Practice Exam PTCB

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PTCB Practice Exam Quizzes & Trivia

Practice Exam for PTCB Certification


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    How long must a laminar airflow hood be on before being used?
    • A. 

      15 min

    • B. 

      30 min

    • C. 

      1 hr

    • D. 

      2 hr

  • 2. 
    What does the abbreviation "hs" mean on a prescription?
    • A. 

      At bedtime

    • B. 

      Hours

    • C. 

      House

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 3. 
    Which of the following drugs is not a cephalosporin?
    • A. 

      Keflex

    • B. 

      Lorabid

    • C. 

      Suprax

    • D. 

      Vantin

  • 4. 
    Which of the following drugs is not an NSAID?
    • A. 

      Colchicine

    • B. 

      Celecoxib

    • C. 

      Ibuprofen

    • D. 

      Oxaprozin

  • 5. 
    Which of the following is true concerning nitrofurantoin?
    • A. 

      It should be taken as a loading dose

    • B. 

      It should be taken at breakfast only

    • C. 

      It should be taken with alcohol

    • D. 

      It should be taken with food

  • 6. 
    What auxiliary label should be included on a container of medication that has the following signa: " i gtt os bid"?
    • A. 

      For external use only

    • B. 

      For the ear

    • C. 

      For the eye

    • D. 

      Use rectally

  • 7. 
    Where would a buccal tablet be placed?
    • A. 

      Betweeen the cheeks

    • B. 

      Orally

    • C. 

      Rectally

    • D. 

      Under the tongue

  • 8. 
    Which of the following would be found on a hospital medication order but not on a retail prescription?
    • A. 

      Doseage schedule

    • B. 

      Drug name

    • C. 

      Drug strength

    • D. 

      Patient name

  • 9. 
    Which of the following drugs would be contraindicated with vitamin K therapy?
    • A. 

      Glyburide

    • B. 

      Heparin

    • C. 

      Pentoxifylline

    • D. 

      Warfarin

  • 10. 
    What does the suffix "-ectomy" mean?
    • A. 

      Disease

    • B. 

      Hardening

    • C. 

      Removal

    • D. 

      Vomiting

  • 11. 
    What is the maximum number of refills allowed for a schedule III drug?
    • A. 

      0

    • B. 

      1

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      10

  • 12. 
    • A. 

      10%

    • B. 

      20%

    • C. 

      33%

    • D. 

      47%

  • 13. 
    What is the purpose of post-marketing monitoring of new drugs?
    • A. 

      Ensure GMP

    • B. 

      Monitor the quality of new drugs

    • C. 

      Removal of unsafe drugs

    • D. 

      Test for purity and effectiveness of new drugs

  • 14. 
    What disease may result in the formation of a goiter?
    • A. 

      Cancer

    • B. 

      Hypertension

    • C. 

      Hypoglycemia

    • D. 

      Hyperthyroidism

  • 15. 
    Which type of insulin can be added to an IV solution?
    • A. 

      Extended insulin zinc

    • B. 

      Isophane insulin

    • C. 

      NPH insulin

    • D. 

      Regular insulin

  • 16. 
    What is a drug monograph?
    • A. 

      A picture of the drug from the manufacturer

    • B. 

      A price list for the drug from manufacturer

    • C. 

      Literature on the drug

    • D. 

      Literature on the manufacturer

  • 17. 
    What may a pharmacy technician do as a result of OBRA 90?
    • A. 

      Call a physician and recommend a diffrent drug doseage

    • B. 

      Counsel a patient with regard to their drug therapy

    • C. 

      Offer to counsel a patient, if allowed by state law

    • D. 

      Screen patient profiles for drug-disease contraindications

  • 18. 
    How many milliliters are in 1 cubic centimeter?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      10

  • 19. 
    Which of the following drugs will produce an adverse effect if alcohol is consumed during the course of therapy?
    • A. 

      Amoxicillin

    • B. 

      Azithromycin

    • C. 

      Metronidazole

    • D. 

      Nitrofurantoin

  • 20. 
    How much guaifenesin with codeine would you dispense for a 5-day supply if the prescription calls for "Guaifenesin c Codeine 5cc po q 4 h prn" 
    • A. 

      120ml

    • B. 

      150ml

    • C. 

      450ml

    • D. 

      480ml

  • 21. 
    Which of the following topical corticcosteroid dosage forms is more potient?
    • A. 

      Cream

    • B. 

      Gel

    • C. 

      Lotion

    • D. 

      Ointment

  • 22. 
    How often is a biennial inventory taken in a pharmacy?
    • A. 

      Monthly

    • B. 

      Twice per year

    • C. 

      Yearly

    • D. 

      Every 2 years

  • 23. 
    Which of the following is not used to treat depression?
    • A. 

      Antipsychotics

    • B. 

      MAO inhibitors

    • C. 

      SSRI's

    • D. 

      TCAs

  • 24. 
    What size container would you use in dispensing 240ml of a liquid medication?
    • A. 

      2oz

    • B. 

      4oz

    • C. 

      6oz

    • D. 

      8oz

  • 25. 
    You have received a medication order fro Lasix 40mg bid for 10 days. You prepare a unit dose of Lasix suspension (10mg/ml). How much would you dispense for a unit dose?
    • A. 

      4ml

    • B. 

      8ml

    • C. 

      10ml

    • D. 

      18ml

  • 26. 
    The pharmacy technician receives a prescription fro Flexeril 10mg and the instructions read "i po tid". What is the total daily dose?
    • A. 

      10mg

    • B. 

      20mg

    • C. 

      30mg

    • D. 

      40mg

  • 27. 
    What is the generic for Patanol?
    • A. 

      Brimonidine

    • B. 

      Ciprofloxacin

    • C. 

      Latanoprost

    • D. 

      Olopatadine

  • 28. 
    Which schedule of medications has no medical use in the United States and possess an extremely high potential for abuse?
    • A. 

      Schedule I

    • B. 

      Schedule II

    • C. 

      Schedule III

    • D. 

      Schedule IV

  • 29. 
    Which of the following is not an disadvantage of an oral dosage form? 
    • A. 

      Delayed onset of action

    • B. 

      Ease of administration

    • C. 

      First pass metabolism

    • D. 

      Taste of medication

  • 30. 
    What hospital committe is responsible for creating and maintaining the drug formulary?
    • A. 

      Infection Control Committee

    • B. 

      Nursing and Pharmacy Committee

    • C. 

      Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee

    • D. 

      Product Evaluation Committee

  • 31. 
    A 10 year-old child weighs 90 lb. How much medication should the chikd receive using Young's formula if the adult dose is 30mg?
    • A. 

      13mg

    • B. 

      18mg

    • C. 

      50mg

    • D. 

      66mg

  • 32. 
    What are the two methods of pharmacy claims submission to third party payers?
    • A. 

      Electronic and e-mail

    • B. 

      Electronic and fax

    • C. 

      Electronic and FedEx

    • D. 

      Electronic and hard copy

  • 33. 
    How many tablets should be given to a patient with the following prescription?HCTZ 50mg one month suppply1 tab qod   ref x 6
    • A. 

      15 tablets

    • B. 

      30 tablets

    • C. 

      90 tablets

    • D. 

      180 tablets

  • 34. 
    If the patient is to receive 2.4g of medication/day and the drug is available in 600mg tablets, how many tablets are needed for a day's dose?
    • A. 

      0.5

    • B. 

      1

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      8

  • 35. 
    Which of the following is true about generically equivalent drugs?
    • A. 

      Chemically diffrent, but are expected to produce same therapeutic outcome and toxicity

    • B. 

      Chemically identical in strength, concentration, dosage form, and route of administration

    • C. 

      Contain different active ingredients

    • D. 

      Priced exactly the same as brand name drugs

  • 36. 
    • A. 

      2 tablets

    • B. 

      3 tablets

    • C. 

      4 tablets

    • D. 

      6 tablets

  • 37. 
    A child weighs 30kg and is prescribed a 10mg/kg dose of amoxicillin tid. The pharmacy stocks 50mg/ml. How much medication (in ml) would the patient receive in each day?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      13

    • D. 

      18

  • 38. 
    What does "NPO" mean on a prescription?
    • A. 

      Do not refill

    • B. 

      Do not place in mouth

    • C. 

      Do not repeat

    • D. 

      Nothing by mouth

  • 39. 
    What is the generic name for Zyprexa?
    • A. 

      Donepezil

    • B. 

      Metaxalone

    • C. 

      Olanzapine

    • D. 

      Risperidone

  • 40. 
    What is the correct interpretation of the following signa: 10mg MS IM q 4 h prn pain?
    • A. 

      Inhale 10mg of morphine sulfate every 4 hours as needed for pain

    • B. 

      Insert 10ml of morphine sulfate intramuscularly every 4 hours as needed for pain

    • C. 

      Inject 10mg of morphine sulfate intravenously every 4 hours as needed for pain

    • D. 

      Inject 10mg of morphine sulfate intramuscularly every 4 hours as needed for pain

  • 41. 
    How would a patient take a medication if the directions read "prn"?
    • A. 

      As directed

    • B. 

      As needed

    • C. 

      By mouth

    • D. 

      By rectum

  • 42. 
    How many milliliters of water should be added to1 L of 70% isopropyl alcohol to prepare a 30% solution?
    • A. 

      2.33ml

    • B. 

      42.86ml

    • C. 

      1333ml

    • D. 

      2.33L

  • 43. 
    How many days would a prescription of 30 tablets last if the directions were " 1 tab tid ac"?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      10

  • 44. 
    • A. 

      5gm of the 1%; and 40gm of the 2%

    • B. 

      5gm of the 1%; and 40gm of the 10%

    • C. 

      5gm of the 10%; and 40gm of the 2%

    • D. 

      5gm of the 10%; and 40gm of the 1%

  • 45. 
    Which of the following drugs would use a "pulse dosing"?
    • A. 

      Clotrimazole

    • B. 

      Fluconazole

    • C. 

      Itraconazole

    • D. 

      Ketoconazole

  • 46. 
    Which of the following interpretations of the signa "1 cap qid ac and hs" is correct?
    • A. 

      Take 1 caplet by mouth 1 hour before meals and at bedtime

    • B. 

      Take 1 capsule by mouth 1 hour before meals and at bedtime

    • C. 

      Take 1 capsule by mouth after meals and before bedtime

    • D. 

      Take 1 capsule by mouth four times a day before meals and at bedtime

  • 47. 
    Which DAW code is used when the physician writes "Brand Name Only" on the prescription?
    • A. 

      0

    • B. 

      1

    • C. 

      2

    • D. 

      3

  • 48. 
    What term refers to a pharmacy receiving a predetermined amount of money for a patient regardless of the number of prescriptions filled or the value of the prescriptions each month?
    • A. 

      Capitation

    • B. 

      Co-payment

    • C. 

      Deductable

    • D. 

      Fee for service

  • 49. 
    What is the meaning of the term "non rep"?
    • A. 

      Do not repeat

    • B. 

      No known allergies

    • C. 

      Nothing by mouth

    • D. 

      Refill

  • 50. 
    Cephalexin is to cephalosporin as ciprofloxacin is to ______________?
    • A. 

      Macrolide

    • B. 

      Penicillin

    • C. 

      Quinolone

    • D. 

      Tetracycline

  • 51. 
    What is the meaning of AAC?
    • A. 

      Actual acquisition cost

    • B. 

      Average acquisition cost

    • C. 

      Average assessed cost

    • D. 

      Average acquisition cost containment

  • 52. 
    Which of the following is not available in a transdermal dosage form?
    • A. 

      Clonidine

    • B. 

      Estradiol

    • C. 

      Fentanyl

    • D. 

      Fexofenadine

  • 53. 
    What is the generic name for Zestril?
    • A. 

      Enalapril

    • B. 

      Fosinopril

    • C. 

      Lisinopril

    • D. 

      Quinapril

  • 54. 
    How many milliliters of water should be added to 100ml of 10% stock solution of sodium chloride to prepare a 0.9% solution of sodium chloride?
    • A. 

      10.1

    • B. 

      101

    • C. 

      1011

    • D. 

      1111

  • 55. 
    Which of the following drugs, if expired, can result in a fatality?
    • A. 

      Amoxicillin

    • B. 

      Cephalexin

    • C. 

      Clarithromycin

    • D. 

      Tetracycline

  • 56. 
    What term refers to the process involved in the preparation of sterile products to prevent contamination of the product?
    • A. 

      Aseptic technique

    • B. 

      Extemporaneous compounding

    • C. 

      Geometric dilution

    • D. 

      Levigation

  • 57. 
    Why is it important to follow the procedures of an institution?
    • A. 

      Following procedures will result in promotion

    • B. 

      Following procedure will result in pay increase

    • C. 

      Procedures are established that will prevent errors from occuring in a pharmacy

    • D. 

      The PTCB and State Boards of Pharmacy follow-up with pharmacy technicians to ensure that they are following procedures. Failure to follow procedures may result in either a suspension or revocation of their certification

  • 58. 
    What id the meaning of the prefix "osteo-"?
    • A. 

      Bone

    • B. 

      Cell

    • C. 

      Lymph

    • D. 

      Muscle

  • 59. 
    Using Clarks Rule how much medication should a 40lb child receive if the adult dosage is 25mg?
    • A. 

      5.66mg

    • B. 

      6.66mg

    • C. 

      7.66mg

    • D. 

      8.66mg

  • 60. 
    How many times a day would a patient take his or her medication if it is "tid"?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 61. 
    What should a pharmacy technician do while processing a prescription if he or she receives a contraindication message on the pharmacy terminal screen?
    • A. 

      Bypass the screen and continue to process the prescription

    • B. 

      Contact the physician and ask that a diffrent drug be prescribed

    • C. 

      Inform the patient that you cannot fill the prescription because the physician made an error

    • D. 

      Inform the pharmacist of the message

  • 62. 
    Which of the following side effects may be attributed to an overdosage of salicylates?
    • A. 

      GI upset

    • B. 

      Platelet changes

    • C. 

      Tinnitus

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 63. 
    Which of the following are indications for NSAIDs?
    • A. 

      Analgesic

    • B. 

      Anti-inflammatory

    • C. 

      Antipyretic

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 64. 
    What is the generic name Tenormin?
    • A. 

      Atenolol

    • B. 

      Metoprolol

    • C. 

      Propranolol

    • D. 

      Nadolol

  • 65. 
    What type of drug recall occurs when a drug is not likely to cause a temporary adverse health consequence?
    • A. 

      Class I recall

    • B. 

      Class II recall

    • C. 

      Class III recall

    • D. 

      No recall is required

  • 66. 
    At which part of the liquid does one look when measuring liquids?
    • A. 

      A point between the bottom and top of the meniscus

    • B. 

      Bottom of the meniscus

    • C. 

      Top of the meniscus

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 67. 
    Where should needles be placed after use?
    • A. 

      In a biohazard container

    • B. 

      In a red plastic bag

    • C. 

      In a sharps container

    • D. 

      With normal trash

  • 68. 
    What temperature is considered room temperature?
    • A. 

      8C

    • B. 

      8-15 C

    • C. 

      15-30 C

    • D. 

      30-40 C

  • 69. 
    What do the first five digits of an NDC number represent?
    • A. 

      Drug item

    • B. 

      Drug manufacturer

    • C. 

      Drug package

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 70. 
    A patient receives 5ml of a 15% solution of a drug. What is the drug dose?
    • A. 

      75mg

    • B. 

      750mg

    • C. 

      7.5gm

    • D. 

      75gm

  • 71. 
    Which of the following is a local anesthetic?
    • A. 

      Benzocaine

    • B. 

      Butorphanol

    • C. 

      Neostigmine

    • D. 

      Zolmitriptan

  • 72. 
    What form must be submitted to the DEAto destroy controlled substances? 
    • A. 

      Form 41

    • B. 

      Form 49

    • C. 

      Form 224

    • D. 

      Form 225

  • 73. 
    How many grams of a 10% and 2% ointment should be used to make 25gm of a 5%ointment?
    • A. 

      2%-9.4gm; 10% -15.6gm

    • B. 

      2%-10gm; 10%-15gm

    • C. 

      2%- 12.5gm; 10%-12.5gm

    • D. 

      2%-15.6gm; 10%-9.4gm

  • 74. 
    Amitriptyline is to TCA as venlafaxine is to __________?
    • A. 

      Calcium channel blocker

    • B. 

      H2 antagonist

    • C. 

      Protease inhibitor

    • D. 

      SSRI

  • 75. 
    In what schedule is methylphenidate classified?
    • A. 

      Schedule I

    • B. 

      Schedule II

    • C. 

      Schedule III

    • D. 

      Schedule IV

  • 76. 
    What type of pharmacy balance is required in all pharmacies?
    • A. 

      Class A

    • B. 

      Class B

    • C. 

      Electronic

    • D. 

      Triple Beam

  • 77. 
    Which of the following drugs is a calcium channel blocker?
    • A. 

      Carvedilol

    • B. 

      Nadolol

    • C. 

      Nifedipine

    • D. 

      Valsartan

  • 78. 
    What is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors?
    • A. 

      Anaphylaxis

    • B. 

      CNS stimulation

    • C. 

      Cough

    • D. 

      Respiratory depression

  • 79. 
    What are the four elements of medical  and pharmaceutical nomenclature?
    • A. 

      Prefixes, suffixes, root words and combining vowels

    • B. 

      Prefixes, suffixes, key words and combining vowels

    • C. 

      Prefixes, suffixed, key words and combining consonants

    • D. 

      Prefixes, suffixes, root words and combining consonants

  • 80. 
    How many milliliters of a 10% stock solution of an ingredient are needed to prepare 120ml of a solution containing 10mg of the ingredient per milliliter?
    • A. 

      0.12

    • B. 

      1.2

    • C. 

      12

    • D. 

      120

  • 81. 
    What advice should be given to a patient taking metronidazole?
    • A. 

      Avoid alcohol

    • B. 

      Take with food

    • C. 

      Take all of the medication

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 82. 
    How many days will the following prescription of 60 tablets last if the directions read " i-ii tabs q 4-6 h"?
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      7

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      15

  • 83. 
    Which of the following medications should not be given to individuals younger than the age of 18?
    • A. 

      Cephalexin

    • B. 

      Ciprofloxacin

    • C. 

      Clarithromycin

    • D. 

      Clindamycin

  • 84. 
    Which dosage form is an aqueous solution with sucrose?
    • A. 

      Emulsion

    • B. 

      Solution

    • C. 

      Suspension

    • D. 

      Syrup

  • 85. 
    How many 10gr tablets are required to make 1000mk of a 1:1000 solution?
    • A. 

      1/2

    • B. 

      1

    • C. 

      1&1/2

    • D. 

      2

  • 86. 
    Which law ensures a safe environment for employees?
    • A. 

      ADA

    • B. 

      Any willing provider

    • C. 

      OBRA

    • D. 

      OSHA

  • 87. 
    What condition may result if a child takes aspirin after being exposed to chickenpox?
    • A. 

      Glaucoma

    • B. 

      Herpes Zoster

    • C. 

      Reye syndrome

    • D. 

      Toxic shock syndrome

  • 88. 
    How many grams of dextrose are in 1 L D5W?
    • A. 

      50mcg

    • B. 

      50mg

    • C. 

      5gm

    • D. 

      50gm

  • 89. 
    Which of the following is an example of drug duplication?
    • A. 

      Aldactone and Coreg

    • B. 

      Calan and Isoptin

    • C. 

      Coumadin and Zetia

    • D. 

      Dyazide and Vasotec

  • 90. 
    Which dosage form is defined as a clear, sweetened, flavored hydroalcoholic, containing water and alcohol, which may be medicated or not?
    • A. 

      Elixer

    • B. 

      Emulsion

    • C. 

      Enema

    • D. 

      Syrup

  • 91. 
    When would you take a medication if the directions stated "ac"?
    • A. 

      After a meal

    • B. 

      At bedtime

    • C. 

      Before a meal

    • D. 

      In the morning

  • 92. 
    What is the maximum number of refills allowed fro a prescription of oxycodone & APAP if authorized by the prescriber?
    • A. 

      0

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      12

    • D. 

      Unlimited