PTCB Certification Exam Practice Quiz!

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PTCB Certification Exam Practice Quiz! - Quiz

A pharmacy Technician dispenses prescription drugs and other healthcare items to patients as directed by a licensed pharmacist and is tasked with supplying medicines to patients. If you are planning on becoming one, then you must pass the PTCB practice certification exam. Give it a shot as it is designed to help you pass the exam and get to know just how ready you are.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    WHAT IS THE BRAND NAME FOR FUROSEMIDE? 

    • A.

      LASIX

    • B.

      DIURIL

    • C.

      VASOTEC

    Correct Answer
    A. LASIX
    Explanation
    Lasix is the brand name for furosemide. Furosemide is a diuretic medication that is used to treat fluid retention and high blood pressure. It works by increasing the amount of urine produced by the kidneys, thereby helping to remove excess fluid from the body. Lasix is commonly prescribed to treat conditions such as edema, congestive heart failure, and kidney disorders. It is important to note that Lasix should only be taken under the supervision of a healthcare professional, as it can have potential side effects and interactions with other medications.

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  • 2. 

    WHAT IS THE PROCESS CALLED WHEN GRINDING TABLETS INTO A FINE POWDER IN A PORCELAIN MORTAR CALLED? 

    • A.

      LEVIGATION

    • B.

      TRITURATION

    • C.

      DESICCATION

    Correct Answer
    B. TRITURATION
    Explanation
    Trituration is the process of grinding tablets into a fine powder using a porcelain mortar. This method is commonly used in pharmacy to ensure uniformity and consistency of the powdered medication. The grinding action helps to break down the tablets and reduce them to a fine particle size, making it easier to mix with other ingredients or to administer the medication. Levigation, on the other hand, involves the process of grinding a solid into a fine powder using a liquid, while desiccation refers to the process of removing moisture from a substance.

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  • 3. 

    WHICH BASIC PARTS OF A SYRINGE YOU DO NOT TOUCH? 

    • A.

      SHAFT

    • B.

      HUB

    • C.

      TIP AND PLUNGER

    Correct Answer
    C. TIP AND PLUNGER
    Explanation
    The tip and plunger of a syringe should not be touched because they come into direct contact with the patient's body or medication. Touching these parts can introduce contaminants or bacteria, compromising the safety and effectiveness of the syringe. It is important to maintain a sterile environment when handling syringes to prevent infections or other complications.

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  • 4. 

    A PATIENT COMPLAINS ABOUT HIS OTC MEDICATION BEING TOO STRONG FOR HIM, HE ASKS YOU IF YOU CAN RECOMMEND A DIFFERENT MEDICATION MORE SUITABLE FOR HIM, WHAT SHOULD YOU DO? 

    • A.

      ASK THE PHARMACIST

    • B.

      RECOMMEND A MEDICATION

    • C.

      CALL HIS DOCTOR RIGHT AWAY

    Correct Answer
    A. ASK THE PHARMACIST
    Explanation
    In this situation, asking the pharmacist is the most appropriate action to take. The pharmacist is a healthcare professional who is knowledgeable about medications and can provide guidance on suitable alternatives. They can review the patient's medical history, current medications, and any specific concerns or allergies to recommend a medication that is better suited to the patient's needs. Additionally, the pharmacist can provide information on dosage adjustments or potential side effects to ensure the patient's safety and well-being.

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  • 5. 

    DURING THE DAY WHEN CAN pHARMACY TECHNICIANS ACCEPT NEW PRESCRIPTIONS OVER THE pHONE? 

    • A.

      ONCE A DAY

    • B.

      NEVER

    • C.

      WHEN THE PHARMACIST ALLOWS IT

    Correct Answer
    B. NEVER
    Explanation
    Pharmacy technicians are not allowed to accept new prescriptions over the phone at any time during the day. This is because accepting new prescriptions requires a certain level of expertise and knowledge that only pharmacists possess. Additionally, pharmacists need to review and verify prescriptions before dispensing them to patients, ensuring their safety and accuracy. Therefore, pharmacy technicians should never accept new prescriptions over the phone.

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  • 6. 

    HOW MANY MG OF MAGNESIA SULFATE ARE IN 3 MLS OF A 50% SOLUTION? 

    • A.

      1305 MG

    • B.

      1.5 G

    • C.

      1500 MG

    Correct Answer
    C. 1500 MG
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1500 MG because a 50% solution means that 50% of the solution is the solute, which in this case is magnesium sulfate. Since the question asks for the amount of magnesium sulfate in 3 mL of the solution, we can calculate it by multiplying 3 mL by 50% (0.5) to get 1.5 mL. Then, we convert mL to mg by multiplying 1.5 mL by the density of magnesium sulfate, which is approximately 1000 mg/mL. Therefore, 1.5 mL is equal to 1500 mg of magnesium sulfate.

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  • 7. 

    WHEN CAN YOU TOUCH THE OUTSIDE OF THE GOWN DURING THE ASEPTIC PROCEDURE? 

    • A.

      AFTER WASHING HANDS

    • B.

      EMERGENCIES

    • C.

      NEVER

    Correct Answer
    C. NEVER
    Explanation
    During an aseptic procedure, the outside of the gown should never be touched. This is because the outside of the gown is considered contaminated and touching it can introduce pathogens or other contaminants into the sterile field. To maintain the sterility of the procedure, healthcare workers should avoid touching the outside of the gown at all times.

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  • 8. 

    What is the primary role of a pharmacy technician in a retail pharmacy setting?

    • A.

      Diagnosing medical conditions 

    • B.

      Compounding medications from scratch 

    • C.

      Dispensing prescription medications accurately 

    • D.

      Performing surgical procedures

    Correct Answer
    C. Dispensing prescription medications accurately 
    Explanation
    Dispensing prescription medications accurately: This is the correct answer. A primary responsibility of a pharmacy technician in a retail pharmacy setting is to accurately dispense prescription medications to patients based on prescriptions provided by healthcare providers.
    D) Performing surgical procedures: Pharmacy technicians are not trained to perform surgical procedures. Surgical procedures are typically performed by surgeons and other trained medical professionals.
    So, option C, "Dispensing prescription medications accurately," is the correct answer because it represents the primary role of a pharmacy technician in a retail pharmacy setting.

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  • 9. 

    DEXTROSE 19% IN 400 ML ____GM? 

    • A.

      55 GM

    • B.

      76 GM

    • C.

      70 GM

    Correct Answer
    B. 76 GM
    Explanation
    The answer is 76 GM because the question is asking for the amount of grams of dextrose in a 400 ml solution that contains 19% dextrose. To find the answer, we can multiply the volume of the solution (400 ml) by the percentage of dextrose (19%) and convert it to grams. Therefore, 400 ml x 19% = 76 GM of dextrose.

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  • 10. 

    CONVERT 0.25 TO A PERCENT. 

    • A.

      25%

    • B.

      0.25%

    • C.

      2.5%

    Correct Answer
    A. 25%
    Explanation
    To convert a decimal to a percent, you move the decimal point two places to the right. In this case, 0.25 becomes 25%.

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  • 11. 

    HOW MANY GRAMS OF DEXTROSE ARE IN 50 ML OF A 5% W/V SOLUTION? 

    • A.

      25 G

    • B.

      0.25 G

    • C.

      2.5 G

    Correct Answer
    C. 2.5 G
    Explanation
    A 5% w/v solution means that there are 5 grams of solute (dextrose) dissolved in 100 mL of solution. To find the amount of dextrose in 50 mL of solution, we can set up a proportion: 5 grams/100 mL = x grams/50 mL. Solving for x gives us x = (5 grams/100 mL) * 50 mL = 2.5 grams. Therefore, there are 2.5 grams of dextrose in 50 mL of a 5% w/v solution.

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  • 12. 

    WHAT TYPE OF ANTIBIOTIC CLASSIFICATION DOES THE DRUG ZITHROMAX FALL ON? 

    • A.

      MACROLIDES

    • B.

      PENICILLINS

    • C.

      TETRACYCLINES

    Correct Answer
    A. MACROLIDES
    Explanation
    Zithromax falls under the antibiotic classification of macrolides. Macrolides are a type of antibiotic that inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 50S subunit of the ribosome. Zithromax, also known as azithromycin, is commonly used to treat a variety of bacterial infections such as respiratory tract infections, skin infections, and sexually transmitted diseases. It is effective against a wide range of bacteria and is often preferred due to its convenient dosing regimen.

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  • 13. 

    WHAT IS THE PROPER TECHNIQUE TO RECAP NEEDLES? 

    • A.

      GRAB CAP AND COVER NEEDLE

    • B.

      HOLD NEEDLE AND SCOOP WITH ONE HAND

    • C.

      THROW THE CAP AWAY

    Correct Answer
    B. HOLD NEEDLE AND SCOOP WITH ONE HAND
    Explanation
    The proper technique to recap needles is to hold the needle and scoop with one hand. This means that instead of using both hands, only one hand should be used to hold the needle while the other hand is used to scoop the cap onto the needle. This technique ensures that there is less risk of accidental needlestick injuries as the hand holding the needle remains steady and in control throughout the process.

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  • 14. 

    WHAT TYPE OF MEDICATIONS SHOULD BE TAKEN ON A EMPTY STOMACH? 

    • A.

      DIURETICS

    • B.

      ACE INHIBITORS

    • C.

      PENICILLINS

    Correct Answer
    C. PENICILLINS
    Explanation
    Penicillins should be taken on an empty stomach because food can interfere with their absorption. Taking them on an empty stomach ensures that they are absorbed properly and can work effectively.

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  • 15. 

    WHICH pHARMOKINETIC PROCESS IS CALLED WHEN DRUG MOLECULES ARE REMOVED FROM THEIR SITES OF ACTION IN THE BODY? 

    • A.

      EXCRETION

    • B.

      DISTRIBUTION

    • C.

      METABOLISM

    Correct Answer
    A. EXCRETION
    Explanation
    Excretion is the correct answer because it refers to the process by which drug molecules are eliminated from the body. This includes the removal of drugs from their sites of action in the body, such as tissues or organs, through various routes such as urine, feces, sweat, or breath. Excretion plays a crucial role in maintaining drug levels within therapeutic ranges and preventing drug accumulation or toxicity.

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  • 16. 

    WHICH IS AN EXAMPLE OF A LACTATE RINGER? 

    • A.

      D5W

    • B.

      POTASSIUM

    • C.

      NS

    Correct Answer
    B. POTASSIUM
  • 17. 

    WHEN AN INVESTIGATIONAL DRUG EXPIRES WHAT SHOULD ONE DO? 

    • A.

      RECORD QUANTITY AND LOT # AND RETURN TO THE MANUFACTURE

    • B.

      DISPOSE IT

    • C.

      RETURN TO MANUFACTURE IMMEDIATELY

    Correct Answer
    A. RECORD QUANTITY AND LOT # AND RETURN TO THE MANUFACTURE
    Explanation
    When an investigational drug expires, it is important to record the quantity and lot number of the drug and then return it to the manufacturer. This is necessary to ensure proper documentation and tracking of the expired drug. Returning it to the manufacturer allows them to handle the disposal or proper handling of the expired drug according to their protocols.

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  • 18. 

    WHICH PREGNANCY CATEGORY HAS CLEAR EVIDENCE THAT CAUSES ABNORMALITIES IN FETUS? 

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      D

    • C.

      X

    Correct Answer
    C. X
  • 19. 

    WARFARIN AND WHAT OTHER MEDICATION HAS A MAJOR DRUG INTERACTION? 

    • A.

      INSULIN

    • B.

      AMBIEN

    • C.

      ASPIRIN

    Correct Answer
    C. ASPIRIN
    Explanation
    Aspirin has a major drug interaction with warfarin. Warfarin is a blood thinner medication used to prevent blood clots, while aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) commonly used for pain relief and reducing inflammation. When taken together, aspirin can increase the risk of bleeding, as both medications can affect the blood's ability to clot. It is important to monitor for signs of bleeding and adjust the dosage of these medications accordingly to minimize the risk of complications.

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  • 20. 

    WHICH LAMINAR FLOW HOOD IS USED FOR CHEMOTHERAPEUTIC AGENTS? 

    • A.

      VERTICAL FLOW HOOD

    • B.

      HORIZANTAL FLOW HOOD

    • C.

      UPWARD FLOW HOOD

    Correct Answer
    A. VERTICAL FLOW HOOD
    Explanation
    A vertical flow hood is used for chemotherapeutic agents because it provides a laminar flow of air that moves vertically from the top of the hood to the bottom. This vertical airflow helps to prevent cross-contamination and ensures that any particles or contaminants are directed away from the operator and into the hood's exhaust system. This type of hood is specifically designed for handling hazardous substances, such as chemotherapeutic agents, to ensure the safety of the operator and maintain the integrity of the product being handled.

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  • 21. 

    WHICH TYPE OF DRUG RECALL HAS A STRONG PROBABILITY OF CAUSING SERIOUS ADVERSE EFFECTS OR DEATH? 

    • A.

      DRUG RECALL 2

    • B.

      DRUG RECALL 3

    • C.

      DRUG RECALL 1

    Correct Answer
    C. DRUG RECALL 1
    Explanation
    Drug recall 1 has a strong probability of causing serious adverse effects or death.

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  • 22. 

        WHO MAKES GUIDELINES FOR HEALTH ISSUES TO INSPECT THE WORKING AREA?

    • A.

      PHARMACY

    • B.

      OSHA

    • C.

      JCHAO

    Correct Answer
    B. OSHA
    Explanation
    OSHA, which stands for the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, is responsible for making guidelines for health issues to inspect the working area. OSHA is a government agency that ensures safe and healthy working conditions for employees by setting and enforcing standards and regulations. They provide guidelines and recommendations for various industries, including healthcare, to ensure the safety and well-being of workers. Therefore, OSHA is the correct answer for this question.

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  • 23. 

    WHICH DEA FORM MUST BE FILLED OUT TO ORDER NARCOTICS? 

    • A.

      DEA FORM 222

    • B.

      DEA FORM 224

    • C.

      DEA FORM 331

    Correct Answer
    A. DEA FORM 222
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DEA Form 222. This form must be filled out to order narcotics.

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  • 24. 

    THEY INSPECT THE HOSPITAL EVERY 3 YEARS, 2X A YEAR THAT WILL LAST A 2 DAY PERIOD:

    • A.

      NAAP

    • B.

      JCHAO

    • C.

      PTCB

    Correct Answer
    B. JCHAO
    Explanation
    JCHAO stands for Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations. They are responsible for inspecting hospitals every 3 years, 2 times a year, for a 2-day period. This accreditation process ensures that hospitals meet certain quality and safety standards.

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  • 25. 

    MEDICATION ABILIFY EXPIRATION DATE READS 06/12. WHICH IS THE ACTUAL EXPIRATION DATE? 

    • A.

      JUNE 1, 2012

    • B.

      JUNE 15, 2012

    • C.

      JUNE 30, 2012

    Correct Answer
    C. JUNE 30, 2012
    Explanation
    The actual expiration date of the medication Abilify is June 30, 2012.

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  • 26. 

    WHAT DOES THE FIRST SEGMENT OF THE NDC NUMBER REPRESENT? 

    • A.

      THE MANUFACTURE

    • B.

      PACKAGE SIZE

    • C.

      THE DRUG

    Correct Answer
    A. THE MANUFACTURE
    Explanation
    The first segment of the NDC number represents the manufacturer. This means that it identifies the company or entity that produced the drug. The NDC number is a unique identifier for each drug product and consists of three segments: the first segment represents the manufacturer, the second segment represents the package size, and the third segment represents the drug itself. Therefore, the correct answer is "THE MANUFACTURER."

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  • 27. 

    WHICH TYPE OF INVENTORY REQUIRES AN EXACT COUNT OF ALL SCHEDULE 2 NARCOTICS AND A ESTIMATED COUNT FOR SCHEDULE 3-5 NARCOTICS? 

    • A.

      POS

    • B.

      INITIAL INVENTORY

    • C.

      BIENNIAL INVENTORY

    Correct Answer
    C. BIENNIAL INVENTORY
    Explanation
    A biennial inventory requires an exact count of all Schedule 2 narcotics and an estimated count for Schedule 3-5 narcotics. This means that for Schedule 2 narcotics, every individual item must be physically counted and recorded, while for Schedule 3-5 narcotics, an estimation of the quantity is acceptable. This type of inventory is typically conducted every two years to ensure accountability and compliance with regulations regarding the handling and storage of controlled substances.

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  • 28. 

    WHICH LAW REQUIRED MEDICATIONS TO HAVE A CHILD RESISTANT CAP? 

    • A.

      THE POISON PREVENTION ACT OF 1970

    • B.

      DRUG LISTING ACT

    • C.

      1983 ORPHAN DRUG ACT

    Correct Answer
    A. THE POISON PREVENTION ACT OF 1970
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Poison Prevention Act of 1970. This law required medications to have child-resistant caps in order to prevent accidental ingestion by children, as well as to reduce the risk of poisoning. This act was enacted to protect the health and safety of children and to prevent unintentional harm caused by easily accessible medications.

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  • 29. 

    HOW MANY REFILLS CAN SCHEDULE 2 NARCOTICS HAVE? 

    • A.

      NO REFILLS

    • B.

      1 REFILL

    • C.

      5 REFILLS

    Correct Answer
    A. NO REFILLS
    Explanation
    Schedule 2 narcotics do not have any refills allowed. This is because Schedule 2 narcotics are considered to have a high potential for abuse and dependence. Therefore, they are tightly regulated and require a new prescription each time they are needed, without any refills.

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  • 30. 

    WHAT DOES TPN STAND FOR? 

    • A.

      TOTAL PARENTERAL NUTRITION

    • B.

      TOTAL PARENTERAL NET

    • C.

      TOTAL PARENTERAL NUMBER

    Correct Answer
    A. TOTAL PARENTERAL NUTRITION
    Explanation
    TPN stands for Total Parenteral Nutrition. Parenteral refers to a method of administering nutrients directly into the bloodstream, bypassing the digestive system. Total Parenteral Nutrition is a method of providing all the necessary nutrients, such as carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, and minerals, to patients who are unable to consume food orally or through the gastrointestinal tract. This is typically done through an intravenous line.

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  • 31. 

    IS THIS DEA NUMBER VALID OR NOT VALID? AB1596352 

    • A.

      SOMEWHAT VALID

    • B.

      VALID

    • C.

      NOT VALID

    Correct Answer
    C. NOT VALID
    Explanation
    The given DEA number "AB1596352" is not valid. DEA numbers are unique identifiers assigned to healthcare providers who are authorized to prescribe controlled substances. These numbers follow a specific format and include a two-letter code followed by seven digits. In this case, the two-letter code "AB" does not match any valid code, indicating that the number is not valid.

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  • 32. 

    WHICH ANTIDOTE IS FOR HEPARIN? 

    • A.

      PROTAMINE SULFATE

    • B.

      ETHANOL

    • C.

      ATROPINE

    Correct Answer
    A. PROTAMINE SULFATE
    Explanation
    Heparin is an anticoagulant medication used to prevent blood clots. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin. It works by binding to heparin and neutralizing its anticoagulant effects. Ethanol is not an antidote for heparin, and atropine is not used to reverse the effects of heparin. Therefore, the correct answer is protamine sulfate.

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  • 33. 

    HOW MANY INCHES SHOULD A pHARMACY TECHNICIAN WORK AWAY FROM THE LAMINAR FLOW HOOD? 

    • A.

      6 INCHES

    • B.

      2 INCHES

    • C.

      10 INCHES

    Correct Answer
    A. 6 INCHES
    Explanation
    A pharmacy technician should work 6 inches away from the laminar flow hood to maintain proper airflow and prevent contamination. This distance allows the technician to work comfortably while minimizing the risk of introducing particles or contaminants into the sterile environment of the hood. Working too close or too far away from the hood can compromise the integrity of the sterile environment and potentially affect the quality of medications being prepared.

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  • 34. 

    WHICH TWO ORGANS ARE MOST DRUGS ELIMINATED? 

    • A.

      BLADDER AND KIDNEY

    • B.

      INTESTINE AND LIVER

    • C.

      LIVER AND KIDNEY

    Correct Answer
    C. LIVER AND KIDNEY
    Explanation
    The liver and kidney are the two organs that are most involved in the elimination of drugs from the body. The liver plays a major role in metabolizing drugs, breaking them down into smaller compounds that can be easily eliminated. The kidney, on the other hand, filters the blood and excretes the waste products, including drugs and their metabolites, through urine. Together, these two organs work to remove drugs from the body and maintain homeostasis.

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  • 35. 

    THERE IS A 20% DISCOUNT ON TYLENOL. IF A BOTTLE OF TYLENOL COST $15.99, WHAT WILL THE PATIENT PAY WITH THE DISCOUNT? 

    • A.

      12.79

    • B.

      10.50

    • C.

      12.65

    Correct Answer
    A. 12.79
    Explanation
    The patient will pay $12.79 with the 20% discount.

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  • 36. 

    HOW MANY GRAMS OF NaCl ARE IN 100 ML OF NS SOLUTION? 

    • A.

      0.5 G

    • B.

      0.9 G

    • C.

      2 G

    Correct Answer
    B. 0.9 G
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 0.9 G because NS solution, or normal saline solution, is a solution of sodium chloride (NaCl) in water. It is typically prepared to have a concentration of 0.9 grams of NaCl per 100 milliliters of solution. Therefore, in 100 ml of NS solution, there would be 0.9 grams of NaCl.

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  • 37. 

    IF 30 TABLETS COST $43.00, THEN HOW MUCH WOULD 15 TABLETS COST? 

    • A.

      19.95

    • B.

      21.00

    • C.

      21.50

    Correct Answer
    C. 21.50
    Explanation
    If 30 tablets cost $43.00, then the cost per tablet can be calculated by dividing the total cost by the number of tablets. In this case, the cost per tablet is $43.00 / 30 = $1.43. To find the cost of 15 tablets, we multiply the cost per tablet by the number of tablets, which gives us $1.43 * 15 = $21.45. Therefore, the closest option is 21.50.

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  • 38. 

    WHAT IS THE ORANGE BOOK USED FOR? 

    • A.

      FDA APPROVED DRUGS, THERAPEUTIC AND BIOEQUIVALENCE OF DRUGS

    • B.

      CREATED FOR QUICK AND ACCURATE REFERENCE AND DRUG COMPARISON

    • C.

      GIVES VARIOUS AGENTS GIVEN PARENTERALLY

    Correct Answer
    A. FDA APPROVED DRUGS, THERAPEUTIC AND BIOEQUIVALENCE OF DRUGS
    Explanation
    The Orange Book is used for FDA approved drugs, therapeutic and bioequivalence of drugs. It is created for quick and accurate reference and drug comparison. It provides information on various agents given parenterally.

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  • 39. 

    WHICH PRICE DO WE CHARGE THE PATIENT IF THE AWP FOR 1000 TABLETS IS $48.50 AND WE WANT TO GIVE 30 TABLETS PLUS A 6% MARKUP WITH A $4 FEE. 

    • A.

      5.55

    • B.

      5.26

    • C.

      4.32

    Correct Answer
    A. 5.55
    Explanation
    The price charged to the patient is $5.55 because the cost of 30 tablets at the AWP of $48.50 for 1000 tablets is $1.455. Adding a 6% markup to this cost gives $1.54. Finally, adding the $4 fee to the total cost gives $5.55.

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  • 40. 

    HOW MUCH 1% BORIC ACID SOLUTION, AND 5% BORIC ACID SOLUTION ARE NEEDED TO MAKE 30 ML OF A 3% BORIC ACID SOLUTION? 

    • A.

      15 AND 15 G

    • B.

      15 AND 12 ML

    • C.

      15 AND 15 ML

    Correct Answer
    C. 15 AND 15 ML
    Explanation
    To make a 3% boric acid solution, equal amounts of 1% boric acid solution and 5% boric acid solution are needed. Since the total volume needed is 30 ml, 15 ml of each solution will be required to achieve the desired concentration.

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  • 41. 

    A PATIENT IS TO RECEIVE 1 TAB PO TID. THE QUANTITY IS 30 TABLETS. WHAT WILL BE THE DAY SUPPLY? 

    • A.

      30 DAYS

    • B.

      7 DAYS

    • C.

      10 DAYS

    Correct Answer
    C. 10 DAYS
    Explanation
    The patient is prescribed to take 1 tablet by mouth three times a day. The quantity of tablets given is 30. To calculate the day supply, we divide the total quantity by the number of tablets taken per day. In this case, 30 divided by 3 (1 tablet three times a day) equals 10. Therefore, the day supply will be 10 days.

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  • 42. 

    If a child weighs 14 pounds and the adult dose is 100 mg, what would be the corresponding adult dose for the child's weight?  

    • A.

      9.3 MG

    • B.

      10.3 MG

    • C.

      2.3 MG

    Correct Answer
    A. 9.3 MG
    Explanation
    The final adult dose would be 9.3 MG because the child weighs 14 pounds and is given an adult dose of 100MG. To find the final adult dose, we can use the ratio of the child's weight to the adult dose. The child's weight is 14 pounds, and the adult dose is 100MG. Setting up a proportion, we have 14 pounds / 100MG = X pounds / 9.3 MG. Solving for X, we find that X is equal to 9.3 MG. Therefore, the final adult dose would be 9.3 MG.

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  • 43. 

    CONVERT 7.8 CELSIUS TO FAHRENHEIT: 

    • A.

      43.06 F

    • B.

      46.04 F

    • C.

      43.01 F

    Correct Answer
    B. 46.04 F
    Explanation
    To convert Celsius to Fahrenheit, you can use the formula: F = (C * 9/5) + 32. In this case, if we substitute C = 7.8 into the formula, we get F = (7.8 * 9/5) + 32 = 14.04 + 32 = 46.04. Therefore, the correct answer is 46.04 F.

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  • 44. 

    HOW MANY MILLITERS IS IN 1 LITER? 

    • A.

      100ML

    • B.

      946

    • C.

      1000 ML

    Correct Answer
    C. 1000 ML
    Explanation
    There are 1000 milliliters in 1 liter.

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  • 45. 

    WHICH IS THE MOST ACCURATE SCALE TO WEIGH DRUGS? 

    • A.

      CLASS A BALANCE SCALE

    • B.

      CLASS B BALANCE SCALE

    • C.

      CLASS C BALANCE SCALE

    Correct Answer
    A. CLASS A BALANCE SCALE
    Explanation
    A Class A balance scale is the most accurate scale to weigh drugs because it has the highest level of precision and accuracy. These scales are specifically designed and calibrated to meet the highest standards of accuracy, ensuring that the measurements are as precise as possible. Class B and Class C balance scales may have lower levels of precision and accuracy, making them less suitable for weighing drugs where precision is crucial.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 27, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Mary Kagchelland

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