Trivia Quiz On Diseases, Conditions And Medical Test!

50 Questions

Settings
Please wait...
Trivia Quiz On Diseases, Conditions And Medical Test!

.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    A patient with a diagnosis of CVA presents with large balance and coordination deficits.  The patient is ataxic and has minimal strength deficits.  Upon reviewing the patient chart, you are not surprised to find that the area of the brain affected by the CVA is the
    • A. 

      Cerebellum

    • B. 

      Cerebrum left hemisphere

    • C. 

      Frontal lobe

    • D. 

      Broca’s area

  • 2. 
    Which symptom is not a clinical manifestation of infection?
    • A. 

      Fever

    • B. 

      Lymph node enlargement

    • C. 

      Intense pain

    • D. 

      Abrupt onset of illness

  • 3. 
    A stroke patient is exercising in supine.  As the therapist resists the adduction of the unaffected leg, the affected leg begins to adduct.  This should be documented as
    • A. 

      Souque’s phenomenon

    • B. 

      Overextension phenomenon

    • C. 

      Schunkel reflex

    • D. 

      Raimiste’s phenomenon

  • 4. 
    In which of the following sports would it be most beneficial to have a high percentage of slow-twitch muscle fibers?
    • A. 

      Distance running

    • B. 

      Weight lifting

    • C. 

      Javelin

    • D. 

      Alpine skiing

  • 5. 
    A physical therapist is uncertain if the polarity is important when using high voltage current.  Which of the following conditions would polarity consideration be particularly important?
    • A. 

      Chronic pain

    • B. 

      Protective muscle spasm

    • C. 

      Muscle-disuse atrophy

    • D. 

      Wound healing

  • 6. 
    A physical therapist is employed as a physician-owned physical therapy clinic that charges for treatment by the modality.  One of the physicians who is an owner of the practice requests that all of his patients receive a minimum of heat, ultrasound and electrical stimulating during each treatment session.  The therapist feels that in the majority of the physician’s patients the modalities are of little clinical benefit.  The most appropriate response would be to
    • A. 

      Ignore the physician’s request and treat each patient as you feel is indicated

    • B. 

      Discuss with the physician his rationale for requesting modalities on each patient

    • C. 

      Report the physician’s conduct to the American Medical Association

    • D. 

      Inform the physician he is abusing the health care system

  • 7. 
    A serious complication of a contusion is myositis ossificans.  Which of the following statements concerning myositis ossificans is not true?
    • A. 

      Myositis ossificans occurs when the part of a hematoma is replace with bone

    • B. 

      Myositis ossificans can be recognized by plain film radiographs

    • C. 

      Myositis ossificans usually results from a single injury and not repetitive trauma

    • D. 

      Myositis ossificans is believed to be caused by periosteal cells invading the hematoma following injury

  • 8. 
    At what age should a child be able to sit unsupported?
    • A. 

      7 months

    • B. 

      8 months

    • C. 

      10 months

    • D. 

      12 months

  • 9. 
    A physical therapist is required to train a 71-year-old patient to ascend and descend a flight of stairs.  The patient presents with a fractured left tibia and is weight-bearing as tolerated.  There is a moderate weakness in the involved lower extremity secondary to the fracture.  The most appropriate instructions are
    • A. 

      “One step at a time, right foot first to ascend and to descend the stairs.”

    • B. 

      “One step at a time, right foot first to ascend the stairs and left foot first to descend the stairs”

    • C. 

      “Step over step slowly”

    • D. 

      “One step at a time, left foot first to ascend and to descend the stairs”.

  • 10. 
    Diastasis recti can be a complication of pregnancy.  Diastasis recti is
    • A. 

      An incision made at the opening of the vagina to increase the diameter

    • B. 

      When the embryo develops in the fallopian tube

    • C. 

      A separation of the rectus abdominis muscle

    • D. 

      When the placenta pulls away from the uterine wall

  • 11. 
    A patient presents with severe orthostatic hypotension.  The most appropriate immediate technique to incorporate into treatment that will assist with standing is
    • A. 

      Standing in parallel bars with increasing time intervals

    • B. 

      Using a standing table

    • C. 

      Standing in a pool

    • D. 

      Tilt table with progressive vertical positioning

  • 12. 
    A therapist can obtain valuable information during an evaluation by using special orthopedic tests.  Which of the following special tests is not performed with the patient in supine?
    • A. 

      Anterior drawer test

    • B. 

      Apley’s compression test

    • C. 

      McMurray test

    • D. 

      Patella apprehension test

  • 13. 
    Which activity does not normally develop between the 9th and 12th months of normal development?
    • A. 

      Pincer grasp

    • B. 

      Begins walking

    • C. 

      Transfers objects from one hand to the other

    • D. 

      Stand with high guard

  • 14. 
    • A. 

      64 ft/lbs

    • B. 

      84 ft/lbs

    • C. 

      114 ft/lbs

    • D. 

      154 ft/lbs

  • 15. 
    During an evaluation of a traumatic brain-injured patient the therapist notes the patient's mumbling phrases, which are non-purposeful in nature.  As the physical therapist initiates a passive range of motion to the patient’s lower extremities the patient attempts to strike the therapist in the head.  According to the Ranchos Los Amigos Levels of cognitive functioning, this patient would be best described at the level.
    • A. 

      II

    • B. 

      III

    • C. 

      IV

    • D. 

      V

  • 16. 
    Compression of any part of the central nervous system causing ischemia for greater than ____ minutes will result in the death of nervous tissue.
    • A. 

      3-5

    • B. 

      6-8

    • C. 

      10-12

    • D. 

      15-20

  • 17. 
    A patient with hemiplegia should be positioned in side-lying on their affected side early in rehabilitation.  The advantages of this position include all of the following EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Decrease in spasticity of the affected side

    • B. 

      Elongation of the affected side

    • C. 

      Improved gross motor coordination of the affected side

    • D. 

      Increased physical awareness of the affected side

  • 18. 
    A therapist identifies excessive femoral neck anteversion during an evaluation of a patient diagnosed with trochanteric bursitis.  This structure finding commonly results in
    • A. 

      An increase in hip external rotation

    • B. 

      An increase in hip internal rotation

    • C. 

      An increase in hip extension

    • D. 

      An increase in hip flexion

  • 19. 
    A 63-year-old female referred to physical therapy for gait training suddenly loses her balance and falls to the floor.  After rushing to the scene it becomes obvious that the patient is unconscious.  Which of the following would be the most appropriate immediate response?
    • A. 

      Secure and maintain an airway

    • B. 

      File an incident report

    • C. 

      Observe and record vital signs

    • D. 

      Attempt to define the specific cause for the loss of consciousness

  • 20. 
    A therapist evaluates a patient placed in respiratory isolation.  Which of the following diseases would require respiratory isolation?
    • A. 

      Diphtheria

    • B. 

      Pharyngitis

    • C. 

      Pertussis

    • D. 

      Hepatitis

  • 21. 
    A physical therapist working on a team with a physical therapist assistant would be incorrect in asking an assistant to perform which of the following tasks?
    • A. 

      Modify treatment plan or goals

    • B. 

      Apply and measure assistive or adaptive devices

    • C. 

      Identify changes in treatment outcome

    • D. 

      Administer therapeutic modalities

  • 22. 
    Which statement concerning the anterior cruciate ligament is true?
    • A. 

      It is maximally taut between 0-20 and 70-90 degrees of knee flexion

    • B. 

      It resists posterior tibial displacement

    • C. 

      It inserts on the medial femoral intercondylar notch

    • D. 

      All of these

  • 23. 
    The most common mechanism for an anterior talofibular ligament sprain is
    • A. 

      Inversion and dorsiflexion

    • B. 

      Inversion and plantarflexion

    • C. 

      Inversion

    • D. 

      Pronation, eversion, and dorsiflexion

  • 24. 
    A wheelchair designed for a paraplegic patient should include
    • A. 

      Reclining frame

    • B. 

      Elevating leg rests

    • C. 

      Handrims with 12 vertical projections

    • D. 

      Removable arms

  • 25. 
    A patient is referred to physical therapy diagnosed with right hip trochanteric bursitis.  Which clinical finding is usually not associated with trochanteric bursitis?
    • A. 

      Resisted abduction will reproduce symptoms

    • B. 

      No function limitations in active range of motion

    • C. 

      Positive Ober’s test

    • D. 

      Joint play motions are limited in a capsular pattern

  • 26. 
    What type of suspension devices is appropriate for a below-knee prosthesis?
    • A. 

      Thigh corset

    • B. 

      Patella tendon bearing supracondylar suspension

    • C. 

      Cup suspension

    • D. 

      All of these

  • 27. 
    A physical therapist is treating a 16-year-old football player who has recently recovered from a hamstring strain, which he injured while attempting a field goal two weeks ago.  The therapist is concerned that the athlete will not follow through with the stretching exercises once he is released from therapy.  Which statement would be considered inaccurate when describing the benefits of stretching to the football player?
    • A. 

      Stretching will make football easier for you because it prepares you body for activity

    • B. 

      Stretching will increase you range of motion in your kicking leg

    • C. 

      Stretching will increase the tension in your leg and allow you to kick further

    • D. 

      Stretching will help your coordination by allowing free and easy movement

  • 28. 
    • A. 

      Lateral glide of the patella

    • B. 

      Caudal glide of the patella

    • C. 

      Posterior glide of the tibia

    • D. 

      Anterior glide of the tibia

  • 29. 
    Which sequence is most appropriate when descending stairs with crutches?
    • A. 

      Crutches, injured leg, healthy leg

    • B. 

      Crutches, healthy leg, injured leg

    • C. 

      Injured leg, crutches, healthy leg

    • D. 

      None of these

  • 30. 
    Exercise can cause a significant increase in the body’s cardiac output.  During exercise, there is a major redistribution of the elevated cardiac output.  During mild to moderate exercise what changes would you expect to take place?
    • A. 

      An increase in cerebral and coronary blood flow

    • B. 

      An increase in cerebral and active muscle blood flow

    • C. 

      An increase in coronary and active skeletal muscle blood flow

    • D. 

      A decrease in cerebral and coronary blood flow

  • 31. 
    A physical therapist performs a passive range of motion to a C7 quadriplegic.  The patient’s bilateral straight leg raise is to measure passively to 90 degrees.  What should the physical therapist conclude about the patient’s ability to perform activities of daily living?
    • A. 

      The patient requires a straight leg raise of 110-120 degrees in order to perform long sit and activities of daily living.

    • B. 

      The patient is at a functional range to perform long sit and activities of daily living.

    • C. 

      The patient’s range of motion is beyond the expected limit for long sit and activities of daily living

    • D. 

      This patient requires a straight leg raise of 150 degrees in order to perform long sit and activities of daily living.

  • 32. 
    Typically drugs are administered through enteral or parenteral administration.  Which of the following is an example of enteral administration?
    • A. 

      Inhalation

    • B. 

      Injection

    • C. 

      Topical

    • D. 

      Oral

  • 33. 
    An increasing number of states offer consumers the ability to enter the health care system by going directly to a physical therapist.  Which statement describing the effects of direct access is accurate?
    • A. 

      Physical Therapist’s malpractice rates have sharply risen as a result of direct access.

    • B. 

      Insurance carriers may deny claims without a physician’s signature in states with direct access.

    • C. 

      Physical therapy has been overutilized in states with direct access.

    • D. 

      Physicians are being alienated by physical therapists in states with direct access.

  • 34. 
    A patient is in supine with both lower extremities in a 90-degree straight-leg position.  As the patient slowly lowers her extended legs toward the horizontal, there is an increase in lordosis of the low back.  This notes marked weakness of the
    • A. 

      Hip flexors

    • B. 

      Back extensors

    • C. 

      Hip extensors

    • D. 

      Abdominals

  • 35. 
    What functional position should the metacarpophalangeal joint be placed to when designing a splint?
    • A. 

      Complete extension

    • B. 

      20-40 degrees of flexion

    • C. 

      50-60 degrees of flexion

    • D. 

      70-90 degrees of flexion

  • 36. 
    An above knee amputee is gait training with their prosthesis.  The patient ambulates consistently with an abducted gait on the prosthetic side.  All of the following may cause this gait pattern EXCEPT
    • A. 

      High medial wall

    • B. 

      Inadequate suspension

    • C. 

      Excessive knee friction

    • D. 

      Prosthesis is too short

  • 37. 
    A C4 quadriplegic patient requires a custom wheelchair upon discharge from the hospital.  The patient’s diaphragm is partially innervated.  The most appropriate recommendations for proper seating are
    • A. 

      Light weight manual wheelchair, upright frame, back extension, seat and back cushions

    • B. 

      Folding reclining wheelchair, power chin control, seat and back cushions

    • C. 

      Non-folding reclining wheelchair, power tongue control, underslung tray for ventilator

    • D. 

      Upright power wheelchair, joystick hand control, seat cushion

  • 38. 
    A C6 quadriplegic would have all of the following muscles innervated EXCEPT the
    • A. 

      Biceps

    • B. 

      Deltoids

    • C. 

      Triceps

    • D. 

      Diaphragm

  • 39. 
    At what level is it realistic for a spinal cord injured patient to functional ambulate?
    • A. 

      C7

    • B. 

      T1

    • C. 

      T6

    • D. 

      L1

  • 40. 
    Progress notes allow members of all health services to know what the patient is accomplishing in each given area.  Which statement regarding physical therapy progress notes is not true?
    • A. 

      Observations and recordings should be the result of tangible tests and measurements.

    • B. 

      The progress note must contain patient identification, the date and the signature of the therapist.

    • C. 

      Progress notes can include diagrams, graphs and flow sheets

    • D. 

      Ogress notes should be written by physical therapists and not by other care providers such as physical therapist assistants.

  • 41. 
    The primary area of the residual limb used for weight-bearing in a below-knee prosthesis is the
    • A. 

      Patella tendon

    • B. 

      Distal end of the residual limb

    • C. 

      Lateral tibial condyle

    • D. 

      Fibular head

  • 42. 
    A patient one-week status post left total hip replacement is diagnosed with an acute deep vein thrombosis in the left calf.  The physical therapist’s role in the acute care of a deep vein thrombosis is
    • A. 

      Continued gait training with an assistive device and partial weight bearing

    • B. 

      Progressive resistive exercises for bilateral lower extremities

    • C. 

      Patient is on bedrest with no active therapy to the left leg

    • D. 

      Postural drainage and diaphragmatic breathing

  • 43. 
    Health maintenance organizations differ from a typical feel for service insurance providers in a variety of ways.  Which of the following does not accurately describe health maintenance organizations?
    • A. 

      Members are limited to receiving services from specific providers.

    • B. 

      Payment to providers is often on a capitation or prospective basis.

    • C. 

      Health maintenance organizations provide services for a monthly fee which varies based on the amount of services utilized by each member

    • D. 

      Health maintenance organizations are responsible for the provision and accessibility of care

  • 44. 
    A hemiplegic patient is observed during gait training.  The patient performs sidestepping toward the hemiplegic side.  The physical therapist may expect the patient to compensate for weakened abductors by
    • A. 

      Hip hiking of the unaffected side

    • B. 

      Lateral trunk flexion toward the hemiplegic side

    • C. 

      Lateral trunk flexion toward the unaffected side

    • D. 

      Hip extension of the hemiplegic side

  • 45. 
    What could cause the right side of the pelvis to drop during the left stance phase of gait on a patient with left above-knee prosthesis?
    • A. 

      Weak abdominal musculature

    • B. 

      Weak gluteus medius

    • C. 

      Weak gluteus maximus

    • D. 

      All of these

  • 46. 
    Postural drainage with percussion and vibration is indicated to a patient’s lateral basal lung segments.  Standard positioning for these lung segments is contraindicated secondary to the patient’s inability to tolerate an increase in venous return.  This position would best be modified by
    • A. 

      Raising the head and neck to decrease venous return

    • B. 

      Lying the patient in supine with the lower extremities declined

    • C. 

      Positioning the patient in sidelying with a small decline in the head and chest

    • D. 

      There is no possible modification to the positions which are effective

  • 47. 
    Which diagnostic tool is used to identify intrinsic and extrinsic spinal cord lesions by injecting radiopaque material into the spinal canal?
    • A. 

      Myelogram

    • B. 

      Cerebral angiography

    • C. 

      Computerized axial tomography

    • D. 

      Nuclear magnetic resonance

  • 48. 
    A C4 quadriplegic is able to adduct the scapula using the
    • A. 

      Middle trapezius

    • B. 

      Serratus anterior

    • C. 

      Subscapularis

    • D. 

      Rhomboids

  • 49. 
    What is the first functional task that should be taught to a T2 spinal cord injured patient?
    • A. 

      Rolling over

    • B. 

      Self range of motion

    • C. 

      Ambulation with long leg braces

    • D. 

      Bed to wheelchair transfer

  • 50. 
    A patient sustained a deep partial-thickness burn to the left forearm.  A reduction in the cellular and protein constituents of hypertrophic scarring can be accomplished through
    • A. 

      Pressure garments

    • B. 

      Passing range of motion

    • C. 

      Surgical intervention only

    • D. 

      Correct positioning