RCAC Flying Scholarship Exam 1

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RCAC Flying Scholarship Exam 1 - Quiz

Air Cadets
Scholarship exam
50 questions


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The main members in a wing which run the length or the wing, from wing root to wingtip, and carry most of the load are called_________;

    • A.

      Ribs

    • B.

      Longerons

    • C.

      Stringers

    • D.

      Spars

    Correct Answer
    D. Spars
    Explanation
    Spars are the main members in a wing that run the length of the wing, from the wing root to the wingtip, and carry most of the load. They provide structural support and help distribute the weight and forces experienced during flight. Ribs, longerons, and stringers are also important components of a wing, but they serve different purposes such as providing shape, additional support, and attaching other components.

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  • 2. 

    The complete tail section of an airplane is called the ________;

    • A.

      Empennage

    • B.

      Stabilator.

    • C.

      Canard.

    • D.

      Elevators.

    Correct Answer
    A. Empennage
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Empennage. The empennage refers to the complete tail section of an airplane, which includes the horizontal stabilizer, vertical stabilizer, and control surfaces such as elevators and rudders. It is responsible for providing stability and control during flight. The term empennage is commonly used in aviation to describe this specific section of an aircraft.

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  • 3. 

    As the angle of attack of an airfoil is increased up to the point of stall, the centre of pressure will move _______.

    • A.

      Back

    • B.

      Forward

    • C.

      Up

    • D.

      Will not move.

    Correct Answer
    B. Forward
    Explanation
    As the angle of attack of an airfoil is increased up to the point of stall, the centre of pressure will move forward. This is because at higher angles of attack, the airflow over the airfoil becomes disrupted, causing the lift to decrease and the pressure distribution to change. This shift in the center of pressure towards the front of the airfoil indicates a loss of lift and stability, which can lead to a stall if the angle of attack is further increased.

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  • 4. 

    ________ drag is caused by those parts af an airplane that produce lift and therefore cannot be completely eliminated.

    • A.

      Parasite.

    • B.

      Form.

    • C.

      Induced.

    • D.

      Interference.

    Correct Answer
    C. Induced.
    Explanation
    Induced drag is caused by the production of lift by certain parts of an airplane, such as wings. As lift is generated, a pressure difference is created between the upper and lower surfaces of the wings, resulting in the creation of vortices at the wingtips. These vortices cause a backward force, known as induced drag, which cannot be completely eliminated. Therefore, the correct answer is "Induced."

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  • 5. 

    Spoilers are devices fitted to the wing which increase _________ and decrease ______.

    • A.

      Drag, Lift.

    • B.

      Lift, Drag.

    • C.

      Weight, Lift.

    • D.

      Speed, Drag.

    Correct Answer
    A. Drag, Lift.
    Explanation
    Spoilers are devices fitted to the wing which increase drag and decrease lift.

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  • 6. 

    Movement of the airplane around the vertical or normal axis is called ______, and is controlled by the movement of the ________.

    • A.

      Roll, Rudder

    • B.

      Yaw, Rudder.

    • C.

      Pitch, Elevators.

    • D.

      Yaw, Ailerons

    Correct Answer
    B. Yaw, Rudder.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Yaw, Rudder. Yaw refers to the movement of the airplane around its vertical or normal axis. This movement is controlled by the rudder, which is a movable control surface located on the vertical stabilizer of the aircraft. The rudder is used to control the yawing motion of the airplane by deflecting it left or right.

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  • 7. 

    When gliding into a fairly strong head wind, greater distance may be covered over ground if speed is kept _______ the best lift / drag ratio speed.

    • A.

      Slightly slower than than.

    • B.

      Much slower than.

    • C.

      Slightly faster than.

    • D.

      At.

    Correct Answer
    C. Slightly faster than.
    Explanation
    When gliding into a headwind, the wind creates an opposing force that slows down the glider's forward motion. To cover a greater distance over the ground, the glider needs to compensate for this by maintaining a slightly faster speed than its best lift/drag ratio speed. This allows the glider to generate enough lift to overcome the headwind and maintain a steady forward progress.

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  • 8. 

    An aircraft will stall at any airspeed or attitude if the ______ is exceeded.

    • A.

      Critical angle of attack.

    • B.

      Center of gravity.

    • C.

      Best lift / drag ratio.

    • D.

      Best angle of climb.

    Correct Answer
    A. Critical angle of attack.
    Explanation
    When an aircraft exceeds the critical angle of attack, it will stall regardless of its airspeed or attitude. The critical angle of attack is the angle at which the airflow over the wings becomes disrupted, causing a loss of lift and an increase in drag. This can occur at any airspeed or attitude, making it a crucial factor in flight safety. The center of gravity, best lift/drag ratio, and best angle of climb are not directly related to stalling.

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  • 9. 

    The maximum speed at which an airplane can be safely operated in smooth air is called _____.

    • A.

      Maneuvering speed (Va)

    • B.

      Normal operating limit speed (Vno)

    • C.

      Max flap down speed (Vfe)

    • D.

      The never exceed speed (Vne)

    Correct Answer
    D. The never exceed speed (Vne)
    Explanation
    The never exceed speed (Vne) refers to the maximum speed at which an airplane should never be operated, as exceeding this speed can result in structural damage or failure. It is an important limit that pilots must adhere to in order to ensure the safety and integrity of the aircraft.

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  • 10. 

    In some ways a spiral dive resembles a spin. However, in a spin the airspeed is ______. In a spiral the airspeed is ________.

    • A.

      Constant and low, increases rapidly

    • B.

      Increases rapidly, is constant and low.

    • C.

      Constant and low, remains the same.

    • D.

      Increasing, Decreases

    Correct Answer
    A. Constant and low, increases rapidly
    Explanation
    In a spiral dive, the airspeed is constant and low, meaning it remains at a relatively low and steady speed. On the other hand, in a spin, the airspeed increases rapidly, meaning it quickly accelerates. Therefore, the correct answer is "Constant and low, increases rapidly."

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  • 11. 

    The point at which the boundary layer changes from laminar to turbulent is called the ______.

    • A.

      Center of pressure.

    • B.

      Transition point.

    • C.

      Center of gravity.

    • D.

      Aileron drag.

    Correct Answer
    B. Transition point.
    Explanation
    The transition point is the point at which the boundary layer changes from laminar to turbulent. It marks the shift from smooth, streamlined flow to chaotic, turbulent flow. This transition point is important in aerodynamics as it affects the drag and lift characteristics of an object. The center of pressure refers to the point on an object where the total aerodynamic force is considered to act. The center of gravity is the point where the entire weight of an object is considered to act. Aileron drag refers to the drag generated by the ailerons, which are control surfaces on the wings of an aircraft.

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  • 12. 

    Longitudinal stability is stability around the lateral axis of the airplane and is called pitch stability. The two principle factors which influence longitudinal stability are _____ and _____;

    • A.

      Size and position of the horizontal stabilizer, the position of the C of G

    • B.

      Dihedral, the position of the C of G.

    • C.

      Sweepback, the position of the C of R.

    • D.

      Keel effect, the position of the fin.

    Correct Answer
    A. Size and position of the horizontal stabilizer, the position of the C of G
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the size and position of the horizontal stabilizer and the position of the center of gravity (C of G). These two factors play a crucial role in determining the longitudinal stability of an airplane. The size and position of the horizontal stabilizer affect the amount of lift it generates, which helps to stabilize the aircraft in pitch. The position of the C of G, which is the balance point of the aircraft, also affects its stability. If the C of G is too far forward or backward, it can cause the aircraft to be unstable and difficult to control.

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  • 13. 

    The steeper the angle of bank for any given airspeed _______;

    • A.

      The larger the radius of the turn.

    • B.

      The greater the rate of turn.

    • C.

      The higher the Stall speed.

    • D.

      Both B and C.

    Correct Answer
    D. Both B and C.
    Explanation
    The steeper the angle of bank for any given airspeed, both the rate of turn and the stall speed will increase. Increasing the angle of bank allows the aircraft to turn more tightly, resulting in a larger radius of turn. Additionally, as the angle of bank increases, the vertical component of lift decreases, causing the stall speed to increase. Therefore, both options B and C are correct.

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  • 14. 

    The only pilot static instrument that requires both a pitot pressure source and a static pressure source is the

    • A.

      Vertical speed indicator

    • B.

      Airspeed indicator

    • C.

      Altimeter

    • D.

      Attitude indicator

    Correct Answer
    B. Airspeed indicator
    Explanation
    The airspeed indicator measures the speed at which an aircraft is moving through the air. It requires both a pitot pressure source, which measures the dynamic pressure of the air as the aircraft moves forward, and a static pressure source, which measures the atmospheric pressure. The difference between these two pressures is used to calculate the airspeed. The other instruments mentioned, such as the vertical speed indicator, altimeter, and attitude indicator, only require a static pressure source to function correctly.

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  • 15. 

    In straight and level flight an airplane has a load factor of 1 or IG. A 60% bank turn produces a load factor of

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      1.5

    • C.

      3.86

    • D.

      1.04

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    In straight and level flight, an airplane has a load factor of 1 or IG, which means it experiences a force equal to its weight. In a 60% bank turn, the load factor increases because the airplane is experiencing both the force of gravity and the centrifugal force. A load factor of 2 means that the airplane is experiencing twice its weight, indicating that the bank turn produces a load factor of 2.

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  • 16. 

    The aspect ratio of a wing is computed by dividing the span by the ______.

    • A.

      Camber.

    • B.

      Length.

    • C.

      Average chord.

    • D.

      Weight.

    Correct Answer
    C. Average chord.
    Explanation
    The aspect ratio of a wing is computed by dividing the span by the average chord. The span is the distance from one wingtip to the other, while the average chord is the average width of the wing from leading edge to trailing edge. Dividing the span by the average chord gives us a ratio that represents the elongation of the wing. A higher aspect ratio indicates a longer, narrower wing, which is typically more efficient for generating lift. Therefore, the correct answer is average chord.

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  • 17. 

    Induced drag ______ as the angle of attack of the airplane increases.

    • A.

      Decreases.

    • B.

      Remains the same at all time

    • C.

      Increases.

    • D.

      None of the above.

    Correct Answer
    C. Increases.
    Explanation
    Pg 23 FTGU bottom of page

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  • 18. 

    The _____ of an airfoil is the curvature of the upper and lower surfaces.

    • A.

      Chord.

    • B.

      Camber.

    • C.

      Pressure.

    • D.

      Span.

    Correct Answer
    B. Camber.
    Explanation
    The camber of an airfoil refers to the curvature of its upper and lower surfaces. The camber is responsible for generating lift by creating a pressure difference between the two surfaces. A positive camber means the airfoil has a curved upper surface and a flat or slightly curved lower surface, while a negative camber means the opposite. The camber design is crucial in determining the aerodynamic performance and characteristics of an airfoil.

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  • 19. 

    The tendency of an airplane in flight to remain in straight, level, upright flight and to return to this attitude, if displaced, without corrective action of the pilot is called _____.

    • A.

      Balance.

    • B.

      Instability.

    • C.

      Equilibrium.

    • D.

      Stability.

    Correct Answer
    D. Stability.
    Explanation
    Stability refers to the tendency of an airplane to maintain its straight, level, and upright flight, as well as its ability to return to this attitude if it is displaced. It implies that the aircraft is in a state of balance and is not prone to excessive rolling, pitching, or yawing. Stability is crucial for safe and controlled flight, as it allows the pilot to maintain control over the aircraft and make necessary adjustments when needed.

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  • 20. 

    Most of the weather occurs in the ______ because of the presence of water vapour and strong vertical currents.

    • A.

      Troposphere

    • B.

      Tropopause

    • C.

      Stratosphere

    • D.

      Mesosphere

    Correct Answer
    A. Troposphere
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Troposphere. The troposphere is the lowest layer of the Earth's atmosphere, extending from the surface up to about 10-15 kilometers. It is where weather phenomena occur due to the presence of water vapor and strong vertical currents. The troposphere contains most of the Earth's weather systems, including clouds, precipitation, and storms. It is also where temperature decreases with increasing altitude, making it the most dynamic and active layer of the atmosphere.

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  • 21. 

    In the ICAO standard atmosphere the rate of decrease of temperature with height is ______ per 1,000'.

    • A.

      15 degrees c

    • B.

      1.98 degrees c

    • C.

      3 degrees c

    • D.

      5 degrees c

    Correct Answer
    B. 1.98 degrees c
    Explanation
    In the ICAO standard atmosphere, the rate of decrease of temperature with height is 1.98 degrees c per 1,000'. This means that for every 1,000 feet increase in altitude, the temperature decreases by 1.98 degrees celsius. This standard rate of temperature decrease is important for aviation purposes as it helps pilots and aircraft systems account for temperature changes at different altitudes.

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  • 22. 

    Clouds from which precipitation falls are designated ______ clouds.

    • A.

      Cirrus

    • B.

      Cumulus

    • C.

      Stratus

    • D.

      Nimbus

    Correct Answer
    D. Nimbus
    Explanation
    Clouds from which precipitation falls are designated Nimbus clouds. Nimbus clouds are characterized by their dark and heavy appearance, indicating the presence of water droplets or ice crystals that are large enough to fall as precipitation. These clouds often produce rain, snow, or other forms of precipitation.

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  • 23. 

    In the new METAR weather reporting code the sky is divided in 8 segments called okras. The sky condition "FEW" means that ________ okras (8ths) or less of the sky is covered by clouds.

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    The sky condition "FEW" in the new METAR weather reporting code means that 2 okras (8ths) or less of the sky is covered by clouds.

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  • 24. 

    Lines on a weather map that join areas of equal barometric pressure are called _______.

    • A.

      Contour Lines

    • B.

      Pressure gradient..

    • C.

      Isobars.

    • D.

      Agonic lines.

    Correct Answer
    C. Isobars.
    Explanation
    Isobars are lines on a weather map that connect areas of equal barometric pressure. These lines help meteorologists visualize areas of high and low pressure and understand the patterns and movements of weather systems. By analyzing the distribution and spacing of isobars, meteorologists can make predictions about wind patterns, storm development, and other weather phenomena. Contour lines are used to represent elevation on a topographic map, pressure gradient refers to the change in pressure over a given distance, and agonic lines represent locations where magnetic declination is zero.

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  • 25. 

    Where the isobars are very close together, the pressure gradient is steep and the wind is ______.

    • A.

      Strong

    • B.

      Fight.

    • C.

      Variable.

    • D.

      Cold.

    Correct Answer
    A. Strong
    Explanation
    When the isobars are very close together, it indicates a steep pressure gradient. This means that there is a significant difference in pressure over a short distance. In such conditions, the wind tends to blow at a higher speed, resulting in strong winds. Therefore, the correct answer is "Strong."

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  • 26. 

    A _____ is a rapid and irregular fluctuation in wind speed and direction caused by mechanical turbulence and by unequal heating of the earth's surface.

    • A.

      Squall.

    • B.

      Gust.

    • C.

      Mountain Wave.

    • D.

      Veer.

    Correct Answer
    B. Gust.
    Explanation
    A gust is a sudden and brief increase in wind speed that occurs due to factors such as mechanical turbulence and uneven heating of the earth's surface. It is characterized by a rapid and irregular fluctuation in wind direction as well. This explanation fits the given definition of a rapid and irregular fluctuation in wind speed and direction caused by mechanical turbulence and unequal heating of the earth's surface.

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  • 27. 

    When a given mass of air is heated and no new water vapour is added, the relative humidity of the air _______.

    • A.

      Remains the same.

    • B.

      Increases.

    • C.

      Decreases.

    • D.

      Becomes saturated.

    Correct Answer
    C. Decreases.
    Explanation
    When a given mass of air is heated and no new water vapor is added, the relative humidity of the air decreases. This is because as air is heated, its capacity to hold water vapor increases. However, since no new water vapor is added, the amount of water vapor in the air remains the same. Therefore, the relative humidity, which is the ratio of the actual amount of water vapor in the air to the maximum amount it can hold at a given temperature, decreases as the capacity to hold water vapor increases.

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  • 28. 

    Air that will resist upward or downward displacement and tends to return to its original horizontal level is said to be _______.

    • A.

      Unstable.

    • B.

      Saturated.

    • C.

      Sublimation.

    • D.

      Stable.

    Correct Answer
    D. Stable.
    Explanation
    Air that resists upward or downward displacement and tends to return to its original horizontal level is considered stable. This means that the air is not easily disturbed or moved from its current position. Stable air is typically associated with calm weather conditions, as it inhibits the formation of clouds and precipitation.

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  • 29. 

    The temperature that air must be cooled at a constant pressure to become saturated is called ______.

    • A.

      Dew Point.

    • B.

      Relative humidity.

    • C.

      Fahrenheit

    • D.

      Isothermal layer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Dew Point.
    Explanation
    The temperature at which air must be cooled at a constant pressure to become saturated is called the dew point. This is the temperature at which the air is holding as much moisture as it can, and any further cooling will cause the moisture to condense into dew or fog. Relative humidity is a measure of how close the air is to being saturated at its current temperature, but it is not the specific temperature at which saturation occurs. Fahrenheit is a temperature scale, and isothermal layer refers to a layer of the atmosphere where the temperature remains constant.

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  • 30. 

    The dangers associated with the passage of thunderstorms are _____.

    • A.

      Strong, gusty winds, and turbulence.

    • B.

      Heavy rain and hail.

    • C.

      Lightning.

    • D.

      All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above." This means that all of the dangers mentioned in the options - strong, gusty winds, turbulence, heavy rain and hail, and lightning - are associated with the passage of thunderstorms. Thunderstorms can bring about these hazardous conditions, posing risks to people, property, and the environment.

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  • 31. 

    METAR CYZX 182000Z CCA 120 15G20 KT 3/4SM R13/4000 FT/D +SN BLSN BKN 005 OVC 020 M02/M05 A3000 REPE WS RWY 13 RMK SF 6 SC 2 VIS 1/4 TONE SLP 990The term CCA means ________;

    • A.

      The 3 letter identifier of the reporting station.

    • B.

      Than this is a special report.

    • C.

      This is the first correction of a report taken on the 18th day of the month at 2000 UTC.

    • D.

      None of the above.

    Correct Answer
    C. This is the first correction of a report taken on the 18th day of the month at 2000 UTC.
    Explanation
    The term CCA in the given METAR report stands for "Correction of a report taken on the 18th day of the month at 2000 UTC." This indicates that the current report is an amended version of a previous report, providing updated or corrected information.

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  • 32. 

    METAR CYZX 182000Z CCA 120 15G20 KT 3/4SM R13/4000 FT/D +SN BLSN BKN 005 OVC 020 M02/M05 A3000 REPE WS RWY 13 RMK SF 6 SC 2 VIS 1/4 TONE SLP 990The present weather is __________;

    • A.

      Light snow and heavy blowing snow.

    • B.

      Moderate snow and moderate blowing snow.

    • C.

      Heavy snow and moderate blowing snow.

    • D.

      None of the above.

    Correct Answer
    C. Heavy snow and moderate blowing snow.
    Explanation
    The METAR report indicates the presence of "+SN" which stands for heavy snow, and "BLSN" which stands for moderate blowing snow. Therefore, the correct answer is "Heavy snow and moderate blowing snow."

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  • 33. 

    METAR CYZX 182000Z CCA 120 15G20 KT 3/4SM R13/4000 FT/D +SN BLSN BKN 005 OVC 020 M02/M05 A3000 REPE WS RWY 13 RMK SF 6 SC 2 VIS 1/4 TONE SLP 990The temperature and dew point are _______;

    • A.

      2 deg F, 5 deg F

    • B.

      -2 deg C, -5 deg C

    • C.

      -20F, -50F

    • D.

      2 deg C, 50F

    Correct Answer
    B. -2 deg C, -5 deg C
    Explanation
    The correct answer is -2 deg C, -5 deg C. This is indicated by the "M02/M05" in the METAR report. The "M" before the numbers indicates a negative value. Therefore, the temperature is -2 deg C and the dew point is -5 deg C.

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  • 34. 

    METAR CYZX 182000Z CCA 120 15G20 KT 3/4SM R13/4000 FT/D +SN BLSN BKN 005 OVC 020 M02/M05 A3000 REPE WS RWY 13 RMK SF 6 SC 2 VIS 1/4 TONE SLP 990The altimeter setting is ________.

    • A.

      30.00" mercury

    • B.

      29.90" mercury

    • C.

      1030.0 hectopascals

    • D.

      990.0 hectopascals.

    Correct Answer
    A. 30.00" mercury
    Explanation
    The given METAR report provides information about the weather conditions at CYZX airport. The altimeter setting, which indicates the atmospheric pressure at sea level, is given as "A3000" in the report. This value represents the altimeter setting in inches of mercury. Therefore, the correct answer is "30.00" mercury".

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  • 35. 

    An aerodrome forecast (TAF) is issued at least _________times daily.

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      8

    Correct Answer
    B. 4
    Explanation
    An aerodrome forecast (TAF) is issued at least 4 times daily to provide accurate and up-to-date weather information for pilots and aviation personnel. This frequency ensures that aviation operations can plan and adjust their schedules accordingly based on the changing weather conditions throughout the day. By issuing the TAF four times daily, it allows for better safety and efficiency in air travel.

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  • 36. 

    The shortest distance between two points on the surface of the earth is represented by a ______;

    • A.

      Rumb line.

    • B.

      True heading.

    • C.

      Magnetic meridian.

    • D.

      Great circle.

    Correct Answer
    D. Great circle.
    Explanation
    The shortest distance between two points on the surface of the earth is represented by a great circle. A great circle is a circle on the surface of a sphere whose center coincides with the center of the sphere. It divides the sphere into two equal hemispheres and any two points on a great circle are diametrically opposite to each other. Therefore, the shortest distance between two points on the surface of the earth is along the arc of a great circle.

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  • 37. 

    The angle between true heading and magnetic heading is called _______.

    • A.

      Variation

    • B.

      Magnetic dip

    • C.

      Deviation.

    • D.

      Turning error.

    Correct Answer
    A. Variation
    Explanation
    The angle between true heading and magnetic heading is called variation. Variation is caused by the difference between the Earth's magnetic field and its geographic reference system. It is important for navigation purposes as it helps in determining the correct magnetic heading to follow in order to reach a desired destination.

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  • 38. 

    Given: Track = 090 deg T, Variation = 12 deg W, Deviation = 3 deg EWhat is the compass heading?

    • A.

      081 deg

    • B.

      099 deg

    • C.

      105 deg

    • D.

      075 deg

    Correct Answer
    B. 099 deg
    Explanation
    The compass heading is determined by adding the track to the variation and subtracting the deviation. In this case, the track is 090 deg T, the variation is 12 deg W, and the deviation is 3 deg E. Adding 090 deg and 12 deg gives 102 deg, and subtracting 3 deg gives a compass heading of 99 deg. Therefore, the correct answer is 099 deg.

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  • 39. 

    The radio phrase "OVER" means ______;

    • A.

      My transition is ended. I do not expect a reply from you.

    • B.

      I will repeat.

    • C.

      My transmission has ended. I expect a reply.

    • D.

      Okay, I have received your message.

    Correct Answer
    C. My transmission has ended. I expect a reply.
    Explanation
    The radio phrase "OVER" is used to indicate that the speaker has finished transmitting their message and is now expecting a response from the other party. It signifies that the communication is not one-sided and the speaker is awaiting a reply.

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  • 40. 

    When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so, each should alter heading to __________ in order to avoid any danger of collision.

    • A.

      The right.

    • B.

      The left.

    • C.

      The left and right respectively.

    • D.

      Above and below.

    Correct Answer
    A. The right.
    Explanation
    When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so, each should alter heading to the right in order to avoid any danger of collision. This is because right is the standard and universally accepted direction for aircraft to turn in order to avoid collisions. By both aircraft turning to the right, they will be able to safely pass each other without any risk of collision.

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  • 41. 

    When thrust and drag are equal and opposite, the airplane is said to be in a state of _________.

    • A.

      Balance.

    • B.

      Equilibrium.

    • C.

      Acceleration.

    • D.

      Stability.

    Correct Answer
    B. Equilibrium.
    Explanation
    When thrust and drag are equal and opposite, it means that the forces acting on the airplane are balanced. In this state of equilibrium, the airplane is not accelerating in any particular direction. It is maintaining a steady and balanced condition, which allows for stable flight.

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  • 42. 

    The type of engine most commonly used in general aviation is ______;

    • A.

      Radial.

    • B.

      In-line.

    • C.

      Turbo-jet

    • D.

      Horizontally opposed.

    Correct Answer
    D. Horizontally opposed.
    Explanation
    The type of engine most commonly used in general aviation is horizontally opposed. This type of engine has cylinders arranged in a flat configuration, with two banks of cylinders facing each other horizontally. It is favored in general aviation due to its compact size, simplicity, and reliability. The horizontally opposed engine provides a good balance of power, smooth operation, and fuel efficiency, making it suitable for small aircraft used in general aviation purposes.

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  • 43. 

    The main functions of lubricating oil are ________;

    • A.

      Cooling.

    • B.

      Sealing.

    • C.

      Flushing.

    • D.

      All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above." Lubricating oil performs multiple functions, including cooling, sealing, and flushing. Cooling is necessary to prevent overheating of the engine components, while sealing helps to prevent leakage and maintain proper pressure. Flushing refers to the process of removing dirt, debris, and contaminants from the engine. Therefore, lubricating oil serves all of these functions simultaneously.

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  • 44. 

    The purpose of a dual ignition system (two spark plugs in each cylinder and two magnetos) is for ___________.

    • A.

      Safety

    • B.

      Performance.

    • C.

      Fuel economy.

    • D.

      Both A and B

    Correct Answer
    D. Both A and B
    Explanation
    A dual ignition system, with two spark plugs in each cylinder and two magnetos, serves the purpose of enhancing both safety and performance. Having two spark plugs ensures a more reliable ignition, reducing the risk of engine failure. It also leads to better combustion, resulting in improved performance and power output. Additionally, the dual ignition system allows for redundancy, providing a backup in case one spark plug or magneto fails. This enhances safety by reducing the chances of a complete engine shutdown. Therefore, the correct answer is both A and B.

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  • 45. 

    The function of the propeller is to convert the torque, or turning moment of the crankshaft into _____, or forward speed;

    • A.

      Thrust.

    • B.

      Drag.

    • C.

      Slip.

    • D.

      Skid.

    Correct Answer
    A. Thrust.
    Explanation
    The propeller's function is to convert the torque from the crankshaft into thrust, which propels the aircraft forward. Thrust is the force that moves the aircraft through the air, allowing it to gain speed and maintain forward motion. Drag is the resistance force experienced by the aircraft as it moves through the air. Slip refers to the difference between the actual and theoretical speed of the propeller, while skid refers to a sideways sliding motion.

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  • 46. 

    Given: Distance flown = 240 statute miles, Time required = 3 hours.The ground speed is

    • A.

      80 Knots

    • B.

      80 MPH

    • C.

      48 MPH

    • D.

      45 MPH

    Correct Answer
    B. 80 MPH
    Explanation
    The ground speed can be calculated by dividing the distance flown by the time required. In this case, dividing 240 statute miles by 3 hours gives us a ground speed of 80 miles per hour (MPH).

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  • 47. 

    100 nautical miles = ______ statue miles.

    • A.

      115

    • B.

      87

    • C.

      132

    • D.

      40

    Correct Answer
    A. 115
    Explanation
    One nautical mile is equal to 1.15078 statute miles. Therefore, to convert 100 nautical miles to statute miles, we multiply it by the conversion factor. So, 100 nautical miles is equal to 115.078 statute miles. Since the question asks for the answer in whole numbers, we round it down to 115 statute miles.

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  • 48. 

    Track = 360 deg TVariation = 10 deg EDeviation = 4 deg WTAS = 150 MPHWind = 020 deg T at 40 knotsWhat is the resultant ground speed

    • A.

      106 MPH

    • B.

      112 MPH

    • C.

      196 MPH

    • D.

      196 Knots

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. 112 MPH
    C. 196 MPH
    Explanation
    The resultant ground speed is 112 MPH. The track is the direction the aircraft is flying, which is 360 degrees. The variation is the difference between true north and magnetic north, which is 10 degrees east. The deviation is the difference between magnetic north and compass north, which is 4 degrees west. The TAS is the true airspeed, which is 150 MPH. The wind is blowing from 020 degrees true at 40 knots. By taking into account the wind direction and speed, the ground speed can be calculated.

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  • 49. 

    Under certain moist atmospheric conditions it is possible for carburetor icing to occur when air temperature is in the range of approximately ______ to ______.

    • A.

      -5 deg F, 30 deg F

    • B.

      -5 deg C, 30 deg C

    • C.

      -30 deg F, 5 deg F

    • D.

      -30 deg C, 5 deg C

    Correct Answer
    B. -5 deg C, 30 deg C
    Explanation
    Carburetor icing can occur when the air temperature is within a specific range where moisture is present. Moisture in the air can freeze and accumulate on the carburetor, obstructing the flow of air and fuel mixture. The temperature range of -5 deg C to 30 deg C is considered to be the critical range for carburetor icing to occur.

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  • 50. 

    To avoid wake turbulence when following an aircraft that has just landed, plan to touchdown _____ the point where the preceding aircraft touched down.

    • A.

      Beyond

    • B.

      Short of

    • C.

      At

    • D.

      Close to

    Correct Answer
    A. Beyond
    Explanation
    To avoid wake turbulence when following an aircraft that has just landed, it is recommended to plan to touchdown beyond the point where the preceding aircraft touched down. This is because wake turbulence, which consists of swirling air currents, is generated by the wings of an aircraft and can linger in the air for a significant distance behind the aircraft. By touching down beyond the point where the preceding aircraft landed, the following aircraft can minimize the risk of encountering this turbulence and maintain a safe distance.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 28, 2008
    Quiz Created by
    Sgt504
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