Principles And Concepts Quiz

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  • 1/88 Questions

    What is operant conditioning?

    • Pairing stimuli 
    • Any behaviour whose future frequency is determined by consequences
    • Witholding reinforcement for a behaviour 
    • None of the above
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About This Quiz

Explore key behavioral concepts in the 'Principles and Concepts Quiz'. This quiz covers operant conditioning, the role of operants, phylogeny, ontogeny, and the mechanisms of positive reinforcement, enhancing understanding of behavior modification and development.

Principles And Concepts Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What is an Operant?

    • A behaviour that operates on the environment through obtaining consequences

    • A stimulus that has been paired with a conditioned stimulus 

    • An unconditioned stimulus that is paired with a neutral stimulus 

    • A behaviour determined by an antecedent event 

    Correct Answer
    A. A behaviour that operates on the environment through obtaining consequences
    Explanation
    An operant is a behavior that operates on the environment through obtaining consequences. This means that the behavior is influenced by the outcomes or consequences it produces. If a behavior leads to a positive consequence, it is more likely to be repeated in the future, while if it leads to a negative consequence, it is less likely to be repeated. In other words, operant behaviors are shaped by the consequences they produce in the environment.

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  • 3. 

    What is phylogeny?

    • Evolution of behaviour through natural selection

    • Selection of behaviour through consequences

    • A type of verbal behaviour 

    • Respondent conditioning 

    Correct Answer
    A. Evolution of behaviour through natural selection
    Explanation
    Phylogeny refers to the evolutionary history and relationships between different species or groups of organisms. It involves the study of how traits and behaviors have evolved over time through natural selection. This process leads to the development of specific behaviors that are advantageous for survival and reproduction in a particular environment. Therefore, the correct answer is "Evolution of behavior through natural selection."

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  • 4. 

    What is ontongeny? 

    • The evolutionary history of a species 

    • The development of an organism during its lifetime 

    • Another term for operant conditioning 

    • A form of extinction 

    Correct Answer
    A. The development of an organism during its lifetime 
    Explanation
    Ontogeny refers to the development of an organism during its lifetime. It encompasses the various stages of growth and maturation that an organism goes through, from conception to death. This includes processes such as cell division, differentiation, and morphogenesis. Ontogeny is distinct from phylogeny, which is the evolutionary history of a species.

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  • 5. 

    What is the law of threshold?

    • Very weak intensities of a stimulus elicit a response, but as intensity increases there is a point at which the response is elicited 

    • As the intensity of a US increases, so does the magnitude of the elicited UR

    • As the intensity of the US increases, the latency of the appearance of the elicited UR decreases

    • None of the above 

    Correct Answer
    A. Very weak intensities of a stimulus elicit a response, but as intensity increases there is a point at which the response is elicited 
    Explanation
    The law of threshold states that very weak intensities of a stimulus can still elicit a response. However, as the intensity of the stimulus increases, there is a point at which the response is elicited. This means that there is a minimum level of intensity required for a stimulus to produce a response.

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  • 6. 

    What is the process of respondent conditioning?

    • An NS is repeatedly paired with a US 

    • The new stimulus comes to produce the response when presented on its own

    • The new stimulus then becomes a CS

    • All of the above 

    • None of the above 

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above 
    Explanation
    The process of respondent conditioning involves repeatedly pairing a neutral stimulus (NS) with an unconditioned stimulus (US). This association leads to the NS becoming a conditioned stimulus (CS) that can produce the response on its own. Therefore, all of the given options accurately describe the process of respondent conditioning.

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  • 7. 

    What is higher order conditioning?

    • A neutral stimulus is paired with a well established CS and the effect is similar to if the stimulus had been paired with a US

    • Pairing two neutral stimuli with a well established CS

    • Pairing two neutral stimuli with a US

    • None of the above 

    Correct Answer
    A. A neutral stimulus is paired with a well established CS and the effect is similar to if the stimulus had been paired with a US
    Explanation
    Higher order conditioning refers to the process in which a neutral stimulus is paired with a well-established conditioned stimulus (CS). This results in the neutral stimulus acquiring the ability to elicit a conditioned response (CR) similar to the original CS. In other words, the effect of pairing the neutral stimulus with the CS is similar to if the neutral stimulus had been paired directly with an unconditioned stimulus (US). This type of conditioning demonstrates how previously conditioned stimuli can serve as a basis for further learning and can influence the response to new stimuli.

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  • 8. 

    What is negative reinforcement?

    • The removal of a stimulus, after behaviour, results in an increase in behaviour 

    • The removal of a stimulus, before a behaviour, results in an increase in behaviour 

    • The removal of a stimulus, whilst behaviour is occuring, results in an increase in behaviour 

    • The removal of a stimulus, after a behaviour, results in a decrease in behaviour 

    Correct Answer
    A. The removal of a stimulus, after behaviour, results in an increase in behaviour 
    Explanation
    Negative reinforcement is the removal of a stimulus after behavior, which leads to an increase in that behavior. This means that when a certain behavior is followed by the removal of an aversive or unwanted stimulus, the likelihood of that behavior occurring again in the future is increased. The removal of the stimulus serves as a reward, reinforcing the behavior and making it more likely to happen again.

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  • 9. 

    When does extinction occur?

    • When a behaviour that has been reinforced no longer results in reinforcing consequences and therefore the behaviour stops occuring 

    • When a behaviour that has been reinforced momentarily results in reinforcing consequence and therefore stops occuring in the future 

    • When a behaviour that has been reinforced continues to result in the reinforcing consequence and therefore the behaviour stops occuring in the future

    • None of the above 

    Correct Answer
    A. When a behaviour that has been reinforced no longer results in reinforcing consequences and therefore the behaviour stops occuring 
    Explanation
    Extinction occurs when a behavior that has been reinforced no longer results in reinforcing consequences and therefore the behavior stops occurring. This means that if a behavior is no longer followed by a reward or reinforcement, it will eventually fade away and stop occurring in the future.

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  • 10. 

    What is an extinction burst?

    • The increased intensity, frequency and variability of a behaviour at the beginning of extinction 

    • The decreased intensity, frequency and variability of a behaviour at the beginning of extinction 

    • The decreased intensity, frequency and variability of a behaviour at the end of extinction 

    • The increased intensity, frequency and variability of a behaviour at the end of extinction 

    Correct Answer
    A. The increased intensity, frequency and variability of a behaviour at the beginning of extinction 
    Explanation
    An extinction burst refers to the increased intensity, frequency, and variability of a behavior at the beginning of extinction. This occurs because when a previously reinforced behavior is no longer rewarded, the individual may engage in an initial burst of the behavior in an attempt to obtain the previously received reinforcement. This burst is a natural response to the removal of reinforcement and can be seen as a last-ditch effort to obtain the desired outcome.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following is a procedural variation of extinction?

    • The positive reinforcer is no longer delivered after the behaviour 

    • The aversive stimulus is no longer removed after the behaviour

    • Neither 

    • Both 

    Correct Answer
    A. Both 
    Explanation
    Both options are examples of procedural variations of extinction. In the first option, the positive reinforcer is no longer delivered after the behavior, which means that the behavior will eventually decrease or extinguish. In the second option, the aversive stimulus is no longer removed after the behavior, which also leads to a decrease or extinction of the behavior. Both options involve removing the consequence that was reinforcing the behavior, resulting in a decrease in the behavior over time.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following variables effect extinction?

    • Schedule 

    • Baseline length 

    • Delay to reinforcement 

    • Magnitude of reinforcement 

    • All of the above 

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above 
    Explanation
    All of the variables mentioned in the question - schedule, baseline length, delay to reinforcement, and magnitude of reinforcement - can affect extinction. The schedule refers to the pattern or frequency of reinforcement, and different schedules can have different effects on extinction. Baseline length refers to the duration of the behavior before extinction is introduced, and longer baselines can make extinction more difficult. Delay to reinforcement refers to the time between the behavior and the delivery of reinforcement, and longer delays can make extinction more difficult. Lastly, the magnitude of reinforcement refers to the size or intensity of the reinforcement, and larger magnitudes can make extinction more difficult.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following are schedule effects of a fixed ratio schedule?

    • Typical pattern of responding 

    • Post reinforcement pause follows reinforcement 

    • High rates of responding 

    • All of the above 

    • None of the above 

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above 
    Explanation
    A fixed ratio schedule is a type of reinforcement schedule where a behavior is reinforced after a fixed number of responses. The schedule effects of a fixed ratio schedule include a typical pattern of responding, where the behavior occurs in a consistent and predictable manner. Additionally, a post-reinforcement pause often follows reinforcement on a fixed ratio schedule, as the individual takes a short break before engaging in the behavior again. Finally, a fixed ratio schedule also tends to result in high rates of responding, as the individual quickly performs the behavior to receive the reinforcement. Therefore, all of the above options are correct.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following are effects of a fixed interval schedule?

    • Post reinforcement pauses 

    • Scallop effect caused by an accelerating response rate at the end of intervals 

    • Constant, stable rate of responding 

    • Few hesitations between responses 

    • Options 1 and 2 

    • Options 3 and 4 

    • None of the above 

    Correct Answer
    A. Options 1 and 2 
    Explanation
    A fixed interval schedule is a schedule of reinforcement where the reinforcer is delivered after a fixed amount of time has passed since the last reinforcement. The effects of a fixed interval schedule include post-reinforcement pauses, which refers to a decrease in response rate immediately after reinforcement, and the scallop effect, which is an accelerating response rate towards the end of the interval. Therefore, the correct answer is Options 1 and 2.

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  • 15. 

    What is the difference in response rate between fixed interval and variable interval schedules? 

    • Fixed interval produce slow moderate response rates whereas variable interval produce low to moderate response rates 

    • Fixed interval produce low to moderate rates whereas variable interval produce slow moderate response rates 

    • There is no difference

    • Both produce high rates of behaviour 

    Correct Answer
    A. Fixed interval produce slow moderate response rates whereas variable interval produce low to moderate response rates 
    Explanation
    Fixed interval schedules produce slow moderate response rates, meaning that the response rate increases gradually as the time for reinforcement approaches and then decreases after reinforcement is delivered. On the other hand, variable interval schedules produce low to moderate response rates, meaning that the response rate is more consistent and less affected by the timing of reinforcement. Therefore, the correct answer is "Fixed interval produce slow moderate response rates whereas variable interval produce low to moderate response rates."

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  • 16. 

    Ratio strain refers to 

    • Abrupt increases in ratio requirements when moving to a thin schedule from a dense one 

    • Increases in response ratio or interval duration 

    • Reinforcement remaining in place for a finite time following elapse of an FI or VI schedule 

    • None of the above 

    Correct Answer
    A. Abrupt increases in ratio requirements when moving to a thin schedule from a dense one 
  • 17. 

    Schedule thinning refers to 

    • Abrupt increases in ratio requirements when moving from a dense schedule to a thinner one 

    • Gradually increasing the ratio requirement or interval duration 

    • Reinforcement remaining in place for a finite period of time following the elapse of an FI or VI schedule 

    • None of the above 

    Correct Answer
    A. Gradually increasing the ratio requirement or interval duration 
    Explanation
    Schedule thinning refers to gradually increasing the ratio requirement or interval duration. This means that as the schedule progresses, the reinforcement is given after a longer period of time or after completing a higher number of responses. This is done to gradually increase the difficulty of the schedule and maintain the desired behavior without abruptly changing the requirements.

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  • 18. 

    Limited hold refers to 

    • Gradually increasing the ratio requirement of interval duration 

    • Reinforcement remaining in place for a finite period of time following the elapse of an FI or VI schedule 

    • Abrupt increases in ratio requirement when moving from a dense schedule to a thinner schedule 

    • None of the above 

    Correct Answer
    A. Reinforcement remaining in place for a finite period of time following the elapse of an FI or VI schedule 
    Explanation
    Limited hold refers to reinforcement remaining in place for a finite period of time following the elapse of an FI or VI schedule. This means that after a fixed or variable interval schedule has been completed, the reinforcement will still be available for a certain amount of time. This allows the organism to continue responding and receive reinforcement even after the initial schedule has ended.

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  • 19. 

    What schedule is in place when two or more contingencies of reinforcement operate independently and simultaneously for two or more behaviours 

    • Multiple 

    • Chain

    • Concurrent 

    • Mixed 

    Correct Answer
    A. Concurrent 
    Explanation
    Concurrent schedule is the correct answer because it refers to a situation where two or more contingencies of reinforcement are in place simultaneously for two or more behaviors. In this schedule, each behavior is reinforced independently, and the individual can choose which behavior to engage in at any given time. This type of schedule allows for the simultaneous reinforcement of multiple behaviors and is commonly used in situations where multiple behaviors need to be reinforced concurrently.

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  • 20. 

    Which schedule presents two or more schedules in an alternating, usually random sequence?

    • Mixed

    • Multiple 

    • Tandem 

    • Concurrent 

    Correct Answer
    A. Multiple 
    Explanation
    Multiple schedules present two or more schedules in an alternating, usually random sequence. This means that different schedules are interchanged or mixed together in a random order. Therefore, the correct answer is Multiple.

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  • 21. 

    Which schedule presents two or more basic schedules in a specific order and where reinforcement for the first behaviour is the presentation of the second element etc

    • Tandem 

    • Mixed 

    • Chain 

    • Alternative  

    Correct Answer
    A. Chain 
    Explanation
    A chain schedule presents two or more basic schedules in a specific order, where the reinforcement for the first behavior is the presentation of the second element. In other words, the completion of one behavior leads to the opportunity to engage in the next behavior, and reinforcement is contingent on completing the entire chain of behaviors in the correct order.

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  • 22. 

    Which schedule provides reinforcement whenever the requirement of both a ratio and interval are met? 

    • Alternative

    • Tandem 

    • Conjunctive

    • Concurrent 

    Correct Answer
    A. Conjunctive
    Explanation
    The schedule that provides reinforcement whenever the requirement of both a ratio and interval are met is the conjunctive schedule. This schedule requires both a specific number of responses (ratio) and a specific amount of time (interval) to pass before reinforcement is given. It is a more stringent schedule compared to the alternative and tandem schedules, which only require one of the two criteria to be met for reinforcement. The concurrent schedule, on the other hand, provides reinforcement for responses on two or more different schedules that are available simultaneously.

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  • 23. 

    When does stimulus control occur? 

    • When latency, duration or amplitude of a response is altered in the presence of an antecedent stimulus 

    • When latency, duration or amplitude of a response is altered in the presence of a consequence

    • When latency, duration or amplitude of a response is unaltered by the presence of an antecedent stimulus 

    • When latency, duration or amplitude of a response is unaltered by a consequence

    Correct Answer
    A. When latency, duration or amplitude of a response is altered in the presence of an antecedent stimulus 
    Explanation
    Stimulus control occurs when the latency, duration, or amplitude of a response is altered in the presence of an antecedent stimulus. This means that the behavior of an individual changes based on the presence of a specific stimulus. The individual may respond more quickly or slowly, for a longer or shorter duration, or with a higher or lower intensity depending on the stimulus that is present. This demonstrates that the stimulus has control over the individual's behavior and can influence how they respond.

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  • 24. 

    How is stimulus control acquired? 

    • Responses are reinforced in the presence of a discriminative stimulus and not in the presence of a stimulus delta 

    • Responses are reinforced in the presence of a stimulus delta and not in the presence of a discriminative stimulus 

    • Responses are reinforced in the presence of both a discriminative stimulus and a stimulus delta 

    • None of the above 

    Correct Answer
    A. Responses are reinforced in the presence of a discriminative stimulus and not in the presence of a stimulus delta 
    Explanation
    Stimulus control is acquired when responses are reinforced in the presence of a discriminative stimulus and not in the presence of a stimulus delta. This means that a specific stimulus signals the availability of reinforcement, while another stimulus indicates the absence of reinforcement. This differential reinforcement helps individuals learn to respond appropriately to specific stimuli and not to others.

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  • 25. 

    What is the process of discrimination training?

    • Presenting two antecedent stimulus conditions

    • Reinforcement provided for the behaviours that occur in the presence of an SD

    • Reinforcement withheld for behaviours that occurs in the presence of the Sdeltas

    • All of the above 

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above 
    Explanation
    The process of discrimination training involves presenting two antecedent stimulus conditions, providing reinforcement for the behaviors that occur in the presence of an SD, and withholding reinforcement for behaviors that occur in the presence of the Sdeltas.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following are discrimination training procedures?

    • Successive procedure - where the antecedent conditions alternate 

    • Simultaneous procedure - both antecedent conditions are presented at the same time 

    • Matching to sample - where two or more alternatives (including an SD and Sdelta) are selected from which match a sample 

    • All of the above

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the given options are discrimination training procedures. In the successive procedure, the antecedent conditions alternate, meaning that one condition is presented after the other. In the simultaneous procedure, both antecedent conditions are presented at the same time. Matching to sample involves selecting two or more alternatives, including an SD (discriminative stimulus) and Sdelta, that match a sample. Therefore, all of these procedures involve discrimination training.

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  • 27. 

    What is an example of an unconditioned punisher?

    • Pain

    • Physical restraint

    • Extreme muscular effort

    • Particular smells and tastes

    • All of the above 

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above 
    Explanation
    An unconditioned punisher refers to a stimulus or event that naturally elicits a negative response or discomfort without any prior conditioning. Pain, physical restraint, extreme muscular effort, and particular smells and tastes can all be considered examples of unconditioned punishers as they inherently produce aversive experiences or sensations without any need for prior learning or association.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following are side effects of punishment?

    • Emotional and aggressive behaviours

    • Escape and avoidance 

    • Undesirable modelling 

    • Negative reinforcement of the punishing agent's behaviour

    • All of the above 

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above 
    Explanation
    The side effects of punishment include emotional and aggressive behaviors, escape and avoidance, undesirable modeling, and negative reinforcement of the punishing agent's behavior. This means that when punishment is used, it can lead to the individual displaying emotional and aggressive behaviors, trying to escape or avoid the punishment, imitating undesirable behaviors, and reinforcing the punishing agent's behavior in a negative way.

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  • 29. 

    The formal properties of verbal behaviour involve

    • The causes of verbal behaviour

    • The topography of verbal behaviour 

    • Properties of verbal behaviour are not formal 

    • Unseen forces of verbal behaviour

    Correct Answer
    A. The topography of verbal behaviour 
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "The topography of verbal behaviour". The term "topography" refers to the physical characteristics or form of something. In the context of verbal behaviour, it refers to the observable aspects of verbal communication, such as the sounds, words, gestures, and facial expressions used. This answer suggests that the formal properties of verbal behaviour involve studying and analyzing the visible and measurable aspects of verbal communication. The other options mentioned, such as the causes or unseen forces of verbal behaviour, are not specifically related to the physical form or structure of verbal behaviour.

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  • 30. 

    The functional properties of verbal behaviour include

    • The topography of verbal behaviour

    • Unseen forces of verbal behaviour

    • The causes of verbal behaviour 

    • Verbal behaviour does not have functional properties 

    Correct Answer
    A. The causes of verbal behaviour 
    Explanation
    Verbal behavior is influenced by various factors that can be considered as the causes of verbal behavior. These causes can include environmental factors, social reinforcement, and individual motivations. Understanding the causes of verbal behavior is important in analyzing and modifying communication patterns and promoting effective communication.

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  • 31. 

    What is a mand?

    • A speaker differentially responding to the verbal behaviours of others

    • A speaker asking for what they want

    • A speaker repeating the verbal behaviour of another speaker

    • A speaker naming objects that they have direct contact with through their senses

    Correct Answer
    A. A speaker asking for what they want
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "A speaker asking for what they want". This answer suggests that a mand is a type of verbal behavior where a speaker expresses their desires or requests. It implies that a mand involves a speaker using language to communicate their needs or wants to others.

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  • 32. 

    What is a tact?

    • A speaker naming objects they have direct contact with through their senses

    • A speaker asking for what they want

    • A speaker differentially responding to the verbal behaviour of others

    • A speaker repeating the verbal behaviour of another speaker 

    Correct Answer
    A. A speaker naming objects they have direct contact with through their senses
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a speaker naming objects they have direct contact with through their senses. This means that a tact is a verbal behavior where a speaker labels or names objects that they can directly perceive through their senses, such as seeing, hearing, touching, tasting, or smelling.

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  • 33. 

    What is an instance of echoic verbal behaviour? 

    • A speaker differentially responding to the verbal behaviour of another speaker

    • A speaker asking for what they want

    • A speaker repeating the verbal behaviour of another speaker

    • A speaker naming objects they have direct contact with through their senses 

    Correct Answer
    A. A speaker repeating the verbal behaviour of another speaker
    Explanation
    An instance of echoic verbal behavior refers to a speaker repeating the verbal behavior of another speaker. This means that the speaker imitates or mimics the words or phrases spoken by another person. It is a form of imitation where the speaker reproduces the exact words or sounds they hear from someone else. This type of behavior is often observed in language acquisition and learning, as individuals imitate and repeat the words and phrases they hear in order to acquire and develop their own language skills.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following is an intraverbal?

    • Repeating the verbal behaviour of another speaker

    • A speaking asking for what they want 

    • A speaker naming objects they have direct contact with through their senses

    • A speaker differentially responding to the verbal behaviour of another speaker 

    Correct Answer
    A. A speaker differentially responding to the verbal behaviour of another speaker 
    Explanation
    An intraverbal is a type of verbal behavior where a speaker differentially responds to the verbal behavior of another speaker. This means that the speaker is able to understand and respond appropriately to the words or phrases spoken by another person. This type of verbal behavior requires the speaker to have an understanding of language and the ability to engage in a conversation or exchange of information with others.

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  • 35. 

    What is contingency shaped behaviour?

    • Behaviour shaped by antecedents

    • Behaviour shaped by consequences

    • Behaviour shaped by pairing stimuli

    • None of the above 

    Correct Answer
    A. Behaviour shaped by consequences
    Explanation
    Contingency shaped behavior refers to behavior that is influenced and shaped by its consequences. This means that the behavior is more likely to occur if it is followed by a positive consequence or reward, and less likely to occur if it is followed by a negative consequence or punishment. In other words, the behavior is contingent upon the consequences that follow it. This concept is a fundamental principle in behavior analysis and is used to understand and modify behavior in various settings.

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  • 36. 

    What is rule governed behaviour?

    • Behaviour shaped by consequences

    • Behaviour shaped by contingency specifying stimuli 

    • Behaviour that results from respondent conditioning

    • None of the above 

    Correct Answer
    A. Behaviour shaped by contingency specifying stimuli 
    Explanation
    Rule governed behavior refers to behavior that is shaped by contingency specifying stimuli. This means that the behavior is influenced by specific stimuli or cues that indicate the consequences or outcomes of the behavior. These stimuli act as rules or guidelines for the individual to follow in order to achieve desired outcomes or avoid negative consequences. This type of behavior is guided by the understanding and application of rules or instructions provided by the environment. It is different from behavior shaped solely by consequences or behavior resulting from respondent conditioning.

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  • 37. 

    With regards to stimulus equivalence, what is identity matching?

    • Matching stimuli which bear no physical similarity 

    • Matching stimuli which share functional similarity 

    • Matching stimuli on the basis of physical similarity 

    • None of the above 

    Correct Answer
    A. Matching stimuli on the basis of physical similarity 
    Explanation
    Identity matching refers to the process of matching stimuli based on their physical similarity. This means that the stimuli being matched have similar physical characteristics or features. This is different from matching stimuli based on functional similarity, which would involve matching stimuli based on their similar effects or functions. Therefore, the correct answer is "Matching stimuli on the basis of physical similarity."

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  • 38. 

    With regards to stimulus equivalence, what is arbitrary matching?

    • Matching verbal behaviours of speakers

    • Matching stimuli on the basis of physical similarity 

    • Matching stimuli which bear no physical similarity 

    • None of the above 

    Correct Answer
    A. Matching stimuli which bear no physical similarity 
    Explanation
    Arbitrary matching refers to the process of matching stimuli that do not have any physical similarity. In stimulus equivalence, arbitrary matching plays a crucial role as it allows individuals to form relationships between stimuli that are not physically similar but are related conceptually or symbolically. This means that individuals can recognize and respond to stimuli based on their meaning or function, rather than their physical characteristics. This ability is important for language development and understanding abstract concepts.

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  • 39. 

    When a group of stimuli evoke the same response, what are they?

    • A response class

    • A stimulus class

    • An arbitrary class

    • An antecedent class

    Correct Answer
    A. A stimulus class
    Explanation
    When a group of stimuli evoke the same response, they are referred to as a stimulus class. This means that these stimuli share similar characteristics or properties that result in the same behavioral response. The concept of a stimulus class helps in understanding how different stimuli can have similar effects on behavior and allows for generalization of learned behaviors to similar stimuli.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following is an example of identity matching?

    • Matching stimuli on the basis of physical similarity

    • Matching a stimulus to a sample

    • Matching stimuli which bear no physical similarity

    • Matching stimuli which are presented in the same format

    Correct Answer
    A. Matching stimuli on the basis of physical similarity
    Explanation
    Identity matching refers to the process of matching stimuli based on their physical similarity. This means that when two stimuli share similar physical characteristics, they are considered as a match. In this case, the correct answer is "Matching stimuli on the basis of physical similarity" because it aligns with the definition of identity matching. This type of matching does not involve comparing stimuli to a sample or considering the format in which they are presented, nor does it involve matching stimuli that have no physical similarity.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following best describes arbitrary matching?

    • Matching stimuli on the basis of physical similarity

    • Matching a stimulus to a sample stimulus

    • Matching stimuli which bear no physical similarity

    • Matching stimuli presented in the same format

    Correct Answer
    A. Matching stimuli which bear no physical similarity
    Explanation
    Arbitrary matching refers to the process of matching stimuli that do not share any physical similarity. This means that the stimuli being matched may be completely unrelated in terms of their physical attributes or characteristics. Instead, the matching is based on some other criteria or rule that is not related to physical appearance.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following best describes reflexivity?

    • Equivalence

    • Functional reversibility of trained relation

    • Generalized identity matching

    • The need for 3 stimuli

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Generalized identity matching
    Explanation
    Reflexivity refers to the ability to recognize and match identical stimuli. Generalized identity matching is the best description of reflexivity as it involves matching stimuli that are the same or have the same identity. This concept is often used in studies of stimulus equivalence and demonstrates an individual's ability to identify and respond to stimuli that have the same identity or meaning.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following best describes transivity?

    • The need for 3 stimuli

    • Functional reversibility of trained relation

    • Equivalence

    • Generalized identity matching

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. The need for 3 stimuli
    Explanation
    Transitivity refers to the ability to make logical inferences based on relationships between three stimuli. It involves understanding that if stimulus A is related to stimulus B, and stimulus B is related to stimulus C, then stimulus A must also be related to stimulus C. This concept is important in various cognitive tasks and is often used to assess reasoning abilities.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following best describes combined symmetry and transivity

    • Equivalence

    • The need for 3 stimuli

    • Generalized identity matching

    • Functional reversibility of trained relation

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Equivalence
    Explanation
    Equivalence is the best description for combined symmetry and transitivity. Equivalence refers to a relation where if A is related to B and B is related to C, then A is also related to C. Symmetry means that if A is related to B, then B is also related to A. Transitivity means that if A is related to B and B is related to C, then A is also related to C. Combining symmetry and transitivity results in an equivalence relation, where all elements are related to each other in a consistent and predictable manner.

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  • 45. 

    In this example, A = a plate of spaghetti, B = a picture of spaghetti, and C = the word spaghetti. Which of the following is an example of transivity?

    • The word spaghetti - a plate of spaghetti

    • A plate of spaghetti - a plate of spaghetti, a picture of spaghetti - a picture of spaghetti, the word spaghetti - the word spaghetti

    • A picture of spaghetti - a plate of spaghetti, the word spaghetti - a picture of spaghetti

    • A plate of spaghetti - the word spaghetti

    • Options A and D

    Correct Answer
    A. A plate of spaghetti - the word spaghetti
    Explanation
    The given answer, "A plate of spaghetti - the word spaghetti," is an example of transitivity because it shows a relationship between A and C. A plate of spaghetti is directly related to the word spaghetti, indicating a transitive relationship between the two.

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  • 46. 

    Conditional Discrimination Training is based on which of the following?

    • Matching to Sample

    • Identity Matching

    • Arbitrary Matching

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Arbitrary Matching
    Explanation
    Conditional Discrimination Training is based on Arbitrary Matching. This refers to the ability to match stimuli based on arbitrary relations, such as matching a picture of a cat with the word "cat" or matching a red circle with the word "red." In conditional discrimination training, individuals are taught to respond to specific stimuli based on these arbitrary relations, which helps develop discrimination skills and the ability to make appropriate responses based on contextual cues.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following is an example of a training sequence

    • Linear

    • Many-to-one

    • One-to-many

    • All of the above

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above" because all three options (linear, many-to-one, and one-to-many) can be examples of training sequences. A training sequence is a set of input-output pairs that is used to train a machine learning model. In a linear training sequence, the input and output are related by a linear function. In a many-to-one training sequence, multiple inputs are mapped to a single output. In a one-to-many training sequence, a single input is mapped to multiple outputs. Therefore, all three options can be considered as examples of training sequences.

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  • 48. 

    Arbitrary matching an/or training involves which of the following?

    • Two or three stimuli with similarities

    • Two or three stimuli that bear no similarity

    • Contextual control

    • All of the above

    • Options B and C

    Correct Answer
    A. Options B and C
    Explanation
    Arbitrary matching and/or training involves stimuli that bear no similarity (Option B) and contextual control (Option C). In arbitrary matching, the stimuli are not naturally related, but are arbitrarily associated. Contextual control refers to the influence of the environment or context on behavior. Both these options are correct because they are integral components of arbitrary matching and/or training.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the below best describes The Matching Law?

    • Where two or more sources of reinforcement are present, an individual will solely distribute behaviour to the most reinforcing source, based on their learning history

    • Where alternative sources of reinforcement are available, distribution of behaviour between or among those sources is equal to the reinforcing effects of alternatives, i.e. an organism will demonstrate preference and choice

    • Where alternative sources of reinforcement are available, an individual will distribute behaviour equally to all sources

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Where alternative sources of reinforcement are available, distribution of behaviour between or among those sources is equal to the reinforcing effects of alternatives, i.e. an organism will demonstrate preference and choice
    Explanation
    The Matching Law states that when alternative sources of reinforcement are available, an individual will distribute their behavior between or among those sources in a way that is equal to the reinforcing effects of each alternative. This means that the individual will demonstrate preference and choice by allocating their behavior based on the relative value or effectiveness of each option.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 03, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Jess_lambo

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