Types And Causes Of Diseases! Trivia Facts Quiz

Approved & Edited by ProProfs Editorial Team
The editorial team at ProProfs Quizzes consists of a select group of subject experts, trivia writers, and quiz masters who have authored over 10,000 quizzes taken by more than 100 million users. This team includes our in-house seasoned quiz moderators and subject matter experts. Our editorial experts, spread across the world, are rigorously trained using our comprehensive guidelines to ensure that you receive the highest quality quizzes.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Hamrani
H
Hamrani
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 552
Questions: 19 | Attempts: 552

SettingsSettingsSettings
Types And Causes Of Diseases! Trivia Facts Quiz - Quiz

Over the week we have learned about the different types and causes of diseases and that being said, we need to know how to prevent from ailing from them too. The trivia quiz below is designed to test your understanding when it comes to facts surrounding some diseases. Do give it a try and see just how well you will do.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which Meniscus is fixed in the knee joint:

    • A.

      Lateral Meniscus.

    • B.

      Anterior Meniscus.

    • C.

      Medial Meniscus.

    • D.

      Posterior Meniscus.

    Correct Answer
    C. Medial Meniscus.
    Explanation
    The medial meniscus is fixed in the knee joint. The meniscus is a C-shaped piece of cartilage that acts as a shock absorber between the thigh bone (femur) and the shin bone (tibia). It is located on the inner side of the knee joint, and its main function is to distribute weight and provide stability to the joint. The lateral meniscus is also present in the knee joint, but it is not fixed and is more mobile compared to the medial meniscus. The anterior and posterior meniscus options are incorrect as they do not exist in the knee joint.

    Rate this question:

  • 2. 

    The major inorganic component in the bones:

    • A.

      Calcium Bicarbonate.

    • B.

      Calcium Oxalate.

    • C.

      Calcium Phosphate.

    • D.

      Collagen.

    Correct Answer
    C. Calcium Phosphate.
    Explanation
    Calcium phosphate is the major inorganic component in bones. It is responsible for providing strength and rigidity to the skeletal structure. Calcium phosphate combines with collagen, a protein, to form a strong composite material that gives bones their hardness and durability. Calcium bicarbonate and calcium oxalate are not major components of bones, and collagen is an organic component rather than an inorganic one. Therefore, the correct answer is calcium phosphate.

    Rate this question:

  • 3. 

    Osteomalacia is defective calcification due to:

    • A.

      Osteoclast over activity.

    • B.

      Vit. D deficiency.

    Correct Answer
    B. Vit. D deficiency.
    Explanation
    Osteomalacia is a condition characterized by defective calcification of the bones. This means that the bones do not harden properly, leading to weakness and softening. The most common cause of osteomalacia is vitamin D deficiency. Vitamin D plays a crucial role in the absorption of calcium and phosphorus from the intestines, which are essential for bone mineralization. Without sufficient vitamin D, the body cannot properly utilize these minerals, resulting in defective bone formation. Osteoclast overactivity, on the other hand, refers to excessive bone resorption, which is not the primary cause of osteomalacia.

    Rate this question:

  • 4. 

    Which drug is used to diagnose myasthenia gravis:

    • A.

      Succinylcholine.

    • B.

      Pyredostigmine.

    • C.

      Edrophonium.

    Correct Answer
    C. Edrophonium.
    Explanation
    Edrophonium is used to diagnose myasthenia gravis, a neuromuscular disorder characterized by muscle weakness and fatigue. This drug works by inhibiting the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, which breaks down acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter involved in muscle contraction. By temporarily increasing the levels of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction, edrophonium can improve muscle strength in individuals with myasthenia gravis. This effect is short-lived and can help differentiate between myasthenia gravis and other conditions that cause similar symptoms. Succinylcholine is a muscle relaxant used during surgery, while pyridostigmine is a long-acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitor commonly used for the treatment of myasthenia gravis.

    Rate this question:

  • 5. 

    Most common cause of prehepatic Jaundice is:

    • A.

      Liver cirrhosis.

    • B.

      Vasculitis.

    • C.

      Hemolytic anemia.

    Correct Answer
    C. Hemolytic anemia.
    Explanation
    Hemolytic anemia is the most common cause of prehepatic jaundice. Prehepatic jaundice occurs when there is an excessive breakdown of red blood cells, leading to an increased production of bilirubin. In hemolytic anemia, red blood cells are prematurely destroyed, either due to intrinsic factors such as genetic disorders or extrinsic factors such as infections or autoimmune disorders. This excessive destruction of red blood cells results in an elevated level of bilirubin, causing jaundice. Liver cirrhosis and vasculitis are not typically associated with prehepatic jaundice.

    Rate this question:

  • 6. 

    The most common cause of anemia:

    • A.

      Vit.12 Def.

    • B.

      G6PD Def.

    • C.

      Iron Def.

    Correct Answer
    C. Iron Def.
    Explanation
    Iron deficiency is the most common cause of anemia. Anemia occurs when there is a decrease in the number of red blood cells or a decrease in the amount of hemoglobin in the blood. Iron is necessary for the production of hemoglobin, which carries oxygen to the body's tissues. When there is a deficiency of iron, the body is unable to produce enough hemoglobin, leading to anemia. Iron deficiency can occur due to inadequate intake of iron-rich foods, poor absorption of iron in the body, or excessive blood loss.

    Rate this question:

  • 7. 

    All are Immunosuppressant EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Cyclosporine.

    • B.

      Heparin.

    • C.

      Azathioprene.

    • D.

      Cortisone.

    Correct Answer
    B. Heparin.
    Explanation
    Heparin is not an immunosuppressant. It is an anticoagulant medication that works by preventing the formation of blood clots. Immunosuppressants, on the other hand, are drugs that suppress or weaken the immune system to prevent it from attacking the body's own tissues or organs. Cyclosporine, azathioprine, and cortisone are examples of immunosuppressants commonly used in medical treatment.

    Rate this question:

  • 8. 

    Which bronchus is short and straight than the other:

    • A.

      Right bronchus.

    • B.

      Left bronchus.

    • C.

      Posterior bronchus.

    • D.

      Anterior bronchus.

    Correct Answer
    A. Right bronchus.
    Explanation
    The right bronchus is shorter and straighter than the left bronchus. This is because the right bronchus needs to accommodate the presence of the liver, which is located on the right side of the body. The left bronchus, on the other hand, needs to pass underneath the aortic arch and the left pulmonary artery, making it longer and more angled.

    Rate this question:

  • 9. 

    The respiratory response to Hypercapnia is:

    • A.

      Hyperventilation.

    • B.

      Hypoventilation.

    • C.

      No response.

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyperventilation.
    Explanation
    The respiratory response to hypercapnia, which is an increase in carbon dioxide levels in the blood, is hyperventilation. This means that the individual will breathe at a faster and deeper rate in order to exhale more carbon dioxide and bring the levels back to normal. Hyperventilation helps to restore the balance of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the body and maintain proper respiratory function.

    Rate this question:

  • 10. 

    The most common cause of community-acquired Pneumonia is: 

    • A.

      Staph. aureus.

    • B.

      Strept. pyogens.

    • C.

      Hemophilus influenzae

    • D.

      Strept. pneumoniae.

    Correct Answer
    D. Strept. pneumoniae.
    Explanation
    The most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia is Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is responsible for a significant number of cases of pneumonia, especially in adults. It is commonly found in the upper respiratory tract and can cause infection when it spreads to the lungs. Streptococcus pneumoniae is known to cause a range of respiratory infections, including pneumonia, bronchitis, and sinusitis. It is important to identify and treat infections caused by this bacterium promptly to prevent complications and spread to others.

    Rate this question:

  • 11. 

    Albutarol is used for acute asthma, it is a:

    • A.

      Alpha 2 agonist

    • B.

      Alpha 1 agonist

    • C.

      H1 agonist

    • D.

      Beta agonist

    Correct Answer
    D. Beta agonist
    Explanation
    Albutarol is a beta agonist, meaning it stimulates beta receptors in the body. Beta agonists are commonly used in the treatment of asthma because they relax the smooth muscles in the airways, allowing for easier breathing. By activating beta receptors, albutarol helps to open up the airways and relieve symptoms of acute asthma. Other examples of beta agonists include salmeterol and formoterol.

    Rate this question:

  • 12. 

     The origin of Right Coronary Artery is:

    • A.

      Superior Aortic sinus.

    • B.

      AnteriorAortic sinus.

    • C.

      L-posterior Aortic sinus.

    • D.

      R-posterior Aortic sinus.

    Correct Answer
    B. AnteriorAortic sinus.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "anterior Aortic sinus." The right coronary artery originates from the anterior aortic sinus. The aortic sinus is a small dilatation at the base of the ascending aorta where the coronary arteries arise. The right coronary artery supplies blood to the right atrium, right ventricle, and part of the left ventricle.

    Rate this question:

  • 13. 

    Bad Cholesterol is:

    • A.

      VLDL

    • B.

      HDL

    • C.

      Chylomicron

    • D.

      LDL

    Correct Answer
    D. LDL
    Explanation
    LDL stands for low-density lipoprotein, which is commonly referred to as "bad cholesterol." LDL carries cholesterol from the liver to cells throughout the body, but if there is an excess of LDL, it can build up in the arteries and lead to atherosclerosis, increasing the risk of heart disease. Therefore, LDL is considered bad cholesterol because high levels of it are associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular problems.

    Rate this question:

  • 14. 

    Aschoff bodies are found in:

    • A.

      Rheumatic heart disease

    • B.

      Vasculitis.

    • C.

      Aortic dissection.

    Correct Answer
    A. Rheumatic heart disease
    Explanation
    Aschoff bodies are found in rheumatic heart disease. Aschoff bodies are characteristic histological findings in the heart tissue of patients with rheumatic fever. They are composed of fibrinoid material and inflammatory cells, such as lymphocytes, plasma cells, and macrophages. These bodies are typically found in the myocardium and are associated with the inflammatory response seen in rheumatic heart disease.

    Rate this question:

  • 15. 

    Atenolol is a:

    • A.

      Beta blocker

    • B.

      Alpha blocker

    • C.

      Serotonin receptor blocker

    Correct Answer
    A. Beta blocker
    Explanation
    Atenolol is classified as a beta blocker. Beta blockers work by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the beta receptors in the body. By doing so, they reduce the heart rate and blood pressure, making them commonly used in the treatment of conditions such as hypertension, angina, and certain heart rhythm disorders. Atenolol specifically blocks the beta-1 receptors, which are primarily located in the heart. This selective action allows it to effectively lower heart rate and blood pressure without significantly affecting other organs or functions in the body.

    Rate this question:

  • 16. 

    Which kidney is higher than the other: 

    • A.

      Left kidney.

    • B.

      Right kidney.

    Correct Answer
    A. Left kidney.
    Explanation
    The left kidney is higher than the right kidney because it is positioned slightly higher in the abdomen. The left kidney is located just below the diaphragm, while the right kidney is slightly lower due to the presence of the liver. This anatomical difference in position is why the left kidney is considered to be higher than the right kidney.

    Rate this question:

  • 17. 

    The renal response to acidosis:

    • A.

      Retain bicarbonate.

    • B.

      H+ secretion.

    • C.

      Both.

    • D.

      Nither.

    Correct Answer
    B. H+ secretion.
    Explanation
    The renal response to acidosis involves the secretion of H+. When the body is in an acidic state, the kidneys work to maintain pH balance by excreting excess H+ ions into the urine. This helps to decrease the acidity in the blood and restore a more balanced pH level. Retaining bicarbonate is not a correct answer because bicarbonate is actually reabsorbed by the kidneys to help buffer the excess H+ ions. Therefore, the correct answer is H+ secretion.

    Rate this question:

  • 18. 

    The most common cause of Acute renal failure is: 

    • A.

      Drug induced nephritis

    • B.

      Acute tubular necrosis

    • C.

      Renal artery stenosis

    • D.

      Pyelonephritis

    Correct Answer
    B. Acute tubular necrosis
    Explanation
    Acute tubular necrosis is the most common cause of acute renal failure. It occurs when there is damage to the tubules in the kidneys, leading to a decrease in urine production and the inability to properly filter waste products from the blood. This can be caused by a variety of factors such as ischemia (lack of blood flow to the kidneys), toxins, or certain medications. Drug-induced nephritis, renal artery stenosis, and pyelonephritis can also cause acute renal failure, but they are not as common as acute tubular necrosis.

    Rate this question:

  • 19. 

    Which of the following is potassium-sparing diuretic:

    • A.

      Thiazide

    • B.

      Furesomide

    • C.

      Spirinolactone

    • D.

      Propranolol

    Correct Answer
    C. Spirinolactone
    Explanation
    Spirinolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. It works by blocking the action of aldosterone, a hormone that promotes the retention of sodium and water in the body while promoting the excretion of potassium. By inhibiting aldosterone, spirinolactone helps to increase the excretion of sodium and water while conserving potassium, making it a potassium-sparing diuretic. Thiazide and furosemide are examples of loop diuretics, which promote the excretion of both sodium and potassium. Propranolol is a beta-blocker and not a diuretic.

    Rate this question:

Back to Top Back to top
Advertisement
×

Wait!
Here's an interesting quiz for you.

We have other quizzes matching your interest.