Rmapa Set 1- Personnel Security

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Rmapa Set 1- Personnel Security - Quiz

Personnel security is the term used to describe the policies and procedures put in place to try to minimise the risk against the company. Robust personnel security helps the organisation employ reliable people, minimises the chances of staff becoming unreliable once they have been employed, detecting suspicious behaviour, and resolving security concerns once they emerge.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Of all security processes, the most critical is:

    • A.

      Information

    • B.

      Personnel

    • C.

      Physical

    • D.

      Perimeter

    Correct Answer
    B. Personnel
    Explanation
    Personnel is the most critical security process because it involves the human element. No matter how advanced the technology or physical security measures are, they can be easily compromised if personnel are not trained, vigilant, and trustworthy. Personnel are responsible for implementing security protocols, monitoring access, and detecting and responding to any security breaches. They are also responsible for handling sensitive information and ensuring its confidentiality. Therefore, personnel play a crucial role in maintaining the overall security of an organization.

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  • 2. 

    The concept that an individual should be aware of the security program and persuaded that the program is relevant to his or her own behavior is known as:

    • A.

      Security consciousness

    • B.

      Security awareness

    • C.

      Security motivation

    • D.

      Motivation analysis

    Correct Answer
    B. Security awareness
    Explanation
    Security awareness refers to the concept that an individual should be aware of the security program and persuaded that the program is relevant to his or her own behavior. It involves understanding the importance of security measures and being conscious of potential risks and threats. By being aware of security practices and policies, individuals can make informed decisions and take appropriate actions to protect themselves and the organization from security breaches.

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  • 3. 

    The theory that human organism is motivated by an ascending series of needs and that once the lower needs have been satisfied, they will be supplanted by the higher needs as motives for behavior is known as:

    • A.

      Maslow’s “Hierarchy of Prepotency

    • B.

      McGregor’s Theory X

    • C.

      McGregor’s Theory Y

    • D.

      Herzberg’s Two Factor Theory

    Correct Answer
    A. Maslow’s “Hierarchy of Prepotency
    Explanation
    Maslow's "Hierarchy of Prepotency" is a theory that suggests that human motivation is driven by a hierarchy of needs. According to this theory, individuals are motivated to fulfill their lower-level needs, such as physiological and safety needs, before moving on to higher-level needs, such as belongingness, esteem, and self-actualization. Once a lower-level need is satisfied, it no longer serves as a motivator, and the individual's focus shifts to the next higher-level need. This theory implies that individuals are constantly striving to fulfill their needs and that the satisfaction of one need leads to the emergence of the next need as a motivator for behavior.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following is not an example of the intelligence test:

    • A.

      Stanford-Binet IQ Test

    • B.

      Henman-Nelson IQ Test

    • C.

      Armed Forces General Classification Test

    • D.

      Manual Placement Test

    Correct Answer
    D. Manual Placement Test
    Explanation
    The Manual Placement Test is not an example of an intelligence test because it is designed to assess a person's skills and abilities for a specific job or task, rather than measuring their overall intelligence or cognitive abilities. Intelligence tests such as the Stanford-Binet IQ Test, Henman-Nelson IQ Test, and Armed Forces General Classification Test are specifically designed to measure a person's cognitive abilities, problem-solving skills, and intellectual potential.

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  • 5. 

    Which is not a strategy for managing violence in the workplace:

    • A.

      Establish a committee to plan violence prevention

    • B.

      Consider OSHA guidelines to curb workplace violence

    • C.

      Have professionally trained and armed security officers

    • D.

      Establish policies and procedures and communicate the problems of threats and violence to all employees

    Correct Answer
    C. Have professionally trained and armed security officers
    Explanation
    Having professionally trained and armed security officers is not a strategy for managing violence in the workplace. While it may seem like having armed security officers could help deter violence, relying solely on this approach does not address the root causes of violence and may escalate situations. It is important to focus on prevention strategies such as establishing a committee, considering OSHA guidelines, and implementing policies and procedures to address threats and violence.

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  • 6. 

    When interviewing a candidate for employment, the interviewer may ask which question:

    • A.

      Have you ever been arrested?

    • B.

      How old are you?

    • C.

      Are you married?

    • D.

      Can you meet the attendance requirements of this job?

    Correct Answer
    D. Can you meet the attendance requirements of this job?
    Explanation
    The question "Can you meet the attendance requirements of this job?" is the most appropriate question to ask when interviewing a candidate for employment. This question directly relates to the candidate's ability to fulfill a crucial aspect of the job, which is attending work regularly and punctually. It focuses on the candidate's reliability and commitment to the job, which are important qualities for an employer to assess. Asking about arrest history, age, or marital status may be considered discriminatory and irrelevant to the candidate's qualifications for the job.

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  • 7. 

    Under federal law, the use of the polygraph for pre-employment is permissible, except in which industry:

    • A.

      Drug manufacturing

    • B.

      Nuclear power

    • C.

      Banking

    • D.

      Alcohol manufacturing

    Correct Answer
    D. Alcohol manufacturing
    Explanation
    The use of the polygraph for pre-employment is permissible in all industries except for alcohol manufacturing. This means that employers in the alcohol manufacturing industry are not allowed to use polygraph tests as part of their pre-employment screening process. The reason for this restriction is not provided in the question.

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  • 8. 

    In conducting interviews during a background investigation, “the investigator should more appropriately tell the person being interviewed that the employee is:

    • A.

      Being considered for a promotion

    • B.

      Suspected of wrongdoing

    • C.

      Being investigated in connection with a position of trust

    • D.

      Tell the interviewee nothing

    Correct Answer
    C. Being investigated in connection with a position of trust
    Explanation
    In conducting interviews during a background investigation, it is more appropriate for the investigator to inform the person being interviewed that the employee is being investigated in connection with a position of trust. This ensures transparency and allows the interviewee to understand the context and purpose of the investigation. It also helps to establish trust between the investigator and the interviewee, as they are being informed about the nature of the investigation.

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  • 9. 

    The frequency of a reinvestigation of the “financial life style” inquiry should generally be:

    • A.

      Never

    • B.

      Every 6 months

    • C.

      Every year

    • D.

      Every 18 months

    Correct Answer
    D. Every 18 months
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Every 18 months. Reinvestigating the "financial life style" inquiry every 18 months allows for a reasonable amount of time to pass between investigations, ensuring that any changes in the individual's financial situation can be identified and assessed. This frequency strikes a balance between staying updated on the person's financial activities and avoiding unnecessary or excessive investigations.

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  • 10. 

    Any investigation which includes unfavorable information, or which results in an adverse employment decision, should be:

    • A.

      Retained in file for a minimum of three years.

    • B.

      Retained in file for a minimum of five years.

    • C.

      Retained in file for one year

    • D.

      Destroyed when the employment decision is made

    Correct Answer
    A. Retained in file for a minimum of three years.
    Explanation
    When conducting an investigation that involves unfavorable information or leads to an adverse employment decision, it is important to retain the investigation file for a minimum of three years. This is necessary to ensure that there is a record of the investigation and decision-making process in case of any legal disputes or challenges. Keeping the file for this duration allows for future reference and provides evidence of due diligence and compliance with regulations. It also allows for the organization to review and reassess the decision if necessary.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following is not true with regard to a resume?

    • A.

      It does not provide the information which the company requires

    • B.

      It is never accepted in lieu of a completed application form

    • C.

      It is always accepted and is reviewed as part of the investigators

    • D.

      It is an acceptable form of information for a professional position

    Correct Answer
    D. It is an acceptable form of information for a professional position
    Explanation
    A resume is an acceptable form of information for a professional position because it provides a concise summary of a person's qualifications, skills, and experiences that are relevant to the job. It serves as a tool for job seekers to showcase their abilities and achievements to potential employers. A resume is typically reviewed by hiring managers or recruiters as part of the selection process to determine if a candidate meets the requirements for the position.

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  • 12. 

    The persons who find integrity tests offensive are:

    • A.

      Twice as likely to admit to criminal or drug abuse behavior

    • B.

      No more likely than anyone else to admit to criminal or drug abuse behavior

    • C.

      Sensitive persons who should not be required to take the test

    • D.

      Usually found to have a violent criminal past

    Correct Answer
    A. Twice as likely to admit to criminal or drug abuse behavior
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Twice as likely to admit to criminal or drug abuse behavior." This means that individuals who find integrity tests offensive are more likely to admit to engaging in criminal or drug abuse behavior compared to others. This suggests that their negative reaction to the tests may be due to their own involvement in such activities.

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  • 13. 

    Completed background investigations:

    • A.

      If apparently completely favorable, may be reviewed by an investigative clerk

    • B.

      If apparently completely favorable or containing unfavorable information, are reviewed by a responsible supervisory security employee

    • C.

      If containing unfavorable information, should be immediately reffered to legal counsel

    • D.

      Should be reviewed jointly by the Human Relations Director and the Security Director.

    Correct Answer
    B. If apparently completely favorable or containing unfavorable information, are reviewed by a responsible supervisory security employee
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that completed background investigations, if apparently completely favorable or containing unfavorable information, are reviewed by a responsible supervisory security employee. This means that regardless of the outcome of the investigation, whether it is completely favorable or contains unfavorable information, it is the responsibility of a supervisory security employee to review the findings. This ensures that any potential issues or concerns are properly addressed and evaluated by someone in a position of authority and expertise in security matters.

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  • 14. 

    The qualifications and background of an applicant are considered in light of the needs of the company to perform the duties of a specific position.  Which of the following is not accurate regarding the job description fo the position:

    • A.

      It must include accurate specifications and genuine skill requirements

    • B.

      The details of the description may tend to exclude certain groups of people

    • C.

      The specifications and skills should be described concisely and without prejudice.

    • D.

      The job description should be intentionally vague in order to allow the maximum number of applicants to qualify for the position

    Correct Answer
    D. The job description should be intentionally vague in order to allow the maximum number of applicants to qualify for the position
    Explanation
    The job description should not be intentionally vague in order to allow the maximum number of applicants to qualify for the position. This is because a vague job description can lead to confusion and may attract applicants who are not qualified or suitable for the role. A clear and specific job description helps to ensure that only qualified candidates apply and allows the company to find the best fit for the position.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following are considered to be advantages of contracting for guard services

    • A.

      Lower payroll costs

    • B.

      Fewer administrative headaches

    • C.

      No collective bargaining

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Contracting for guard services can provide several advantages. Firstly, it can result in lower payroll costs as the company does not have to hire and train their own security personnel. Secondly, there are fewer administrative headaches as the responsibility of managing the guards falls on the contracting company. Lastly, there is no collective bargaining involved, meaning that the company has more control over the terms and conditions of the guard services. Therefore, all of the given options are considered advantages of contracting for guard services.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 25, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Rssmc
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