Rail Ntpc Special Mock Test 1

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Questions: 100 | Attempts: 120

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Rail Ntpc Special Mock Test 1 - Quiz

MOCK TEST 1
SYLLABUS : RAIL NTPC PRELI
TIME : 90 MINUTES FULL MARKS : 100*3 = 300
EACH QUESTION CARRIES 3 MARKS , -VE MARKING = - 1 / WRONG ANSWER


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Who said ‘As President, I have no eyes but constitutional eyes. I cannot see you’—

    • A.

      Dr. Rajendra Prasad

    • B.

      Dr. Radhakrishnan

    • C.

      Abraham Lincoln 

    • D.

      Mahatma Gandhi

    Correct Answer
    C. Abraham Lincoln 
    Explanation
    Abraham Lincoln said, "As President, I have no eyes but constitutional eyes. I cannot see you." This statement suggests that Lincoln believed in strictly adhering to the principles and guidelines outlined in the Constitution. He believed that as President, he had a duty to uphold and protect the Constitution above all else, even if it meant making decisions that may not be popular or personally favorable. This quote reflects Lincoln's commitment to the rule of law and his understanding of the limitations and responsibilities of the presidency.

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  • 2. 

    Who has ample powers under Article 324(1) to make appropriate orders as to the conduct of Elections and cancellation of poll?

    • A.

      Regional Election Commissioner

    • B.

      Election Committee of Government

    • C.

      Electoral Officer

    • D.

      Election Commission

    Correct Answer
    D. Election Commission
    Explanation
    The Election Commission has ample powers under Article 324(1) to make appropriate orders as to the conduct of Elections and cancellation of poll. This is because the Election Commission is an independent constitutional authority responsible for overseeing the electoral process in India. It has the authority to issue orders and guidelines to ensure free and fair elections, including the power to cancel polls if necessary. The Regional Election Commissioner, Election Committee of Government, and Electoral Officer do not have the same level of authority as the Election Commission.

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  • 3. 

    Under Article 365 what are the duties of the Union Government with respect to State Governments—

    • A.

      Ensure that every State Minister should act in accordance with the advice of Chief Minister

    • B.

      Ensure that Governor acts under advice of the Chief Minister

    • C.

      Ensure that Governance in the State is in accordance with the Constitution

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Ensure that Governance in the State is in accordance with the Constitution
    Explanation
    Article 365 of the Indian Constitution states that if a state government fails to comply with or act in accordance with the directions given by the Union government, then the President may hold that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. In such a case, the President can take necessary steps to ensure that governance in the state is in accordance with the Constitution. This includes the power to dismiss the state government and impose President's rule. Therefore, the correct answer is "Ensure that Governance in the State is in accordance with the Constitution."

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following is a feature of federal Government?

    • A.

      Supremacy of Parliament

    • B.

      Supremacy of Judiciary

    • C.

      Division of powers between federal and state Government 

    • D.

      Single citizenship

    Correct Answer
    C. Division of powers between federal and state Government 
    Explanation
    The feature of federal government is the division of powers between the federal and state governments. This means that certain powers and responsibilities are delegated to the federal government, while others are reserved for the state governments. This division allows for a balance of power and autonomy between the different levels of government, ensuring that neither the federal nor state government becomes too powerful.

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  • 5. 

    Under which article, President of India can proclaim financial emergency?

    • A.

      Article 32

    • B.

      Article 349

    • C.

      Article 360

    • D.

      Article 355

    Correct Answer
    C. Article 360
    Explanation
    Article 360 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President of India to proclaim a financial emergency. This article allows the President to declare a state of financial crisis in the country if he/she is satisfied that the financial stability or credit of India or any part thereof is threatened. Once a financial emergency is declared, the President can issue necessary directions to the states regarding the financial matters, and the executive authority of the Union can extend to giving directions to any state in relation to the financial crisis.

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  • 6. 

    The Yellow river passes through which country? 

    • A.

      Russia

    • B.

      China

    • C.

      USA

    • D.

      Australia

    Correct Answer
    B. China
    Explanation
    The Yellow River passes through China.

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  • 7. 

    Capital City of Myanmar is _________. 

    • A.

      Naypyidaw

    • B.

      Yangon

    • C.

      Rangoon

    • D.

      Thimphu

    Correct Answer
    A. Naypyidaw
    Explanation
    Naypyidaw is the correct answer for the capital city of Myanmar. It was officially declared as the capital in 2006, replacing Yangon. Naypyidaw is located in the central part of the country and is known for its vast size and modern infrastructure. The decision to move the capital was made by the military junta in order to establish a more centralized location and to have better control over the government.

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  • 8. 

    What is the capital of Argentina? 

    • A.

      Buenos Aires

    • B.

      Copenhagen

    • C.

      Vienna

    • D.

      Ottawa

    Correct Answer
    A. Buenos Aires
    Explanation
    Buenos Aires is the correct answer because it is the capital of Argentina. It is the largest city in Argentina and serves as the political, economic, and cultural center of the country.

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  • 9. 

    Communal Representation was for the first time given in the interest of Muslims by

    • A.

      The Indian Council Act of 1909

    • B.

      The Government of India Act of 1919

    • C.

      The Government of India Act of 1935

    • D.

      The Act of 1858

    Correct Answer
    A. The Indian Council Act of 1909
    Explanation
    The Indian Council Act of 1909 introduced the concept of communal representation in India. This act was also known as the Morley-Minto Reforms. It aimed to give Muslims a separate electorate and reserved seats in the legislative councils. This was done to address the demands of the Muslim community for greater political representation and to ensure their interests were protected. The act marked a significant step in the direction of communal politics in India and set the stage for future demands for separate electorates and representation based on religion.

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  • 10. 

    The National Calender, which is based on Saka Era, was introduced in the year___

    • A.

      1957

    • B.

      1951

    • C.

      1949

    • D.

      1947

    Correct Answer
    A. 1957
    Explanation
    The National Calendar, based on the Saka Era, was introduced in the year 1957. This calendar was adopted by the Government of India to provide a standardized and uniform calendar system for the country. The Saka Era is a traditional Indian calendar system that is based on the lunar year and is widely used in various parts of India. The introduction of the National Calendar in 1957 helped in promoting a common calendar system across the country, facilitating better coordination and planning.

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  • 11. 

    The allocation of seats in the present Lok Sabha is based on which one of the following Census?

    • A.

      1971

    • B.

      1981

    • C.

      1991

    • D.

      2001

    Correct Answer
    A. 1971
    Explanation
    The allocation of seats in the present Lok Sabha is based on the 1971 Census. This means that the number of seats allocated to each state in the Lok Sabha is determined by the population data recorded in the 1971 Census. The population of each state at that time is used as a basis for determining the number of seats, with more populous states having more seats and less populous states having fewer seats. This system ensures that representation in the Lok Sabha is proportional to the population of each state at the time of the 1971 Census.

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  • 12. 

    Who holds the power to appoint the nominees for Anglo- Indian Community in the Lok Sabha?

    • A.

      Minorities Commission

    • B.

      President of India

    • C.

      Prime Minister

    • D.

      Vice – president

    Correct Answer
    B. President of India
    Explanation
    The President of India holds the power to appoint the nominees for the Anglo-Indian Community in the Lok Sabha. This is in accordance with Article 331 of the Indian Constitution, which provides for the nomination of two members from the Anglo-Indian Community by the President. These members represent the interests of the Anglo-Indian Community in the Lok Sabha, ensuring their representation in the Indian Parliament.

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  • 13. 

    What is the minimum age laid down for a candidate to seek election to the Lok Sabha?

    • A.

      18 years

    • B.

      21 years

    • C.

      25 years

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    C. 25 years
    Explanation
    The minimum age laid down for a candidate to seek election to the Lok Sabha is 25 years.

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  • 14. 

    Who is NOT entitled to take part in the activities of Lok Sabha?

    • A.

      The Comptroller and auditor General of India

    • B.

      The Attorney General of India

    • C.

      The Solicitor General

    • D.

      The Secretary to President of India

    Correct Answer
    D. The Secretary to President of India
    Explanation
    The Secretary to the President of India is not entitled to take part in the activities of Lok Sabha. The Lok Sabha is the lower house of the Parliament of India, and its members are elected by the people. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India, the Attorney General of India, and the Solicitor General are all important positions in the government and have the right to participate in the activities of Lok Sabha. However, the Secretary to the President of India is not a member of the Parliament and therefore does not have the right to participate in its activities.

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  • 15. 

    The statewise allocation of seats in Lok Sabha is based on the 1971 Census. Upto which year does the remain intact?

    • A.

      2011

    • B.

      2021

    • C.

      2026

    • D.

      2031

    Correct Answer
    C. 2026
    Explanation
    The statewise allocation of seats in Lok Sabha is based on the 1971 Census. This means that the number of seats allocated to each state in the Lok Sabha is determined by the population data from the 1971 Census. The allocation remains intact until a new census is conducted and the data from that census is used to determine the new allocation of seats. Therefore, the allocation will remain intact until the year 2026, which is the next scheduled census after the 2011 Census.

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  • 16. 

    The quorum of Lok sabha is –

    • A.

      1/5th of the total membership

    • B.

      1/6th of the total membership

    • C.

      1/8th of the total membership

    • D.

      1/10th of the total membership

    Correct Answer
    D. 1/10th of the total membership
    Explanation
    The quorum of Lok Sabha is 1/10th of the total membership. This means that at least one-tenth of the total number of members must be present for the Lok Sabha to conduct its business. Quorum refers to the minimum number of members required to be present in order to make any decisions or pass any legislation. In the case of Lok Sabha, it is necessary for at least 1/10th of the total membership to be present to ensure that there is sufficient representation and participation in the decision-making process.

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  • 17. 

    As we all know child, labour is totally banned in India (Article 24). As per the ‘Child’ means a person who has not completed –

    • A.

      14 years of his / her age

    • B.

      16 years of his / her age

    • C.

      18 years of his / her age

    • D.

      20 years of his / her age

    Correct Answer
    A. 14 years of his / her age
    Explanation
    Child labor is banned in India according to Article 24. The term "child" refers to a person who has not yet reached the age of 14.

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  • 18. 

    Which one of the following States has the highest number of reserve seats for the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha?

    • A.

       Bihar

    • B.

      Uttar Pradesh

    • C.

      Madhya Pradesh

    • D.

      Gujarat

    Correct Answer
    C. Madhya Pradesh
    Explanation
    Madhya Pradesh has the highest number of reserve seats for the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha. This means that Madhya Pradesh has allocated a larger proportion of its seats in the Lok Sabha specifically for candidates belonging to Scheduled Tribes compared to the other states mentioned.

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  • 19. 

    Rajya Sabha can delay the Finance Bill sent for its consideration by the Lok Sabha for a maximum period of –

    • A.

      One year

    • B.

      One month

    • C.

      Fourteen days

    • D.

       Seven days

    Correct Answer
    C. Fourteen days
    Explanation
    The Rajya Sabha, the upper house of the Parliament in India, can delay the Finance Bill sent for its consideration by the Lok Sabha, the lower house, for a maximum period of fourteen days. This means that the Rajya Sabha has the power to scrutinize and discuss the bill for up to two weeks before it is passed. This provision allows for a thorough examination of the bill and ensures that both houses have the opportunity to provide input and make necessary amendments before it becomes law.

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  • 20. 

    How many languages have recognized by the Constitution –

    • A.

      15

    • B.

      18

    • C.

      22

    • D.

      24

    Correct Answer
    C. 22
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 22. This means that the Constitution recognizes 22 languages.

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  • 21. 

    The material used in the fabrication of a transistor is –

    • A.

      Aluminum

    • B.

      Copper

    • C.

      Silicon

    • D.

      Silver

    Correct Answer
    C. Silicon
    Explanation
    Silicon is the correct answer because it is the most commonly used material in the fabrication of transistors. Silicon is a semiconductor material that has the ability to control the flow of electric current. It has several desirable properties such as high melting point, good thermal conductivity, and the ability to form stable oxide layers. These properties make silicon an ideal material for creating the necessary components and structures within a transistor, allowing it to function as an amplifier or a switch in electronic devices.

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  • 22. 

    In which of the following processes is energy released?

    • A.

      Respiration

    • B.

      Photosynthesis

    • C.

      Ingestion

    • D.

      Absorption

    Correct Answer
    A. Respiration
    Explanation
    Respiration is the correct answer because it is a metabolic process that occurs in cells, where glucose and oxygen are converted into carbon dioxide, water, and energy. This energy is released in the form of ATP (adenosine triphosphate), which is the main energy currency of cells. In contrast, photosynthesis is a process in which energy from sunlight is converted into glucose, so it is an energy-absorbing process. Ingestion and absorption are not processes that directly release energy, but rather involve the intake and absorption of nutrients.

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  • 23. 

    The technique of collecting information about an object from a distance without making physical contact with it is –

    • A.

      Remote sensing

    • B.

      Remote control

    • C.

      Remote accessing

    • D.

      Space Shuttleg

    Correct Answer
    A. Remote sensing
    Explanation
    Remote sensing is the correct answer because it refers to the technique of gathering information about an object without physically touching it. This is typically done using sensors and instruments that are capable of detecting and measuring various properties of the object, such as its temperature, composition, or electromagnetic radiation. Remote sensing is commonly used in fields such as geography, environmental science, and agriculture to study and monitor Earth's surface and atmosphere.

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  • 24. 

    “Curie” is the unit of –

    • A.

      Radioactivity

    • B.

      Temperature

    • C.

      Heat

    • D.

      Energy

    Correct Answer
    A. Radioactivity
    Explanation
    The unit "Curie" is used to measure radioactivity. It is named after Marie Curie, a renowned physicist and chemist who conducted groundbreaking research on radioactivity. Radioactivity refers to the emission of radiation from unstable atomic nuclei. The Curie measures the rate at which a radioactive substance undergoes radioactive decay, indicating its level of radioactivity. The other options, temperature, heat, and energy, are not measured in Curie but have their own respective units of measurement.

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  • 25. 

    The Source of the sun’s energy, is the process of –

    • A.

       Photoelectric emission

    • B.

      Nuclear fission

    • C.

      Nuclear fusion

    • D.

      Thermionic emission

    Correct Answer
    C. Nuclear fusion
    Explanation
    Nuclear fusion is the correct answer because it is the process by which the sun produces energy. In nuclear fusion, the nuclei of atoms combine to form a heavier nucleus, releasing a large amount of energy in the process. This is the process that powers the sun, as hydrogen nuclei combine to form helium, releasing a tremendous amount of energy in the form of light and heat. The other options, photoelectric emission, nuclear fission, and thermionic emission, are not the processes responsible for the sun's energy production.

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  • 26. 

    The strongest force in nature is –

    • A.

      Electrical force

    • B.

      Gravitational force

    • C.

      Nuclear force

    • D.

      Magnetic force

    Correct Answer
    C. Nuclear force
    Explanation
    The nuclear force is the strongest force in nature. It is responsible for holding the nucleus of an atom together by overcoming the electrostatic repulsion between positively charged protons. This force is stronger than both the electrical force and the gravitational force. While the electrical force governs interactions between charged particles and the gravitational force governs interactions between masses, the nuclear force is specifically responsible for binding protons and neutrons in the atomic nucleus. Therefore, the nuclear force is considered the strongest force in nature.

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  • 27. 

    In nuclear reactor, heavy water is used as –

    • A.

      Coolant

    • B.

      Fuel

    • C.

      Moderator

    • D.

      Atomic smasher

    Correct Answer
    C. Moderator
    Explanation
    In a nuclear reactor, heavy water is used as a moderator. A moderator is a substance that slows down the fast-moving neutrons produced during nuclear fission. This is important because slower neutrons are more likely to cause additional fission reactions, allowing the chain reaction to continue. Heavy water, which contains a higher concentration of deuterium (a heavy isotope of hydrogen), is particularly effective at slowing down neutrons due to its higher mass. Therefore, heavy water is used in nuclear reactors as a moderator to help sustain the fission reactions.

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  • 28. 

    Electric current in a metal wire is due to the flow of –

    • A.

      Electrons

    • B.

      Protons

    • C.

      Ions

    • D.

      Holes

    Correct Answer
    A. Electrons
    Explanation
    Electric current in a metal wire is due to the flow of electrons. In a metal, the outermost electrons of atoms are loosely bound and can move freely. When a potential difference is applied across the wire, these electrons are pushed by the electric field and start moving, creating a flow of electric charge. This movement of electrons constitutes the electric current in the wire. Protons, ions, and holes do not flow freely in a metal wire and therefore cannot be the cause of electric current in it.

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  • 29. 

    The nature of fuse wire is –

    • A.

      Low melting point

    • B.

      High melting point

    • C.

      High conductivity

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    A. Low melting point
    Explanation
    Fuse wire is designed to have a low melting point. This is because its purpose is to protect electrical circuits from excessive current flow by melting and breaking the circuit when there is a fault or overload. By melting at a low temperature, the fuse wire can quickly interrupt the current and prevent damage to the circuit or equipment.

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  • 30. 

    A transformer –

    • A.

      Converts DC to AC

    • B.

       is used to decrease or increase AC voltage

    • C.

      Converts AC voltage to DC voltage

    • D.

      Converts electrical energy into mechanical energy

    Correct Answer
    B.  is used to decrease or increase AC voltage
    Explanation
    A transformer is a device used to decrease or increase AC voltage. It works on the principle of electromagnetic induction, where a changing current in one coil induces a voltage in a nearby coil. By varying the number of turns in each coil, the transformer can step up or step down the voltage level. This makes it a crucial component in electrical power transmission and distribution systems, allowing efficient transfer of electricity over long distances at different voltage levels.

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  • 31. 

    Which sport is added for the first time to the Tokyo 2020 Olympics Games?

    • A.

      Curling

    • B.

      Fencing

    • C.

      Powerlifting

    • D.

      Table Tennis Mixed Doubles

    Correct Answer
    D. Table Tennis Mixed Doubles
    Explanation
    Table Tennis Mixed Doubles is the correct answer because it is the only option that mentions a sport that is being added for the first time to the Tokyo 2020 Olympics Games. Curling, Fencing, and Powerlifting are all existing sports that have been part of previous Olympic Games.

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  • 32. 

    "281 and Beyond" is an autobiography of________

    • A.

      Sachin Tendulkar

    • B.

      Saurav Ganguly

    • C.

      V.V.S. Laxman

    • D.

      Rahul Dravid

    Correct Answer
    C. V.V.S. Laxman
    Explanation
    "281 and Beyond" is an autobiography of V.V.S. Laxman.

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  • 33. 

    What is the rank of India in Federation Internationale de Football Association(FIFA) ranking for the year 2019?

    • A.

      101

    • B.

      102

    • C.

      103

    • D.

      104

    Correct Answer
    C. 103
    Explanation
    India's rank in the Federation Internationale de Football Association (FIFA) ranking for the year 2019 is 103.

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  • 34. 

    Who is the expounder of Yoga Philosophy?

    • A.

      Siddharta

    • B.

      Shankracharya

    • C.

      Patanjali

    • D.

      Parmananda

    Correct Answer
    C. Patanjali
    Explanation
    Patanjali is the expounder of Yoga Philosophy. He is considered to be the author of the Yoga Sutras, which is a foundational text in the philosophy of Yoga. Patanjali's Yoga Sutras provide a systematic and comprehensive guide to the practice and philosophy of Yoga, including its ethical principles, meditation techniques, and the attainment of spiritual enlightenment. His teachings have had a significant influence on the development and understanding of Yoga as a spiritual and philosophical system.

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  • 35. 

    How many medals did India won at the 23rd Presidents Cup in Labuan Bajo, Indonesia?

    • A.

      9

    • B.

      12

    • C.

      14

    • D.

      22

    Correct Answer
    A. 9
    Explanation
    India won 9 medals at the 23rd Presidents Cup in Labuan Bajo, Indonesia.

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  • 36. 

    Naaz Joshi wins Miss World Diversity, she belongs to which country?

    • A.

      Mexico

    • B.

      Argentina

    • C.

      Bangladesh

    • D.

      India

    Correct Answer
    D. India
    Explanation
    Naaz Joshi winning Miss World Diversity suggests that she represents India.

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  • 37. 

    Name the Indian cricketer who has been conferred with Karthik Bose Lifetime Achievement award.

    • A.

      Bishan Singh Bedi

    • B.

      Arun Lal

    • C.

      Ajit Wadekar

    • D.

      Syed Kirmani

    Correct Answer
    B. Arun Lal
    Explanation
    Arun Lal is the Indian cricketer who has been conferred with the Karthik Bose Lifetime Achievement award.

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  • 38. 

    Which player topped Forbes magazine's list of highest-paid women player in sports category?

    • A.

      Serena Williams

    • B.

      Venus Williams

    • C.

      Naomi Osaka

    • D.

      Maria Sharapova

    Correct Answer
    A. Serena Williams
    Explanation
    Serena Williams topped Forbes magazine's list of highest-paid women players in the sports category. This is because she has been a dominant force in women's tennis for many years, winning numerous Grand Slam titles and consistently ranking among the top players in the world. Additionally, Serena has a strong brand and endorsement deals with major companies, which contribute to her high earnings. Her success on and off the court has made her one of the most financially successful female athletes of all time.

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  • 39. 

    Who has been named as the new director of ONGC?

    • A.

      Navin Chandra Pandey

    • B.

      Sumit Bose

    • C.

      Rajeev Chandra Joshi

    • D.

      Rajesh Kumar Srivastava

    Correct Answer
    D. Rajesh Kumar Srivastava
    Explanation
    Rajesh Kumar Srivastava has been named as the new director of ONGC.

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  • 40. 

    Who won a 3rd successive gold in women's 53kg category in Poland Open Wrestling Tournament in Warsaw?

    • A.

      Vinesh Phogat

    • B.

      Geeta Phogat

    • C.

      Babita Kumari

    • D.

      Sakshi Malik

    Correct Answer
    A. Vinesh Phogat
    Explanation
    Vinesh Phogat won a 3rd successive gold in the women's 53kg category in the Poland Open Wrestling Tournament in Warsaw.

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  • 41. 

    Tongue : Taste :: Nose : ?

    • A.

      Smell

    • B.

      Face

    • C.

      Touch

    • D.

      Chin

    Correct Answer
    A. Smell
    Explanation
    The analogy presented in the question is comparing the relationship between "tongue" and "taste" to find a similar relationship between two other words. The tongue is closely associated with the sense of taste, as taste buds are located on the tongue. Similarly, the nose is closely associated with the sense of smell, as it contains olfactory receptors that allow us to detect different scents. Therefore, the correct answer is "smell" as it is the sense that is associated with the nose, just as taste is associated with the tongue.

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  • 42. 

    FDH : LJN :: RPT : ?

    • A.

      XYZ

    • B.

      WUY

    • C.

      XVZ

    • D.

      SUV

    Correct Answer
    C. XVZ
    Explanation
    The pattern in the given question seems to be that the first letter of the first word is moved two positions forward in the alphabet to get the first letter of the second word, and the second letter of the first word is moved two positions backward in the alphabet to get the second letter of the second word. Applying this pattern to the given options, XVZ is the only option that follows this pattern.

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  • 43. 

    60 : 15 :: 100 : ?

    • A.

      45

    • B.

      35

    • C.

      5

    • D.

      25

    Correct Answer
    D. 25
    Explanation
    The pattern in the given analogy is that the first number is divided by 4 to get the second number. Similarly, the third number should be divided by 4 to get the missing number. Dividing 100 by 4 gives us 25, which is the missing number in the analogy.

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  • 44. 

    In the following question, select the odd one from the given alternatives.

    • A.

      Veena

    • B.

      Guitar

    • C.

      Violin

    • D.

      Flute

    Correct Answer
    D. Flute
    Explanation
    The given options Veena, Guitar, Violin, and Flute are all musical instruments. However, the flute is the odd one out because it is a wind instrument, while the other three are string instruments.

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  • 45. 

    In the following question, select the odd one from the given alternatives.

    • A.

      KP

    • B.

       DW

    • C.

      GT

    • D.

      CW

    Correct Answer
    D. CW
    Explanation
    The given alternatives consist of pairs of letters. In each pair, the first letter is two positions ahead of the second letter in the English alphabet. However, in the case of CW, the first letter is three positions ahead of the second letter. Therefore, CW is the odd one out.

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  • 46. 

    In the following question, select the odd one from the given alternatives.

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      -2

    • C.

      -(-3)

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    B. -2
    Explanation
    The given series consists of positive and negative numbers, except for -2 which is the only negative number. Therefore, -2 is the odd one out in the series.

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  • 47. 

    A series is given, with one word missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. Pension, Aptitude, Captain, Tropical, Shotput, ?

    • A.

      Parrot

    • B.

      Apply

    • C.

      Trap

    • D.

      Tetrapod

    Correct Answer
    D. Tetrapod
    Explanation
    The given series follows a pattern where each word starts with the same letter as the previous word ends with. Starting with "Pension," the next word "Aptitude" starts with the letter "E" which is the same as the last letter of "Pension." Following this pattern, the next word should start with the letter "E," which is only true for the option "Tetrapod." Therefore, "Tetrapod" is the correct alternative that will complete the series.

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  • 48. 

    A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. DEC, HIG, LMK, PQO, TUS, ?

    • A.

      XYZ

    • B.

      WXY

    • C.

      XYW

    • D.

      YZA

    Correct Answer
    C. XYW
    Explanation
    The pattern in the given series is that each term is formed by taking the first letter of the previous term, then the second letter of the previous term, and finally the third letter of the previous term. The missing term should follow the same pattern. Therefore, the correct alternative to complete the series is XYW.

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  • 49. 

    Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary. i. Worrisome ii. Wonderful iii. Worthless iv. Wrong

    • A.

      Iv, ii, i, iii

    • B.

      Ii, i, iii, iv

    • C.

      Ii, iii, i, iv

    • D.

      I, iv, iii, ii

    Correct Answer
    B. Ii, i, iii, iv
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "ii, i, iii, iv." In a dictionary, words are arranged in alphabetical order. "Wonderful" comes before "Worrisome" because "o" comes before "o" in the alphabet. "Worrisome" comes before "Worthless" because "r" comes before "t" in the alphabet. "Worthless" comes before "Wrong" because "t" comes before "w" in the alphabet.

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  • 50. 

    Meetu’s birthday is on Wednesday 8th March. On what day of the week will be Ritu’s Birthday in the same year if Ritu was born on 10th July?

    • A.

      Monday

    • B.

      Wednesday

    • C.

      Friday

    • D.

      Saturday

    Correct Answer
    A. Monday
    Explanation
    To determine the day of the week for Ritu's birthday, we need to calculate the number of days between Meetu's birthday (8th March) and Ritu's birthday (10th July). From 8th March to 10th July, there are 124 days. Since 124 is divisible by 7 (the number of days in a week), we can conclude that Ritu's birthday will fall on the same day of the week as Meetu's birthday. Therefore, Ritu's birthday will be on a Monday.

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  • Current Version
  • Aug 10, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 10, 2019
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    STUDY MATERIALS
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