1c0 Vol 2 CDC 5 Lvl Ec04

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Quizzes Created: 4 | Total Attempts: 710

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1/108 Questions

A professional accreditation in aviation that is similar to a physician who is accredited to practice a trade is a
- Certification.
- Diploma.
- Licence.
- Rating.

About This Quiz

This quiz, titled '1C0 VOL 2 CDC 5 LVL EC04', assesses professional aviation accreditation, focusing on roles, qualifications, and service dates relevant to USAF commissioned officers and medical personnel in aviation.

Questions and Answers

2.

Which date is used to compute the officer service date (OSD)?
- Completion date of undergraduate flying training.
- Class start date of undergraduate flying training.
- Date member arrived on first duty station.
- Commissioning date in the USAF.
Correct Answer

A. Commissioning date in the USAF.

Explanation

The officer service date (OSD) is used to determine the length of an officer's service in the USAF. It is the date on which an officer is commissioned into the USAF. This date marks the official start of their service and is used for various purposes, such as calculating time in service, eligibility for promotions, and retirement benefits. The completion date of undergraduate flying training, class start date of undergraduate flying training, and date of arrival on the first duty station are not relevant in determining the OSD.

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3.

Licensed physicians are placed in aviation service as flight surgeons effective the date
- They completed the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course.
- They completed their post-graduate medical school.
- They received an unrestricted lience to practice.
- Stated on their medical lience.
Correct Answer

A. They completed the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course.

Explanation

The correct answer is "they completed the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course." This is because flight surgeons are placed in aviation service after completing this specific course, which focuses on aerospace medicine. It is a requirement for them to have completed this course in order to serve as flight surgeons.

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4.

Establish the aviation service date (ASD) for a medical student using the date
- Of the Aerospace Medicine Primary course certificate.
- He or she graduted from medical school.
- Of the medical lience.
- Of the first flight.
Correct Answer

A. Of the medical lience.

Explanation

The correct answer is "of the medical license." The aviation service date (ASD) for a medical student is established based on the date of their medical license. This is because obtaining a medical license is a requirement for practicing medicine and providing medical services in the aviation industry. Therefore, the ASD is determined by the date of the medical license, as it signifies that the medical student is qualified and authorized to provide medical care in an aviation setting.

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5.

What qualification does the aircrew prefix ''Q'' signify?
- Basic aircrew.
- Instructor.
- Evaluator.
- Observer.
Correct Answer

A. Evaluator.

Explanation

The aircrew prefix "Q" signifies the qualification of an evaluator. This means that the individual with this prefix is responsible for assessing and evaluating the performance and capabilities of other aircrew members. They play a crucial role in ensuring the proficiency and competency of the aircrew team.

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6.

Before placing a non-career aviator on flying status, make sure the member
- Has a duty prefix of "X" "K" or "Q".
- Has completed the airframe simulator.
- Belongs to a 1AXXX specialty.
- Has a current physical profile.
Correct Answer

A. Has a duty prefix of "X" "K" or "Q".

Explanation

To be placed on flying status, it is necessary for a non-career aviator to have a duty prefix of "X," "K," or "Q." This indicates that the individual has the appropriate qualifications and training to perform flying duties. The other criteria mentioned, such as completing the airframe simulator, belonging to a specific specialty, and having a current physical profile, may be important for other aspects of the individual's role, but they are not specifically required for being placed on flying status.

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7.

Operational support fliers
- Are fully qualified aircrew members.
- Are non-career aviators on standby status during emergency situations.
- Serve as an augmented crew to supplement normal operational missions.
- Are fully qualified in non-aircrew specialties and authorized to fly occasionlly.
Correct Answer

A. Are fully qualified in non-aircrew specialties and authorized to fly occasionlly.

Explanation

The correct answer is "are fully qualified in non-aircrew specialties and authorized to fly occasionally." This means that operational support fliers have expertise in non-aircrew roles and are allowed to fly on certain occasions. They may not be career aviators, but they are fully qualified aircrew members with additional responsibilities to support operational missions.

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8.

Operational support members are placed in flying status
- On a monthly basis.
- For the duration of the assigned mission.
- Until the man-year allocation is exhausted.
- Until the flying requirement no longer exists
Correct Answer

A. On a monthly basis.

Explanation

Operational support members are placed in flying status on a monthly basis means that these members are assigned to actively participate in flying operations every month. This suggests that their duties and responsibilities involve being available for flying missions on a regular monthly schedule.

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9.

The MAJCOM must receive the unit's man-month request by what date?
- 1 June.
- 15 June.
- 1 July.
- 15 July.
Correct Answer

A. 15 June.

Explanation

The correct answer is 15 June. This is because the question is asking for the date by which the MAJCOM must receive the unit's man-month request. Out of the given options, 15 June is the only date that falls before 1 July and is therefore the correct answer.

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10.

What Flying class of medical examination is required to qualify a member for career enlisted aviation (CEA) duties?
- IA.
- IIA.
- IIC.
- III.
Correct Answer

A. III.

Explanation

The correct answer is III. The flying class III medical examination is required to qualify a member for career enlisted aviation (CEA) duties. This examination assesses the physical and mental health of individuals to ensure they meet the necessary standards for aviation duties.

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11.

A flight physical is not required when a
- Member is initially placed in aviation service.
- Member's periodic flight physical becomes due.
- Member is placed on medical waiver.
- Member applies for requalification
Correct Answer

A. Member is placed on medical waiver.

Explanation

When a member is placed on a medical waiver, it means that they have been exempted from certain medical requirements due to a specific medical condition. This waiver allows them to continue serving in aviation service without having to undergo a flight physical. The other options, such as initially being placed in aviation service or applying for requalification, would typically require a flight physical to ensure the member's medical fitness for flying. Similarly, when a member's periodic flight physical becomes due, it means that they need to undergo a medical examination to maintain their medical clearance for aviation service.

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12.

A periodic flight preventative health assessments (pHA) is required every
- 6.
- 12.
- 15.
- 24.
Correct Answer

A. 15.

Explanation

A periodic flight preventative health assessment (PHA) is required every 15 months. This means that pilots and flight crew members must undergo a comprehensive health assessment every 15 months to ensure that they are fit to fly. This assessment helps to identify any potential health issues that could affect their performance and safety while operating an aircraft. Regular PHAs are necessary to ensure that pilots maintain their physical and mental well-being, and to minimize the risk of any health-related incidents during flights.

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13.

The AF IMT 1042 is used to
- Medically restricts a member from special operational duty.
- Document completion of physiological training.
- Place a member in duty not involing flying (DNIF) status.
- Document a categorical waiver.
Correct Answer

A. Place a member in duty not involing flying (DNIF) status.

Explanation

The AF IMT 1042 is a form used to place a member in duty not involving flying (DNIF) status. This means that the member is medically restricted from performing any duties that involve flying, such as piloting an aircraft or serving as aircrew. This form is used to document and communicate this restriction to the appropriate personnel. It is important to accurately document and communicate DNIF status to ensure the safety and well-being of the member and those they would be working with in a flying capacity.

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14.

When a member completes a flight physical health assessment (pHA), the flight surgeon must send a copy of the AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty to the Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM) office within
- One duty day.
- Three duty days.
- Three calendar days.
- Five calendar days.
Correct Answer

A. One duty day.

Explanation

The flight surgeon must send a copy of the AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty to the Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM) office within one duty day. This means that the flight surgeon has to submit the document within the same day they complete the flight physical health assessment (PHA). This ensures timely communication of the member's medical recommendation to the HARM office, allowing them to take appropriate action regarding the member's flying or special operational duty status.

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15.

How many days can a non-rated officer remain in Duty Not Involving Flying (DNIF) status without being medically disqualified from aviation service?
- A. 90
- B. 120
- C. 180
- D. 365
Correct Answer

A. C. 180

Explanation

A non-rated officer can remain in Duty Not Involving Flying (DNIF) status for a maximum of 180 days without being medically disqualified from aviation service. This means that they are temporarily unable to perform their flying duties due to a medical condition or injury. If the officer exceeds this time period, they may face disqualification from aviation service.

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16.

When updating the flight physical in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) use the date the
- A. AF IMT 1042 was received.
- B. AF IMT 1042 was prepared.
- C. member signed the AF IMT 1042
- D. flight surgeon signed the AF IMT 1042
Correct Answer

A. D. flight surgeon signed the AF IMT 1042

Explanation

The correct answer is d. flight surgeon signed the AF IMT 1042. This is because the flight surgeon is responsible for reviewing and approving the flight physical, so the date of their signature indicates when the physical was updated. The other options (a, b, c) do not necessarily indicate that the physical has been reviewed and approved by the flight surgeon.

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17.

What code must you enter in the Physical Status Code field in the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) to manually change a member's flight physical due date?
- A. A
- B. C
- C. D
- D. F
Correct Answer

A. D. F

Explanation

In the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), the code "F" must be entered in the Physical Status Code field to manually change a member's flight physical due date.

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18.

One way of knowing if a member is currently available to perform in-flight duties is to check the member's
- A. availability code
- B. physical status code
- C. aviation service gate
- D. physiological status code
Correct Answer

A. A. availability code

Explanation

The availability code is used to determine if a member is currently available to perform in-flight duties. This code indicates whether the member is on duty, off duty, or on leave. By checking the availability code, it can be determined if the member is currently able to perform their duties or if they are unavailable for any reason. The physical status code, aviation service gate, and physiological status code are not relevant to determining the member's availability for in-flight duties.

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19.

Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) can you find the list of availability codes?
- A. 11-402, Aviation and Parachutist Service, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges.
- B. 11-403, Aerospace Phsiological Training Program.
- C. 11-404, Training for High-G Aircrew.
- D. 11-421, Aviation Resource Management.
Correct Answer

A. D. 11-421, Aviation Resource Management.
20.

A categorical flying waiver
- A. restricts a member certain medical conditions to fly a specific type of aircraft
- B. is only available to those with low tolerance to high gravity pressure.
- C. allows a member to pass his or her flight physical health assessment.
- D. allows a member to fly all types of aircraft
Correct Answer

A. A. restricts a member certain medical conditions to fly a specific type of aircraft

Explanation

A categorical flying waiver restricts a member with certain medical conditions to fly a specific type of aircraft. This means that individuals with specific health conditions are not allowed to fly certain types of aircraft due to safety concerns. The waiver is put in place to ensure the safety of both the individual and others on board the aircraft.

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21.

In which Air Force Instruction can you find the list of categorical flying waiver codes?
- A. 11-402, Aviation and Parachutist Service, Aeronautical. Ratings and Badges.
- B. 11-403, Aerospace Physiological Training Program.
- C. 11-404, Training for High-G Aircrew.
- D. 11-421, Aviation Resource Management.
Correct Answer

A. D. 11-421, Aviation Resource Management.
22.

Following any certrifuge training, an aircrew member is placed in automatic Duty Not Involing Flying (DNIF) status for how many hours?
- A. 8
- B. 12
- C. 24
- D. 48
Correct Answer

A. B. 12

Explanation

After undergoing centrifuge training, an aircrew member is placed in automatic Duty Not Involving Flying (DNIF) status for 12 hours. This is done to ensure the aircrew member has enough time to recover from the effects of the training, which involves subjecting the body to high levels of G-forces. During this period, the aircrew member is not allowed to participate in any flying duties to prevent any potential risks or complications that may arise from the training.

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23.

Completion of certrifuge training is documented using the
- A. AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special. Operational Duty
- B. AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Qualification.
- C. AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record.
- D. AF Form 942, Record of Evaluation.
Correct Answer

A. C. AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record.

Explanation

The completion of centrifuge training is documented using the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record. This form is used to record and track an individual's training in physiological aspects related to flying or special operational duty. It serves as a comprehensive record of the individual's training and can be used as proof of completion of centrifuge training. The other options listed (AF IMT 1042, AF Form 8, and AF Form 942) are not specifically related to documenting centrifuge training.

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24.

Who certifies completion of certifuge training on the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record?
- A. Member.
- B. Commander.
- C. Flight surgeon.
- D. Aerospace physiologist.
Correct Answer

A. D. Aerospace physiologist.

Explanation

An aerospace physiologist certifies completion of certifuge training on the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record. This individual is specifically trained in the field of aerospace physiology and is responsible for assessing and monitoring the physiological well-being of individuals in aviation and space environments. They have the expertise and knowledge to evaluate the completion of certifuge training and ensure that individuals are adequately prepared for the physiological challenges of their roles in the aerospace industry.

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25.

Who is not required to have altitude chamber training?
- A. high-altitude parachuists.
- B. civilians who participate in spouse orientation flights.
- C. personnel who are or will be placed on active flying status.
- D. passengers in aircraft flying above 18,000 feet mean sea level.
Correct Answer

A. B. civilians who participate in spouse orientation flights.

Explanation

Altitude chamber training is typically required for individuals who will be exposed to high altitudes, such as pilots and paratroopers. However, civilians who participate in spouse orientation flights are not directly involved in flying operations and are not likely to be exposed to high altitudes. Therefore, they are not required to have altitude chamber training.

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26.

Altitude chamber refresher training is not required when removal of a member from active flying status will occur within how many monthsof the training due date?
- A. 3.
- B. 4.
- C. 6.
- D. 9.
Correct Answer

A. B. 4.

Explanation

Altitude chamber refresher training is not required when removal of a member from active flying status will occur within 4 months of the training due date. This means that if a member is scheduled to be removed from active flying status within 4 months of their training due date, they do not need to undergo altitude chamber refresher training.

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27.

When, if ever, can you schedule a member with an expired flight physical health assessment (pHA) to attend any physiological training?
- A. Never.
- B. When the member enters phase period.
- C. When approved by the unit commander.
- D. When approved by the aerospace physiologist
Correct Answer

A. A. Never.

Explanation

A member with an expired flight physical health assessment (PHA) should never be scheduled to attend any physiological training. This is because an expired PHA indicates that the member's health assessment is outdated, and it is important to ensure that the member is in good physical condition before attending any physiological training. Therefore, scheduling a member with an expired PHA for training could pose potential risks to their health and safety.

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28.

After completing physiological training, within how many duty days of arrival on station must the member return the AF IMT 702 to the Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM) office?
- A. 1.
- B. 3.
- C. 5.
- D. 7.
Correct Answer

A. C. 5.

Explanation

After completing physiological training, the member must return the AF IMT 702 to the Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM) office within 5 duty days of arrival on station.

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29.

To update a member's physiological information in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), use the
- A. Flyer Availability window.
- B. Career Aviation window.
- C. Aircrew Data window.
- D. Flyer window.
Correct Answer

A. A. Flyer Availability window.

Explanation

In order to update a member's physiological information in the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), the correct window to use is the Flyer Availability window. This window is specifically designed to track and manage the availability of flyers, including their physiological information. The Career Aviation window, Aircrew Data window, and Flyer window do not have the specific functionality to update physiological information.

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30.

After updating the member's physiological information in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), the AF IMT 702 is
- A. destroyed.
- B. given to the member.
- C. placed in a suspense file.
- D. filed in the flight record folder.
Correct Answer

A. D. filed in the flight record folder.

Explanation

After updating the member's physiological information in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), the AF IMT 702 is filed in the flight record folder. This indicates that the updated information is stored in the member's flight record for future reference and record-keeping purposes.

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31.

Which position does not have an aeronautical rating?
- A. Command Pilot.
- B. Senior Observer.
- C. Master Navigator.
- D. Master Flight Surgeon.
Correct Answer

A. D. Master Flight Surgeon.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Master Flight Surgeon. This position does not have an aeronautical rating because it is a medical role rather than a pilot or navigation role. A command pilot is an experienced pilot who has the authority to command an aircraft, a senior observer is a highly skilled navigator who assists in flight planning and navigation, and a master navigator is an expert in aircraft navigation systems. However, a master flight surgeon is a medical professional who provides medical support and expertise to pilots and other aviation personnel, but does not require an aeronautical rating.

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32.

A pilot-physician who is formerly qualified as a combat systems officer (CSO) is eligible for the advanced rating of
- A. pilot only.
- B. pilot and flight surgeon.
- C. pilot and combat systems officer.
- D. pilot, combat systems officer, and flight surgeon.
Correct Answer

A. B. pilot and flight surgeon.

Explanation

A pilot-physician who is formerly qualified as a combat systems officer (CSO) is eligible for the advanced rating of pilot and flight surgeon. This means that the individual can serve as both a pilot and a flight surgeon, combining their skills and qualifications in both areas.

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33.

Adanced ratings are awarded based on
- A. years of rated service and Aeronautical Ratings Board confirmation.
- B. military flying time and Operational Flying Duty Accumulator (OFDA).
- C. years of rated service, military flying time, and Aeronautical Rating Board confirmation.
- D. years of rated service and either military flying time or OFDA.
Correct Answer

A. D. years of rated service and either military flying time or OFDA.
34.

The years of rated service are computed from the date the officer
- A. received a commission.
- B. performed the first operational flight.
- C. reported for undergraduate flying training.
- D. received the basic United States Air Force rating.
Correct Answer

A. D. received the basic United States Air Force rating.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. received the basic United States Air Force rating. This is because the years of rated service for an officer are calculated from the date they received the basic United States Air Force rating. This rating is an important milestone in their career and signifies their proficiency and qualification as an Air Force officer. It is used as a benchmark to determine their years of service and eligibility for certain benefits and promotions.

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35.

An Aeronautical Rating Board (ARB) is a board of rated officers who are tasked to
- A. examine a member's eligibility for an Operational Flying Duty Accumulator (OFDA) waiver.
- B. evluate the flying credentials of officers applying for an inter-service tranfer.
- C. ensure the quality control of career and non-career aviators.
- D. determine the root cause of an aircraft mishap.
Correct Answer

A. B. evluate the flying credentials of officers applying for an inter-service tranfer.

Explanation

An Aeronautical Rating Board (ARB) is responsible for evaluating the flying credentials of officers who are applying for an inter-service transfer. This means that the board reviews the qualifications and experience of these officers in order to determine their suitability for transferring to a different branch of the military. The board assesses their flying skills and credentials to ensure that they meet the necessary requirements for the transfer.

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36.

The effective date of the Department of the Air Force (DAF) aeronautical order (AO) awarding the basic rating to an officer approved for inter-service transfer is the date the
- A. officer arrived on station.
- B. officer is assigned to rated duties.
- C. officer completes his/her first flight.
- D. Aeronautical Rating Board (ARB) approval posted on the officer's special orders.
Correct Answer

A. B. officer is assigned to rated duties.

Explanation

The effective date of the Department of the Air Force (DAF) aeronautical order (AO) awarding the basic rating to an officer approved for inter-service transfer is the date the officer is assigned to rated duties. This means that the officer must be officially assigned to perform duties that require the use of their aeronautical skills and knowledge. This is the point at which their aeronautical rating becomes effective and they can begin carrying out their responsibilities in their new role.

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37.

Non- rated officers ( except flight nurses ) may start wearing the officer aircrew member badge
- A. the date assigned to aircrew duties.
- B. upon graduation from undergraduate flying training (UFT).
- C. after permanent aircrew assignment and completing 24 paid months of operational flying duty.
- D. after completing an aircrew qualifcation as documented on AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Qualification.
Correct Answer

A. D. after completing an aircrew qualifcation as documented on AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Qualification.

Explanation

Non-rated officers (except flight nurses) may start wearing the officer aircrew member badge after completing an aircrew qualification as documented on AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Qualification. This means that they must have successfully completed the necessary training and met the requirements to be considered qualified as an aircrew member. Once this qualification has been documented and verified, they are eligible to wear the badge.

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38.

A member is authorized to wear the basic flight nurse badge after completing the basic flight nurse course, three years of aviation service, and
- A. 350 hours logged as a flight nurse.
- B. 750 hours logged as a flight nurse.
- C. 12 paid months of operational flying duty.
- D. 24 paid months of operational flying duty.
Correct Answer

A. C. 12 paid months of operational flying duty.

Explanation

To be authorized to wear the basic flight nurse badge, a member must complete the basic flight nurse course, have three years of aviation service, and have 12 paid months of operational flying duty. This means that they must have served as a flight nurse for at least 12 months in a paid operational flying duty role. This requirement ensures that the member has gained sufficient experience and exposure to the specific duties and responsibilities of a flight nurse before being authorized to wear the badge.

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39.

Operational support fliers are not authorized to wear an aviation badge unless
- A. the member has participated in 10 combat missions.
- B. the member suffered injuries as a result of an aircraft mishap.
- C. it is permanently awarded as a result of previous aircrew duty.
- D. the operational support position later becomes a flying crew chief position.
Correct Answer

A. C. it is permanently awarded as a result of previous aircrew duty.

Explanation

Operational support fliers are not authorized to wear an aviation badge unless it is permanently awarded as a result of previous aircrew duty. This means that the member must have previously served in an aircrew position and received the aviation badge as a recognition of their duty. This requirement ensures that only those who have demonstrated their competence and experience in aircrew duties are authorized to wear the aviation badge.

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40.

A commander may recommend to prohibit the wear of aviation badge when a member
- A. is disqualified under the humanitarian program.
- B. is disqualified due to fear of flying.
- C. fails to maintain medical fitness.
- D. declares conscientious objector.
Correct Answer

A. B. is disqualified due to fear of flying.

Explanation

When a member is disqualified due to fear of flying, it would be recommended to prohibit the wear of the aviation badge. This is because the aviation badge represents the ability and qualification to fly, and if someone is disqualified due to fear of flying, it means they are not capable or willing to fulfill the requirements of the badge. Therefore, it would be appropriate to prohibit them from wearing it.

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41.

Who makes final approval for prohibiting the wear of aviation badges?
- A. Wing commander.
- B. HQ USAF/A3O-AT.
- C. MAJCOM commander.
- D. Aeronautical Rating Board.
Correct Answer

A. C. MAJCOM commander.

Explanation

The MAJCOM commander is responsible for making the final approval for prohibiting the wear of aviation badges. This means that they have the authority to determine whether or not individuals are allowed to wear these badges. The MAJCOM commander is typically a high-ranking officer who oversees a major command within the United States Air Force. They have the power to make decisions and establish policies within their command, including those related to the wear of aviation badges.

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42.

The manpower standard is an Air Force document used to
- A. establish the aircraft's crew ratio.
- B. validate aircrew coded positions.
- C. quantify manpower requirements.
- D. budget for operational support flying duties.
Correct Answer

A. C. quantify manpower requirements.

Explanation

The manpower standard is a document used by the Air Force to determine the quantity of personnel needed for a specific task or operation. It helps in estimating the manpower requirements for various activities and ensures that adequate resources are allocated to meet the operational needs. This document is not specifically used to establish the aircraft's crew ratio, validate aircrew coded positions, or budget for operational support flying duties. Instead, it focuses on quantifying the manpower needed for different tasks.

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43.

Funding for manpower resources are derived from the
- A. The Man-Year Program.
- B. The Aviation Career Incentive Act.
- C. The director of Manpower and Organization.
- D. The Department of Defense (DOD) Future Years Defense Program.
Correct Answer

A. D. The Department of Defense (DOD) Future Years Defense Program.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. The Department of Defense (DOD) Future Years Defense Program. This program is responsible for allocating funding for manpower resources. It is a long-term planning and budgeting program that outlines the projected funding for the Department of Defense over the next several years. This includes funding for various resources, including manpower.

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44.

Which primary document reflects the manpower required to perform the unit's mission?
- A. Department of Defense Future Year Defense Program.
- B. Manpower Programming and Execution System.
- C. Unit Manpower Document.
- D. Manpower standard.
Correct Answer

A. C. Unit Manpower Document.

Explanation

The primary document that reflects the manpower required to perform the unit's mission is the Unit Manpower Document. This document outlines the specific number of personnel needed for various tasks and roles within the unit. It provides a detailed breakdown of the manpower requirements, including the positions, skill sets, and qualifications needed to effectively carry out the unit's mission. The Unit Manpower Document serves as a crucial resource for planning and allocating manpower resources within the unit.

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45.

How can you determine if members are double-billeted?
- A. They have the same aircrew position indicator (API) code.
- B. They have an API code of "5,""6," or "8".
- C. They share the same position number.
- D. They have an API code of "B," or "D".
Correct Answer

A. C. They share the same position number.

Explanation

The correct answer is c. They share the same position number. This means that if two members have the same position number, it indicates that they are double-billeted. The other options, a, b, and d, do not necessarily indicate double-billeting. Option a states that they have the same aircrew position indicator (API) code, which may or may not mean they are double-billeted. Option b states that they have an API code of "5," "6," or "8," which does not directly indicate double-billeting. Option d states that they have an API code of "B" or "D," which also does not directly indicate double-billeting. Therefore, the most accurate way to determine if members are double-billeted is by checking if they share the same position number.

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46.

A flying activity code (FAC) is a one-digit code used to provide detailed information about a member's flying
- A. incentive pay.
- B. position.
- C. activity.
- D. status.
Correct Answer

A. C. activity.

Explanation

A flying activity code (FAC) is a one-digit code used to provide detailed information about a member's flying activity. This code helps to categorize and track the specific types of flying that a member has been involved in. It allows for a more detailed understanding of the member's flying experiences and can be used for various purposes such as determining eligibility for certain benefits or evaluating performance. Therefore, the correct answer is c. activity.

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47.

Which AFI can you find the list of flying activity codes (FAC)?
- A. 11-402. Aviation and Parachutist Service Aeronautical Ratings and Badges.
- B. 11-403, Aerospace Physiological Training Program.
- C. 11-421, Aviation Resource Management.
- D. 11-401, Aviation Management.
Correct Answer

A. D. 11-401, Aviation Management.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. 11-401, Aviation Management. In this AFI, you can find the list of flying activity codes (FAC). This AFI specifically focuses on aviation management and provides guidance on various aspects of aviation operations, including the use of flying activity codes. It is the most relevant AFI to refer to when looking for information on FAC.

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48.

Which Congressional Act was the first to set minimum numbers of operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) months for rated officers to receive continuous Aviation Career Incentive Pay (ACIP)?
- A. Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1974.
- B. Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1989.
- C. FY 1996 National Defense Authorization Act.
- D. FY 2000 National Defense Authorization Act.
Correct Answer

A. A. Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1974.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1974. This act was the first to establish minimum numbers of operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) months for rated officers to qualify for continuous Aviation Career Incentive Pay (ACIP). This act was passed in 1974, making it the earliest legislation to address this issue.

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49.

Aviation service gates for career enlisted aviators (CEA) are set at the
- A. 12th and 18th year of aviation service.
- B. 5th, 10th, and 15th year of aviation service.
- C. 10th, 15th, and 20th year of aviation service.
- D. 10th, 15th, 20th, and 22nd year of aviation service.
Correct Answer

A. C. 10th, 15th, and 20th year of aviation service.

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Aug 08, 2012

Quiz Created by
Sarmgirl

1c0 Vol 2 CDC 5 Lvl Ec04

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