1c0 Vol 2 CDC 5 Lvl Ec04

108 Questions | Total Attempts: 64

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    A categorical flying waiver
    • A. 

      A. restricts a member certain medical conditions to fly a specific type of aircraft

    • B. 

      B. is only available to those with low tolerance to high gravity pressure.

    • C. 

      C. allows a member to pass his or her flight physical health assessment.

    • D. 

      D. allows a member to fly all types of aircraft

  • 2. 
    A commander may recommend to prohibit the wear of aviation badge when a member
    • A. 

      A. is disqualified under the humanitarian program.

    • B. 

      B. is disqualified due to fear of flying.

    • C. 

      C. fails to maintain medical fitness.

    • D. 

      D. declares conscientious objector.

  • 3. 
    A flight physical is not required when a
    • A. 

      Member is initially placed in aviation service.

    • B. 

      Member's periodic flight physical becomes due.

    • C. 

      Member is placed on medical waiver.

    • D. 

      Member applies for requalification

  • 4. 
    A flying activity code (FAC) is a one-digit code used to provide detailed information about a member's flying
    • A. 

      A. incentive pay.

    • B. 

      B. position.

    • C. 

      C. activity.

    • D. 

      D. status.

  • 5. 
    A flying evaluation board (FEB) may not recommend
    • A. 

      A. disciplinary actions.

    • B. 

      B. removal of an aviation badge.

    • C. 

      C. requalification for aviation service.

    • D. 

      D. disqualification from aviation service.

  • 6. 
    A member is authorized to wear the basic flight nurse badge after completing the basic flight nurse course, three years of aviation service, and
    • A. 

      A. 350 hours logged as a flight nurse.

    • B. 

      B. 750 hours logged as a flight nurse.

    • C. 

      C. 12 paid months of operational flying duty.

    • D. 

      D. 24 paid months of operational flying duty.

  • 7. 
    A member was initially assigned to flying duty on 19 Dec 08 and first flew on the 17 Apr 09. What action, if any must the host aviation resource management (HARM) office take on 20 Mar 09.
    • A. 

      A. No action necessary.

    • B. 

      B. Resume the member's operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) credit.

    • C. 

      C. Change the member's flying status code (FSC) from "S" to "A".

    • D. 

      D. Change the member's flying status code (FSC) from "A" to "S".

  • 8. 
    A member's entitlement status code (ESC) is not changed when he/she
    • A. 

      A. fails to meet operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) gate requirements.

    • B. 

      B. fails to perform an operational flight for a month.

    • C. 

      C. is disqualified.

    • D. 

      D. is suspended.

  • 9. 
    A periodic flight preventative health assessments (PHA) is required every
    • A. 

      6.

    • B. 

      12.

    • C. 

      15.

    • D. 

      24.

  • 10. 
    A pilot completed undergraduate pilot training (UPT) on 27 Sep 08 and left the next day to a temporary duty (TDY) location to complete initial qualification training (IQT). The member completed IQT on 15 Jan 09; left the TDY location on 16 Jan 09; and signed in to the first operational flying unit on 20 Jan 09. What is the effective date of the aeronautical erder (AO) changing the member's Aviation Service Code (ASC) from "1X" to "1A?"
    • A. 

      A. 27 Sep 08.

    • B. 

      B. 15 Jan 09

    • C. 

      C. 17 Jan 09

    • D. 

      D. 20 Jan 09

  • 11. 
    A pilot-physician who is formerly qualified as a combat systems officer (CSO) is eligible for the advanced rating of
    • A. 

      A. pilot only.

    • B. 

      B. pilot and flight surgeon.

    • C. 

      C. pilot and combat systems officer.

    • D. 

      D. pilot, combat systems officer, and flight surgeon.

  • 12. 
    A professional accreditation in aviation that is similar to a physician who is accredited to practice a trade is a
    • A. 

      Certification.

    • B. 

      Diploma.

    • C. 

      Licence.

    • D. 

      Rating.

  • 13. 
    Adanced ratings are awarded based on
    • A. 

      A. years of rated service and Aeronautical Ratings Board confirmation.

    • B. 

      B. military flying time and Operational Flying Duty Accumulator (OFDA).

    • C. 

      C. years of rated service, military flying time, and Aeronautical Rating Board confirmation.

    • D. 

      D. years of rated service and either military flying time or OFDA.

  • 14. 
    After a member has been suspended for failure to accomplish a flight preventative health assessment (PHA), the member has how many days to accomplish a flight PHA before facing disqualification?
    • A. 

      A. 30 days from the date of suspension.

    • B. 

      B. 45 days from the date of suspension.

    • C. 

      C. 60 days from the date the flight PHA expires.

    • D. 

      D. 90 days from the date the flight PHA expires.

  • 15. 
    After completing physiological training, within how many duty days of arrival on station must the member return the AF IMT 702 to the Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM) office?
    • A. 

      A. 1.

    • B. 

      B. 3.

    • C. 

      C. 5.

    • D. 

      D. 7.

  • 16. 
    After updating the member's physiological information in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), the AF IMT 702 is
    • A. 

      A. destroyed.

    • B. 

      B. given to the member.

    • C. 

      C. placed in a suspense file.

    • D. 

      D. filed in the flight record folder.

  • 17. 
    Altitude chamber refresher training is not required when removal of a member from active flying status will occur within how many monthsof the training due date?
    • A. 

      A. 3.

    • B. 

      B. 4.

    • C. 

      C. 6.

    • D. 

      D. 9.

  • 18. 
    An Aeronautical Rating Board (ARB) is a board of rated officers who are tasked to
    • A. 

      A. examine a member's eligibility for an Operational Flying Duty Accumulator (OFDA) waiver.

    • B. 

      B. evluate the flying credentials of officers applying for an inter-service tranfer.

    • C. 

      C. ensure the quality control of career and non-career aviators.

    • D. 

      D. determine the root cause of an aircraft mishap.

  • 19. 
    Aviation service gates for career enlisted aviators (CEA) are set at the
    • A. 

      A. 12th and 18th year of aviation service.

    • B. 

      B. 5th, 10th, and 15th year of aviation service.

    • C. 

      C. 10th, 15th, and 20th year of aviation service.

    • D. 

      D. 10th, 15th, 20th, and 22nd year of aviation service.

  • 20. 
    Aviiation service date (ASD) adjustment is mandatory for members
    • A. 

      A. returning to aviation service before 1 Aug 02.

    • B. 

      B. returning to aviation service on or after 1 Aug 02.

    • C. 

      C. who are suspended from aviation service before 1 Aug 02.

    • D. 

      D. who are suspended from aviation service on or after 1 Aug 02.

  • 21. 
    A rated officer who has been disqualified for at least one year but less than five years due to failure to maintain medical fitness may be requalified for aviation service when
    • A. 

      A. appearimg before a flying evaluation board (FEB).

    • B. 

      B. certified by HQ AFMOA/SG3PF.

    • C. 

      C. approved by HQ USAF/A3O-AT.

    • D. 

      D. certified by the local flight surgeon.

  • 22. 
    Before placing a non-career aviator on flying status, make sure the member
    • A. 

      Has a duty prefix of "X" "K" or "Q".

    • B. 

      Has completed the airframe simulator.

    • C. 

      Belongs to a 1AXXX specialty.

    • D. 

      Has a current physical profile.

  • 23. 
    Completion of certrifuge training is documented using the
    • A. 

      A. AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special. Operational Duty

    • B. 

      B. AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Qualification.

    • C. 

      C. AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record.

    • D. 

      D. AF Form 942, Record of Evaluation.

  • 24. 
    During an aircraft mishap, what action must be taken before the host aviation resource management (HARM) office prints out all the required reports for the Aircraft Investigation Board?
    • A. 

      A. Complete an AF Form 64, Change Out Record.

    • B. 

      B.Identify all members of the Aircraft Investigation Board.

    • C. 

      C. Ensure all family members and friends have been notified.

    • D. 

      D. Ensure all flying time and trianing accomplishments have been entered inti the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS)

  • 25. 
    Establish the aviation service date (ASD) for a medical student using the date
    • A. 

      Of the Aerospace Medicine Primary course certificate.

    • B. 

      He or she graduted from medical school.

    • C. 

      Of the medical lience.

    • D. 

      Of the first flight.

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