Sxs Chap 12&13-ess Chap 6-pharm Chap 18-lom Chap 16&19

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Sxs Chap 12&13-ess Chap 6-pharm Chap 18-lom Chap 16&19 - Quiz


review week 2 mod 7


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Information given in the notes preceding a subsection is also contained in the section guidelines

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because the information given in the notes preceding a subsection is not always contained in the section guidelines. The notes may provide additional context or clarification that is not included in the guidelines themselves. Therefore, it cannot be assumed that the information in the notes is always duplicated in the section guidelines.

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  • 2. 

    Parenthetical phrases that sometimes follow a code or code group provide further information about codes that may be applicable

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Parenthetical phrases that sometimes follow a code or code group provide additional information about codes that may be applicable. This means that these phrases offer further clarification or context about the codes, helping users understand their potential relevance or application. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 3. 

    Unlisted codes are assigned to identify procedures for which there is no more specific code

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Unlisted codes are assigned when there is no more specific code available to identify a particular procedure. This means that these codes are used to classify procedures that do not have a specific code assigned to them. Therefore, the statement "unlisted codes are assigned to identify procedures for which there is no more specific code" is true.

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  • 4. 

    Third party payers determine the contents of a surgical package

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Third-party payers, such as insurance companies or government programs, do have the authority to determine the contents of a surgical package. This means that they can define what services and supplies are included in a surgical procedure and what will be covered by their payment. This determination is usually based on guidelines and policies set by the payer to ensure cost-effectiveness and appropriate coverage for the patient. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 5. 

    When using an unlisted code a(n) _______ must accompany the claim

    • A.

      Modifier

    • B.

      Operative report

    • C.

      Special report

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Special report
    Explanation
    When using an unlisted code, a special report must accompany the claim. This is because an unlisted code is used when there is no specific code available for a particular procedure or service. In order to provide additional information and justification for using the unlisted code, a special report is required. The special report should include detailed documentation of the procedure or service performed, the reason for using the unlisted code, and any other relevant information that supports the medical necessity and appropriateness of the code.

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  • 6. 

    The surgical package includes

    • A.

      General anesthesia

    • B.

      Typical follow up care

    • C.

      E/m visit requiring decision for surgery

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Typical follow up care
    Explanation
    The surgical package includes typical follow-up care, which means that after the surgery, the patient will receive the necessary post-operative care and monitoring. This may include follow-up appointments, wound care, medication management, and any other necessary treatments or interventions to ensure proper healing and recovery. It is an essential part of the surgical process to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

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  • 7. 

    Local anesthesia is defined in the CPT guidelines as

    • A.

      Local infiltration

    • B.

      Metacarpal/digital block

    • C.

      Topical anesthesia

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all of the above" because local anesthesia is defined in the CPT guidelines as including local infiltration, metacarpal/digital block, and topical anesthesia. This means that all three methods are considered forms of local anesthesia according to the guidelines.

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  • 8. 

    The usual global surgery period for a major procedure is

    • A.

      10 days

    • B.

      30 days

    • C.

      60 days

    • D.

      90 days

    Correct Answer
    D. 90 days
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 90 days. The usual global surgery period for a major procedure is 90 days. This means that any related services or follow-up care within this timeframe are considered part of the initial procedure and are included in the global surgical package. It allows for comprehensive care and monitoring of the patient's recovery after a major surgery.

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  • 9. 

    The global surgery period includes

    • A.

      All routine preoperative and postoperative care

    • B.

      Serious complications requiring a return to the operating room

    • C.

      Staged procedures

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All routine preoperative and postoperative care
    Explanation
    The global surgery period includes all routine preoperative and postoperative care. This means that it encompasses the care provided before and after a surgery, including any necessary tests, consultations, and follow-up visits. It also includes the management of any complications that may arise during this period. Additionally, the global surgery period includes staged procedures, which are surgeries that are performed in multiple stages. Therefore, the correct answer is all of the above.

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  • 10. 

    This information is placed after some codes in the CPT manual and contains helpful information

    • A.

      Parenthetical information

    • B.

      Guidelines

    • C.

      Index locations

    • D.

      Bracketed information

    Correct Answer
    A. Parenthetical information
    Explanation
    Parenthetical information is placed after some codes in the CPT manual and contains helpful information. It provides additional details or explanations about the specific code, helping users understand its application and usage. This information is enclosed in parentheses and can include instructions, definitions, or examples that assist in accurate code selection and proper coding guidelines. It serves as a valuable resource for coders and healthcare professionals to ensure accurate and efficient coding practices.

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  • 11. 

    What code is used to report routine postoperative care

    • A.

      No code

    • B.

      99212

    • C.

      99024

    • D.

      99211

    Correct Answer
    C. 99024
    Explanation
    The code 99024 is used to report routine postoperative care. This code is specifically used for reporting postoperative follow-up visits that are included in the global surgical package. It indicates that the care provided during the postoperative period is separate from the initial surgery and is not billed separately. This code is important for accurate documentation and billing purposes.

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  • 12. 

    Excision including simple closure of benign lesions of the skin includes this type of anesthesia

    • A.

      Local

    • B.

      General

    • C.

      Spinal

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Local
    Explanation
    The correct answer is local anesthesia. Excision including simple closure of benign lesions of the skin typically involves using local anesthesia. Local anesthesia numbs a specific area of the body, allowing the procedure to be done without causing pain to the patient. This type of anesthesia is commonly used for minor surgical procedures that do not require the patient to be unconscious or sedated.

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  • 13. 

    What are the divisions of the surgery section based on

    • A.

      Body area

    • B.

      Physician subspecialty area

    • C.

      Body system

    • D.

      Third party payer requirements

    Correct Answer
    C. Body system
    Explanation
    The divisions of the surgery section are based on the body system. This means that surgeries are categorized and organized according to the specific part or system of the body that they involve. This classification system helps in better understanding and management of surgical procedures, as it allows for easier identification and grouping of similar surgeries based on the body system they affect.

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  • 14. 

    The CPT code that is used to report materials and supplies by the physician for which no other more specific CPT code exists is

    • A.

      99070

    • B.

      99080

    • C.

      99071

    • D.

      99000

    Correct Answer
    A. 99070
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 99070. This CPT code is used to report materials and supplies provided by the physician when there is no other more specific CPT code available. It allows for the documentation and reimbursement of these items, ensuring that the physician is properly compensated for the resources used in providing care to the patient.

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  • 15. 

    When the words "separate procedure" appear after the descriptor of a code, you know which of the following about that code

    • A.

      The procedure was the only service provided on that day

    • B.

      The procedure provided was on a day other than the major procedure

    • C.

      The procedure was a minor procedure that would only be reported if it was the only service provided

    • D.

      The procedure is always bundled into any other service provided

    Correct Answer
    C. The procedure was a minor procedure that would only be reported if it was the only service provided
    Explanation
    When the words "separate procedure" appear after the descriptor of a code, it indicates that the procedure was a minor procedure that would only be reported if it was the only service provided. This means that if any other services were provided on the same day, this procedure would not be separately reported and would be bundled into the other service.

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  • 16. 

    A triangle before a code indicates that the code is or has been

    • A.

      Major

    • B.

      Partial

    • C.

      Discontinued

    • D.

      Revised

    Correct Answer
    D. Revised
    Explanation
    The presence of a triangle before a code suggests that the code has been revised.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following represents the contents of a surgical package

    • A.

      Preoperative and postoperative services

    • B.

      Preoperative and intraoperative services

    • C.

      Intraoperative and postoperative services

    • D.

      Preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative services

    Correct Answer
    D. Preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative services
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative services." A surgical package typically includes services that are provided before, during, and after a surgical procedure. The preoperative services involve the preparation and evaluation of the patient before surgery. The intraoperative services refer to the actual surgical procedure itself. The postoperative services involve the care and monitoring of the patient after the surgery, including follow-up visits and any necessary rehabilitation or recovery assistance.

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  • 18. 

    The correct code for an unlisted procedure for the breast is

    • A.

      11949

    • B.

      99499

    • C.

      19499

    • D.

      14949

    Correct Answer
    C. 19499
  • 19. 

    15999

    • A.

      Unlisted vascular endoscopy procedure

    • B.

      Unlisted procedure, accessory sinuses

    • C.

      Unlisted laparoscopy procedure, lymphatic system

    • D.

      Unlisted procedure, excision pressure ulcer

    Correct Answer
    D. Unlisted procedure, excision pressure ulcer
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "unlisted procedure, excision pressure ulcer." This answer is based on the given options, which include different unlisted procedures for various medical conditions. Among these options, the only one that matches the given answer is "unlisted procedure, excision pressure ulcer." Therefore, it can be concluded that this is the correct answer.

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  • 20. 

    38589

    • A.

      Unlisted vascular endoscopy procedure

    • B.

      Unlisted procedure, accessory sinuses

    • C.

      Unlisted laparoscopy procedure, lymphatic system

    • D.

      Unlisted procedure, excision pressure ulcer

    Correct Answer
    C. Unlisted laparoscopy procedure, lymphatic system
    Explanation
    The given correct answer is "unlisted laparoscopy procedure, lymphatic system." This answer is chosen because it matches the given options and describes a procedure that involves using laparoscopy to examine or treat the lymphatic system. The other options mention different procedures or body systems that are not relevant to the question.

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  • 21. 

    37501

    • A.

      Unlisted vascular endoscopy procedure

    • B.

      Unlisted procedure, accessory sinuses

    • C.

      Unlisted laparoscopy procedure, lymphatic system

    • D.

      Unlisted procedure, excision pressure ulcer

    Correct Answer
    A. Unlisted vascular endoscopy procedure
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "unlisted vascular endoscopy procedure" because the other options mention unlisted procedures for different body parts or conditions, such as accessory sinuses, lymphatic system, and excision pressure ulcer. The given answer is the only one that specifically refers to a vascular endoscopy procedure, which is not listed or specified in the options.

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  • 22. 

    31299

    • A.

      Unlisted vascular endoscopy procedure

    • B.

      Unlisted procedure, accessory sinuses

    • C.

      Unlisted laparoscopy procedure, lymphatic system

    • D.

      Unlisted procedure, excision pressure ulcer

    Correct Answer
    B. Unlisted procedure, accessory sinuses
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "unlisted procedure, accessory sinuses." This answer is correct because it matches the given code "31299" with the description "unlisted procedure, accessory sinuses." The other options do not match the given code and descriptions, making them incorrect choices.

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  • 23. 

    11400-11471

    • A.

      Spine: athrodesis

    • B.

      Excision-benign lesions

    • C.

      Endovascular repair of abdominal aortic aneurysm

    • D.

      Transcatheter procedures

    Correct Answer
    B. Excision-benign lesions
    Explanation
    The correct answer is excision-benign lesions. This answer is chosen because it is the only option that is relevant to the given information. The other options, such as spine arthrodesis, endovascular repair of abdominal aortic aneurysm, and transcatheter procedures, do not have any connection to the given information about the numbers 11400-11471. Therefore, the most logical choice is excision-benign lesions.

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  • 24. 

    22532-22812

    • A.

      Spine: athrodesis

    • B.

      Excision-benign lesions

    • C.

      Endovascular repair of abdominal aortic aneurysm

    • D.

      Transcatheter procedures

    Correct Answer
    A. Spine: athrodesis
    Explanation
    The correct answer is spine: athrodesis. Spine athrodesis is a surgical procedure that fuses two or more vertebrae together in order to stabilize the spine and reduce pain. It is commonly used to treat conditions such as spinal instability, degenerative disc disease, and spinal deformities. This procedure involves removing the disc between the affected vertebrae and then using bone grafts, screws, rods, or cages to fuse the vertebrae together. By fusing the vertebrae, athrodesis helps to eliminate motion at the affected segment of the spine and provide stability.

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  • 25. 

    37184-37216

    • A.

      Spine: athrodesis

    • B.

      Excision-benign lesions

    • C.

      Endovascular repair of abdominal aortic aneurysm

    • D.

      Transcatheter procedures

    Correct Answer
    D. Transcatheter procedures
    Explanation
    The given list consists of different medical procedures. "Transcatheter procedures" is the only option that does not involve surgery or excision. The other options, "spine: athrodesis" and "excision-benign lesions," both involve surgical procedures. "Endovascular repair of abdominal aortic aneurysm" is a specific surgical procedure for treating aortic aneurysms. Therefore, "transcatheter procedures" is the correct answer as it is the only option that does not involve surgery or excision.

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  • 26. 

    34800-34826

    • A.

      Spine: athrodesis

    • B.

      Excision-benign lesions

    • C.

      Endovascular repair of abdominal aortic aneurysm

    • D.

      Transcatheter procedures

    Correct Answer
    C. Endovascular repair of abdominal aortic aneurysm
    Explanation
    The given options include different medical procedures. The correct answer is "endovascular repair of abdominal aortic aneurysm." This procedure involves using a catheter to place a stent or graft in the damaged part of the aorta to reinforce it and prevent it from rupturing. This is a minimally invasive alternative to open surgery and is commonly used to treat abdominal aortic aneurysms. The other options, such as spine arthrodesis and excision of benign lesions, are unrelated to the repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm.

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  • 27. 

    Special report

    • A.

      Evaluating the patient in the postanesthesia recovery area

    • B.

      "special services and reports" is presented in the medicine section

    • C.

      List drugs, trays, supplies, and materials provided

    • D.

      Complexity of symptoms

    Correct Answer
    D. Complexity of symptoms
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "complexity of symptoms." This answer is supported by the given information that mentions evaluating the patient in the postanesthesia recovery area and the need to list drugs, trays, supplies, and materials provided. The presence of "special services and reports" in the medicine section also suggests that the symptoms being evaluated are complex and require special attention.

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  • 28. 

    CPT surgical package definitions

    • A.

      Evaluating the patient in the postanesthesia recovery area

    • B.

      "special services and reports" is presented in the medicine section

    • C.

      List drugs, trays, supplies, and materials provided

    • D.

      Complexity of symptoms

    Correct Answer
    A. Evaluating the patient in the postanesthesia recovery area
    Explanation
    The correct answer is evaluating the patient in the postanesthesia recovery area. This answer is supported by the information provided in the question, which mentions "CPT surgical package definitions" and "evaluating the patient in the postanesthesia recovery area." This suggests that the question is asking for the definition or description of a specific component of the CPT surgical package, which is the evaluation of the patient in the postanesthesia recovery area.

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  • 29. 

    Materials supplied by physician

    • A.

      Evaluating the patient in the postanesthesia recovery area

    • B.

      "special services and reports" is presented in the medicine section

    • C.

      List drugs, trays, supplies, and materials provided

    • D.

      Complexity of symptoms

    Correct Answer
    C. List drugs, trays, supplies, and materials provided
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "list drugs, trays, supplies, and materials provided." This answer is supported by the information given in the question, which states that the materials supplied by the physician in the postanesthesia recovery area are listed in the medicine section. This implies that the list includes drugs, trays, supplies, and materials provided to the patient. Additionally, the mention of "complexity of symptoms" does not directly relate to the materials supplied by the physician, making it an incorrect answer choice.

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  • 30. 

    Physicians services

    • A.

      Evaluating the patient in the postanesthesia recovery area

    • B.

      "special services and reports" is presented in the medicine section

    • C.

      List drugs, trays, supplies, and materials provided

    • D.

      Complexity of symptoms

    Correct Answer
    B. "special services and reports" is presented in the medicine section
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "special services and reports" is presented in the medicine section. This means that when evaluating the patient in the postanesthesia recovery area, the physicians provide special services and generate reports that are categorized under the medicine section. These services and reports may include details about the drugs, trays, supplies, and materials provided during the evaluation process. The complexity of symptoms may also be considered while documenting these special services and reports.

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  • 31. 

    One of the most common skin disorders marked by an inflammatory condition of the sebaceous glands is

    • A.

      Psoriasis

    • B.

      Atopic dematitis (eczema)

    • C.

      Impetigo

    • D.

      Seborrheic dematitis

    Correct Answer
    D. Seborrheic dematitis
    Explanation
    Seborrheic dermatitis is a common skin disorder characterized by inflammation of the sebaceous glands. This condition causes redness, itching, and flaking of the skin, particularly in areas rich in oil glands such as the scalp, face, and upper chest. It is often associated with an overgrowth of yeast on the skin, hormonal changes, stress, and certain medical conditions. Psoriasis is a different skin disorder characterized by the rapid buildup of skin cells, while atopic dermatitis (eczema) is a chronic condition causing itchy and inflamed skin. Impetigo is a bacterial infection that causes sores and blisters on the skin.

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  • 32. 

     the most common dematitis during infancy, which is called cradle cap, is a form of

    • A.

      Psoriasis

    • B.

      Atopic dematitis (eczema)

    • C.

      Impetigo

    • D.

      Seborrheic dematitis

    Correct Answer
    D. Seborrheic dematitis
    Explanation
    Seborrheic dermatitis is the most common form of dermatitis during infancy, commonly known as cradle cap. It is characterized by a scaly, crusty rash on the scalp and sometimes on other areas of the body. This condition is not related to psoriasis, atopic dermatitis (eczema), or impetigo.

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  • 33. 

    ________ is a chronic skin condition marked by thick, flaky, red patched of various sizes, covered with characteristic white, silvery scales

    • A.

      Psoriasis

    • B.

      Atopic dematitis (eczema)

    • C.

      Impetigo

    • D.

      Seborrheic dematitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Psoriasis
    Explanation
    Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition characterized by thick, flaky, red patches of various sizes, covered with characteristic white, silvery scales. Unlike other options such as atopic dermatitis (eczema), impetigo, and seborrheic dermatitis, psoriasis specifically presents with these distinct features. Therefore, psoriasis is the correct answer.

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  • 34. 

    _______ is a type of inflammation of the skin that tends to occur in persons with a family history of allergic conditions

    • A.

      Psoriasis

    • B.

      Atopic dematitis (eczema)

    • C.

      Impetigo

    • D.

      Seborrheic dematitis

    Correct Answer
    B. Atopic dematitis (eczema)
    Explanation
    Atopic dermatitis, also known as eczema, is a type of inflammation of the skin that is more likely to occur in individuals who have a family history of allergic conditions. This condition is characterized by itchy and inflamed skin, and it commonly affects areas such as the face, hands, and feet. Factors such as genetics, a compromised skin barrier, and an overactive immune response contribute to the development of atopic dermatitis.

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  • 35. 

    _________ is a common contagious superficial infection caused by either etrptococcus or staphylococcus aureus

    • A.

      Psoriasis

    • B.

      Atopic dematitis (eczema)

    • C.

      Impetigo

    • D.

      Seborrheic dematitis

    Correct Answer
    C. Impetigo
    Explanation
    Impetigo is a common contagious superficial infection caused by either Streptococcus or Staphylococcus aureus bacteria. It is characterized by the formation of red sores or blisters that eventually burst and form a yellowish crust. Psoriasis is a chronic autoimmune condition that causes the rapid buildup of skin cells, leading to thick, silvery scales and itchy, dry patches. Atopic dermatitis (eczema) is a chronic inflammatory skin condition characterized by itchy, dry, and red skin. Seborrheic dermatitis is a common skin condition that mainly affects the scalp, causing dandruff and oily, scaly patches.

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  • 36. 

    Contact dermatitis can be induced by

    • A.

      Irritation, sensitization, or photoallergy

    • B.

      The varicella zoster virus

    • C.

      The aging process

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Irritation, sensitization, or photoallergy
    Explanation
    Contact dermatitis can be induced by irritation, sensitization, or photoallergy. Irritation occurs when the skin comes into direct contact with a substance that damages the skin's outer layer. Sensitization happens when the immune system overreacts to a substance, causing an allergic reaction. Photoallergy is a type of allergic reaction that occurs when a substance is activated by sunlight. Therefore, all three options provided in the answer - irritation, sensitization, and photoallergy - can induce contact dermatitis.

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  • 37. 

    ________ is an eruption of extremely painful vesicles that occur in a bandlike unilateral pattern along the course of a peripheral nerve

    • A.

      Scabies

    • B.

      Pediculosis

    • C.

      Herpes zoster

    • D.

      Acne vulgaris

    Correct Answer
    C. Herpes zoster
    Explanation
    Herpes zoster is an eruption of extremely painful vesicles that occur in a bandlike unilateral pattern along the course of a peripheral nerve. Scabies and pediculosis are skin conditions caused by infestations of mites and lice, respectively, and do not present with vesicles in a bandlike pattern. Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition characterized by the presence of pimples, blackheads, and whiteheads, and does not typically present with vesicles. Therefore, the correct answer is herpes zoster.

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  • 38. 

    The cause of acne vulgaris is

    • A.

      Unknown

    • B.

      Thought to be linked to hormonal changes and predisposed by heredity

    • C.

      Accompanied by plugs that promote the growth of bacteria in the follicles

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The cause of acne vulgaris is believed to be linked to hormonal changes and predisposed by heredity. It is also accompanied by plugs that promote the growth of bacteria in the follicles. Therefore, all of the above options are correct explanations for the cause of acne vulgaris.

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  • 39. 

    The treatment of erysipelas (cellulitis) includes

    • A.

      Incision and drainage

    • B.

      Immobilization, elevation, compresses, and antibiotics

    • C.

      Antifungal medications

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Immobilization, elevation, compresses, and antibiotics
    Explanation
    The treatment of erysipelas (cellulitis) includes immobilization, elevation, compresses, and antibiotics. Immobilization helps to reduce movement and prevent further spread of the infection. Elevation helps to reduce swelling and improve blood flow. Compresses, such as warm or cold packs, can provide relief and help reduce inflammation. Antibiotics are necessary to treat the underlying bacterial infection causing erysipelas. Therefore, all of the above options are correct as they are all part of the comprehensive treatment approach for erysipelas.

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  • 40. 

    The following statement(s) is(are) true about scabies and pediculosis

    • A.

      They are two most common parasitic infections to infest man

    • B.

      Both are caused by impairment of blood supply to the skin

    • C.

      They are diagnosed by visualization of the ulcers

    • D.

      All of the above are true

    Correct Answer
    A. They are two most common parasitic infections to infest man
    Explanation
    Scabies and pediculosis are two common parasitic infections that can infest humans. These conditions are caused by the infestation of mites (scabies) or lice (pediculosis) on the skin. Impairment of blood supply to the skin is not the cause of these infections, but rather the result of the infestation. Diagnosis of scabies and pediculosis is not based on visualization of ulcers, but rather on the identification of the mites or lice on the skin or through other diagnostic methods. Therefore, the correct answer is that scabies and pediculosis are two of the most common parasitic infections to infest humans.

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  • 41. 

    Tinea capitis, tinea corporis, tinea pedis and tinea cruris are manifestations of

    • A.

      Pediculosis

    • B.

      Scabies

    • C.

      Dematophytosis

    • D.

      Erysipelas

    Correct Answer
    C. Dematophytosis
    Explanation
    Tinea capitis, tinea corporis, tinea pedis, and tinea cruris are all skin conditions caused by a fungal infection known as dermatophytosis. This infection is commonly referred to as ringworm and can affect various parts of the body, including the scalp, body, feet, and groin. Pediculosis and scabies are infestations caused by parasites, while erysipelas is a bacterial skin infection. Therefore, the correct answer is dermatophytosis.

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  • 42. 

    Preventive measures for a decubitus ulcer include

    • A.

      Good skin care

    • B.

      Position changes every 2 hours

    • C.

      Early ambulation

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all of the above" because preventive measures for a decubitus ulcer include all of the mentioned options. Good skin care is important to keep the skin clean and moisturized, reducing the risk of ulcers. Position changes every 2 hours help to relieve pressure on certain areas of the body, reducing the likelihood of ulcers forming. Early ambulation, or getting up and moving around as soon as possible, also helps to prevent ulcers by promoting blood circulation and reducing pressure on specific areas. Therefore, all of these measures are necessary for preventing decubitus ulcers.

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  • 43. 

    The most common premalignant tumors are

    • A.

      Actinic keratosis and nevi

    • B.

      Skin tages and keloids

    • C.

      Epidermal cysts and seborrheic keatosis

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Actinic keratosis and nevi
    Explanation
    The correct answer is actinic keratosis and nevi. Actinic keratosis refers to small, rough, scaly patches that develop on the skin due to long-term sun exposure. They have the potential to progress into skin cancer if left untreated. Nevi, commonly known as moles, are also considered premalignant tumors as some types of moles have the potential to develop into melanoma, a type of skin cancer. Therefore, actinic keratosis and nevi are the most common premalignant tumors.

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  • 44. 

    A precursor to skin cancers is

    • A.

      Squamous cell carcinoma

    • B.

      Basal cell carcinoma

    • C.

      Malignant melanoma

    • D.

      Actinic keratosis

    Correct Answer
    D. Actinic keratosis
    Explanation
    Actinic keratosis is a precursor to skin cancers. It is a common skin condition caused by long-term sun exposure. Actinic keratosis is characterized by rough, scaly patches on the skin, which can progress to become squamous cell carcinoma, a type of skin cancer. It is important to treat actinic keratosis to prevent it from developing into more serious skin cancers.

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  • 45. 

    The most serious type of skin cancer is

    • A.

      Squamous cell carcinoma

    • B.

      Basal cell carcinoma

    • C.

      Malignant melanoma

    • D.

      Actinic keratosis

    Correct Answer
    C. Malignant melanoma
    Explanation
    Malignant melanoma is the most serious type of skin cancer because it develops in the cells that produce melanin, the pigment responsible for skin color. It has the potential to spread to other parts of the body, making it more dangerous than squamous cell carcinoma, basal cell carcinoma, and actinic keratosis. Malignant melanoma often appears as a dark, irregularly shaped mole or spot on the skin and requires prompt medical attention for early detection and treatment.

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  • 46. 

    ______ is a serious form of skin cancer that often ulcerates, forms a crust, and has a tendency to metastasize if allowed to reach an advanced stage

    • A.

      Squamous cell carcinoma

    • B.

      Basal cell carcinoma

    • C.

      Malignant melanoma

    • D.

      Actinic keratosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Squamous cell carcinoma
    Explanation
    Squamous cell carcinoma is a serious form of skin cancer that often ulcerates, forms a crust, and has a tendency to metastasize if allowed to reach an advanced stage. This type of cancer arises from the squamous cells in the outermost layer of the skin. It is typically caused by long-term exposure to ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun or tanning beds. Squamous cell carcinoma can occur on any part of the body but is most commonly found on areas exposed to the sun, such as the face, ears, lips, and back of the hands. Early detection and treatment are important to prevent the cancer from spreading.

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  • 47. 

    The most common symptom of malignant melanoma is

    • A.

      A smooth growth that is symmetrical

    • B.

      Inflammation and bleeding of a skin lesion

    • C.

      Hard surfaced nodules with visible scales

    • D.

      A change in a new or existing pigmented lesion or mole

    Correct Answer
    D. A change in a new or existing pigmented lesion or mole
    Explanation
    Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that often develops from abnormal moles or pigmented lesions. The most common symptom of malignant melanoma is a change in a new or existing pigmented lesion or mole. This can include changes in size, shape, color, or texture. It is important to monitor any changes in moles or pigmented lesions and seek medical attention if any abnormalities are noticed, as early detection and treatment can greatly improve outcomes.

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  • 48. 

    The ABCDEs of malignant melanoma include

    • A.

      Family history, sunburn, large moles, bleeding, and previous cancer

    • B.

      Asymmetry, border, color, diameter, and elevation

    • C.

      Neither of the above

    • D.

      Both a and b

    Correct Answer
    B. Asymmetry, border, color, diameter, and elevation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "asymmetry, border, color, diameter, and elevation". The ABCDEs of malignant melanoma are a set of characteristics used to identify potential signs of skin cancer. Asymmetry refers to the irregular shape of a mole or lesion, while border describes the jagged or uneven edges. Color refers to the variation in shades within the mole, and diameter is the size of the mole, typically larger than 6mm. Elevation refers to any raised or uneven areas on the skin. By checking for these characteristics, individuals can identify potential signs of melanoma and seek medical attention.

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  • 49. 

    Causes of alopecia (baldness) include

    • A.

      Chemotherapy and other medications

    • B.

      Aging and heredity factors

    • C.

      Certain systemic diseases

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all of the above." This means that all of the mentioned factors, including chemotherapy and other medications, aging and heredity factors, and certain systemic diseases, can cause alopecia or baldness. These factors can contribute to hair loss in different ways. Chemotherapy and certain medications can lead to hair loss as a side effect, while aging and heredity factors can play a role in male and female pattern baldness. Certain systemic diseases can also cause hair loss as a symptom. Therefore, all of these factors can contribute to alopecia.

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  • 50. 

    _________ is an abscess that involves the entire hair follicle and adjacent subcutaneous tissue

    • A.

      A furuncle

    • B.

      A skin tag

    • C.

      A hemangioma

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. A furuncle
    Explanation
    A furuncle is an abscess that involves the entire hair follicle and adjacent subcutaneous tissue. It is a localized infection that occurs when bacteria enter the skin through a hair follicle, causing a painful, swollen, and red lump to form. The infection can spread to the surrounding tissue and may require medical treatment, such as antibiotics or incision and drainage, to resolve. Skin tags are small, harmless growths of skin, and a hemangioma is a benign tumor made up of blood vessels. Therefore, neither of these options is the correct answer.

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