1c0 Vol 2 CDC 5 Lvl Ec04

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  • 1/108 Questions

    When, if ever, can you schedule a member with an expired flight physical health assessment (PHA) to attend any physiological training?

    • A. Never.
    • B. When the member enters phase period.
    • C. When approved by the unit commander.
    • D. When approved by the aerospace physiologist
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About This Quiz

This quiz, titled '1C0 VOL 2 CDC 5 LVL EC04', assesses professional aviation accreditation, focusing on roles, qualifications, and service dates relevant to USAF commissioned officers and medical personnel in aviation.

1c0 Vol 2 CDC 5 Lvl Ec04 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Completion of certrifuge training is documented using the

    • A. AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special. Operational Duty

    • B. AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Qualification.

    • C. AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record.

    • D. AF Form 942, Record of Evaluation.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record.
    Explanation
    The completion of centrifuge training is documented using the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record. This form is used to record and track an individual's training in physiological aspects related to flying or special operational duty. It serves as a comprehensive record of the individual's training and can be used as proof of completion of centrifuge training. The other options listed (AF IMT 1042, AF Form 8, and AF Form 942) are not specifically related to documenting centrifuge training.

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  • 3. 

    Who certifies completion of certifuge training on the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record?

    • A. Member.

    • B. Commander.

    • C. Flight surgeon.

    • D. Aerospace physiologist.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Aerospace physiologist.
    Explanation
    An aerospace physiologist certifies completion of certifuge training on the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record. This individual is specifically trained in the field of aerospace physiology and is responsible for assessing and monitoring the physiological well-being of individuals in aviation and space environments. They have the expertise and knowledge to evaluate the completion of certifuge training and ensure that individuals are adequately prepared for the physiological challenges of their roles in the aerospace industry.

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  • 4. 

    Who is not required to have altitude chamber training?

    • A. high-altitude parachuists.

    • B. civilians who participate in spouse orientation flights.

    • C. personnel who are or will be placed on active flying status.

    • D. passengers in aircraft flying above 18,000 feet mean sea level.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. civilians who participate in spouse orientation flights.
    Explanation
    Altitude chamber training is typically required for individuals who will be exposed to high altitudes, such as pilots and paratroopers. However, civilians who participate in spouse orientation flights are not directly involved in flying operations and are not likely to be exposed to high altitudes. Therefore, they are not required to have altitude chamber training.

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  • 5. 

    After updating the member's physiological information in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), the AF IMT 702 is

    • A. destroyed.

    • B. given to the member.

    • C. placed in a suspense file.

    • D. filed in the flight record folder.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. filed in the flight record folder.
    Explanation
    After updating the member's physiological information in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), the AF IMT 702 is filed in the flight record folder. This indicates that the updated information is stored in the member's flight record for future reference and record-keeping purposes.

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  • 6. 

    Which office is responible for establishing flight record folders (FRF)?

    • A. squadron aviation resource management (SARM).

    • B. tenant aviation resource management (TARM).

    • C. host aviation resource management (HARM).

    • D. Stan Eval.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. host aviation resource management (HARM).
    Explanation
    The host aviation resource management (HARM) office is responsible for establishing flight record folders (FRF). The HARM office is typically located at the host base or installation and is responsible for managing aviation resources, including maintaining flight records. They ensure that accurate and up-to-date records are kept for each flight, which includes information such as flight hours, maintenance history, and pilot qualifications. This information is crucial for tracking and managing the aviation resources effectively.

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  • 7. 

    Licensed physicians are placed in aviation service as flight surgeons effective the date

    • They completed the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course.

    • They completed their post-graduate medical school.

    • They received an unrestricted lience to practice.

    • Stated on their medical lience.

    Correct Answer
    A. They completed the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "they completed the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course." This is because flight surgeons are placed in aviation service after completing this specific course, which focuses on aerospace medicine. It is a requirement for them to have completed this course in order to serve as flight surgeons.

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  • 8. 

    A categorical flying waiver

    • A. restricts a member certain medical conditions to fly a specific type of aircraft

    • B. is only available to those with low tolerance to high gravity pressure.

    • C. allows a member to pass his or her flight physical health assessment.

    • D. allows a member to fly all types of aircraft

    Correct Answer
    A. A. restricts a member certain medical conditions to fly a specific type of aircraft
    Explanation
    A categorical flying waiver restricts a member with certain medical conditions to fly a specific type of aircraft. This means that individuals with specific health conditions are not allowed to fly certain types of aircraft due to safety concerns. The waiver is put in place to ensure the safety of both the individual and others on board the aircraft.

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  • 9. 

    Which primary document reflects the manpower required to perform the unit's mission?

    • A. Department of Defense Future Year Defense Program.

    • B. Manpower Programming and Execution System.

    • C. Unit Manpower Document.

    • D. Manpower standard.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Unit Manpower Document.
    Explanation
    The primary document that reflects the manpower required to perform the unit's mission is the Unit Manpower Document. This document outlines the specific number of personnel needed for various tasks and roles within the unit. It provides a detailed breakdown of the manpower requirements, including the positions, skill sets, and qualifications needed to effectively carry out the unit's mission. The Unit Manpower Document serves as a crucial resource for planning and allocating manpower resources within the unit.

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  • 10. 

    Which Congressional Act was the first to set minimum numbers of operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) months for rated officers to receive continuous Aviation Career Incentive Pay (ACIP)?

    • A. Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1974.

    • B. Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1989.

    • C. FY 1996 National Defense Authorization Act.

    • D. FY 2000 National Defense Authorization Act.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1974.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1974. This act was the first to establish minimum numbers of operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) months for rated officers to qualify for continuous Aviation Career Incentive Pay (ACIP). This act was passed in 1974, making it the earliest legislation to address this issue.

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  • 11. 

    How many days in a calendar month must a member be an active flying status code (FSC) to receive one month of operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) credit?

    • A. 7

    • B. 10

    • C. 15

    • D. 20

    Correct Answer
    A. C. 15
    Explanation
    A member must be in active flying status code (FSC) for 15 days in a calendar month to receive one month of operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) credit. This means that the member needs to be actively involved in flying duties for at least half of the month in order to accumulate the credit for a full month.

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  • 12. 

    When the consolidated host aviation resource management system (CHARMS) transfer file is not received during a system interface, HQ USAF/A3O-AT will

    • A. backup the current data available.

    • B. send an emergency action message.

    • C. wait until the next end-of-month transfer takes place.

    • D. notify the appropriate host aviation resource management (HARM) office.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. notify the appropriate host aviation resource management (HARM) office.
    Explanation
    When the consolidated host aviation resource management system (CHARMS) transfer file is not received during a system interface, HQ USAF/A3O-AT will notify the appropriate host aviation resource management (HARM) office. This is because the HARM office is responsible for managing the aviation resources and ensuring the accurate transfer of data. By notifying the HARM office, they can investigate the issue and take necessary actions to resolve it, such as resending the transfer file or identifying any potential system interface problems.

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  • 13. 

    Members who are in actice flying status must complete a records review every year by the end of the

    • A. fiscal year.

    • B. calendar year.

    • C. member's birth month.

    • D. month it was last completed.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. member's birth month.
    Explanation
    Members who are in active flying status must complete a records review every year by the end of their birth month. This means that each member is required to review their records and ensure that they are up to date and accurate during the month of their birth. This helps to ensure that all necessary paperwork and documentation is in order and that any necessary updates or changes can be made in a timely manner.

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  • 14. 

    During an aircraft mishap, what action must be taken before the host aviation resource management (HARM) office prints out all the required reports for the Aircraft Investigation Board?

    • A. Complete an AF Form 64, Change Out Record.

    • B.Identify all members of the Aircraft Investigation Board.

    • C. Ensure all family members and friends have been notified.

    • D. Ensure all flying time and trianing accomplishments have been entered inti the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS)

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Ensure all flying time and trianing accomplishments have been entered inti the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS)
  • 15. 

    When updating the flight physical in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) use the date the

    • A. AF IMT 1042 was received.

    • B. AF IMT 1042 was prepared.

    • C. member signed the AF IMT 1042

    • D. flight surgeon signed the AF IMT 1042

    Correct Answer
    A. D. flight surgeon signed the AF IMT 1042
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. flight surgeon signed the AF IMT 1042. This is because the flight surgeon is responsible for reviewing and approving the flight physical, so the date of their signature indicates when the physical was updated. The other options (a, b, c) do not necessarily indicate that the physical has been reviewed and approved by the flight surgeon.

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  • 16. 

    One way of knowing if a member is currently available to perform in-flight duties is to check the member's

    • A. availability code

    • B. physical status code

    • C. aviation service gate

    • D. physiological status code

    Correct Answer
    A. A. availability code
    Explanation
    The availability code is used to determine if a member is currently available to perform in-flight duties. This code indicates whether the member is on duty, off duty, or on leave. By checking the availability code, it can be determined if the member is currently able to perform their duties or if they are unavailable for any reason. The physical status code, aviation service gate, and physiological status code are not relevant to determining the member's availability for in-flight duties.

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  • 17. 

    Before placing a non-career aviator on flying status, make sure the member

    • Has a duty prefix of "X" "K" or "Q".

    • Has completed the airframe simulator.

    • Belongs to a 1AXXX specialty.

    • Has a current physical profile.

    Correct Answer
    A. Has a duty prefix of "X" "K" or "Q".
    Explanation
    To be placed on flying status, it is necessary for a non-career aviator to have a duty prefix of "X," "K," or "Q." This indicates that the individual has the appropriate qualifications and training to perform flying duties. The other criteria mentioned, such as completing the airframe simulator, belonging to a specific specialty, and having a current physical profile, may be important for other aspects of the individual's role, but they are not specifically required for being placed on flying status.

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  • 18. 

    Operational support fliers

    • Are fully qualified aircrew members.

    • Are non-career aviators on standby status during emergency situations.

    • Serve as an augmented crew to supplement normal operational missions.

    • Are fully qualified in non-aircrew specialties and authorized to fly occasionlly.

    Correct Answer
    A. Are fully qualified in non-aircrew specialties and authorized to fly occasionlly.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "are fully qualified in non-aircrew specialties and authorized to fly occasionally." This means that operational support fliers have expertise in non-aircrew roles and are allowed to fly on certain occasions. They may not be career aviators, but they are fully qualified aircrew members with additional responsibilities to support operational missions.

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  • 19. 

    To update a member's physiological information in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), use the

    • A. Flyer Availability window.

    • B. Career Aviation window.

    • C. Aircrew Data window.

    • D. Flyer window.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Flyer Availability window.
    Explanation
    In order to update a member's physiological information in the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), the correct window to use is the Flyer Availability window. This window is specifically designed to track and manage the availability of flyers, including their physiological information. The Career Aviation window, Aircrew Data window, and Flyer window do not have the specific functionality to update physiological information.

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  • 20. 

    A flying activity code (FAC) is a one-digit code used to provide detailed information about a member's flying

    • A. incentive pay.

    • B. position.

    • C. activity.

    • D. status.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. activity.
    Explanation
    A flying activity code (FAC) is a one-digit code used to provide detailed information about a member's flying activity. This code helps to categorize and track the specific types of flying that a member has been involved in. It allows for a more detailed understanding of the member's flying experiences and can be used for various purposes such as determining eligibility for certain benefits or evaluating performance. Therefore, the correct answer is c. activity.

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  • 21. 

    The first character of the aviation service code (ASC) is the

    • A. entitlement status code (ESC).

    • B. aircrew position inicator (API).

    • C. flying activity code (FAC).

    • D. flying status code (FSC).

    Correct Answer
    A. A. entitlement status code (ESC).
    Explanation
    The first character of the aviation service code (ASC) represents the entitlement status code (ESC). This code indicates the level of entitlement or authorization that an individual has within the aviation service. It determines the specific roles, positions, or activities that the individual is eligible for. The ASC is used to track and manage personnel within the aviation service, ensuring that they are assigned appropriate duties based on their entitlement status.

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  • 22. 

    While under suspension, the member's flying incentive pay

    • A. continues until the member is disqualified.

    • B. continues until the member appears before a flying evaluation board (FEB).

    • C. is terminated until the member's status is resolved.

    • D. is terminated and paid back once the member is disqualified.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. is terminated until the member's status is resolved.
    Explanation
    When a member is under suspension, their flying incentive pay is terminated until their status is resolved. This means that they will not receive any flying incentive pay during the suspension period. Once their status is resolved, the member's flying incentive pay may be reinstated depending on the outcome of the resolution.

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  • 23. 

    When conducting a flight record folder (FRF) audit, verify that the date of the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record, matches the date on the member's

    • A. aeronautical order (AO).

    • B. Individual Data Summary (IDS).

    • C. flying history report (FHR).

    • D. military pay order (MPO).

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Individual Data Summary (IDS).
    Explanation
    During a flight record folder (FRF) audit, it is important to verify that the date of the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record, matches the date on the member's Individual Data Summary (IDS). The IDS provides a comprehensive overview of the member's personal and professional information, including their flight history. By comparing the dates on the AF IMT 702 and the IDS, auditors can ensure that the physiological training records are accurately documented and aligned with the member's overall flight records. This verification helps maintain the integrity and accuracy of the FRF audit process.

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  • 24. 

    A flight physical is not required when a

    • Member is initially placed in aviation service.

    • Member's periodic flight physical becomes due.

    • Member is placed on medical waiver.

    • Member applies for requalification

    Correct Answer
    A. Member is placed on medical waiver.
    Explanation
    When a member is placed on a medical waiver, it means that they have been exempted from certain medical requirements due to a specific medical condition. This waiver allows them to continue serving in aviation service without having to undergo a flight physical. The other options, such as initially being placed in aviation service or applying for requalification, would typically require a flight physical to ensure the member's medical fitness for flying. Similarly, when a member's periodic flight physical becomes due, it means that they need to undergo a medical examination to maintain their medical clearance for aviation service.

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  • 25. 

    You may publish a single aeronautical order (AO) that affects sereral members provided

    • A. the action is exactly the same for all members.

    • B. the action is the same for majority of the members.

    • C. all members have the same aviation service code only.

    • D. all members have the same aviation service code and effective date.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. the action is exactly the same for all members.
    Explanation
    In order to publish a single aeronautical order (AO) that affects several members, the action described in the AO must be exactly the same for all members. This means that all members will be subject to the same requirements, regulations, or changes outlined in the AO. If the action varied for different members, it would require separate AOs to be published for each group. Therefore, option a is the correct answer as it ensures uniformity in the action taken for all members affected by the AO.

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  • 26. 

    Which date is used to compute the officer service date (OSD)?

    • Completion date of undergraduate flying training.

    • Class start date of undergraduate flying training.

    • Date member arrived on first duty station.

    • Commissioning date in the USAF.

    Correct Answer
    A. Commissioning date in the USAF.
    Explanation
    The officer service date (OSD) is used to determine the length of an officer's service in the USAF. It is the date on which an officer is commissioned into the USAF. This date marks the official start of their service and is used for various purposes, such as calculating time in service, eligibility for promotions, and retirement benefits. The completion date of undergraduate flying training, class start date of undergraduate flying training, and date of arrival on the first duty station are not relevant in determining the OSD.

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  • 27. 

    What qualification does the aircrew prefix ''Q''  signify?

    • Basic aircrew.

    • Instructor.

    • Evaluator.

    • Observer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Evaluator.
    Explanation
    The aircrew prefix "Q" signifies the qualification of an evaluator. This means that the individual with this prefix is responsible for assessing and evaluating the performance and capabilities of other aircrew members. They play a crucial role in ensuring the proficiency and competency of the aircrew team.

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  • 28. 

    What Flying class of medical examination is required to qualify a member for career enlisted aviation (CEA) duties?

    • IA.

    • IIA.

    • IIC.

    • III.

    Correct Answer
    A. III.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is III. The flying class III medical examination is required to qualify a member for career enlisted aviation (CEA) duties. This examination assesses the physical and mental health of individuals to ensure they meet the necessary standards for aviation duties.

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  • 29. 

    When a member completes a flight physical health assessment (pHA), the flight surgeon must send a copy of the AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty to the Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM) office within

    • One duty day.

    • Three duty days.

    • Three calendar days.

    • Five calendar days.

    Correct Answer
    A. One duty day.
    Explanation
    The flight surgeon must send a copy of the AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty to the Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM) office within one duty day. This means that the flight surgeon has to submit the document within the same day they complete the flight physical health assessment (PHA). This ensures timely communication of the member's medical recommendation to the HARM office, allowing them to take appropriate action regarding the member's flying or special operational duty status.

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  • 30. 

    What code must you enter in the Physical Status Code field in the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) to manually change a member's flight physical due date?

    • A. A

    • B. C

    • C. D

    • D. F

    Correct Answer
    A. D. F
    Explanation
    In the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), the code "F" must be entered in the Physical Status Code field to manually change a member's flight physical due date.

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  • 31. 

    Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) can you find the list of availability codes?

    • A. 11-402, Aviation and Parachutist Service, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges.

    • B. 11-403, Aerospace Phsiological Training Program.

    • C. 11-404, Training for High-G Aircrew.

    • D. 11-421, Aviation Resource Management.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. 11-421, Aviation Resource Management.
  • 32. 

    Operational support fliers are not authorized to wear an aviation badge unless

    • A. the member has participated in 10 combat missions.

    • B. the member suffered injuries as a result of an aircraft mishap.

    • C. it is permanently awarded as a result of previous aircrew duty.

    • D. the operational support position later becomes a flying crew chief position.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. it is permanently awarded as a result of previous aircrew duty.
    Explanation
    Operational support fliers are not authorized to wear an aviation badge unless it is permanently awarded as a result of previous aircrew duty. This means that the member must have previously served in an aircrew position and received the aviation badge as a recognition of their duty. This requirement ensures that only those who have demonstrated their competence and experience in aircrew duties are authorized to wear the aviation badge.

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  • 33. 

    When publishing an aeronautical order (AO) to change a rated officer's Aviation Service Code (ASC), the termination date is automatically populated and will coincide with the member's

    • A. next aviation service gate.

    • B. advanced rating date.

    • C. promotion date.

    • D. separation date.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. next aviation service gate.
    Explanation
    When publishing an aeronautical order (AO) to change a rated officer's Aviation Service Code (ASC), the termination date is automatically populated and will coincide with the member's next aviation service gate. This means that the officer's ASC change will take effect at the next point in their career progression where their aviation service is evaluated. This ensures that the ASC change aligns with the officer's advancement in their aviation career.

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  • 34. 

    When auditing a flight record folder (FRF), ensure all aeronautical orders (AO) are filed in chronological order by

    • A. request date.

    • B. effective date.

    • C. published date.

    • D. termination date.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. effective date.
    Explanation
    When auditing a flight record folder (FRF), it is important to ensure that all aeronautical orders (AO) are filed in chronological order by their effective date. This means that the orders should be arranged based on the date they come into effect. This ensures that any changes or updates to the orders are properly documented and organized, making it easier to track and review the history of the flight record folder. Request date, published date, and termination date are not relevant for determining the chronological order of the aeronautical orders.

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  • 35. 

    Once the member's Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) record has been inprocessed,

    • A. complete the ARMS Record Transfer Letter and mail it to the losing host aviation resource management (HARM) office.

    • B. print the member's ARMS products and give them to the member.

    • C. normalize the member's record and print all products.

    • D. transfer the member's record to "FGWD".

    Correct Answer
    A. A. complete the ARMS Record Transfer Letter and mail it to the losing host aviation resource management (HARM) office.
    Explanation
    After the member's Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) record has been inprocessed, the next step is to complete the ARMS Record Transfer Letter and mail it to the losing host aviation resource management (HARM) office. This letter serves as a formal notification of the transfer of the member's record to the new location. It ensures that the losing HARM office is aware of the transfer and can update their records accordingly. This step is important in maintaining accurate and up-to-date records for the member within the ARMS system.

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  • 36. 

    A member's entitlement status code (ESC) is not changed when he/she

    • A. fails to meet operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) gate requirements.

    • B. fails to perform an operational flight for a month.

    • C. is disqualified.

    • D. is suspended.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. fails to perform an operational flight for a month.
    Explanation
    If a member fails to perform an operational flight for a month, their entitlement status code (ESC) is not changed. This suggests that the ESC is not dependent on the frequency of operational flights, and missing one month of operational flights does not affect the member's entitlement status.

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  • 37. 

    You must confirm vebral orders in writing by

    • A. publishing the corresponding aeronautical order (AO) within 3 duty days.

    • B. publishing the corresponding AO within 5 duty days.

    • C. preparing a memo for record (MFR) within 3 calendar days.

    • D. preparing a MFR within 5 calendar days.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. publishing the corresponding aeronautical order (AO) within 3 duty days.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. publishing the corresponding aeronautical order (AO) within 3 duty days. This means that when confirming verbal orders, it is necessary to publish the corresponding aeronautical order within 3 duty days. This ensures that the order is properly documented and communicated to all relevant parties in a timely manner.

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  • 38. 

    The MAJCOM must receive the unit's man-month request by what date?

    • 1 June.

    • 15 June.

    • 1 July.

    • 15 July.

    Correct Answer
    A. 15 June.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 15 June. This is because the question is asking for the date by which the MAJCOM must receive the unit's man-month request. Out of the given options, 15 June is the only date that falls before 1 July and is therefore the correct answer.

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  • 39. 

    In which Air Force Instruction can you find the list of categorical flying waiver codes?

    • A. 11-402, Aviation and Parachutist Service, Aeronautical. Ratings and Badges.

    • B. 11-403, Aerospace Physiological Training Program.

    • C. 11-404, Training for High-G Aircrew.

    • D. 11-421, Aviation Resource Management.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. 11-421, Aviation Resource Management.
  • 40. 

    Remarks are not used on aeronautical order (AO) to

    • A. emphasize important information.

    • B. provide explanation.

    • C. add extra authority.

    • D. clear ambiguity.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. add extra authority.
    Explanation
    Remarks are not used on aeronautical order (AO) to add extra authority. This means that the purpose of remarks on an AO is not to enhance or strengthen the authority of the order. Instead, remarks may serve other functions such as emphasizing important information, providing explanations, or clearing ambiguities. However, adding extra authority is not one of the intended purposes of remarks on an AO.

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  • 41. 

    Aviiation service date (ASD) adjustment is mandatory for members

    • A. returning to aviation service before 1 Aug 02.

    • B. returning to aviation service on or after 1 Aug 02.

    • C. who are suspended from aviation service before 1 Aug 02.

    • D. who are suspended from aviation service on or after 1 Aug 02.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. returning to aviation service on or after 1 Aug 02.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. returning to aviation service on or after 1 Aug 02. This is because the Aviation Service Date (ASD) adjustment is mandatory for members who are returning to aviation service on or after 1 Aug 02. This adjustment is likely a requirement to ensure that members have the necessary qualifications or training that may have changed or been updated since their previous service.

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  • 42. 

    Flight record folders (FRF) for members who have been disqualified for eight years or more are

    • A. given to the member.

    • B. maintained in an inactive file cabinet.

    • C. sent to the staging facility for disposition.

    • D. destroyed to protect the privacy of the inividual.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. given to the member.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. given to the member. This means that the flight record folders for members who have been disqualified for eight years or more are returned to the member. This could be done for various reasons, such as allowing the member to review their past records or to ensure that they have access to their personal information.

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  • 43. 

    Which document is filed on the right of the flight record folder (FRF)?

    • A. Operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) waiver.

    • B. Flying history report (FHR).

    • C. Military pay order (MPO).

    • D. Aeronautical order (AO).

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Flying history report (FHR).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. Flying history report (FHR). The Flying history report is filed on the right of the flight record folder (FRF). This document contains detailed information about the pilot's flying history, including the number of hours flown, types of aircraft flown, and any incidents or accidents. It is an important record that helps track and maintain the pilot's flight experience and qualifications.

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  • 44. 

    Members who are in inactive status are

    • A. required to complete an annual records review.

    • B. not required to complete an annual records review.

    • C. required to complete a records review every 5 years.

    • D. required to complete a records review every 15 months.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. not required to complete an annual records review.
    Explanation
    Members who are in inactive status are not required to complete an annual records review. This means that individuals who are not actively participating or involved in the organization's activities are exempt from the requirement to review and update their records on an annual basis.

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  • 45. 

    Operational support members are placed in flying status

    • On a monthly basis.

    • For the duration of the assigned mission.

    • Until the man-year allocation is exhausted.

    • Until the flying requirement no longer exists

    Correct Answer
    A. On a monthly basis.
    Explanation
    Operational support members are placed in flying status on a monthly basis means that these members are assigned to actively participate in flying operations every month. This suggests that their duties and responsibilities involve being available for flying missions on a regular monthly schedule.

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  • 46. 

    A periodic flight preventative health assessments (pHA) is required every

    • 6.

    • 12.

    • 15.

    • 24.

    Correct Answer
    A. 15.
    Explanation
    A periodic flight preventative health assessment (PHA) is required every 15 months. This means that pilots and flight crew members must undergo a comprehensive health assessment every 15 months to ensure that they are fit to fly. This assessment helps to identify any potential health issues that could affect their performance and safety while operating an aircraft. Regular PHAs are necessary to ensure that pilots maintain their physical and mental well-being, and to minimize the risk of any health-related incidents during flights.

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  • 47. 

    Following any certrifuge training, an aircrew member is placed in automatic Duty Not Involing Flying (DNIF) status for how many hours?

    • A. 8

    • B. 12

    • C. 24

    • D. 48

    Correct Answer
    A. B. 12
    Explanation
    After undergoing centrifuge training, an aircrew member is placed in automatic Duty Not Involving Flying (DNIF) status for 12 hours. This is done to ensure the aircrew member has enough time to recover from the effects of the training, which involves subjecting the body to high levels of G-forces. During this period, the aircrew member is not allowed to participate in any flying duties to prevent any potential risks or complications that may arise from the training.

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  • 48. 

    Adanced ratings are awarded based on

    • A. years of rated service and Aeronautical Ratings Board confirmation.

    • B. military flying time and Operational Flying Duty Accumulator (OFDA).

    • C. years of rated service, military flying time, and Aeronautical Rating Board confirmation.

    • D. years of rated service and either military flying time or OFDA.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. years of rated service and either military flying time or OFDA.
  • 49. 

    An Aeronautical Rating Board (ARB) is a board of rated officers who are tasked to

    • A. examine a member's eligibility for an Operational Flying Duty Accumulator (OFDA) waiver.

    • B. evluate the flying credentials of officers applying for an inter-service tranfer.

    • C. ensure the quality control of career and non-career aviators.

    • D. determine the root cause of an aircraft mishap.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. evluate the flying credentials of officers applying for an inter-service tranfer.
    Explanation
    An Aeronautical Rating Board (ARB) is responsible for evaluating the flying credentials of officers who are applying for an inter-service transfer. This means that the board reviews the qualifications and experience of these officers in order to determine their suitability for transferring to a different branch of the military. The board assesses their flying skills and credentials to ensure that they meet the necessary requirements for the transfer.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Aug 22, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Aug 22, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 08, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Sarmgirl
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