1c0 Vol 2 CDC 5 Lvl Ec04

After undergoing centrifuge training, an aircrew member is placed in automatic Duty Not Involving Flying (DNIF) status for 12 hours. This is done to ensure the aircrew member has enough time to recover from the effects of the training, which involves subjecting the body to high levels of G-forces. During this period, the aircrew member is not allowed to participate in any flying duties to prevent any potential risks or complications that may arise from the training.

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The flying status code (FSC) "K" is assigned when a member is not flying due to lack of support capability. This means that the member is unable to fly because there is not enough support or resources available to facilitate their flight.

The correct answer is d. The Department of Defense (DOD) Future Years Defense Program. This program is responsible for allocating funding for manpower resources. It is a long-term planning and budgeting program that outlines the projected funding for the Department of Defense over the next several years. This includes funding for various resources, including manpower.

The correct answer is d. Master Flight Surgeon. This position does not have an aeronautical rating because it is a medical role rather than a pilot or navigation role. A command pilot is an experienced pilot who has the authority to command an aircraft, a senior observer is a highly skilled navigator who assists in flight planning and navigation, and a master navigator is an expert in aircraft navigation systems. However, a master flight surgeon is a medical professional who provides medical support and expertise to pilots and other aviation personnel, but does not require an aeronautical rating.

The supporting documents used in publishing aeronautical order (AO) are annotated in ink in the lower right-hand corner with the AO number to which it pertains. This ensures that the documents are easily identifiable and linked to the specific AO. Placing the annotation in the lower right-hand corner is a standardized practice that helps with organization and consistency when referencing the AO number.

A flying evaluation board (FEB) is responsible for evaluating the performance and conduct of aviation personnel. It may recommend various actions based on its assessment. However, the given answer states that a FEB may not recommend disciplinary actions. This implies that while a FEB can suggest other actions such as removal of an aviation badge, requalification for aviation service, or disqualification from aviation service, it does not have the authority to recommend disciplinary actions.

The correct answer is d. received the basic United States Air Force rating. This is because the years of rated service for an officer are calculated from the date they received the basic United States Air Force rating. This rating is an important milestone in their career and signifies their proficiency and qualification as an Air Force officer. It is used as a benchmark to determine their years of service and eligibility for certain benefits and promotions.

A pilot-physician who is formerly qualified as a combat systems officer (CSO) is eligible for the advanced rating of pilot and flight surgeon. This means that the individual can serve as both a pilot and a flight surgeon, combining their skills and qualifications in both areas.

The manpower standard is a document used by the Air Force to determine the quantity of personnel needed for a specific task or operation. It helps in estimating the manpower requirements for various activities and ensures that adequate resources are allocated to meet the operational needs. This document is not specifically used to establish the aircraft's crew ratio, validate aircrew coded positions, or budget for operational support flying duties. Instead, it focuses on quantifying the manpower needed for different tasks.

The correct answer is d. 11-401, Aviation Management. In this AFI, you can find the list of flying activity codes (FAC). This AFI specifically focuses on aviation management and provides guidance on various aspects of aviation operations, including the use of flying activity codes. It is the most relevant AFI to refer to when looking for information on FAC.

An aeronautical order (AO) is not published when awarding an advanced aeronautical rating. AOs are typically used to document and communicate changes or actions related to aviation service, such as changing an Aviation Service Code (ASC), initiating a member's aviation service, or suspending a member from aviation service. However, awarding an advanced aeronautical rating does not require the publication of an AO.

If a member is medically disqualified for less than one year, they can obtain medical certification for requalification by obtaining certification from the local flight surgeon's office. This means that they need to visit their local flight surgeon's office and get the necessary medical certification to prove that they are fit for requalification. This process does not require notifying the MAJCOM/SG, submitting a formal application, or submitting a letter to HQ USAF/A3O-AT.

The member who flew on 14 May and did not fly again until 18 Nov would be authorized to receive operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) credit for the months of May, June, July, and August. This is because OFDA credit is typically given for the month in which the member flew, as well as the following three months. Since the member flew in May, they would receive credit for May, June, July, and August.

In the context of aviation, a rating refers to a professional accreditation that allows individuals to perform specific tasks or operate certain types of aircraft. Similar to how a physician is accredited to practice medicine, a rating in aviation signifies that a person has met the necessary requirements and has been authorized to carry out particular duties within the industry. Therefore, rating is the correct answer as it aligns with the given explanation.

The AF IMT 1042 is a form used to place a member in duty not involving flying (DNIF) status. This means that the member is medically restricted from performing any duties that involve flying, such as piloting an aircraft or serving as aircrew. This form is used to document and communicate this restriction to the appropriate personnel. It is important to accurately document and communicate DNIF status to ensure the safety and well-being of the member and those they would be working with in a flying capacity.

After completing physiological training, the member must return the AF IMT 702 to the Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM) office within 5 duty days of arrival on station.

A non-rated officer can remain in Duty Not Involving Flying (DNIF) status for a maximum of 180 days without being medically disqualified from aviation service. This means that they are temporarily unable to perform their flying duties due to a medical condition or injury. If the officer exceeds this time period, they may face disqualification from aviation service.

To be authorized to wear the basic flight nurse badge, a member must complete the basic flight nurse course, have three years of aviation service, and have 12 paid months of operational flying duty. This means that they must have served as a flight nurse for at least 12 months in a paid operational flying duty role. This requirement ensures that the member has gained sufficient experience and exposure to the specific duties and responsibilities of a flight nurse before being authorized to wear the badge.

A member must notify the host aviation resource management (HARM) office of a pending assignment at least five duty days prior to departure. This means that the member needs to inform the HARM office five working days before they are scheduled to leave. This allows the HARM office enough time to make the necessary arrangements and ensure that the member is properly prepared for their assignment.

The effective date of the Department of the Air Force (DAF) aeronautical order (AO) awarding the basic rating to an officer approved for inter-service transfer is the date the officer is assigned to rated duties. This means that the officer must be officially assigned to perform duties that require the use of their aeronautical skills and knowledge. This is the point at which their aeronautical rating becomes effective and they can begin carrying out their responsibilities in their new role.

The correct answer is "of the medical license." The aviation service date (ASD) for a medical student is established based on the date of their medical license. This is because obtaining a medical license is a requirement for practicing medicine and providing medical services in the aviation industry. Therefore, the ASD is determined by the date of the medical license, as it signifies that the medical student is qualified and authorized to provide medical care in an aviation setting.

After each ARMS-MilPDS interface, the Permanent Duty Station (PDS) Interface Summary Report must be audited. This report provides a summary of the interface between ARMS and MilPDS specifically related to the permanent duty station information. It helps ensure that the data transfer between the two systems is accurate and complete, allowing for effective management of aviation resources. The other options, such as the Consolidated Host Aviation Resource Management System (CHARM) Report Audit List, Aviation Service Suspense List, and Aviation Management Suspense List, are not directly related to the ARMS-MilPDS interface and do not require auditing after this interface.

The Authority section of an aeronautical order (AO) must include the organization, office symbol, and date of the letter when the authority for publishing the AO is a letter. This information is necessary to establish the credibility and validity of the AO, as it identifies the issuing organization, their specific office symbol, and the date on which the letter was issued. Including the commander's name alone or the commander's name and organization would not provide the complete information required to establish the authority for publishing the AO.

You should maintain a copy of the member's outprocessing products for 24 months. This is likely because it allows for a sufficient amount of time to keep records and documentation in case they are needed for reference or auditing purposes.

The effective date for assigning flying status code "S" to a member who was initially assigned to flying duty on 15 Mar 09, but did not fly until 12 Sep 09 would be the day after the initial assignment, which is 16 Mar 09.

To mail a flight record folder (FRF) to a member, the best option would be to choose First Class. First Class mail is a reliable and cost-effective option for sending important documents like the FRF. It provides faster delivery compared to other mail options and offers tracking and delivery confirmation services. Choosing First Class ensures that the FRF reaches the member in a timely manner while also providing a level of security and accountability.

The correct answer is d. 180. This means that a member can stay in Aviation Status Code 04 (suspended status) for a maximum of 180 days without requiring MAJCOM (Major Command) approval.

The correct answer is c. They share the same position number. This means that if two members have the same position number, it indicates that they are double-billeted. The other options, a, b, and d, do not necessarily indicate double-billeting. Option a states that they have the same aircrew position indicator (API) code, which may or may not mean they are double-billeted. Option b states that they have an API code of "5," "6," or "8," which does not directly indicate double-billeting. Option d states that they have an API code of "B" or "D," which also does not directly indicate double-billeting. Therefore, the most accurate way to determine if members are double-billeted is by checking if they share the same position number.

An amendment aeronautical order (AO) cannot be published to correct the effective date. This means that once the effective date has been set for an AO, it cannot be changed through an amendment. The effective date is the date on which the order goes into effect and any changes to this date would require a new AO to be published. Therefore, the correct answer is c. effective date.

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Part 9 of the aviation management suspense list (AMSL) is used to determine if aircrew members in flying status code (FSC) "S" recently performed an operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA)-creditable flight. This suggests that Part 9 is specifically designed to track and monitor the flight activities of aircrew members who are currently in flying status code "S" and determine if they have recently completed a flight that can be counted towards their operational flying duty accumulator.

Altitude chamber refresher training is not required when removal of a member from active flying status will occur within 4 months of the training due date. This means that if a member is scheduled to be removed from active flying status within 4 months of their training due date, they do not need to undergo altitude chamber refresher training.

A combat systems officer (CSO) with less than 18 years of aviation service may accumulate operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) credit toward entitlement to Continuous Aviation Career Incentive Pay (ACIP).

The correct answer is a. above the heading of the first AO of the current year. This means that the aeronautical order (AO) number of the last AO published in the previous year should be placed above the heading of the first AO of the current year. This helps to ensure that the order of publication is clear and that the correct AO number is referenced. Placing it above the heading is a logical and organized way to indicate the previous AO number without obstructing the current year's heading.

When a non-rated officer's date of separation (DOS) is unknown, it is important to limit the effective period of their aeronautical order (AO). This is because the DOS determines the length of time the officer will remain in service. Since the DOS is unknown, it is necessary to set a reasonable limit on the AO to ensure that it does not exceed the officer's eventual separation date. The correct answer, therefore, is b. 3 years, as it provides a reasonable timeframe for the AO without exceeding the potential DOS.

The MAJCOM commander is responsible for making the final approval for prohibiting the wear of aviation badges. This means that they have the authority to determine whether or not individuals are allowed to wear these badges. The MAJCOM commander is typically a high-ranking officer who oversees a major command within the United States Air Force. They have the power to make decisions and establish policies within their command, including those related to the wear of aviation badges.

When an aeronautical order (AO) is revoked, it is no longer an official document. Therefore, it should be removed from both the flight record folder (FRF) and the AO master record set. This ensures that the revoked AO is no longer considered valid or part of the official record. Filing it in the FRF to show a complete AO history would be incorrect as the revoked AO should not be included in any official records. Sending it to the Military Personnel Flight would also be unnecessary as the AO is no longer valid.

The effective date for assigning flying status code "S" to a member who is actively flying and flew on 15 Mar 09, but did not fly again until 12 Sep 09 would be 1 Jul 09. This is because the member did not fly again until 12 Sep 09, so the effective date would be the first day of the month following the last flight, which is 1 Jul 09.

The correct answer is d. Change the member's flying status code (FSC) from "A" to "S". This is because the member was initially assigned to flying duty on 19 Dec 08 but did not fly until 17 Apr 09. According to the information given, the member has not flown within the required time frame, so their flying status code should be changed from "A" (active) to "S" (suspended). This change in status reflects that the member is currently not actively flying.

The correct answer is b. Conscientious objector. This refers to an individual who has strong moral or religious beliefs that prevent them from participating in certain activities, such as military service. In the context of the given options, being a conscientious objector would be a non-permanent disqualification reason because it does not involve a physical or professional limitation that would permanently prevent someone from flying or maintaining professional standards.

When terminating an aeronautical order (AO) for non-career enlisted aviators (CEA), the date that is not used is the aviation service milestone. This means that the termination of the AO is not based on the number of years or milestones achieved in the aviator's aviation service. The termination could be based on other factors such as separation, completion of a flying tour, or a change to inactive status.

The correct answer is b. 2. The question is asking for the part of the aviation management suspense list (AMSL) that lists all members who are in duty not involving flying (DNIF) status. The correct answer is b. 2 because it is the only option provided that specifically mentions DNIF status. The other options do not provide any information about members in DNIF status. Therefore, option b. 2 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is c. Privileged information. This means that all information related to the aircraft mishap should be treated as confidential and only accessed by individuals who have the necessary clearance or authorization. It implies that the information is restricted to a select group of people who have a legitimate need to know, such as investigators or relevant authorities. By designating it as privileged information, it ensures that the details of the mishap are protected and not disclosed to unauthorized individuals or the general public.

The correct answer is c. the outprocessing logbook. When a member acknowledges receipt of the flight record package, they sign the outprocessing logbook. This logbook is used to keep track of the movement and transfer of records within an organization. It serves as a record of who has received the package and when it was received. By signing the outprocessing logbook, the member acknowledges that they have received the flight record package.

The correct answer is d. 8. The aviation management suspense list (AMSL) displays aircrew members who have gone three months without performing an operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA)-creditable flight. The number 8 on the AMSL represents the time period of three months, indicating that aircrew members who have not performed an OFDA-creditable flight for three months will be listed under this category.

The correct answer is b. is offered Article 15 punishment. In the given question, it is stated that suspension action is at the discretion of the commander when a member is offered Article 15 punishment. This means that the commander has the authority to suspend the member from their duties or take other disciplinary actions based on their discretion when the member is offered Article 15 punishment. This suggests that the commander has the power to decide whether or not to suspend the member in such a situation.

The 120-day notification policy before involuntarily terminating the aviation service applies to non-career enlisted aviator (CEA) enlisted members. This means that these specific enlisted members must be given a 120-day notice before they can be involuntarily terminated from the aviation service. This policy does not apply to all aircrew members or rated officers, but only to non-career enlisted aviators.

Non-rated officers (except flight nurses) may start wearing the officer aircrew member badge after completing an aircrew qualification as documented on AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Qualification. This means that they must have successfully completed the necessary training and met the requirements to be considered qualified as an aircrew member. Once this qualification has been documented and verified, they are eligible to wear the badge.

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The correct answer is b. certified by HQ AFMOA/SG3PF. This means that a rated officer who has been disqualified for a certain period of time due to failure to maintain medical fitness can be requalified for aviation service when they are certified by HQ AFMOA/SG3PF. This certification ensures that the officer meets the necessary medical standards to safely perform aviation duties. The other options, such as appearing before a flying evaluation board or being approved by HQ USAF/A3O-AT, may be part of the process but the ultimate certification comes from HQ AFMOA/SG3PF.

The host aviation resource management (HARM) office is required to inprocess the flight record folder (FRF) into the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) no later than 10 calendar days after receipt of a member's record. This means that the HARM office has a maximum of 10 days, including weekends and holidays, to complete the inprocessing of the FRF.

When amending an aeronautical order (AO), it is necessary to locate the original AO in the master record set and document in ink in the lower left-hand margin the order number and request date of the amendment AO. This ensures that the amendment is properly recorded and can be easily referenced in the future. Including both the order number and request date is important for accurately tracking and managing the amendment process.

The effective date for changing a pilot's flying status code from "U" to "X" would be the date on which the member graduates undergraduate pilot training (UPT) or undergraduate flying training (UFT). In this case, the member graduates on 25 May, so the effective date would be 25 May.

The reason "d. Lack of aircrew proficiency at undergraduate flying training (UFT)" is not a valid reason to convene a flying evaluation board (FEB) because the purpose of an FEB is to assess and address specific issues or incidents related to flight safety and performance. Lack of aircrew proficiency at UFT would typically be addressed through additional training and remedial measures, rather than convening an FEB. FEBs are generally convened for more serious issues such as lack of judgment, failure to meet standards, or failure to complete a flight preventative health assessment (PHA).

The correct answer is a. 11-401, Aviation Management. This AFI provides guidance on aviation management and includes information on publishing aeronautical orders (AO). It is likely that the list of all mandatory remarks used for publishing AO can be found in this AFI. The other options, b. 11-402, c. 11-421, and d. 11-422, are not directly related to publishing AO.

The effective date of the aeronautical order (AO) changing the member's Aviation Service Code (ASC) from "1X" to "1A" is 17 Jan 09. This is because the member completed initial qualification training (IQT) on 15 Jan 09 and left the TDY location on 16 Jan 09. The member then signed in to the first operational flying unit on 20 Jan 09, which is after the effective date of the AO. Therefore, the effective date of the AO is 17 Jan 09.

The effective date of the aeronautical order (AO) assigning Aviation Service Code (ASC) "9D" is 5 Nov 08 because that is the date when the member started formal flying training. This is the point at which the member officially began their training and became eligible for the Aviation Service Code.