured to assess the brain's energy metabolism and can be altered in certain diseases. Total protein levels are measured to evaluate inflammation, infections, or other abnormalities in the central nervous system. Therefore, all these tests are routinely conducted on CSF samples.

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43.

This test requries intravenous administration of histamine or pentagastrin.
- Alpha-fetoprotein
- Gastric analysis
- Sweat chloride
- Urine porphyrins
Correct Answer

A. Gastric analysis

Explanation

The correct answer is gastric analysis. This test requires the intravenous administration of histamine or pentagastrin. Gastric analysis is a procedure used to measure the amount of acid produced by the stomach. By stimulating the stomach to produce acid, the test can help diagnose conditions such as peptic ulcers, gastritis, and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. The administration of histamine or pentagastrin helps to stimulate acid production, and the analysis of the gastric fluid can provide valuable information about the functioning of the stomach.

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44.

An NP culture swab is sometimes collected to detect the presence of organisms that cause:
- Inflamed throats.
- Stomach ulcers.
- Urinary infection.
- Whooping cough.
Correct Answer

A. Whooping cough.

Explanation

An NP culture swab is collected to detect the presence of organisms that cause whooping cough. This is because whooping cough is primarily caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis, which can be detected through a culture swab of the nasopharynx (NP). The swab is used to collect a sample from the back of the throat and nose, where the bacteria tend to colonize. By analyzing the sample, healthcare professionals can determine if the individual has been infected with the bacteria and is therefore at risk of developing whooping cough.

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45.

Semen analysis can be performed to:
- Detect bladder infection.
- Evaluate fertility status.
- Identify cancerous cells.
- Monitor prostate growth.
Correct Answer

A. Evaluate fertility status.

Explanation

Semen analysis is a test that examines the quality and quantity of sperm in a man's semen. It is commonly used to evaluate fertility status by assessing various parameters such as sperm count, motility, and morphology. By analyzing these factors, doctors can determine if a man has any fertility issues that may be affecting his ability to conceive a child. The other options mentioned in the question, such as detecting bladder infection, identifying cancerous cells, or monitoring prostate growth, are not directly related to semen analysis and are not the primary purposes of this test.

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46.

A semen specimen is unlikely to be accepted for testing if it is:
- Collected in a condom.
- Collected on site.
- In a sterile container.
- Kept at 37C.
Correct Answer

A. Collected in a condom.

Explanation

A semen specimen collected in a condom is unlikely to be accepted for testing because condoms are typically made of materials that can interfere with the analysis of the specimen. The latex or other materials used in condoms can release substances that may affect the accuracy of the test results or even cause damage to the sperm cells. Therefore, it is recommended to collect semen specimens in sterile containers specifically designed for this purpose to ensure the integrity of the sample and obtain reliable test results.

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47.

Which of the following fluids is obtained through lumbar puncture?
- Amniotic
- Gastric
- Pleural
- Spinal
Correct Answer

A. Spinal

Explanation

Spinal fluid is obtained through a procedure called lumbar puncture, also known as a spinal tap. During this procedure, a needle is inserted into the lower back, into the spinal canal, to collect a sample of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). This fluid surrounds the brain and spinal cord, providing protection and nutrients. Lumbar puncture is commonly done to diagnose various conditions affecting the central nervous system, such as infections, bleeding, or certain neurological disorders. It can also be used to measure CSF pressure or administer medications directly into the spinal canal.

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48.

Which of the following is a type of serous fluid?
- Gastric
- Pleural
- Seminal
- Synovial
Correct Answer

A. Pleural

Explanation

Pleural fluid is a type of serous fluid that is found in the pleural cavity, which surrounds the lungs. It helps to lubricate the surfaces of the pleura, reducing friction during breathing. Pleural fluid also plays a role in maintaining the pressure balance within the pleural cavity, allowing the lungs to expand and contract properly. The other options listed, gastric, seminal, and synovial, are not types of serous fluid.

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49.

Peritoneal fluid comes from the:
- Abdominal cavity.
- Lung cavities.
- Pericardial sac.
- Spinal cavity.
Correct Answer

A. Abdominal cavity.

Explanation

Peritoneal fluid is a clear, watery fluid that fills the peritoneal cavity, which is located in the abdominal cavity. This fluid serves several important functions, including lubricating the organs and allowing them to move smoothly against each other. It also helps to protect the organs from friction and provides a medium for nutrient and waste exchange. The other options, such as lung cavities, pericardial sac, and spinal cavity, do not produce peritoneal fluid.

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Take Home Quiz Chapter 13

An antibiotic susceptibility test determines which antibiotics:

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This microbe is often the causative agent of hospital-acquired diarrhea.

A catheterized urine specimen is collected:

CSF is the abbreviation for fluid that comes from the:

Clean-catch refers to the collection of urine:

A test that identifies bacteria and the antibiotics that can be used against them is the:

Which of the following types of infections would be classified as an UTI?

Fluid aspirated from the sac that surrounds the heart is called:

This test includes a physical, chemical, and microscopic analysis of the specimen.

A technician is aspirating a speciemen from flexible tube coming out of a patient's nose. What type of was was most likely ordered?

This type of specimen is obtained by inserting a flexible swab through the nose.

This test can be used to evaulate stomach acid production.

A technician collects a specimen from a child's mouse by rubbing a swab on the inside of the cheek, what type of specimen is most likely being collected?

A type of bacterium that can damage the stomach lining is:

An exocrine gland disorder that primarily affects the lungs, upper respiratory tract, liver, and pancreas is:

A term used to describe blood that cannot be seen with the naked eye is:

What special information in addition to routine identification information is required in labeling a non-blood specimen?

Which type of specimen must be handled and analyzed stat?

The most frequently analyzed non-blood specimen is:

Which of the following can occur in urine specimens that are not processed in a timely fashion?

Which specimen is ideal for most urine tests?

ROutine urinalysis specimens that cannot be analyzed within 2 hours require:

Which of the following is typically included in a routine UA?

A urine C&S is typically ordered to:

Urine cytology studies look for the presence of:

Urine drug screening is unable to:

Suspected pregnancy is typically confirmed by testing urine for the presence of:

Which type of urine specimen is best for pregnancy testing?

Which type of specimen is typically used for routine urinalysis?

Which urine specimen is normally the most concentrated?

This test may require serial urine specimens collected at specific times.

What is the recommended procedure for collecting a 24-hour urine specimen?

Which of the following statements is true of a urine creatinine clearance test?

This type of specimen is sometimes used to compare urine concentrations of glucose and ketones to blood concentrations.

Which urine test requries a midstream clean-catch specimen?

Which of the following midstream urine collection steps are in the proper order?

Midstream clean-catch urine specimens require:

Which urine specimen is obtained by inserting a sterile needle directly into the urinary bladder and aspirating a sample of urine?

Which of the following tests is sometimes performed on amniotic fluid?

Amniotic fluid comes from the:

CSF analysis is used in the diagnosis of:

Tests commonly performed on CSF include:

This test requries intravenous administration of histamine or pentagastrin.

An NP culture swab is sometimes collected to detect the presence of organisms that cause:

Semen analysis can be performed to:

A semen specimen is unlikely to be accepted for testing if it is:

Which of the following fluids is obtained through lumbar puncture?

Which of the following is a type of serous fluid?

Peritoneal fluid comes from the: