Practice Exam PTCB

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1. How many times a day would a patient take his or her medication if it is "tid"?

Explanation

The abbreviation "tid" stands for "ter in die" in Latin, which translates to "three times a day" in English. Therefore, a patient would take their medication three times a day if it is prescribed as "tid".

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About This Quiz
PTCB Practice Exam Quizzes & Trivia

This PTCB Practice Exam assesses knowledge crucial for pharmacy technicians, focusing on medication management, prescription abbreviations, and drug classifications. It prepares candidates for the PTCB certification, ensuring they... see moreunderstand operational standards and patient care protocols. see less

2. What id the meaning of the prefix "osteo-"?

Explanation

The prefix "osteo-" refers to bone. This can be seen in words like osteoporosis (a condition characterized by weak and brittle bones) and osteotomy (a surgical procedure involving the cutting of bone).

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3. How would a patient take a medication if the directions read "prn"?

Explanation

The abbreviation "prn" stands for "pro re nata" which means "as needed" in Latin. Therefore, if the directions read "prn," the patient would take the medication as needed, based on their symptoms or specific circumstances.

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4. What does the abbreviation "hs" mean on a prescription?

Explanation

The abbreviation "hs" on a prescription stands for "at bedtime." This indicates that the medication should be taken before going to sleep. It is important to follow the instructions on the prescription to ensure proper timing and dosage of the medication.

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5. Which schedule of medications has no medical use in the United States and possess an extremely high potential for abuse?

Explanation

Schedule I medications have no accepted medical use in the United States and have a high potential for abuse. They are considered to be the most dangerous drugs and are tightly regulated. These drugs are often classified as illegal substances and include drugs such as heroin, LSD, and marijuana. Due to their high potential for abuse and lack of medical use, they are not prescribed by healthcare professionals in the United States.

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6. What is the meaning of the term "non rep"?

Explanation

The term "non rep" is an abbreviation for "do not repeat." In a medical context, it is often used to indicate that a certain medication or treatment should not be repeated or administered again. This could be due to various reasons such as potential adverse effects, completion of the prescribed course, or a change in the patient's condition. It serves as a reminder for healthcare professionals to avoid repeating a specific intervention or medication.

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7. What do the first five digits of an NDC number represent?

Explanation

The first five digits of an NDC number represent the drug manufacturer. This means that these digits provide information about the company that produced the drug. The NDC number is a unique identifier for each drug product, and it is used for various purposes such as tracking and billing. By looking at the first five digits of the NDC number, one can determine which manufacturer is responsible for the production of the drug.

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8. The pharmacy technician receives a prescription fro Flexeril 10mg and the instructions read "i po tid". What is the total daily dose?

Explanation

The prescription "i po tid" is an abbreviation for "1 by mouth three times a day". Since the prescription is for Flexeril 10mg, and the patient is instructed to take it three times a day, the total daily dose would be 10mg x 3 = 30mg.

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9. How long must a laminar airflow hood be on before being used?

Explanation

A laminar airflow hood must be on for at least 30 minutes before being used. This duration allows the hood to reach and maintain a stable and consistent airflow pattern, ensuring the removal of any contaminants or particles from the working area. It also allows the hood to achieve the required sterility and cleanliness levels necessary for carrying out sensitive procedures or experiments. A shorter duration may not provide sufficient time for the hood to establish the desired airflow conditions, while a longer duration may be unnecessary and result in energy wastage.

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10. What auxiliary label should be included on a container of medication that has the following signa: " i gtt os bid"?

Explanation

The signa "i gtt os bid" indicates that the medication should be administered in the eye. Therefore, the auxiliary label that should be included on the container is "For the eye".

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11. What does the suffix "-ectomy" mean?

Explanation

The suffix "-ectomy" refers to the surgical removal of a specific body part or tissue. It is commonly used in medical terminology to indicate a surgical procedure involving the removal of a particular organ or structure. For example, an appendectomy refers to the removal of the appendix, while a mastectomy refers to the removal of the breast tissue. Therefore, the correct answer is "Removal."

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12. Which law ensures a safe environment for employees?

Explanation

OSHA, or the Occupational Safety and Health Act, ensures a safe environment for employees. This law sets standards and regulations to protect workers from hazards in the workplace, including physical, chemical, and biological hazards. OSHA requires employers to provide a safe and healthy workplace by implementing safety measures, providing training and education, and maintaining records of workplace injuries and illnesses. By enforcing these regulations, OSHA aims to prevent workplace accidents, injuries, and illnesses, and promote the overall well-being of employees.

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13. Where would a buccal tablet be placed?

Explanation

A buccal tablet is designed to be placed between the cheeks and gums, where it dissolves and releases medication directly into the bloodstream. This route of administration allows for rapid absorption and avoids first-pass metabolism in the liver. Placing the tablet orally or rectally would not achieve the desired effect, and placing it under the tongue is known as sublingual administration, which is a different route of drug delivery.

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14. Which of the following would be found on a hospital medication order but not on a retail prescription?

Explanation

A dosage schedule refers to the specific instructions regarding when and how often a medication should be taken. This information is typically included in a hospital medication order to ensure that the patient receives the correct dosage at the appropriate times. In a retail prescription, the dosage schedule is usually not provided as it is assumed that the patient will follow the standard instructions provided by the pharmacist or doctor. The other options listed (drug name, drug strength, and patient name) would typically be found on both a hospital medication order and a retail prescription.

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15. What does "NPO" mean on a prescription?

Explanation

The term "NPO" on a prescription stands for "Nothing by mouth." This means that the patient should not consume any food or drink orally. This instruction is often given before medical procedures or surgeries that require an empty stomach to prevent complications. It ensures that the patient's digestive system is clear and reduces the risk of aspiration or vomiting during the procedure.

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16. How many days would a prescription of 30 tablets last if the directions were " 1 tab tid ac"?

Explanation

If the directions on the prescription are "1 tab tid ac", it means that the patient should take 1 tablet three times a day with meals. Therefore, in a day, the patient would take a total of 3 tablets. Since there are 30 tablets in the prescription, dividing 30 by 3 gives us 10. Therefore, the prescription of 30 tablets would last for 10 days.

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17. What is the maximum number of refills allowed for a schedule III drug?

Explanation

The maximum number of refills allowed for a schedule III drug is 5. This means that a prescription for a schedule III drug can be refilled up to 5 times before a new prescription is required. It is important to follow the guidelines and regulations set for schedule III drugs to ensure proper usage and prevent misuse or abuse.

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18. What hospital committe is responsible for creating and maintaining the drug formulary?

Explanation

The Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee is responsible for creating and maintaining the drug formulary in a hospital. This committee is composed of healthcare professionals, including pharmacists and physicians, who review and evaluate medications for safety, efficacy, and cost-effectiveness. They make decisions about which drugs should be included on the formulary, which drugs should be restricted, and which drugs should be removed. The committee also ensures that the formulary is regularly updated to reflect new medications and treatment guidelines.

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19. Which of the following interpretations of the signa "1 cap qid ac and hs" is correct?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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20. What should a pharmacy technician do while processing a prescription if he or she receives a contraindication message on the pharmacy terminal screen?

Explanation

When a pharmacy technician receives a contraindication message on the pharmacy terminal screen while processing a prescription, the appropriate action is to inform the pharmacist of the message. The pharmacist is responsible for reviewing and assessing any contraindications or potential issues with the prescription. By informing the pharmacist, they can address the contraindication and make an informed decision on how to proceed with the prescription, such as contacting the physician or suggesting an alternative drug. It is not the pharmacy technician's role to bypass the screen, contact the physician directly, or inform the patient of an error made by the physician.

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21. What size container would you use in dispensing 240ml of a liquid medication?

Explanation

To dispense 240ml of liquid medication, you would need to use an 8oz container. This is because 1oz is equivalent to 30ml, so 8oz would be able to hold 240ml of the liquid medication.

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22. What term refers to the process involved in the preparation of sterile products to prevent contamination of the product?

Explanation

Aseptic technique refers to the process involved in the preparation of sterile products to prevent contamination of the product. This technique involves creating and maintaining a sterile environment, using sterile equipment and materials, and following strict protocols to minimize the risk of introducing microorganisms into the product. It is crucial in healthcare settings, such as hospitals and pharmacies, where sterile products are prepared for patient use. Extemporaneous compounding, geometric dilution, and levigation are not directly related to preventing contamination in the preparation of sterile products.

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23. If the patient is to receive 2.4g of medication/day and the drug is available in 600mg tablets, how many tablets are needed for a day's dose?

Explanation

To calculate the number of tablets needed for a day's dose, we divide the total medication required (2.4g) by the dosage of each tablet (600mg). This gives us 4 tablets, as 2.4g is equal to 2400mg. Therefore, 4 tablets are needed for a day's dose.

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24. When would you take a medication if the directions stated "ac"?

Explanation

The abbreviation "ac" stands for "ante cibum" in Latin, which means "before a meal." Therefore, if the directions state "ac," you would take the medication before having a meal.

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25. Where should needles be placed after use?

Explanation

Needles should be placed in a sharps container after use. This is because sharps containers are specifically designed to safely store and dispose of used needles. They are made of puncture-resistant materials to prevent accidental needle sticks and are labeled as biohazardous waste containers. Placing needles in a sharps container ensures proper containment and minimizes the risk of injury or infection to others who may come into contact with the needles.

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26. Which of the following is true concerning nitrofurantoin?

Explanation

Nitrofurantoin is an antibiotic commonly used to treat urinary tract infections. Taking it with food helps to increase its absorption and effectiveness. This is because food slows down the emptying of the stomach and allows for better absorption of the medication in the intestines. Therefore, it is recommended to take nitrofurantoin with food to ensure optimal therapeutic outcomes.

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27. What is the correct interpretation of the following signa: 10mg MS IM q 4 h prn pain?

Explanation

The correct interpretation of the given signa is to inject 10mg of morphine sulfate intramuscularly every 4 hours as needed for pain. The abbreviation "IM" stands for intramuscular, indicating the route of administration. The abbreviation "q" stands for every, and "h" stands for hours. "prn" stands for as needed, indicating that the medication should be administered only when the patient experiences pain.

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28. Which of the following is a local anesthetic?

Explanation

Benzocaine is a local anesthetic commonly used to numb the skin or mucous membranes. It works by blocking nerve signals in the body, temporarily numbing the area where it is applied. Unlike general anesthetics, local anesthetics do not cause loss of consciousness or affect the entire body. Benzocaine is often found in over-the-counter products such as throat lozenges, dental gels, and topical creams for pain relief. It is a popular choice for minor surgical procedures, dental work, and temporary relief of pain and itching.

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29. Which type of insulin can be added to an IV solution?

Explanation

Regular insulin can be added to an IV solution because it is a short-acting insulin that can be rapidly absorbed into the bloodstream. It is commonly used in emergency situations or in hospital settings where quick and precise control of blood sugar levels is required. Adding regular insulin to an IV solution allows for a more direct and immediate delivery of the medication into the bloodstream.

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30. How much guaifenesin with codeine would you dispense for a 5-day supply if the prescription calls for "Guaifenesin c Codeine 5cc po q 4 h prn" 

Explanation

The prescription calls for "Guaifenesin c Codeine 5cc po q 4 h prn," which means the patient should take 5cc (5 milliliters) of guaifenesin with codeine by mouth every 4 hours as needed. To determine the total amount needed for a 5-day supply, we need to calculate the number of doses in 5 days. Assuming the patient takes the medication every 4 hours, there are 6 doses in a day (24 hours divided by 4). Therefore, in 5 days, there would be a total of 30 doses (6 doses per day multiplied by 5 days). Since each dose is 5cc, the total amount needed for a 5-day supply would be 150cc (30 doses multiplied by 5cc). Therefore, the correct answer is 150ml.

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31. Which of the following is true about generically equivalent drugs?

Explanation

Generically equivalent drugs are chemically identical in terms of their strength, concentration, dosage form, and route of administration. This means that although they may have different brand names, they contain the same active ingredients and are expected to produce the same therapeutic outcome and toxicity as the brand name drugs. The term "generically equivalent" implies that these drugs are interchangeable and can be substituted for each other without any significant differences in efficacy or safety.

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32. Which dosage form is defined as a clear, sweetened, flavored hydroalcoholic, containing water and alcohol, which may be medicated or not?

Explanation

An elixir is a clear, sweetened, flavored hydroalcoholic dosage form that contains both water and alcohol. It can be medicated or not, meaning it may or may not contain medication. Elixirs are commonly used for oral administration and are designed to be palatable and easy to swallow. They are often used to deliver medication in a liquid form, making it easier for patients who have difficulty swallowing pills or tablets.

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33. In what schedule is methylphenidate classified?

Explanation

Methylphenidate is classified as a Schedule II drug. Schedule II drugs are considered to have a high potential for abuse and dependence, but they also have recognized medical uses. These drugs are tightly regulated and require a prescription from a healthcare professional. Methylphenidate is commonly used to treat attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and narcolepsy. It is a stimulant medication that affects certain chemicals in the brain and nerves that contribute to hyperactivity and impulse control.

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34. What is the generic name Tenormin?

Explanation

Atenolol is the generic name for Tenormin. This means that Tenormin is the brand name for the medication Atenolol. Generic names are used to identify the active ingredient in a medication, while brand names are specific names given to a medication by the pharmaceutical company that manufactures it. In this case, Atenolol is the active ingredient in the medication Tenormin.

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35. What temperature is considered room temperature?

Explanation

Room temperature is typically considered to be between 15-30 degrees Celsius. This range is generally comfortable for most people and is commonly used as a reference point for indoor climate control. Temperatures below this range can be too cold for comfort, while temperatures above this range can be too warm. Therefore, 15-30 degrees Celsius is the most appropriate answer for the question.

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36. Using Clarks Rule how much medication should a 40lb child receive if the adult dosage is 25mg?

Explanation

Clarks Rule is used to calculate the pediatric dosage based on the weight of the child. According to Clarks Rule, the pediatric dosage is calculated by dividing the weight of the child by 150 (adult weight) and then multiplying it by the adult dosage. In this case, the child weighs 40lbs, so the calculation would be (40/150) * 25mg = 6.66mg. Therefore, the correct answer is 6.66mg.

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37. What type of pharmacy balance is required in all pharmacies?

Explanation

Class A pharmacy balances are required in all pharmacies because they are the most accurate and precise type of balance. These balances are designed to measure small quantities of medications with high precision, ensuring that the correct dosage is dispensed to patients. Class A balances are calibrated regularly and meet strict standards set by regulatory bodies to ensure the accuracy of medication measurements.

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38. What is the maximum number of refills allowed fro a prescription of oxycodone & APAP if authorized by the prescriber?

Explanation

The correct answer is 0 because oxycodone & APAP (acetaminophen) is a controlled substance and refills are not allowed for controlled substances. The prescription must be filled and authorized by the prescriber each time it is needed.

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39. Which of the following drugs would be contraindicated with vitamin K therapy?

Explanation

Warfarin is a blood-thinning medication that works by inhibiting the action of vitamin K, which is necessary for blood clotting. Therefore, using warfarin in combination with vitamin K therapy would counteract the effects of warfarin and potentially increase the risk of clot formation. Hence, warfarin would be contraindicated with vitamin K therapy.

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40. What disease may result in the formation of a goiter?

Explanation

Hyperthyroidism is a condition characterized by an overactive thyroid gland, which leads to excessive production of thyroid hormones. One of the common symptoms of hyperthyroidism is the enlargement of the thyroid gland, resulting in the formation of a goiter. Therefore, hyperthyroidism is the disease that may cause the formation of a goiter.

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41. How often is a biennial inventory taken in a pharmacy?

Explanation

A biennial inventory is taken every 2 years in a pharmacy. This means that the inventory is conducted once every two years to assess the stock and supplies in the pharmacy. This allows the pharmacy to keep track of their inventory, identify any discrepancies or shortages, and plan for restocking and ordering of medications and other products. By conducting a biennial inventory, the pharmacy ensures that they have accurate records of their inventory and can maintain proper stock levels for their customers.

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42. What form must be submitted to the DEAto destroy controlled substances? 

Explanation

Form 41 must be submitted to the DEA to destroy controlled substances.

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43. Which of the following topical corticcosteroid dosage forms is more potient?

Explanation

Ointment is the most potent topical corticosteroid dosage form. Ointments have a higher concentration of medication compared to creams, gels, and lotions. They have a greasy consistency and are more occlusive, allowing for better penetration of the medication into the skin. Ointments are typically used for conditions that require a stronger treatment, such as severe eczema or psoriasis.

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44. At which part of the liquid does one look when measuring liquids?

Explanation

When measuring liquids, one should look at the bottom of the meniscus. The meniscus is the curved surface of a liquid in a container, and it is caused by the adhesive forces between the liquid and the container. Looking at the bottom of the meniscus helps to avoid parallax errors, which can occur when the liquid level is not observed from the correct angle. By looking at the bottom of the meniscus, one can obtain a more accurate measurement of the liquid volume.

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45. What is a drug monograph?

Explanation

A drug monograph refers to literature on the drug. It provides comprehensive information about a specific medication, including its composition, indications, contraindications, side effects, dosage, and administration instructions. It serves as a resource for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions about prescribing and administering the drug. The monograph may also include information on clinical studies, pharmacokinetics, and drug interactions. Overall, it is a detailed document that summarizes all essential information about a particular drug.

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46. How many milliliters are in 1 cubic centimeter?

Explanation

There are 1 milliliter in 1 cubic centimeter. This is because both milliliters and cubic centimeters are units of volume and are equivalent in terms of measurement. Therefore, 1 milliliter is equal to 1 cubic centimeter.

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47. What are the two methods of pharmacy claims submission to third party payers?

Explanation

The two methods of pharmacy claims submission to third party payers are electronic and hard copy. Electronic submission involves sending claims electronically through a computer system, which is faster and more efficient. Hard copy submission, on the other hand, involves printing out the claim and physically mailing it to the payer. This method may be used when electronic submission is not possible or preferred by the payer.

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48. How many tablets should be given to a patient with the following prescription?

HCTZ 50mg one month suppply
1 tab qod   ref x 6

Explanation

Based on the prescription, the patient is prescribed HCTZ 50mg for a one month supply, to be taken every other day (qod) for a total of 6 refills. Since the medication is to be taken every other day, the patient will only need half the number of tablets as the number of days in a month. Therefore, the correct answer is 15 tablets.

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49. Which DAW code is used when the physician writes "Brand Name Only" on the prescription?

Explanation

When a physician writes "Brand Name Only" on the prescription, it means that the patient should receive the specific brand of medication mentioned and not a generic alternative. In the context of the given options, the DAW (Dispense as Written) code 1 is used to indicate this requirement. This code instructs the pharmacist to dispense the brand-name medication exactly as prescribed by the physician.

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50. Which dosage form is an aqueous solution with sucrose?

Explanation

A syrup is an aqueous solution with sucrose. It is a liquid dosage form in which the active ingredient is dissolved in water and sweetened with sucrose. Syrups are commonly used to deliver medications in a palatable form, especially for children or individuals who have difficulty swallowing tablets or capsules. They are easy to administer and provide a pleasant taste due to the added sugar. Therefore, syrup is the correct answer for this question.

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51. Which of the following drugs, if expired, can result in a fatality?

Explanation

Tetracycline is an antibiotic that can become toxic and harmful if consumed after its expiration date. Expired tetracycline can lead to a condition called Fanconi syndrome, which affects the kidneys and can result in kidney damage or even failure. In severe cases, it can be fatal. Therefore, if tetracycline is expired, it can potentially cause a fatality if consumed.

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52. What is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors?

Explanation

ACE inhibitors are a class of medications commonly used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure. One of the most common side effects of ACE inhibitors is a persistent dry cough. This cough is thought to be caused by the accumulation of bradykinin, a substance that is normally broken down by ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme). When ACE is inhibited, bradykinin levels increase, leading to irritation of the respiratory tract and the development of a cough. While not all patients experience this side effect, it is important for healthcare providers to be aware of it and consider alternative medications if the cough becomes bothersome.

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53. What condition may result if a child takes aspirin after being exposed to chickenpox?

Explanation

Reye syndrome is a possible condition that may result if a child takes aspirin after being exposed to chickenpox. Reye syndrome is a rare but serious condition that primarily affects children and teenagers recovering from a viral infection, such as chickenpox. It can cause swelling in the liver and brain, leading to symptoms such as vomiting, confusion, seizures, and loss of consciousness. The use of aspirin in children with viral infections, particularly chickenpox or influenza, has been linked to an increased risk of developing Reye syndrome. Therefore, it is important to avoid giving aspirin to children in these situations.

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54. You have received a medication order fro Lasix 40mg bid for 10 days. You prepare a unit dose of Lasix suspension (10mg/ml). How much would you dispense for a unit dose?

Explanation

The medication order is for Lasix 40mg twice a day for 10 days. The unit dose of Lasix suspension is 10mg/ml. To calculate the amount to be dispensed for a unit dose, we need to find the total amount of medication needed for 10 days. The total amount of medication needed per day is 40mg (dose) x 2 (frequency) = 80mg/day. For 10 days, the total amount needed is 80mg/day x 10 days = 800mg. Since the concentration of the suspension is 10mg/ml, we divide the total amount needed by the concentration to find the volume: 800mg / 10mg/ml = 80ml. Therefore, the correct answer is 4ml, as it is the closest option to the calculated volume of 80ml.

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55. Which of the following are indications for NSAIDs?

Explanation

NSAIDs (Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs) are commonly used to relieve pain (analgesic), reduce inflammation (anti-inflammatory), and lower fever (antipyretic). These medications work by inhibiting the production of prostaglandins, which are responsible for causing pain, inflammation, and fever. Therefore, all of the given options are correct indications for NSAIDs.

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56. What is the generic for Patanol?

Explanation

Olopatadine is the generic for Patanol. Patanol is a brand name medication used to treat allergic conjunctivitis. Olopatadine is an antihistamine that works by blocking the release of histamine, which helps to relieve symptoms such as itching, redness, and watering of the eyes. Therefore, Olopatadine is the correct answer as it is the generic name for Patanol.

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57. What is the generic name for Zyprexa?

Explanation

The generic name for Zyprexa is Olanzapine.

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58. What is the generic name for Zestril?

Explanation

Lisinopril is the generic name for Zestril. This means that Zestril is a brand name for the medication Lisinopril. Generic names are used to identify the active ingredient in a medication, while brand names are specific to the manufacturer. Therefore, if someone is prescribed Zestril, they are actually being prescribed the medication Lisinopril.

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59. Why is it important to follow the procedures of an institution?

Explanation

Following procedures is important because they are established to prevent errors from occurring in a pharmacy. By adhering to these procedures, pharmacy technicians can ensure the safety and well-being of patients. Additionally, regulatory bodies like the PTCB and State Boards of Pharmacy monitor technicians to ensure they are following procedures. Failure to do so may lead to suspension or revocation of certification, which can have serious consequences for a technician's career.

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60. What advice should be given to a patient taking metronidazole?

Explanation

Patients taking metronidazole should be advised to avoid alcohol as it can cause a severe reaction, including nausea, vomiting, headache, and flushing. It is also recommended to take the medication with food to minimize stomach upset. Additionally, patients should complete the full course of the medication as prescribed by their healthcare provider to ensure that the infection is fully treated and to prevent the development of antibiotic resistance. Therefore, all of the options - avoiding alcohol, taking with food, and taking all of the medication - are appropriate advice for patients taking metronidazole.

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61. What are the four elements of medical  and pharmaceutical nomenclature?

Explanation

The four elements of medical and pharmaceutical nomenclature are prefixes, suffixes, root words, and combining vowels. These elements are used to create and understand medical and pharmaceutical terms. Prefixes are added to the beginning of a word to modify its meaning, suffixes are added to the end of a word to indicate a specific condition or action, root words provide the core meaning of the term, and combining vowels are used to connect word parts together. By understanding and recognizing these elements, healthcare professionals can better understand and communicate medical terminology.

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62. Which of the following drugs is not an NSAID?

Explanation

Colchicine is not an NSAID because it works by a different mechanism of action compared to NSAIDs. While NSAIDs reduce inflammation by inhibiting the enzyme cyclooxygenase (COX), colchicine works by inhibiting the movement of certain white blood cells to the inflamed area. Therefore, colchicine is not classified as an NSAID.

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63. What may a pharmacy technician do as a result of OBRA 90?

Explanation

As a result of OBRA 90, a pharmacy technician may screen patient profiles for drug-disease contraindications. OBRA 90, also known as the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990, implemented regulations for Medicaid patients in long-term care facilities. One of the requirements is that pharmacists or pharmacy technicians must review patient profiles to identify any potential contraindications between prescribed drugs and the patient's medical conditions. This helps ensure patient safety and prevents any adverse drug reactions that may occur due to drug-disease interactions.

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64. Which of the following is not an disadvantage of an oral dosage form? 

Explanation

The question asks for a disadvantage of an oral dosage form that is not listed among the options. The correct answer, "Ease of administration," is not a disadvantage but rather an advantage of oral dosage forms. Oral medications are easy to administer compared to other routes such as injections or inhalation.

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65. Which of the following drugs is a calcium channel blocker?

Explanation

Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker because it inhibits the influx of calcium ions into smooth muscle cells, leading to relaxation of the arterial smooth muscle and vasodilation. This results in decreased peripheral resistance and blood pressure. Carvedilol and Nadolol are beta blockers, which work by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the body's beta receptors. Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker, which blocks the action of angiotensin II, a hormone that causes blood vessels to constrict.

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66. Which of the following drugs is not a cephalosporin?

Explanation

Lorabid is not a cephalosporin drug. Cephalosporins are a class of antibiotics commonly used to treat bacterial infections. Keflex, Suprax, and Vantin are all examples of cephalosporin drugs. However, Lorabid belongs to a different class of antibiotics called macrolides. It is used to treat certain types of infections caused by bacteria.

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67. Which of the following drugs will produce an adverse effect if alcohol is consumed during the course of therapy?

Explanation

Metronidazole is the correct answer because it is known to interact with alcohol and produce a disulfiram-like reaction. This reaction can cause symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, headache, flushing, and rapid heartbeat when alcohol is consumed while taking metronidazole. Amoxicillin, Azithromycin, and Nitrofurantoin do not have documented interactions with alcohol, so they would not produce adverse effects when consumed together.

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68. A 10 year-old child weighs 90 lb. How much medication should the child receive using Young's formula if the adult dose is 30mg?

Explanation

Young's formula is used to calculate the pediatric dose of medication based on the adult dose and the child's weight. The formula is: (Child's weight in lb / 150 lb) x Adult dose. In this case, the child weighs 90 lb and the adult dose is 30mg. Using Young's formula, we can calculate the pediatric dose as (90 lb / 150 lb) x 30mg = 18mg. Therefore, the correct answer is 18mg, not 13mg.

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69. Amitriptyline is to TCA as venlafaxine is to __________?

Explanation

Amitriptyline and venlafaxine are both antidepressant medications. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), while venlafaxine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Therefore, the correct answer is SSRI, as it is the class of medication that venlafaxine belongs to, just like amitriptyline belongs to the TCA class.

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70. How many 30mg KMNO4 (potassium permanganate) tablets are needed to prepare the following solution? 

KMNO4    1:5000       600ml

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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71. How many days will the following prescription of 60 tablets last if the directions read " i-ii tabs q 4-6 h"?

Explanation

The prescription states that the patient should take 1 to 2 tablets every 4 to 6 hours. Assuming the patient takes the maximum number of tablets (2) every 4 hours, they would take 12 tablets per day. Therefore, the prescription of 60 tablets would last for 5 days.

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72. How many 10gr tablets are required to make 1000mk of a 1:1000 solution?

Explanation

To make a 1:1000 solution, we need to dissolve 1 part of the solute (10gr tablet) in 1000 parts of the solvent (1000mk). This means that for every 1000mk of solution, we need 10gr of the tablet. Therefore, to make 1000mk of the solution, we need 1 tablet. However, the question asks for how many 10gr tablets are required. Since we only need 1 tablet, which is equivalent to 1/10 of a 10gr tablet, the answer is 1&1/2 tablets.

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73. How many grams of a 10% and 1% ointment should be usgm ed to make 45gm of a 2% ointment?

Explanation

To make a 2% ointment, a higher concentration of the active ingredient is required. Therefore, more of the 10% ointment should be used compared to the 1% ointment. Since the question asks for a total of 45 grams of ointment, 5 grams of the 10% ointment and 40 grams of the 1% ointment should be used. This combination will result in a 2% ointment.

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74. What is the meaning of AAC?

Explanation

AAC stands for Actual Acquisition Cost. This term refers to the real or true cost of acquiring a particular asset or item. It takes into account all the expenses and costs associated with the acquisition process, including purchase price, taxes, fees, and any additional costs incurred. By calculating the AAC, organizations can accurately determine the total cost of acquiring an asset and make informed decisions regarding its value and profitability.

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75. How many grams of a 10% and 2% ointment should be used to make 25gm of a 5%ointment?

Explanation

To make a 5% ointment, a combination of a 2% ointment and a 10% ointment is required. The total weight of the final ointment is given as 25 gm. The 2% ointment should weigh 15.6 gm, while the 10% ointment should weigh 9.4 gm. This combination will result in a 5% ointment.

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76. A technician is given 120ml of a 50% (w/v) potassium chloride solution and is told to add 6 oz. of sterile water to it. What will be the final (w/v) percentage concentration of the solution?

Explanation

The technician is given 120ml of a 50% (w/v) potassium chloride solution. This means that there are 50 grams of potassium chloride in 100ml of solution. So, in 120ml of solution, there would be (50/100) * 120 = 60 grams of potassium chloride.

The technician is then told to add 6 oz. of sterile water to the solution. 1 oz. is approximately equal to 29.57 ml. So, 6 oz. would be equal to 6 * 29.57 = 177.42 ml of water.

The final volume of the solution would be 120ml + 177.42ml = 297.42ml.

To calculate the final (w/v) percentage concentration, we need to divide the weight of the solute (potassium chloride) by the volume of the solution and multiply by 100.

The final (w/v) percentage concentration would be (60g / 297.42ml) * 100 = 20%.

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77. Which of the following is not used to treat depression?

Explanation

Antipsychotics are not typically used to treat depression. While they may be prescribed in some cases to manage certain symptoms associated with depression, such as psychosis or severe agitation, they are not considered a first-line treatment for depression. Instead, antidepressant medications such as MAO inhibitors, SSRIs, and TCAs are commonly used to treat depression by targeting specific neurotransmitters in the brain.

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78. Cephalexin is to cephalosporin as ciprofloxacin is to ______________?

Explanation

Cephalexin and ciprofloxacin are both antibiotics used to treat bacterial infections. Cephalexin belongs to the cephalosporin class of antibiotics, while ciprofloxacin belongs to the quinolone class. Therefore, the correct answer is quinolone.

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79. Which of the following is not available in a transdermal dosage form?

Explanation

Fexofenadine is not available in a transdermal dosage form. Transdermal dosage forms are designed to deliver medication through the skin and into the bloodstream. Clonidine, Estradiol, and Fentanyl are all available in transdermal patches or gels for systemic absorption. However, Fexofenadine is primarily available in oral formulations such as tablets or syrups for the treatment of allergies.

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80. A patient receives 5ml of a 15% solution of a drug. What is the drug dose?

Explanation

The patient receives 5ml of a 15% solution of the drug. To find the drug dose, we need to calculate 15% of 5ml. This can be done by multiplying 5ml by 0.15 (15% expressed as a decimal). The result is 0.75ml, which is equivalent to 750mg. Therefore, the correct answer is 750mg.

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81. What is the purpose of post-marketing monitoring of new drugs?

Explanation

The purpose of post-marketing monitoring of new drugs is to identify and remove any drugs that are found to be unsafe. This process involves ongoing surveillance and evaluation of the safety profile of the drug after it has been approved and made available to the public. By monitoring the drug's safety, any adverse effects or risks can be identified and appropriate actions, such as recalls or warnings, can be taken to protect public health.

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82. How many milliliters of water should be added to1 L of 70% isopropyl alcohol to prepare a 30% solution?

Explanation

To prepare a 30% solution of isopropyl alcohol, water needs to be added to dilute the 70% isopropyl alcohol. The volume of the final solution is 1L. The difference between the desired concentration (30%) and the initial concentration (70%) is 40%. To find the volume of water needed, we can set up a proportion: 70%/30% = 1L/x. Solving for x gives us x = 1L * 30%/70% = 0.4286L. Since the question asks for the volume in milliliters, we multiply 0.4286L by 1000 to get 428.6ml, which rounds to 429ml. Therefore, the correct answer is 1333ml.

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83. How many milliliters of a 10% stock solution of an ingredient are needed to prepare 120ml of a solution containing 10mg of the ingredient per milliliter?

Explanation

To prepare a solution containing 10mg of the ingredient per milliliter, we need to determine the volume of the stock solution required. Since the stock solution is 10% and we want 120ml of the final solution, we can set up the equation: 0.10x = 120, where x represents the volume of the stock solution. Solving for x, we find that x = 120 / 0.10 = 1200ml. Therefore, we need 1200ml of the stock solution to prepare 120ml of the final solution. However, the question asks for the volume in milliliters, so the correct answer is 12ml.

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84. Which of the following drugs would use a "pulse dosing"?

Explanation

Itraconazole is the correct answer because it is a drug that can be administered using "pulse dosing". Pulse dosing refers to a treatment regimen where the drug is given in intermittent, high-dose pulses followed by a period of rest. This allows for higher drug concentrations in the body during the pulses, increasing its effectiveness while minimizing potential side effects. Clotrimazole, Fluconazole, and Ketoconazole are not typically administered using pulse dosing.

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85. How many milliliters of water should be added to 100ml of 10% stock solution of sodium chloride to prepare a 0.9% solution of sodium chloride?

Explanation

To prepare a 0.9% solution of sodium chloride, we need to dilute the 10% stock solution. This means that the concentration of sodium chloride needs to be reduced. By adding water, we are diluting the solution. The amount of water needed can be calculated using the formula: (C1)(V1) = (C2)(V2), where C1 is the initial concentration, V1 is the initial volume, C2 is the final concentration, and V2 is the final volume. Plugging in the values, we have (10%)(100ml) = (0.9%)(100ml + V), where V is the volume of water to be added. Solving for V, we get V = 1011ml. Therefore, 1011ml of water should be added.

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86. What term refers to a pharmacy receiving a predetermined amount of money for a patient regardless of the number of prescriptions filled or the value of the prescriptions each month?

Explanation

Capitation refers to a payment model in which a pharmacy receives a fixed amount of money for each patient, regardless of the number or value of prescriptions filled each month. This payment is not dependent on the actual services provided or the cost of medications. Capitation is often used in managed care plans, where the pharmacy is responsible for providing all necessary medications and services for a set fee per patient. This model incentivizes pharmacies to provide cost-effective care and encourages efficiency in healthcare delivery.

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87. Which of the following medications should not be given to individuals younger than the age of 18?

Explanation

Ciprofloxacin should not be given to individuals younger than the age of 18 because it can cause damage to growing joints and bones. This medication belongs to a class of drugs called fluoroquinolones, which have been associated with an increased risk of musculoskeletal problems in children and adolescents. Therefore, it is important to avoid giving ciprofloxacin to individuals under the age of 18 to prevent potential harm.

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88. How many grams of dextrose are in 1 L D5W?

Explanation

D5W stands for Dextrose 5% in Water, which means that there is 5 grams of dextrose in 100 mL of solution. Since 1 L is equal to 1000 mL, we can calculate that there are 50 grams of dextrose in 1 L of D5W. Therefore, the correct answer is 50gm.

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89. Which of the following is an example of drug duplication?

Explanation

Drug duplication refers to the situation where two different medications contain the same active ingredient or belong to the same drug class. In this case, Calan and Isoptin are both examples of the drug verapamil, which belongs to the calcium channel blocker class. Therefore, Calan and Isoptin are an example of drug duplication.

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90. A child weighs 30kg and is prescribed a 10mg/kg dose of amoxicillin tid. The pharmacy stocks 50mg/ml. How much medication (in ml) would the patient receive in each day?

Explanation

The child weighs 30kg and is prescribed a dose of 10mg/kg of amoxicillin. Therefore, the total dose for the child would be 30kg x 10mg/kg = 300mg. The pharmacy stocks 50mg/ml of amoxicillin. To calculate the amount of medication the patient would receive, we divide the total dose by the concentration of the medication: 300mg / 50mg/ml = 6ml. Since the child is prescribed the medication three times a day (tid), the total amount of medication the patient would receive in each day is 6ml x 3 = 18ml.

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91. What type of drug recall occurs when a drug is not likely to cause a temporary adverse health consequence?

Explanation

A Class I recall occurs when a drug is likely to cause serious health problems or even death. Since the question states that the drug is not likely to cause any adverse health consequence, a Class I recall is not applicable. Therefore, the correct answer is Class III recall, which is used when a drug is not likely to cause any adverse health consequence.

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92. Which of the following side effects may be attributed to an overdosage of salicylates?

Explanation

An overdosage of salicylates can lead to tinnitus, which is a ringing or buzzing sound in the ears. Salicylates are known to have ototoxic effects, meaning they can damage the structures in the ear responsible for hearing. This can result in the perception of tinnitus. GI upset and platelet changes are also potential side effects of salicylate overdosage, but the specific focus of this question is on tinnitus.

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