Want To Be An Ophthalmologist? Take This Quiz!
An ophthalmologist is a medical or osteopathic doctor who specializes in eye and vision care. Ophthalmologists differ from optometrists and opticians in their levels of training and in what they can diagnose and treat.
Want to be an Ophthalmologist? Take this quiz!
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which of the following is an example of a consultation
- A.
Jim, you suspect Jim may have the early stage primary open angle glaucoma. unfortunately you do not have the appropriate diagnostic equipment at your clinic. you send jim to another physician to have an evaluation for glaucoma with notes for Jim to return to your office for continued care.
- B.
Karen, you suspect Karen has advanced exudative age-related macular degeneration. After your conversation with Karen the decision is made to go to a local ophthalmologist for avastin injections every 4 weeks.
- C.
Bob has early signs of cataracts. After you explain your findings and the significance, BOB is pissed about the news and decides to go another doctor for a second opinion
- D.
Jack has early cataracts. after you explain your findings and significance, Jack respectfully asks for his records and if there is another optometrist in the area that you trust, so he could get a second opinion. you give him the information of a colleague and he explains that he will be back in a year just like always
Correct Answer
A. Jim, you suspect Jim may have the early stage primary open angle glaucoma. unfortunately you do not have the appropriate diagnostic equipment at your clinic. you send jim to another physician to have an evaluation for glaucoma with notes for Jim to return to your office for continued care.Explanation
This scenario is an example of a consultation because the optometrist refers Jim to another physician for further evaluation and care. The optometrist suspects that Jim may have glaucoma but does not have the necessary equipment to make a definitive diagnosis. Therefore, they send Jim to another physician who can provide the appropriate diagnostic evaluation. The optometrist also provides notes for Jim to return to their office for continued care, indicating that the consultation is part of an ongoing treatment plan.Rate this question:
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- 2.
If there is a suspected problem. when should a baby's first eye exam be done?
- A.
6 months or earlier
- B.
3 years
- C.
1st grade
Correct Answer
A. 6 months or earlierExplanation
Babies should have their first eye exam done at 6 months or earlier. This is because early detection of any potential eye problems is crucial for their overall visual development. By examining a baby's eyes at this age, any issues such as refractive errors or eye diseases can be identified and treated promptly, ensuring that the baby's vision develops properly.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which of the following age ranges is the ONLY age range in which its ok for a patient to go 3 years without an eye exam (according to the lectures)
- A.
3-5 YOA
- B.
6-18 YOA
- C.
40-60 YOA
- D.
18-40 YOA
- E.
6 months old or younger
- F.
61 YOA or older
Correct Answer
D. 18-40 YOAExplanation
According to the lectures, the only age range in which it is okay for a patient to go 3 years without an eye exam is 18-40 years old.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which of the following parts of a routine wellness exam would NOT be covered by medical insurance (select all that apply)
- A.
Refraction with Rx given to pt
- B.
Binocular vision screening
- C.
IOP
- D.
Anterior segment
- E.
Visual fields
- F.
Dilation
- G.
OCT
- H.
Option 8
- I.
Diagnostic refraction (no Rx given)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Refraction with Rx given to pt
B. Binocular vision screeningExplanation
this question is really asking what vision insurance would cover (but that's too easy) vision insurance will cover "routine Vison related" tests. i like to think of it as, if the patient is benefiting/ getting something from the test somehow, then vision insurance will likely cover it (with an appropriate diagnosis ie. myopia, astigmatism etc). for a diagnostic refraction; you can do a refraction whenever the heck you want to: you dont always have to give the final Rx to the patient. when a refraction is done and no Rx is given, all the information still goes into the chart. so you may refer back at a later date to determine pertinent changes. But if the patient wants the Rx to get glasses, someone has to pay for that. gotta make that monayyy!Rate this question:
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- 5.
In the course of an eye wellness exam of an established pt. you do a refraction and/or pertinent related tests, in which the patient really wants to buy new glasses. you should bill the following CPT code
- A.
92015, 92014
- B.
92015
- C.
92015, 92004
- D.
92004
- E.
92014, 92014
Correct Answer
A. 92015, 92014Explanation
The correct answer is 92015, 92014. This is because during an eye wellness exam, the optometrist or ophthalmologist may perform a refraction test to determine the patient's prescription for glasses or contact lenses (CPT code 92015). They may also perform other pertinent related tests, such as a comprehensive eye exam (CPT code 92014), to evaluate the overall health of the patient's eyes. Therefore, both CPT codes 92015 and 92014 are appropriate to bill for this scenario.Rate this question:
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- 6.
True or false? there is a higher insurance reimbursement for including dilation as part of an eye wellness examination
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
you get paid for it regardless of if it is done or not. the reimbursement amount does not change.
however, it is best practice to complete a dilated fundus exam for quality patient careRate this question:
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- 7.
Regarding the eye wellness examination @ Ketchum health your very first patient, here for a new eye wellness examination is following you down the hall. during the trek to the exam room, you completed autorefractometry/keratometry. in the exam room, you completed a thoroughly detailed history of the patient (PMH, POH, meds, allergies, etc.). after your completed refraction, you find that the patient would benefit from spectacles for both far and near. Goldmann applanation tonometry was 15/16mmHg. the patient then consented to dilation. once dilated, you proceed to find that this patient has unremarkable eyes. you hand over the new prescription and send the patient to optical to pick out some shiny new frames assuming that everything mentioned was documented correctly... does it meet the minimum requirements for Ketchum health
- A.
NOOOOOO!
- B.
YUSSSSS!!
Correct Answer
A. NOOOOOO!Explanation
this exam would be unacceptable; NO preliminary/entrance tests were completed. entrance testing consists of EOMS, NPC, CVF, pupils BP/HR, Cover test etc.
an AR/AK does not count as entrance testing (even though it was done at the beginning)Rate this question:
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- 8.
Karen comes into your office and states the following complaint "my right eye is red and irritated" you start a problem-focused exam in the health record during your FOLDARS she explains intermittent frequency. symptoms started 3 days ago. when to occurs it seems to last for the whole day. looking at the computer makes it worse. closing her eyes makes it better. and when it occurs it is about an 8 of 10 on the pain scale. which of the following would be the MOST appropriate chief complaint to document
- A.
OD red and irritated
- B.
My right eye is red and irritated
- C.
OD Injection
- D.
OD red and irritated x 3 days, intermittent, entire day (when occurs), computer makes it worse, closed eyes help, 8 of 10 pain scale
- E.
Problem-focused exam
- F.
Complete exam
Correct Answer
A. OD red and irritatedExplanation
you want to try to keep your CC as close to what the patient says, as close to their own words as you can. its ok to use abbreviations where appropriate. in this example, the patient did not elaborate on history of present illness until prompted, so including FOLDARS in the CC would be inappropriate.Rate this question:
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- 9.
According to the lectures, what is the minimum number of HPI categories that you need to cover/ask in order to bill 92004/92014
- A.
4
- B.
6
- C.
1
- D.
3
- E.
5
Correct Answer
A. 4Explanation
According to the lectures, in order to bill for 92004/92014, a minimum of 4 HPI (History of Present Illness) categories need to be covered/asked.Rate this question:
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- 10.
In terms of disc diameters, how large is the FOV of a direct ophthalmoscope
- A.
2dd
- B.
5dd
- C.
1dd
- D.
3dd
Correct Answer
A. 2ddExplanation
The FOV (Field of View) of a direct ophthalmoscope is 2dd in terms of disc diameters. This means that when looking through the ophthalmoscope, the field of vision will cover an area that is equivalent to two disc diameters.Rate this question:
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- 11.
In general, what is the percentage of the fundus we can see with DO
- A.
50-70%
- B.
15-20%
- C.
10%
- D.
80-90%
Correct Answer
A. 50-70%Explanation
The correct answer is 50-70%. This means that when using direct ophthalmoscopy (DO), we are able to visualize approximately 50-70% of the fundus. Direct ophthalmoscopy involves using a handheld instrument called an ophthalmoscope to examine the back of the eye, including the retina, optic nerve, and blood vessels. While DO provides a limited view compared to other imaging techniques, it is still a valuable tool for assessing the health of the eye and detecting certain eye conditions.Rate this question:
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- 12.
You can maximize the FOV of DO by all of the following except
- A.
Increasing working distance
- B.
Maximizing pupil
- C.
Decreasing working distance
- D.
Having a myopic patient wear their glasses
Correct Answer
A. Increasing working distanceExplanation
Increasing working distance can actually help maximize the field of view (FOV) of depth of field (DO). When the working distance is increased, the area that can be seen in focus expands, allowing for a larger FOV. Therefore, this option is not an exception and can help maximize the FOV of DO.Rate this question:
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- 13.
High myopia will ______________ the FOV of DO
- A.
Decrease
- B.
Increase
- C.
Refractive error plays no part in field of view
Correct Answer
A. DecreaseExplanation
High myopia refers to severe nearsightedness, where distant objects appear blurry. In this context, the question is asking how high myopia affects the field of view (FOV) of depth of field (DO). The FOV refers to the extent of the visual area that can be seen without moving the eyes or head. Since high myopia causes blurry vision, it means that the individual's ability to see clearly and sharply within their FOV is reduced. Therefore, high myopia will decrease the FOV of DO.Rate this question:
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- 14.
For fundus biomicroscopy, decreasing slit lamp mag or increasing the dioptric power of the condensing lense will _______________ the FOV
- A.
Increase
- B.
Decrease
- C.
Not change
Correct Answer
A. IncreaseExplanation
Increasing the dioptric power of the condensing lens or decreasing the slit lamp magnification will result in an increase in the field of view (FOV) during fundus biomicroscopy. This is because a higher dioptric power or lower magnification allows for a wider area of the fundus to be seen, increasing the overall FOV.Rate this question:
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- 15.
For fundus biomicroscopy, which condensing lens will give the best balance between magnification and FOV
- A.
78D
- B.
90D
- C.
60D
- D.
20D
Correct Answer
A. 78DExplanation
The 78D condensing lens would give the best balance between magnification and field of view (FOV) for fundus biomicroscopy. This lens provides a moderate level of magnification while still allowing a wide enough FOV to capture a sufficient amount of the fundus. The 90D lens may provide a larger FOV but at the expense of magnification, while the 60D and 20D lenses may offer higher magnification but with a narrower FOV.Rate this question:
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- 16.
For SL biomicroscopy, increasing the power of the condensing lens will _____________ FOV and _____________ magnification
- A.
Increase, decrease
- B.
Decrease, increase
- C.
Increase, increase
- D.
Decrease, decrease
Correct Answer
A. Increase, decreaseExplanation
Increasing the power of the condensing lens in SL biomicroscopy will increase the field of view (FOV) because a higher power lens allows for a wider area to be viewed. However, it will decrease the magnification because a higher power lens spreads out the light rays, resulting in a smaller image size.Rate this question:
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- 17.
According to the lecture material, the focal point of a 90D condensing lens is approximately
- A.
8mm
- B.
14mm
- C.
12mm
- D.
10mm
- E.
0.8mm
Correct Answer
A. 8mmExplanation
however, when you do math it should be around 11mm 1/90=0.011Rate this question:
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- 18.
A red-free filter will accentuate all of the following EXCEPT
- A.
Choroidal melanoma
- B.
Retinal nerve fiber layer
- C.
Blood vessels
- D.
Choroidal nevi
Correct Answer
D. Choroidal neviExplanation
A red-free filter is used in ophthalmology to enhance the visibility of certain structures in the eye by blocking out red light. It accentuates the contrast between different components of the eye, making them easier to distinguish. Choroidal melanoma, retinal nerve fiber layer, and blood vessels are all structures that can be accentuated by a red-free filter. However, choroidal nevi are not accentuated by this filter, meaning they do not stand out as much compared to the other structures.Rate this question:
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- 19.
You are evaluating your patients left eye using your DO, which of the following directions would direct your patient to fixate to center the ONH in your view
- A.
Up and to the right
- B.
Down and to the right
- C.
Up and to the left
- D.
Down and to the left
- E.
Up and towards your nose
Correct Answer
A. Up and to the rightExplanation
the reason why up and towards your nose is incorrect is because... we have two eyes, our nose is in the middle of said eyes. when you tell a patient to look towards their nose, they dont know which direction to look, its left for the right eye but right form the left eye, its just confusing. much easier to just tell the patient to look in a directionRate this question:
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- 20.
Approximately how much power should you dial into the DO to start evaluating the eyelids
- A.
+20.0D
- B.
+17.0D
- C.
+30.00D
- D.
-20.0D
- E.
-23.00D
Correct Answer
A. +20.0DExplanation
To start evaluating the eyelids, approximately +20.0D of power should be dialed into the DO.Rate this question:
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- 21.
You are evaluating the anterior segment with your DO, starting at the lids and lashes (assuming it is clear), in order to visualize the cornea/conjunctiva --> iris --> lens --> vitreous --> retina, how would you adjust your DO compensating lenses
- A.
Decrease plus
- B.
Decrease minus
- C.
Increase plus
Correct Answer
A. Decrease plusExplanation
When evaluating the anterior segment, the DO uses compensating lenses to adjust the focus and clarity of the different structures. Since the DO is starting at the lids and lashes and moving towards the retina, decreasing the plus power of the compensating lenses would be the appropriate adjustment. Decreasing the plus power helps to bring the focal point closer to the DO, allowing for a clearer visualization of the cornea, conjunctiva, iris, lens, vitreous, and retina.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Jim is evaluating his patient's right eye for a PSC. Jim knows from the patient's record that he has a large central opacity which was last examined 1 week ago (he knows it's there). he has dialed in +3.00 into the DO, he is 1-2cm from the patient's eye, and moving around to examine all quadrants but he is failing to see anything. what is Jim doing wrong
- A.
Jim is way too close
- B.
Jim is way too far away
- C.
He has dialed up too much power
- D.
Jim hasn't dialed in enough power
Correct Answer
A. Jim is way too closeExplanation
to examine the lens you would need to dial in ~+3.00D in compensation lenses and stand around arms length away.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which of the following filters would allow the BEST visualization of ONH drusen
- A.
Red free
- B.
Cobalt blue
- C.
Fluorescein
- D.
Green free
Correct Answer
A. Red freeExplanation
The red free filter allows the best visualization of ONH drusen. This filter enhances the contrast between the drusen and the surrounding tissue, making it easier to identify and visualize the drusen. The red free filter blocks red light, which can interfere with the visualization of drusen, while allowing other wavelengths of light to pass through, resulting in a clearer and more detailed image of the drusen.Rate this question:
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- 24.
The appearance of this ONH is likely due to which of the following
- A.
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
- B.
Tilted disc
- C.
High myopia
- D.
ONH drusen
Correct Answer
A. Idiopathic intracranial hypertensionExplanation
ill try not to focus on disease in this one (even though most of the lectures a HEAVILY disease based) but what im trying to convey is that pathologic causes of indistinct ONH margins look feathery. compared to non pathologic indistinct margins.Rate this question:
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- 25.
This is a fundus image of
- A.
OS RPE crescent
- B.
OD RPE crescent
- C.
OS choroidal crescent
- D.
OD choroidal crescent
- E.
OS Scleral crescent
- F.
OD scleral crescent
Correct Answer
A. OS RPE crescentExplanation
The fundus image shows a crescent-shaped area in the left eye (OS) that corresponds to the retinal pigment epithelium (RPE). The RPE is a layer of cells located between the retina and the choroid, responsible for supporting the retina and maintaining its function. This crescent-shaped area indicates a specific abnormality or change in the RPE layer in the left eye.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The indistinct appearance of this ONH is due to
- A.
Degeneration of the short posterior ciliary artery
- B.
Degeneration of the long posterior ciliary artery
- C.
Degeneration of the anterior ciliary artery
- D.
Degeneration of the central retinal artery
- E.
Degeneration of the central retinal vein
- F.
Degeneration of the choriocapillaris
Correct Answer
A. Degeneration of the short posterior ciliary arteryExplanation
The indistinct appearance of the optic nerve head (ONH) is likely due to the degeneration of the short posterior ciliary artery. The ONH is supplied by the ciliary arteries, which provide the necessary blood flow to the optic nerve. When the short posterior ciliary artery degenerates, it can lead to a decrease in blood flow to the ONH, resulting in an indistinct appearance. This can affect the visual function and potentially lead to vision problems.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which of the following is the correct order of optic nerve head rim tissue from thinnest to thickest (in general)
- A.
Temporal < nasal < superior < inferior
- B.
Temporal < inferior < superior < nasal
- C.
Inferior < superior < nasal < temporal
- D.
Inferior < nasal < temporal < superior
Correct Answer
A. Temporal < nasal < superior < inferiorExplanation
The correct answer is "temporal < nasal < superior < inferior". This order is based on the general thickness of the optic nerve head rim tissue. The temporal region is usually the thinnest, followed by the nasal region, then the superior region, and finally the inferior region, which is generally the thickest.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which of the following characteristics would you NOT expect to find associated with ONH pallor
- A.
Reduced BVCA
- B.
APD
- C.
VF defect
- D.
Color desaturation
- E.
Compromised circulation
- F.
Ptosis
Correct Answer
F. PtosisExplanation
ONH pallor refers to the pale appearance of the optic nerve head, which can be indicative of optic nerve damage. Ptosis, or drooping of the eyelid, is not typically associated with ONH pallor. The other characteristics listed, such as reduced BVCA (best visual corrected acuity), APD (afferent pupillary defect), VF (visual field) defect, color desaturation, and compromised circulation, are all commonly associated with ONH pallor.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Pathological symmetrical thinning of the Optic nerve head rim is only due to
- A.
Glaucoma
- B.
Ocular hypertension
- C.
high myopia
- D.
Large nerve
Correct Answer
A. GlaucomaExplanation
glaucoma is the best answer here, question asked about pathological (reason why large nerve is not correct)
Ocular hypertension does not mean glaucoma, yes high IOP put you at greater risk of developing glaucoma but high IOP is not glaucoma
high myopia goes along with large nerveRate this question:
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- 30.
In this fundus photo, which of the following would best describe the eye and the appearance
- A.
OS ONH notch @ 6:00
- B.
OD ONH notch @ 6:00
- C.
OS ONH notch @ 3:00
- D.
OD ONH notch @ 3:00
Correct Answer
A. OS ONH notch @ 6:00Explanation
The correct answer is OS ONH notch @ 6:00. This means that in the fundus photo, the left eye (OS) has an optic nerve head (ONH) notch located at the 6 o'clock position.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Spontaneous venous pulsation is visible when
- A.
Intraocular Pressure is higher than central retinal venous pressure
- B.
Central retinal venous pressure is higher than IOP
- C.
IOP is higher than central retinal artery pressure
- D.
Central retinal artery pressure is higher than IOP
Correct Answer
A. Intraocular Pressure is higher than central retinal venous pressureExplanation
Spontaneous venous pulsation is visible when the Intraocular Pressure (IOP) is higher than the central retinal venous pressure. This means that when the pressure inside the eye (IOP) is greater than the pressure in the veins of the retina, the veins will pulsate and become visible.Rate this question:
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- 32.
For DO, which aperture could you use to measure your patient's disc size?
- A.
Medium
- B.
Small
- C.
Large
- D.
Slit
Correct Answer
A. MediumExplanation
A medium aperture would be suitable for measuring the patient's disc size. This is because a medium aperture allows for a balance between a narrow and wide opening, providing a moderate amount of light to enter the eye. This aperture size would enable the examiner to accurately assess the size of the patient's disc without overwhelming or insufficient light entering the eye.Rate this question:
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- 33.
True or false? tilted discs usually occur bilaterally
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
usually a bilateral congenital anomalyRate this question:
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- 34.
Malinsertion of ONH through the scleral canal at an angle usually greater than 15o. can present unilateral or bilateral. associated with elevation of the nasal rim tissue. the disk appears stretched and flattened temporally. commonly seen in myopes and astigmatics. this is a description of which of the following
- A.
Oblique insertion
- B.
Tilted disk
- C.
Relative ONH hypoplasia
- D.
ONH notching
Correct Answer
A. Oblique insertionExplanation
The description provided in the question matches the condition known as oblique insertion. This condition refers to the malinsertion of the optic nerve head (ONH) through the scleral canal at an angle usually greater than 15 degrees. It can present unilaterally or bilaterally and is associated with elevation of the nasal rim tissue. The optic disk appears stretched and flattened temporally. Oblique insertion is commonly seen in individuals with myopia and astigmatism.Rate this question:
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- 35.
When evaluating the c/d of a patient with an obliquely inserted ONH, what would you use to judge the c/d ratio
- A.
The vertical limits
- B.
The horizontal limits
- C.
The inferior and superior apexes of the "kidney bean" shape
- D.
Just call itg glaucoma and send them on their way
Correct Answer
A. The vertical limitsExplanation
To judge the c/d (cup-to-disc) ratio of a patient with an obliquely inserted optic nerve head (ONH), one would use the vertical limits. The vertical limits refer to the upper and lower boundaries of the cup, which can be assessed by comparing the height of the cup to the height of the disc. This is important in determining the extent of cupping and evaluating for possible glaucoma. The horizontal limits and the apexes of the "kidney bean" shape may also provide valuable information, but the vertical limits specifically help in assessing the c/d ratio.Rate this question:
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- 36.
You are using your DO, and notice a lesion that seems elevated, you focus on the apex of the lesion then dial in 4 clicks to focus on the base of the lesion. what is the approximate relative height of this lesion
- A.
1.33mm
- B.
1mm
- C.
3mm
- D.
0.133mm
Correct Answer
A. 1.33mmExplanation
The question describes using a DO (dental operating microscope) to examine a lesion. The examiner first focuses on the apex (top) of the lesion and then adjusts the focus by dialing in 4 clicks to focus on the base (bottom) of the lesion. The question asks for the approximate relative height of the lesion. Since the examiner adjusted the focus by 4 clicks, it suggests that each click corresponds to a specific measurement. Therefore, the approximate relative height of the lesion would be 4 times the measurement of each click. The answer provided, 1.33mm, is the closest option to this calculation.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which of the following would be a "normal" c/d ratio for a caucasian
- A.
0.3h x 0.3v
- B.
0.6h x 0.6v
- C.
0.9h x 0.9v
- D.
0.1h x 0.3v
Correct Answer
A. 0.3h x 0.3v -
- 38.
True or false? retinal arteries lie above retinal veins.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Retinal arteries do indeed lie above retinal veins. This is due to the difference in blood flow direction. Arteries carry oxygenated blood away from the heart and towards the tissues, while veins carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart. In the retina, the arteries bring oxygenated blood into the tissue, and they are positioned above the veins, which carry the deoxygenated blood out of the retina.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Arterial sclerosis with associated venous deflection at a right angle. the vein appears tapered adjacent to the artery and the underlying vein is concealed
- A.
Gunn's sign
- B.
Salus' sign
- C.
Bonnet's sign
- D.
Charles Bonnet syndrome
Correct Answer
A. Gunn's signExplanation
Gunn's sign refers to the presence of arterial sclerosis with associated venous deflection at a right angle. This means that there is a narrowing of the artery and the adjacent vein appears tapered. Additionally, the underlying vein is concealed. This sign is named after Dr. Robert Gunn, who first described it.Rate this question:
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- 40.
In general, when evaluating a retinal hemorrhage, which of the following are matched correctly? (select 2)
- A.
Bright red blood --> likely arterial
- B.
Dark red blood --> likely venous
- C.
Bright red blood --> likely venous
- D.
Dark red blood --> likely arterial
- E.
Who cares... Homie has blood in his eye!!!!!!
Correct Answer(s)
A. Bright red blood --> likely arterial
B. Dark red blood --> likely venousExplanation
Bright red blood is likely arterial because arterial blood is oxygenated and has a higher oxygen content, giving it a brighter red color. Dark red blood is likely venous because venous blood has a lower oxygen content and appears darker in color.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which of the following plaques is most common
- A.
Hollenhorst plaque
- B.
Calcific plaque
- C.
Fibrin plaque
- D.
Talc
Correct Answer
A. Hollenhorst plaqueExplanation
Hollenhorst plaque is the most common plaque among the options given. It is a small, cholesterol-rich plaque that is typically found in the retinal artery. These plaques are often composed of cholesterol crystals and are known to cause blockages in the blood vessels, leading to decreased blood flow and potential damage to the surrounding tissues. This type of plaque is commonly associated with atherosclerosis and can be a significant risk factor for cardiovascular diseases.Rate this question:
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- 42.
This reflective plaque is a __________________, and a common indicator of _______________
- A.
Hollenhorst plaque; impending stroke
- B.
Calcific plaque; impending stroke
- C.
Fibrin plaque; impending embolis
- D.
Hollenhorst plaque; impending heart attack
Correct Answer
A. Hollenhorst plaque; impending strokeExplanation
A Hollenhorst plaque is a type of plaque that is commonly found in the retinal artery. It is composed of cholesterol and other fatty substances that can break off and travel to smaller blood vessels in the brain, leading to a blockage. This blockage can cause an impending stroke, as the blood flow to the brain is compromised. Therefore, the presence of a Hollenhorst plaque is a common indicator of an impending stroke.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Talc retinopathy apparently is due to which of the following
- A.
Snorting of talcum powder laced cocaine
- B.
Snorting of pure cocaine
- C.
Snorting pixie sticks
- D.
Using talcum powder on their rump as a weeeee little baby
Correct Answer
A. Snorting of talcum powder laced cocaineExplanation
i know, i know supposedly there is no pathology on the final but there really isnt much else from Dr. TongRate this question:
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- 44.
Which of the following hemorrhages would obscure your view of the posterior pole (select 2)
- A.
Vitreal hemorrhage
- B.
Sub-retinal hemorrhage
- C.
Dot blot hemorrhage
- D.
Flame hemorrhage
- E.
Sub-RPE hemorrhage
- F.
Choroidal hemorrhage
- G.
Pre-retinal hemorrhage
Correct Answer(s)
A. Vitreal hemorrhage
G. Pre-retinal hemorrhageExplanation
Vitreal hemorrhage and pre-retinal hemorrhage are the two types of hemorrhages that can obscure the view of the posterior pole. Vitreal hemorrhage refers to bleeding into the vitreous humor, the gel-like substance that fills the space between the lens and the retina. Pre-retinal hemorrhage, on the other hand, refers to bleeding that occurs between the retina and the vitreous humor. Both of these hemorrhages can obstruct the visual pathway and make it difficult to see the posterior pole of the eye, which includes the optic nerve head and the macula.Rate this question:
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- 45.
You look into Bob's eye and notice the following. severe arteriole narrowing with severe focal constriction, abnormal A/V crossing, macular star-patterned hard exudates, cotton wool spots, retinal edema, and flame heme which stage of hypertensive retinopathy does Bob have
- A.
Stage 3
- B.
Stage 2
- C.
Stage 4
- D.
Stage 1
Correct Answer
A. Stage 3Explanation
Bob has stage 3 hypertensive retinopathy based on the presence of severe arteriole narrowing with severe focal constriction, abnormal A/V crossing, macular star-patterned hard exudates, cotton wool spots, retinal edema, and flame heme. These findings indicate significant damage to the blood vessels in the retina, including narrowing, constriction, and abnormal crossing of arteries and veins. Additionally, the presence of hard exudates, cotton wool spots, retinal edema, and flame heme suggests the presence of retinal ischemia and hemorrhage, which are characteristic of stage 3 hypertensive retinopathy.Rate this question:
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- 46.
An individual with stage 4 hypertensive retinopathy has a life expectancy of about
- A.
1yr
- B.
10yrs
- C.
3yrs
- D.
1 month
Correct Answer
A. 1yrExplanation
An individual with stage 4 hypertensive retinopathy has a life expectancy of about 1 year. This is because stage 4 hypertensive retinopathy is a severe form of the condition, indicating significant damage to the blood vessels in the retina caused by high blood pressure. If left untreated, this can lead to complications such as retinal detachment and vision loss. Therefore, the prognosis for individuals with stage 4 hypertensive retinopathy is generally poor, with a limited life expectancy of approximately 1 year.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which fundus photos shows grade II hypertensive retinopathy
- A.
C
- B.
A
- C.
B
- D.
D
Correct Answer
A. CExplanation
so the major indicator here is papilledema A,B, & D all have disc edema (fuzzy margins) so right away you should know at least grade IV. A,B,D all also have flame hemorrhages and CWS or hard exudates
C shows AV nicking (focal constriction) and arteriolar narrowingRate this question:
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- 48.
Hard exudates can be all of the following EXCEPT
- A.
RBC
- B.
WBC
- C.
Cellular debri
- D.
Proteins
Correct Answer
A. RBCExplanation
Hard exudates are yellowish-white deposits that can be seen in the retina of the eye. They are typically caused by leaking blood vessels and are composed of lipids, proteins, and cellular debris. While red blood cells (RBCs) can be present in hard exudates, they are not typically a major component. Therefore, the correct answer is RBC.Rate this question:
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- 49.
In this photo, which grade of arteriosclerotic retinopathy is present in the superior arcade
- A.
Stage IV
- B.
Stage III
- C.
Stage II
- D.
Stage I
Correct Answer
A. Stage IVExplanation
In arteriosclerotic retinopathy, the stages indicate the severity of the condition. Stage IV is the most advanced stage, indicating severe arteriosclerosis and significant narrowing of the blood vessels in the superior arcade of the retina. This narrowing can lead to decreased blood flow and potential damage to the retina. Hence, stage IV is the correct answer as it suggests the highest level of severity in arteriosclerotic retinopathy in the superior arcade.Rate this question:
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- 50.
You look into your patient's eye with your BIO and notice this. which of the following is correct
- A.
OS inferior Branch retinal vein occlusion
- B.
OD inferior branch retinal vein occlusion
- C.
OS superior branch retinal vein occlusion
- D.
OD superior branch retinal vein occlusion
- E.
OS central retinal vein occlusion
- F.
OD central retinal vein occlusion
- G.
OS central artery occlusion
- H.
OS inferior central artery occlusion
- I.
OS inferior hemi central retinal vein occlusion
Correct Answer
A. OS inferior Branch retinal vein occlusionExplanation
The correct answer is OS inferior Branch retinal vein occlusion because the question states that the examiner noticed a specific finding in the patient's eye using a BIO (binocular indirect ophthalmoscope). Based on this finding, the examiner identified an occlusion in the inferior branch of the retinal vein in the left eye (OS). This indicates a blockage of the blood flow in the retinal vein, specifically in the inferior branch, leading to potential vision problems in the affected area.Rate this question:
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Quiz Review Timeline +
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Current Version
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
May 12, 2021Quiz Created by
Catherine Halcomb
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