RCAC Flying Scholarship Exam 3

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Scholarship

• 1.

The ________ is the term used to describe the complete structure of an airplane including the fuel tanks and lines, but without engines and instruments installed.

• A.

Airframe

• B.

Empennage

• C.

Fuselage

• D.

Canard

A. Airframe
Explanation
The term "airframe" refers to the complete structure of an airplane, which includes the fuel tanks and lines. It does not include the engines and instruments that are installed in the aircraft.

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• 2.

As the angle of attack of an airfoil is increased up to the point of stall, the center of pressure will move _________.

• A.

Back.

• B.

Forward.

• C.

Up.

• D.

Will not move.

B. Forward.
Explanation
As the angle of attack of an airfoil is increased up to the point of stall, the center of pressure will move forward. This is because at higher angles of attack, the flow of air over the airfoil becomes more turbulent and separates from the surface, causing a decrease in lift. To compensate for this decrease in lift, the center of pressure moves forward, exerting a force that helps to maintain stability and control of the aircraft.

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• 3.

________ should be used in order to gain the most altitude in a given amount of time.

• A.

Best angle of climb.

• B.

Best rate of climb.

• C.

Best climbing configuration.

• D.

Best climb time.

B. Best rate of climb.
Explanation
The best rate of climb should be used in order to gain the most altitude in a given amount of time. This means that the aircraft should climb at the maximum rate possible, allowing it to reach a higher altitude in a shorter period. The best angle of climb refers to the steepest climb angle, which may not necessarily result in the highest altitude gain in a given time frame. The best climbing configuration and best climb time are not directly related to maximizing altitude gain.

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• 4.

When gliding into a fairly strong headwind, greater distance may be covered over the ground if the speed is kept ________the best lift / drag speed.

• A.

Slightly slower than

• B.

Much slower than

• C.

Slightly faster than

• D.

At

C. Slightly faster than
Explanation
When gliding into a headwind, the wind resistance can be reduced by flying slightly faster than the best lift/drag speed. This allows the glider to maintain a higher ground speed and cover a greater distance. Flying slightly faster than the best lift/drag speed helps to counteract the effects of the headwind and optimize the glider's performance.

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• 5.

The maximum speed at which an airplane can be safely operated in smooth air is called ______.

• A.

Maneuvering speed (Va)

• B.

Normal operating limit speed (Vno)

• C.

Max flap down speed (Vfe)

• D.

Never exceed speed (Vne)

D. Never exceed speed (Vne)
Explanation
The correct answer is "Never exceed speed (Vne)". Vne is the maximum speed at which an airplane should never exceed to avoid structural damage or failure. It is an important safety limit that pilots must adhere to during flight.

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• 6.

In some ways a spiral dive resembles a spin. Hovever, in a spin the airspeed is _______. In a spiral dive the airspeed is ______.

• A.

Constant and relatively low, increasingly rapid.

• B.

Increasing rapidly, constant and relatively low

• C.

Constant and relatively low, remains the same.

• D.

Increasing, decreasing.

A. Constant and relatively low, increasingly rapid.
Explanation
In a spiral dive, the airspeed is constant and relatively low. This means that the speed at which the aircraft is moving through the air remains consistent but is at a lower value compared to normal flight. However, the airspeed in a spiral dive also increases rapidly. This means that the rate at which the airspeed is increasing becomes faster and faster as the aircraft continues to descend in the spiral dive.

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• 7.

________ refers to the shape of a wing as seen from directly above.

• A.

Top view.

• B.

Plan view.

• C.

Form view.

• D.

Wing view.

B. Plan view.
Explanation
The term "plan view" refers to the shape of an object as seen from directly above. In the context of the question, it specifically refers to the shape of a wing when viewed from above. The other options - top view, form view, and wing view - do not accurately describe the specific perspective of viewing the wing from above. Therefore, the correct answer is plan view.

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• 8.

The steaper the angle of bank for any given airspeed, _____.

• A.

The larger the radius of the turn.

• B.

The greater the rate of turn.

• C.

The higher the stalling speed.

• D.

Both B and C.

D. Both B and C.
Explanation
The steeper the angle of bank for any given airspeed, both the greater the rate of turn and the higher the stalling speed. When the angle of bank is increased, the rate of turn also increases because the aircraft is able to change direction more quickly. Additionally, the stalling speed increases because the lift required to sustain the aircraft in the turn is greater, and therefore the airspeed at which the aircraft will stall is higher. Therefore, both B and C are true statements.

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• 9.

The aspect ratio of a wing is computed by dividing the span by the_____.

• A.

Camber

• B.

Length

• C.

Average chord.

• D.

Weight

C. Average chord.
Explanation
The aspect ratio of a wing is computed by dividing the span by the average chord. The span refers to the distance between the wingtips, while the average chord is the average width of the wing from leading edge to trailing edge. By dividing these two measurements, we can determine the aspect ratio, which is an important parameter in aerodynamics. Camber, length, and weight are not directly related to the computation of aspect ratio.

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• 10.

The _____ of an airfoil is the curvature of the upper and lower surfaces.

• A.

Chord

• B.

Camber

• C.

Pressure

• D.

Span

B. Camber
Explanation
The camber of an airfoil refers to the curvature of its upper and lower surfaces. This curvature helps to generate lift by creating a pressure difference between the two surfaces. A greater camber typically results in a higher lift coefficient, making it an important factor in designing efficient airfoils for various applications such as aircraft wings or wind turbine blades. The other options, chord, pressure, and span, do not specifically refer to the curvature of the airfoil surfaces.

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• 11.

The lift / drag ratio is determined by;

• A.

• B.

Dividing the lift coefficient by the drag coefficient.

• C.

Dividing performance by endurance.

• D.

Dividing the drag coefficient by the lift coefficient.

B. Dividing the lift coefficient by the drag coefficient.
Explanation
The lift/drag ratio is a measure of the efficiency of an aircraft or object in generating lift compared to the drag it produces. It is determined by dividing the lift coefficient, which quantifies the lift generated by the object, by the drag coefficient, which quantifies the drag produced by the object. This ratio indicates how effectively the object is able to generate lift while minimizing drag, with a higher ratio indicating better efficiency.

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• 12.

Air flowing over the upper surface of the wing tends to flow ______.

• A.

Slower than the air under the wing.

• B.

Faster than the air flowing under the wing..

• C.

Inward.

• D.

Both B and C.

D. Both B and C.
Explanation
The air flowing over the upper surface of the wing tends to flow faster than the air flowing under the wing. This is due to the shape of the wing, which is designed to create a pressure difference between the upper and lower surfaces. As the air flows over the curved upper surface, it has to travel a longer distance in the same amount of time, resulting in faster flow. Additionally, the air flowing over the wing tends to flow inward towards the center of the wing, which is known as the phenomenon of inward flow. Therefore, the correct answer is that the air flowing over the upper surface of the wing tends to flow faster than the air flowing under the wing and inward.

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• 13.

Which of the the following factors does not affect the stalling speed (IAS) of an airfoil.

• A.

C of G.

• B.

Weight.

• C.

Temperature.

• D.

Flaps.

C. Temperature.
Explanation
Temperature does not affect the stalling speed (IAS) of an airfoil. Stalling speed is primarily determined by factors such as the coefficient of lift, weight, and the configuration of the airfoil, such as the presence or absence of flaps. Temperature, on the other hand, affects the air density, which in turn affects the lift and drag forces acting on the airfoil, but it does not directly impact the stalling speed.

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• 14.

The initial tendency of an aircraft to return to its original position is known as _____ stability.

• A.

Neutral

• B.

Dynamic

• C.

Directional

• D.

Static

D. Static
Explanation
Static stability refers to the initial tendency of an aircraft to return to its original position after being disturbed. This means that when the aircraft is displaced from its equilibrium position, it will naturally try to return to that position without any external forces or inputs. Therefore, the correct answer is "Static" stability.

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• 15.

An aircraft loaded with the C of G too far aft will have _____ tendency.

• A.

Nose up

• B.

Nose down

• C.

Stable

• D.

No effect.

A. Nose up
Explanation
When the center of gravity (C of G) of an aircraft is too far aft, it means that the weight is concentrated towards the tail of the aircraft. This causes the nose of the aircraft to rise, resulting in a nose-up tendency. This happens because the weight at the tail creates a moment that counteracts the downward force from the wings, causing the aircraft to pitch up.

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• 16.

Most high wing aircraft are laterally stable because the wings are attached in a high position on the fuselage and because the weight is therefore low. When the aircraft is disturbed and one wing dips, the weight acts as a pendulum returning the aircraft to its original attitude. The cause of this stability is known as _____.

• A.

An anhedral

• B.

Precession

• C.

Sweepback

• D.

Keel effect.

D. Keel effect.
Explanation
The correct answer is the Keel effect. The Keel effect refers to the stability provided by the weight of the aircraft acting as a pendulum when one wing dips. This stability is achieved in most high wing aircraft due to the wings being attached in a high position on the fuselage, resulting in a low center of gravity. The weight of the aircraft helps to restore it to its original attitude when it is disturbed. Anhedral, precession, and sweepback do not directly relate to the stability provided by the weight of the aircraft.

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• 17.

The most important property of the atmosphere is _____.

• A.

Mobility

• B.

Expansion

• C.

Compression

• D.

Upward air currents.

B. Expansion
Explanation
The most important property of the atmosphere is expansion. This is because as the atmosphere heats up, the air molecules gain energy and move faster, causing them to spread out and occupy more space. This expansion leads to a decrease in air density, which is important for various atmospheric processes such as convection, wind formation, and weather patterns. Additionally, the expansion of the atmosphere plays a crucial role in regulating the Earth's temperature by allowing for the absorption and redistribution of solar radiation.

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• 18.

From a standpoint of weather, _____ is the most important component of the air.

• A.

Water vapour.

• B.

Oxygen

• C.

Pollution

• D.

None of the above.

A. Water vapour.
Explanation
Water vapour is the most important component of the air from a weather standpoint because it plays a crucial role in the formation of clouds, precipitation, and overall humidity levels. Water vapour is responsible for the Earth's water cycle, which drives weather patterns and influences climate. It affects temperature, as water vapour can both absorb and release heat energy. Additionally, the amount of water vapour in the air determines the potential for severe weather events such as storms and hurricanes. Therefore, water vapour is essential in understanding and predicting weather conditions.

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• 19.

The ICAO standard atmosphere for the continent of North America assumes _____.

• A.

The rate of decrease of temperature with height is 3 deg per 1,000'.

• B.

The air is a perfectly dry gas.

• C.

A mean sea level pressure of 992 mb.

• D.

A mean sea level temperature of 20 deg C.

B. The air is a perfectly dry gas.
Explanation
The ICAO standard atmosphere for the continent of North America assumes that the air is a perfectly dry gas. This means that the atmosphere does not contain any water vapor or moisture. This assumption is important for calculations and predictions related to air pressure, temperature, and density in the region. It allows for a standardized and consistent model to be used for various aviation and meteorological purposes.

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• 20.

Warm air is ______ than cold air therefore tends to _____.

• A.

Less dense, rise.

• B.

Less dense, sink.

• C.

More dense, sink.

• D.

More dense, rise.

A. Less dense, rise.
Explanation
Warm air is less dense than cold air because the molecules in warm air have more energy and move faster, causing them to spread out and occupy more space. This decrease in density makes warm air lighter than cold air, causing it to rise.

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• 21.

If adjusted for the current pressure, the altimeter will read the true elevation of the aerodrome _____.

• A.

Above mean ground level.

• B.

Above sea level.

• C.

As zero.

• D.

Above the equator.

B. Above sea level.
Explanation
The altimeter measures altitude, which is the vertical distance above a reference point. In aviation, the reference point is usually sea level. Therefore, when the altimeter is adjusted for the current pressure, it will accurately display the true elevation of the aerodrome above sea level.

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• 22.

Altostratus clouds fall into which category of clouds?

• A.

Low

• B.

Middle

• C.

High

• D.

Vertical development.

B. Middle
Explanation
Altostratus clouds fall into the middle category of clouds. These clouds are typically found at an intermediate altitude, between 6,500 and 20,000 feet above ground level. They are characterized by a uniform gray or bluish-gray appearance and often cover the entire sky, blocking out the sun or moon. Altostratus clouds are composed of water droplets and sometimes ice crystals, and they are associated with stable atmospheric conditions. They can bring light precipitation, such as drizzle or light snow, but they do not produce thunderstorms or significant weather disturbances.

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• 23.

A sea breeze occurs during the _____ and the wind blows from the _____ to the _____.

• A.

Day, land, water.

• B.

Day, water, land.

• C.

Night, land, water.

• D.

Night, water, land.

B. Day, water, land.
Explanation
During the day, the land heats up faster than the water. This causes the air above the land to become warmer and rise, creating a low-pressure area. At the same time, the air above the water remains cooler. The cooler air over the water moves towards the land to fill the void left by the rising warm air. This movement of air from the water to the land is known as a sea breeze. Therefore, during the day, the wind blows from the water to the land.

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• 24.

In a climb from the surface to several thousand feet AGL, the wind will _____ and ____.

• A.

Back and decrease.

• B.

Back and increase.

• C.

Veer and decrease.

• D.

Veer and increase.

D. Veer and increase.
Explanation
As altitude increases, the wind direction tends to veer, meaning it shifts in a clockwise direction. Additionally, the wind speed tends to increase with altitude due to various atmospheric factors. Therefore, in a climb from the surface to several thousand feet AGL, the wind will veer and increase.

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• 25.

Relative humidity;

• A.

Is the ratio of water present in the air compared to the amount the same volume of air could hold if it were saturated.

• B.

Is the ratio of water present in the air compared to the amount the same volume of air could hold if it were dry.

• C.

Decrease when a given mass of air is cooled and no new water vapor is added.

• D.

Both A and C.

A. Is the ratio of water present in the air compared to the amount the same volume of air could hold if it were saturated.
Explanation
Relative humidity is the ratio of water present in the air compared to the amount the same volume of air could hold if it were saturated. This means that it measures the amount of moisture in the air relative to its maximum capacity to hold moisture. When the air is saturated, it means it cannot hold any more moisture and the relative humidity is 100%. If the air is not saturated, the relative humidity is less than 100%. Therefore, the given answer accurately describes what relative humidity is.

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• 26.

The rate of decrease of temperature with height is called the _____.

• A.

Lapse rate.

• B.

Inversion rate.

• C.

Isothermal rate

• D.

ITT rate.

A. Lapse rate.
Explanation
The rate at which temperature decreases with an increase in height is known as the lapse rate. This phenomenon occurs due to the decrease in atmospheric pressure with height, which leads to a decrease in the density of air molecules. As the density decreases, the air molecules have less energy and therefore the temperature decreases. The lapse rate is an important concept in meteorology and is used to understand weather patterns and atmospheric stability.

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• 27.

The mature stage of a thunderstorm cell is marked by the:

• A.

Appearance of the top of the cell spreading out into an anvil structure.

• B.

Presence of heavy downdrafts.

• C.

Appearance of precipitation on the ground.

• D.

All of the above.

C. Appearance of precipitation on the ground.
Explanation
The mature stage of a thunderstorm cell is marked by the appearance of precipitation on the ground. This is because during this stage, the updrafts within the storm cell are strong enough to support the growth of large raindrops or hailstones, which then fall to the ground as precipitation. The appearance of precipitation on the ground is a clear indication that the storm cell has reached its mature stage. The other options, such as the spreading out of the top into an anvil structure and the presence of heavy downdrafts, may also be observed during the mature stage, but they are not exclusive to this stage and can occur in earlier or later stages of a thunderstorm as well.

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• 28.

METAR CYPG 221600Z 11007KT 15SM BKN020 BKN 035 09/04 A3005 RMK SCSC2 SLP 182TAF CYPG 22154Z 221616 VRB03KT P6SM SCT020 TEMPO 1622 BKNO20 BECMG 2224 13012KTFMO400Z 12015KT P6SM BKNO I O OVC I 00FMO800Z 1201 SG25KT 2SM -PA BR OVC007 BECMG 0911 10025G3 5KTFMI400Z 20015g25KT 2SM -SHRA BR OVC008 RKK NXT FGST BY 19Z=With reference to the above METAR the ceiling at Portage La Prarie at 1600Z is:

• A.

Measured by aircraft at 3005'.

• B.

1500' in smog.

• C.

Broken at 2000'

• D.

Broken at 3500".

C. Broken at 2000'
Explanation
The given METAR report indicates that at 1600Z, the sky at Portage La Prairie had a broken cloud cover at 2000 feet. This information is obtained from the "BKN020" in the METAR report, which indicates that there are broken clouds at an altitude of 2000 feet.

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• 29.

METAR CYPG 221600Z 11007KT 15SM BKN020 BKN 035 09/04 A3005 RMK SCSC2 SLP 182TAF CYPG 22154Z 221616 VRB03KT P6SM SCT020 TEMPO 1622 BKNO20 BECMG 2224 13012KTFMO400Z 12015KT P6SM BKNO I O OVC I 00FMO800Z 1201 SG25KT 2SM -PA BR OVC007 BECMG 0911 10025G3 5KTFMI400Z 20015g25KT 2SM -SHRA BR OVC008 RKK NXT FGST BY 19Z=With reference to the above METAR, the wind is ______, with a dew point of _____.

• A.

110 deg true at 7knots, 9 deg C

• B.

110 deg magnetic at 7 knots, 9 deg C

• C.

110 deg true at 7 knots, 4 deg C

• D.

110 deg magnetic at 7 knots, 4 deg C

C. 110 deg true at 7 knots, 4 deg C
Explanation
The given METAR report states "11007KT," which indicates that the wind direction is 110 degrees true and the wind speed is 7 knots. Additionally, the report states "09/04," which represents the temperature and dew point respectively. Therefore, the correct answer is "110 deg true at 7 knots, 4 deg C."

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• 30.

METAR CYPG 221600Z 11007KT 15SM BKN020 BKN 035 09/04 A3005 RMK SCSC2 SLP 182TAF CYPG 22154Z 221616 VRB03KT P6SM SCT020 TEMPO 1622 BKNO20 BECMG 2224 13012KTFMO400Z 12015KT P6SM BKNO I O OVC I 00FMO800Z 1201 SG25KT 2SM -PA BR OVC007 BECMG 0911 10025G3 5KTFMI400Z 20015g25KT 2SM -SHRA BR OVC008 RKK NXT FGST BY 19Z=With reference to the TAF Portage La Prairie after 0800Z should be:

• A.

VFR with light rain

• B.

IFR with light rain with overcast ceiling at 700'.

• C.

VFR with 7,000' ceiling.

• D.

VFR with ceilings between 900' and 1100'.

B. IFR with light rain with overcast ceiling at 700'.
Explanation
The correct answer is IFR with light rain with overcast ceiling at 700'. This can be determined from the TAF report which states "BECMG 0911 10025G3 5KTFMI400Z 20015g25KT 2SM -SHRA BR OVC008 RKK NXT FGST BY 19Z=". This indicates that after 0800Z, the conditions will become IFR (Instrument Flight Rules) with light rain (-SHRA) and an overcast ceiling at 800 feet (OVC008).

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• 31.

The BR means:

• A.

Mist.

• B.

Bright.

• C.

Broken.

• D.

Fog.

A. Mist.
Explanation
The abbreviation "BR" commonly stands for "mist" in weather reports and aviation. Mist refers to a weather condition where visibility is reduced due to tiny water droplets suspended in the air. It is different from fog, which has denser and thicker droplets. The other options, bright and broken, do not relate to weather conditions, making mist the most appropriate answer.

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• 32.

A pilot shall not fly an aircraft within the period of ________ hours after donating blood.

• A.

12 hours.

• B.

48 hours.

• C.

24 hours.

• D.

8 hours.

B. 48 hours.
Explanation
After donating blood, it takes time for the body to replenish the lost blood volume. Flying an aircraft requires physical stamina and mental alertness, which may be compromised after blood donation. Waiting for 48 hours allows sufficient time for the body to recover and ensures the pilot's safety and well-being during the flight.

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• 33.

What is the VHF emergency frequency?

• A.

123.45MHz

• B.

121.50 MHz

• C.

243.00 MHz

• D.

123.00 MHz

B. 121.50 MHz
Explanation
The VHF emergency frequency is 121.50 MHz. This frequency is internationally recognized as the emergency frequency for aviation and marine communication. It is used by pilots, air traffic controllers, and maritime operators to communicate distress signals and emergency situations. The frequency is monitored by search and rescue teams and provides a reliable means of communication in emergency situations.

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• 34.

An aircraft flying VFR from west to east in Canada at an altitude below 18,000' ASL (but above 3000') shall fly ______.

• A.

Odd thousands

• B.

Even thousands

• C.

Odd thousands plus 500'

• D.

Even thousands plus 500'

C. Odd thousands plus 500'
Explanation
When flying VFR (Visual Flight Rules) from west to east in Canada at an altitude below 18,000' ASL (Above Sea Level) but above 3000', the aircraft should fly at odd thousands plus 500'. This means that the aircraft should maintain an altitude of an odd thousand feet (e.g., 3000', 5000', 7000') and add 500 feet to that altitude (e.g., 3500', 5500', 7500'). This rule helps to maintain vertical separation between aircraft and ensures a safe and organized flow of air traffic.

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• 35.

Lines drawn on a chart joining places having the same variation are called ____.

• A.

Isobaric lines.

• B.

Isotonic lines.

• C.

Agonic lines.

• D.

Rumb lines.

B. Isotonic lines.
• 36.

An airplane is 1 mile off of its intended track after travelling 30 miles. The error in the track is approximately _____.

• A.

1 deg.

• B.

2 deg.

• C.

3 deg.

• D.

4 deg.

B. 2 deg.
Explanation
The error in the track of the airplane can be calculated using basic trigonometry. Since the airplane is 1 mile off of its intended track after traveling 30 miles, we can consider this as a right-angled triangle. The distance traveled by the airplane forms the hypotenuse, while the error in the track forms one of the sides. By using the tangent function, we can calculate the angle of the error. In this case, the tangent of the angle is equal to the opposite side (1 mile) divided by the adjacent side (30 miles). By calculating the inverse tangent of this value, we find that the angle is approximately 2 degrees.

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• 37.

The scale on a VFR navigation chart (VNC series) is _______.

• A.

1:50,000

• B.

1:250,000

• C.

1:500,000

• D.

1:1,000,000

C. 1:500,000
Explanation
The scale on a VFR navigation chart (VNC series) is 1:500,000. This means that one unit on the chart represents 500,000 units on the ground. A scale of 1:500,000 is commonly used for VFR navigation charts as it provides a good balance between detail and coverage. It allows pilots to easily identify landmarks, airspace boundaries, and navigation aids while providing enough coverage to plan longer flights.

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• 38.

A rumb line is _______.

• A.

A curved line on the surface of the earth, cutting all the meridians it meets at the same angle.

• B.

A straight between any two points on the Mercator Projection map.

• C.

A straight line drawn between any two points between a Lambert Conformal Conic Projection map.

• D.

Both A and B.

D. Both A and B.
Explanation
A rumb line is a curved line on the surface of the earth that cuts all the meridians it meets at the same angle. It is also a straight line between any two points on the Mercator Projection map. Therefore, the correct answer is both A and B.

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• 39.

Given:Magnetic Track 090 degWind 270 deg Magnetic at 20 knotsTrue airspeed 100 knotsTrip distance 300 nautical milesThe estimated time enroute is:

• A.

2 hours 30 min.

• B.

3 hours.

• C.

3 hours 45 min.

• D.

2 hours 45 min.

A. 2 hours 30 min.
Explanation
The estimated time enroute can be calculated by dividing the trip distance by the true airspeed. In this case, the trip distance is 300 nautical miles and the true airspeed is 100 knots. Therefore, the estimated time enroute is 300/100 = 3 hours. However, since the wind is blowing from 270 degrees magnetic at 20 knots, it will have a headwind component. This means that the aircraft's groundspeed will be slower than its true airspeed. To calculate the groundspeed, we need to subtract the headwind component from the true airspeed. Using trigonometry, we can determine that the headwind component is 20 * cos(180 - (270 - 90)) = 20 knots. Therefore, the groundspeed is 100 - 20 = 80 knots. Dividing the trip distance by the groundspeed, we get 300/80 = 3.75 hours, or 3 hours and 45 minutes. However, since the wind is blowing against the aircraft's track, the aircraft will take longer to reach its destination. Therefore, the estimated time enroute is longer than the calculated time. The answer of 2 hours 30 minutes is incorrect.

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• 40.

Which of the following is not a requirement of good oil.

• A.

Low pour point

• B.

High flash point

• C.

Low flash point

• D.

Low carbon content

C. Low flash point
Explanation
A low flash point is not a requirement of good oil because a low flash point indicates that the oil has a lower temperature at which it can ignite, which can be dangerous. Good oil should have a high flash point, meaning it can withstand higher temperatures before it ignites.

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• 41.

Most aircraft piston engines are shut off by:

• A.

Moving the mixture control to the Idle cut-off position.

• B.

Turning the ignition key to the Off position

• C.

Moving the mixture control to Full Rich.

• D.

Moving the throttle to the Fuel Cut-Off position.

A. Moving the mixture control to the Idle cut-off position.
Explanation
Moving the mixture control to the idle cut-off position is the correct answer because it stops the flow of fuel to the engine, effectively shutting it off. The idle cut-off position is specifically designed to shut down the engine and is commonly used during the shutdown procedure for aircraft piston engines. Turning the ignition key to the off position only stops the ignition system, but the engine can still receive fuel and potentially continue running. Moving the mixture control to full rich or moving the throttle to the fuel cut-off position would increase the fuel flow to the engine, which is the opposite of shutting it off.

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• 42.

If the proper grade of fuel is not available, and the engine must be operated, the pilot should _____.

• A.

Take the bus.

• B.

• C.

• D.

Use automobile gasoline.

C. Use the next highest grade.
Explanation
If the proper grade of fuel is not available, using the next highest grade would be the best option. This is because using a lower grade fuel can potentially cause damage to the engine and affect its performance. On the other hand, using a higher grade fuel may not have any immediate negative effects on the engine. Therefore, using the next highest grade is a safer choice in such a situation.

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• 43.

CWhen carburetor heat is applied to an engine with carb icing, the initial response is:

• A.

An increase in RPM

• B.

A decrease of exhaust gas temperature.

• C.

There is no indication.

• D.

A decrease in RPM

D. A decrease in RPM
Explanation
When carburetor heat is applied to an engine with carb icing, the initial response is a decrease in RPM. This is because carburetor icing occurs when moisture in the air condenses and freezes on the carburetor, restricting the flow of air and fuel. When carburetor heat is applied, warm air is directed to the carburetor, melting the ice and increasing the flow of air and fuel. However, initially, this sudden increase in airflow can disrupt the fuel mixture, leading to a temporary decrease in RPM.

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• 44.

Under certain moist atmospheric conditions, it is possible for ice to form in the induction system, with ambient air temperatures ranging from _____ to _____.

• A.

-30 to 5 deg C

• B.

-15 to 15 deg C

• C.

-5 to 5 deg C

• D.

-5 to +30 deg C

D. -5 to +30 deg C
Explanation
Under certain moist atmospheric conditions, ice can form in the induction system when the ambient air temperatures range from -5 to +30 degrees Celsius. This means that if the air temperature falls within this range and there is enough moisture present, ice can accumulate in the induction system. This can potentially cause issues with the engine's performance and must be taken into consideration during operations.

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• Current Version
• Mar 21, 2023
Quiz Edited by
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• Dec 29, 2008
Quiz Created by
Sgt504

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