PTCB Practice Test 4/9

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Quizzes Created: 5 | Total Attempts: 9,414
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  • 1/25 Questions

    A patient computer profile shows that he is taking atorvastatin. Which medication represents duplicate therapy?

    • Carvedilol
    • Simvastatin
    • Selegiline
    • Clonidine
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About This Quiz

PTCB Practice Test 4\/9 assesses knowledge on various pharmaceutical topics, including drug administration routes, lab values for medication monitoring, antibiotic classifications, arthritis treatment, and hypertension management. It is designed for pharmacy technicians preparing for certification.

PTCB Practice Exam Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 2. 

    A patient calls the pharmacy to request his monthly refill of felodipine. He mentions that his home monitor measured his blood pressure as 150 over 95 this morning. The technician should:

    • Alert the patient that many insurance programs will reimburse the cost of a home monitor

    • Alert the pharmacist that the patients medication seems to be working

    • Alert the pharmacist to the patients high blood pressure

    • Alert the pharmacist to the patients low blood pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. Alert the pharmacist to the patients high blood pressure
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to alert the pharmacist to the patient's high blood pressure. This is because a blood pressure reading of 150 over 95 is considered high and may require further attention or adjustment of the patient's medication. The technician should inform the pharmacist so that appropriate action can be taken to address the patient's high blood pressure.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following is a COX-2 inhibitor used to treat osteoarthritis?

    • Allegra

    • Levitra

    • Celebrex

    • Wellbutrin

    Correct Answer
    A. Celebrex
    Explanation
    Celebrex is a COX-2 inhibitor used to treat osteoarthritis. COX-2 inhibitors are a type of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that specifically targets the COX-2 enzyme, which is responsible for inflammation and pain. By inhibiting this enzyme, Celebrex helps reduce inflammation and relieve pain associated with osteoarthritis. Allegra is an antihistamine used to treat allergies, Levitra is a medication used to treat erectile dysfunction, and Wellbutrin is an antidepressant medication.

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  • 4. 

    The profile of a patient diagnosed with type 1 diabetes would most likely include a prescription for:

    • Simvastatin

    • Glyburide

    • Insulin

    • Metoprolol

    Correct Answer
    A. Insulin
    Explanation
    A patient diagnosed with type 1 diabetes would most likely be prescribed insulin because type 1 diabetes is characterized by the body's inability to produce insulin. Insulin is necessary for regulating blood sugar levels, and without it, the patient would not be able to properly control their blood sugar. Medications like simvastatin, glyburide, and metoprolol are not typically prescribed for type 1 diabetes as they do not address the underlying issue of insulin deficiency.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following drugs is a proton pump inhibitor?

    • Fluconazole

    • Lansoprazole

    • Metronidazole

    • Itraconazole

    Correct Answer
    A. Lansoprazole
    Explanation
    Lansoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor because it works by reducing the production of stomach acid. This drug inhibits the enzyme responsible for the final step in acid production in the stomach, thereby decreasing the amount of acid produced. This can be helpful in treating conditions such as gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), ulcers, and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Fluconazole, Metronidazole, and Itraconazole are not proton pump inhibitors; they are antifungal and antibiotic medications used to treat fungal and bacterial infections.

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  • 6. 

    The hospital pharmacy receives a prescription for Bactrim DS. While entering the order, a critical alert flag has popped up on the patient medication profile due to which of the following documented allergies?

    • Amoxicillin

    • Sulfamethoxazole

    • Erythromycin

    • Nitrofurantoin

    Correct Answer
    A. Sulfamethoxazole
    Explanation
    The critical alert flag has popped up on the patient medication profile because the patient has a documented allergy to sulfamethoxazole.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following herbs should be used with caution if the patient is taking sertraline?

    • St.. John's Wort

    • Garlic

    • Saw Palmetto

    • Echinacea

    Correct Answer
    A. St.. John's Wort
    Explanation
    St. John's Wort should be used with caution if the patient is taking sertraline because it can interact with sertraline and lead to a potentially dangerous condition known as serotonin syndrome. Serotonin syndrome occurs when there is an excess of serotonin in the body, which can cause symptoms such as agitation, confusion, rapid heart rate, and high blood pressure. Therefore, it is important to be cautious when combining St. John's Wort and sertraline to avoid this potential interaction.

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  • 8. 

    A pharmacist dispensing simvastatin would be most concerned with its potiental effect on the patients:

    • Liver

    • Lungs

    • Pancreas

    • Kidneys

    Correct Answer
    A. Liver
    Explanation
    A pharmacist dispensing simvastatin would be most concerned with its potential effect on the liver because simvastatin is a medication used to lower cholesterol levels. It works by inhibiting an enzyme in the liver that is responsible for producing cholesterol. Therefore, the pharmacist would need to monitor the patient's liver function regularly to ensure that the medication is not causing any liver damage or abnormalities.

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  • 9. 

    Calcium Channel Blockers are useful in treating mild to moderate hypertension because they:

    • Dilate systemic arteries

    • Thin blood

    • Have a diuretic effect

    • Increase heart rate

    Correct Answer
    A. Dilate systemic arteries
    Explanation
    Calcium channel blockers are a class of medications that work by blocking calcium channels in the smooth muscle cells of blood vessels. By blocking these channels, calcium channel blockers prevent calcium from entering the cells, leading to relaxation and dilation of the systemic arteries. This dilation reduces peripheral vascular resistance, which in turn lowers blood pressure. Therefore, calcium channel blockers are useful in treating mild to moderate hypertension by dilating systemic arteries and reducing blood pressure.

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  • 10. 

    The usual recommended dosing frequency for azithromycin dihydrate is:

    • Daily

    • Four times a day

    • Twice a day

    • Three times a day

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "daily" because azithromycin dihydrate is typically prescribed to be taken once a day. This dosing frequency ensures that the medication remains effective in the body throughout the day and simplifies the dosing schedule for the patient. Taking it more or less frequently may not provide the desired therapeutic effect.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following medications may cause urine discoloration?

    • Atorvastatin

    • Esomeprazole

    • Amlodapine

    • Phenazopyradine

    Correct Answer
    A. Phenazopyradine
    Explanation
    Phenazopyradine is a medication commonly used to relieve urinary tract pain and discomfort. One of its side effects is urine discoloration, which can range from orange to reddish-brown. This occurs because phenazopyradine is excreted in the urine and can temporarily stain it. Atorvastatin, esomeprazole, and amlodipine are not known to cause urine discoloration.

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  • 12. 

    A patient who currently takes Avandia presents a prescription to obtain a monitor in order to verify the daily control of his health condition. Which type of monitor should be given?

    • Blood Pressure

    • Blood Glucose

    • Blood Cholesterol

    • Blood Coagulation

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood Glucose
    Explanation
    A patient who currently takes Avandia, a medication commonly used to treat diabetes, would need a monitor to verify the daily control of their health condition. Avandia is specifically used to help control blood glucose levels in patients with diabetes. Therefore, the type of monitor that should be given to the patient is a Blood Glucose monitor. This would allow the patient to regularly check their blood sugar levels and ensure that they are within the target range.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following is the active ingredient in antacids that causes diarrhea?

    • Aluminum hydroxide

    • Magnesium hydroxide

    • Simethacone

    • Calcium carbonate

    Correct Answer
    A. Magnesium hydroxide
    Explanation
    Magnesium hydroxide is the active ingredient in antacids that causes diarrhea. This is because magnesium hydroxide has a laxative effect and can increase the frequency and fluidity of bowel movements.

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  • 14. 

    Opiate overdose often causes:

    • Diarrhea

    • Hyperactivity

    • Increased heart rate

    • Respiratory depression

    Correct Answer
    A. Respiratory depression
    Explanation
    Opiate overdose often causes respiratory depression, which means that the individual's breathing becomes slow and shallow. This is because opiates, such as heroin or prescription painkillers, can suppress the central nervous system, including the part that controls breathing. As a result, the person may have difficulty getting enough oxygen, leading to symptoms such as drowsiness, confusion, and even unconsciousness. In severe cases, respiratory depression can be life-threatening and require immediate medical attention.

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  • 15. 

    A controlled-substance drug that belongs to the class known as benzodiazepines is:

    • Midazolam

    • Fentanyl

    • Phenobarbital

    • Methadone

    Correct Answer
    A. Midazolam
    Explanation
    Midazolam is a controlled-substance drug that belongs to the class known as benzodiazepines. Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs that act as central nervous system depressants and are commonly used for their sedative, hypnotic, anxiolytic, anticonvulsant, and muscle relaxant properties. Midazolam specifically is often used for anesthesia, sedation, and the treatment of seizures.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following is a macrolide antibiotic?

    • Levofloxacin

    • Clarithromycin

    • Metronidazole

    • Vancomycin

    Correct Answer
    A. Clarithromycin
    Explanation
    Clarithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic. Macrolide antibiotics are a class of antibiotics that inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 50S subunit of the bacterial ribosome. Clarithromycin is commonly used to treat respiratory tract infections, skin and soft tissue infections, and certain sexually transmitted infections. Levofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic, metronidazole is an antiprotozoal and antibacterial drug, and vancomycin is a glycopeptide antibiotic.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following drugs may be given IM?

    • Zyprexa Zydis

    • Abilify

    • Risperdal Consta

    • Geodon

    Correct Answer
    A. Risperdal Consta
    Explanation
    Risperdal Consta may be given intramuscularly (IM). IM administration involves injecting the drug into the muscle, allowing for slow and sustained release of the medication into the bloodstream. Zyprexa Zydis, Abilify, and Geodon are not typically administered IM.

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  • 18. 

    What information must the pharmacy maintain for a patient who is taking Clozapine?

    • White blood cell count

    • Hematocrit

    • Blood pressure

    • Hemoglobin

    Correct Answer
    A. White blood cell count
    Explanation
    The pharmacy must maintain information on the patient's white blood cell count because Clozapine, an antipsychotic medication, can cause a serious condition called agranulocytosis, which is a significant decrease in white blood cell count. Monitoring the white blood cell count is crucial to ensure the patient's safety and to detect any potential complications.

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  • 19. 

    A pharmacy technician is asked to retreive the pertinient lab values of a patient who is starting on IV Gentamycin. Which of the following values would be most useful to the pharmacist?

    • INR

    • Blood Glucose

    • Serum Creatinine

    • AST

    Correct Answer
    A. Serum Creatinine
    Explanation
    The most useful value for the pharmacist to retrieve would be the serum creatinine level. This is because Gentamycin is primarily excreted by the kidneys, and high levels of serum creatinine indicate impaired kidney function. Monitoring the patient's serum creatinine levels can help determine the appropriate dosage of Gentamycin to avoid potential toxicity. INR, blood glucose, and AST levels are not directly related to Gentamycin therapy and would not provide as much relevant information in this case.

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  • 20. 

    Which product is available in a nasal spray?

    • Salmeterol

    • Ipratropium

    • Hydrocortisone

    • Pseudoephedrine

    Correct Answer
    A. Ipratropium
    Explanation
    Ipratropium is available in a nasal spray.

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  • 21. 

    Effective contraceptive protection must be used by patients who are prescribed:

    • Flunisolone

    • Isotretinion

    • Mometasone

    • Penciclovir

    Correct Answer
    A. Isotretinion
    Explanation
    Isotretinoin is a medication used to treat severe acne. It is known to cause severe birth defects if taken during pregnancy. Therefore, effective contraceptive protection must be used by patients who are prescribed isotretinoin to prevent pregnancy while taking the medication.

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  • 22. 

    Sodium Polystyrene sulfonate is used to treat:

    • Hypertension

    • Hyperkalemia

    • Hyperthyroidism

    • Hypoglycemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyperkalemia
    Explanation
    Sodium Polystyrene sulfonate is used to treat hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. Sodium Polystyrene sulfonate works by binding to potassium in the intestines, preventing its absorption and promoting its elimination through the stool. This helps to lower the levels of potassium in the blood and restore the normal balance.

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  • 23. 

    Which oral inhaler contains a steroid?

    • Intal

    • Serevent

    • Combivent

    • Flovent

    Correct Answer
    A. Flovent
    Explanation
    Flovent is the correct answer because it is an oral inhaler that contains a steroid. Steroids are commonly used in inhalers to reduce inflammation and swelling in the airways, making it easier to breathe. Intal, Serevent, and Combivent are not oral inhalers that contain steroids.

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  • 24. 

    The laboratory used in monitoring the effect of warfarin is:

    • Complete Blood Count (CBC)

    • Red Blood Cell Count (RBC)

    • Hemoglobin

    • International Normalized Ratio (INR)

    Correct Answer
    A. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
    Explanation
    The laboratory test used to monitor the effect of warfarin is the International Normalized Ratio (INR). Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication used to prevent blood clots. INR measures the time it takes for blood to clot and compares it to a normal range. This test is important because warfarin can increase the risk of bleeding, so maintaining the INR within a target range is crucial to ensure the medication is effective and safe.

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  • 25. 

    Which bronchodilator should be used with caution in a patient who has an allergy to peanuts?

    • Combivent

    • Serevent

    • Xopenex

    • Proventil HFA

    Correct Answer
    A. Combivent
    Explanation
    Combivent should be used with caution in a patient who has an allergy to peanuts because it contains ipratropium bromide, which is derived from soybeans, and may cross-react with peanut allergens. This can potentially trigger an allergic reaction in patients with peanut allergies. Therefore, it is important to exercise caution and consider alternative bronchodilators in such patients.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 09, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Vtracy1110
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