Want To Be An Ophthalmologist? Take This Quiz!

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| By Catherine Halcomb
Catherine Halcomb
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 1443 | Total Attempts: 6,714,115
| Attempts: 165 | Questions: 100
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1. If there is a suspected problem. when should a baby's first eye exam be done?

Explanation

Babies should have their first eye exam done at 6 months or earlier. This is because early detection of any potential eye problems is crucial for their overall visual development. By examining a baby's eyes at this age, any issues such as refractive errors or eye diseases can be identified and treated promptly, ensuring that the baby's vision develops properly.

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About This Quiz
Want To Be An Ophthalmologist? Take This Quiz! - Quiz

An ophthalmologist is a medical or osteopathic doctor who specializes in eye and vision care. Ophthalmologists differ from optometrists and opticians in their levels of training and in... see morewhat they can diagnose and treat.
Want to be an Ophthalmologist? Take this quiz! see less

2. Which of the following age ranges is the ONLY age range in which its ok for a patient to go 3 years without an eye exam (according to the lectures)

Explanation

According to the lectures, the only age range in which it is okay for a patient to go 3 years without an eye exam is 18-40 years old.

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3. True or false? there is a higher insurance reimbursement for including dilation as part of an eye wellness examination

Explanation

you get paid for it regardless of if it is done or not. the reimbursement amount does not change.
however, it is best practice to complete a dilated fundus exam for quality patient care

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4. Regarding the eye wellness examination @ Ketchum health your very first patient, here for a new eye wellness examination is following you down the hall. during the trek to the exam room, you completed autorefractometry/keratometry. in the exam room, you completed a thoroughly detailed history of the patient (PMH, POH, meds, allergies, etc.). after your completed refraction,  you find that the patient would benefit from spectacles for both far and near. Goldmann applanation tonometry was 15/16mmHg. the patient then consented to dilation. once dilated, you proceed to find that this patient has unremarkable eyes. you hand over the new prescription and send the patient to optical to pick out some shiny new frames assuming that everything mentioned was documented correctly... does it meet the minimum requirements for Ketchum health

Explanation

this exam would be unacceptable; NO preliminary/entrance tests were completed. entrance testing consists of EOMS, NPC, CVF, pupils BP/HR, Cover test etc.
an AR/AK does not count as entrance testing (even though it was done at the beginning)

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5. In general, what is the percentage of the fundus we can see with DO

Explanation

The correct answer is 50-70%. This means that when using direct ophthalmoscopy (DO), we are able to visualize approximately 50-70% of the fundus. Direct ophthalmoscopy involves using a handheld instrument called an ophthalmoscope to examine the back of the eye, including the retina, optic nerve, and blood vessels. While DO provides a limited view compared to other imaging techniques, it is still a valuable tool for assessing the health of the eye and detecting certain eye conditions.

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6. According to the lecture material, the focal point of a 90D condensing lens is approximately 

Explanation

however, when you do math it should be around 11mm 1/90=0.011

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7. Approximately how much power should you dial into the DO to start evaluating the eyelids

Explanation

To start evaluating the eyelids, approximately +20.0D of power should be dialed into the DO.

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8. You are evaluating the anterior segment with your DO, starting at the lids and lashes (assuming it is clear), in order to visualize the cornea/conjunctiva --> iris --> lens --> vitreous --> retina, how would you adjust your DO compensating lenses 

Explanation

When evaluating the anterior segment, the DO uses compensating lenses to adjust the focus and clarity of the different structures. Since the DO is starting at the lids and lashes and moving towards the retina, decreasing the plus power of the compensating lenses would be the appropriate adjustment. Decreasing the plus power helps to bring the focal point closer to the DO, allowing for a clearer visualization of the cornea, conjunctiva, iris, lens, vitreous, and retina.

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9. Jim is evaluating his patient's right eye for a PSC. Jim knows from the patient's record that he has a large central opacity which was last examined 1 week ago (he knows it's there). he has dialed in +3.00 into the DO, he is 1-2cm from the patient's eye, and moving around to examine all quadrants but he is failing to see anything. what is Jim doing wrong

Explanation

to examine the lens you would need to dial in ~+3.00D in compensation lenses and stand around arms length away.

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10. The appearance of this ONH is likely due to which of the following

Explanation

ill try not to focus on disease in this one (even though most of the lectures a HEAVILY disease based) but what im trying to convey is that pathologic causes of indistinct ONH margins look feathery. compared to non pathologic indistinct margins.

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11. The indistinct appearance of this ONH is due to

Explanation

The indistinct appearance of the optic nerve head (ONH) is likely due to the degeneration of the short posterior ciliary artery. The ONH is supplied by the ciliary arteries, which provide the necessary blood flow to the optic nerve. When the short posterior ciliary artery degenerates, it can lead to a decrease in blood flow to the ONH, resulting in an indistinct appearance. This can affect the visual function and potentially lead to vision problems.

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12. Which of the following characteristics would you NOT expect to find associated with ONH pallor

Explanation

ONH pallor refers to the pale appearance of the optic nerve head, which can be indicative of optic nerve damage. Ptosis, or drooping of the eyelid, is not typically associated with ONH pallor. The other characteristics listed, such as reduced BVCA (best visual corrected acuity), APD (afferent pupillary defect), VF (visual field) defect, color desaturation, and compromised circulation, are all commonly associated with ONH pallor.

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13. In this fundus photo, which of the following would best describe the eye and the appearance 

Explanation

The correct answer is OS ONH notch @ 6:00. This means that in the fundus photo, the left eye (OS) has an optic nerve head (ONH) notch located at the 6 o'clock position.

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14. When evaluating the c/d of a patient with an obliquely inserted ONH, what would you use to judge the c/d ratio

Explanation

To judge the c/d (cup-to-disc) ratio of a patient with an obliquely inserted optic nerve head (ONH), one would use the vertical limits. The vertical limits refer to the upper and lower boundaries of the cup, which can be assessed by comparing the height of the cup to the height of the disc. This is important in determining the extent of cupping and evaluating for possible glaucoma. The horizontal limits and the apexes of the "kidney bean" shape may also provide valuable information, but the vertical limits specifically help in assessing the c/d ratio.

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15. Which of the following would be a "normal" c/d ratio for a caucasian

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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16. True or false? retinal arteries lie above retinal veins.

Explanation

Retinal arteries do indeed lie above retinal veins. This is due to the difference in blood flow direction. Arteries carry oxygenated blood away from the heart and towards the tissues, while veins carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart. In the retina, the arteries bring oxygenated blood into the tissue, and they are positioned above the veins, which carry the deoxygenated blood out of the retina.

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17. This reflective plaque is a __________________, and a common indicator of _______________

Explanation

A Hollenhorst plaque is a type of plaque that is commonly found in the retinal artery. It is composed of cholesterol and other fatty substances that can break off and travel to smaller blood vessels in the brain, leading to a blockage. This blockage can cause an impending stroke, as the blood flow to the brain is compromised. Therefore, the presence of a Hollenhorst plaque is a common indicator of an impending stroke.

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18. Talc retinopathy apparently is due to which of the following

Explanation

i know, i know supposedly there is no pathology on the final but there really isnt much else from Dr. Tong

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19. Which of the following is responsible for this image 

Explanation

Central retinal artery occlusion is responsible for the image because it causes sudden, painless, and complete loss of vision in one eye. This occurs due to a blockage in the central retinal artery, which supplies blood to the retina. The lack of blood flow to the retina leads to ischemia and subsequent damage to the retinal cells, resulting in vision loss. The cherry red spot, which refers to a red spot in the center of the macula against a pale retina, is a characteristic finding in central retinal artery occlusion.

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20. The newer the cotton wool spot, the 

Explanation

The term "cotton wool spot" refers to a white, fluffy lesion that appears on the retina of the eye. The question suggests that the newer the cotton wool spot, the characteristic it is of being "fluffier". This means that when the lesion is more recent, it is more likely to have a softer, less defined appearance.

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21. The macular region consists of 

Explanation

The macular region consists of the perifovea, parafovea, fovea, and foveola. These are different areas within the macula, which is the central part of the retina responsible for central vision and color perception. The perifovea is the outermost region surrounding the fovea, followed by the parafovea which is the intermediate region. The fovea is the central area of the macula and contains the highest concentration of cone cells, which are responsible for detailed vision. The foveola is the smallest and most central part of the fovea, where visual acuity is the highest.

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22. The foveola is the central _____________mm of the fovea 

Explanation

The foveola is the central part of the fovea, which is a small depression in the retina of the eye. The foveola is the area of the fovea that contains the highest concentration of cone cells, which are responsible for sharp central vision. The given answer of 0.35mm indicates the size of the foveola, suggesting that it is a small area within the fovea.

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23. Which of the following would you likely NOT find hard exudates 

Explanation

Hard exudates are yellowish-white deposits that occur in the retina and are typically seen in conditions such as diabetic retinopathy. The photoreceptor layer, which contains the rods and cones responsible for vision, is not a common location for the presence of hard exudates. Therefore, it is unlikely to find hard exudates in the photoreceptor layer.

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24. Which of the following images shows hard exudates 

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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25. Which of the following images shows cotton wool spots 

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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26. Which of the following shows hard drusen 

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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27. True or false? regarding macular holes; IF IT AINT RED...IT AINT A HOLE

Explanation

The statement "IF IT AINT RED...IT AINT A HOLE" suggests that macular holes are only characterized by redness. However, this statement is false. Macular holes are actually characterized by a loss of central vision, distortion of straight lines, and a dark spot in the center of the visual field. Redness is not a defining characteristic of macular holes. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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28. A 73-year-old female presents to Ketchum Health University Eye Clinic for an eye wellness exam. She is a new patient. Her insurances are VSP and Medicare HMO. Her chief complaint is that she is having a hard time reading the small print on her medicine bottles. Will the exam be covered at Ketchum health?

Explanation

her chief complaint is vision related she has vision insurance and ketchum health takes VSP- so she is good to go.

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29. A 73-year-old female presents to Ketchum Health University Eye Clinic for an eye wellness exam. She is an established patient. Her insurances are VSP and Medicare. Her chief complaint is that she woke up this morning with  "a hole" right in the center of her vision. Will the exam be covered at Ketchum health?

Explanation

pt has medicare

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30. A 73-year-old female presents to Ketchum Health University Eye Clinic for an eye wellness exam. She is an established patient. Her insurances are VSP and Medicare. Her chief complaint is that she woke up this morning with  "a hole" right in the center of her vision. should we dilate?

Explanation

a "hole" in your vision can mean many different things, so in order to have the most comprehensive exam possible, DILATE!!!! this is likely an issue involving macular edema

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31. When using 21mmHg as the upper limit during tonometry, which of the following reason explains why this has a poor sensitivity

Explanation

Some patients with glaucoma may have IOP

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32. During GAT, what is the diameter of the applanation area when the IOP has been successfully measured 

Explanation

During GAT (Goldmann Applanation Tonometry), the diameter of the applanation area when the IOP (Intraocular Pressure) has been successfully measured is 3.06mm.

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33. You are preparing to do GAT on Jim. Jim has very high cyl, Rx -3.00 -6.00 x 45. how would you rotate your GAT probe in order to get the most accurate measurement 

Explanation

To get the most accurate measurement during GAT on Jim, you should rotate the prism tip so the holder's red line is lined up with the 45o mark on the prism tip. This ensures that the probe is aligned correctly with the axis of Jim's eye, allowing for an accurate measurement of his high cylindrical prescription.

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34. You look into the oculars during GAT and see this, which adjustment should you make

Explanation

If you see something in the oculars during GAT, it means that the object you are observing is not centered in the field of view. To adjust the position, you need to move to the right, which will bring the object closer to the center horizontally. Additionally, you need to move slightly up to bring the object closer to the center vertically. Therefore, the correct adjustment is to move to the right and slightly up.

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35. A 43 year old patient was seen for a comprehensive eye exam at Ketchum Health. The IOPs with GAT are 16/17 mmHg at 1:30pm. The patient returns for a baseline DFE and the IOP are as follows: GAT 23/21 mmHg at 8:10am. You check post-dilated IOPs at the baseline DFE and IOP are as follows: GAT 32/25 mmHg at 8:45am. You have the patient back in 1 week just to recheck IOPs and find: GAT 15/13 mmHg at 2:15pm. What do these findings suggest?

Explanation

The findings suggest diurnal variation, which refers to the natural fluctuation of intraocular pressure (IOP) throughout the day. In this case, the patient's IOP levels were higher in the morning and lower in the afternoon, indicating a normal pattern of fluctuation. This is a common occurrence in individuals without glaucoma. The other options, such as the patient not having glaucoma, being apprehensive, or not taking their drops regularly, are not supported by the given information.

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36. A 30-year-old male patient presents for a problem-focused eye exam with a complaint of a red and painful eye OD that started this morning. He reports associated photophobia and reduced vision. His ocular history is significant for LASIK OU five years ago. Clinical exam is significant for corneal edema and 3+ cells in the anterior chamber of the right eye. The left eye is unremarkable. You diagnose him with a uveitis OD. How will the IOPs measured at today's exam for the right eye compare to what they would have measured yesterday (before the red eye)?

Explanation

during the early stages of uveitis the ciliary production of aqueous is reduced (due to the inflammation), as the inflammation continues, cellular debris falls into the TM and clogs it up creating an increase in pressure (i think it was about a week after or so) then as the inflammation resolves the ciliary body ramps up aqueous production again but the debri is still clogging the TM, so pressure increases again even more

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37. Which of the following is an example of a consultation

Explanation

This scenario is an example of a consultation because the optometrist refers Jim to another physician for further evaluation and care. The optometrist suspects that Jim may have glaucoma but does not have the necessary equipment to make a definitive diagnosis. Therefore, they send Jim to another physician who can provide the appropriate diagnostic evaluation. The optometrist also provides notes for Jim to return to their office for continued care, indicating that the consultation is part of an ongoing treatment plan.

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38. Which of the following parts of a routine wellness exam would NOT be covered by medical insurance  (select all that apply)

Explanation

this question is really asking what vision insurance would cover (but that's too easy) vision insurance will cover "routine Vison related" tests. i like to think of it as, if the patient is benefiting/ getting something from the test somehow, then vision insurance will likely cover it (with an appropriate diagnosis ie. myopia, astigmatism etc). for a diagnostic refraction; you can do a refraction whenever the heck you want to: you dont always have to give the final Rx to the patient. when a refraction is done and no Rx is given, all the information still goes into the chart. so you may refer back at a later date to determine pertinent changes. But if the patient wants the Rx to get glasses, someone has to pay for that. gotta make that monayyy!

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39. In the course of an eye wellness exam of an established pt. you do a refraction and/or pertinent related tests, in which the patient really wants to buy new glasses. you should bill the following CPT code  

Explanation

The correct answer is 92015, 92014. This is because during an eye wellness exam, the optometrist or ophthalmologist may perform a refraction test to determine the patient's prescription for glasses or contact lenses (CPT code 92015). They may also perform other pertinent related tests, such as a comprehensive eye exam (CPT code 92014), to evaluate the overall health of the patient's eyes. Therefore, both CPT codes 92015 and 92014 are appropriate to bill for this scenario.

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40. Karen comes into your office and states the following complaint  "my right eye is red and irritated" you start a problem-focused exam in the health record  during your FOLDARS she explains intermittent frequency. symptoms started 3 days ago. when to occurs it seems to last for the whole day. looking at the computer makes it worse. closing her eyes makes it better. and when it occurs it is about an 8 of 10 on the pain scale. which of the following would be the MOST appropriate chief complaint to document

Explanation

you want to try to keep your CC as close to what the patient says, as close to their own words as you can. its ok to use abbreviations where appropriate. in this example, the patient did not elaborate on history of present illness until prompted, so including FOLDARS in the CC would be inappropriate.

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41. According to the lectures, what is the minimum number of HPI categories that you need to cover/ask in order to bill 92004/92014

Explanation

According to the lectures, in order to bill for 92004/92014, a minimum of 4 HPI (History of Present Illness) categories need to be covered/asked.

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42. In terms of disc diameters, how large is the FOV of a direct ophthalmoscope

Explanation

The FOV (Field of View) of a direct ophthalmoscope is 2dd in terms of disc diameters. This means that when looking through the ophthalmoscope, the field of vision will cover an area that is equivalent to two disc diameters.

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43. You can maximize the FOV of DO by all of the following except 

Explanation

Increasing working distance can actually help maximize the field of view (FOV) of depth of field (DO). When the working distance is increased, the area that can be seen in focus expands, allowing for a larger FOV. Therefore, this option is not an exception and can help maximize the FOV of DO.

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44. High myopia will ______________ the FOV of DO

Explanation

High myopia refers to severe nearsightedness, where distant objects appear blurry. In this context, the question is asking how high myopia affects the field of view (FOV) of depth of field (DO). The FOV refers to the extent of the visual area that can be seen without moving the eyes or head. Since high myopia causes blurry vision, it means that the individual's ability to see clearly and sharply within their FOV is reduced. Therefore, high myopia will decrease the FOV of DO.

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45. For fundus biomicroscopy, decreasing slit lamp mag or increasing the dioptric power of the condensing lense will _______________ the FOV

Explanation

Increasing the dioptric power of the condensing lens or decreasing the slit lamp magnification will result in an increase in the field of view (FOV) during fundus biomicroscopy. This is because a higher dioptric power or lower magnification allows for a wider area of the fundus to be seen, increasing the overall FOV.

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46. For fundus biomicroscopy, which condensing lens will give the best balance between magnification and FOV 

Explanation

The 78D condensing lens would give the best balance between magnification and field of view (FOV) for fundus biomicroscopy. This lens provides a moderate level of magnification while still allowing a wide enough FOV to capture a sufficient amount of the fundus. The 90D lens may provide a larger FOV but at the expense of magnification, while the 60D and 20D lenses may offer higher magnification but with a narrower FOV.

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47. For SL biomicroscopy, increasing the power of the condensing lens will _____________ FOV and _____________ magnification 

Explanation

Increasing the power of the condensing lens in SL biomicroscopy will increase the field of view (FOV) because a higher power lens allows for a wider area to be viewed. However, it will decrease the magnification because a higher power lens spreads out the light rays, resulting in a smaller image size.

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48. A red-free filter will accentuate all of the following EXCEPT

Explanation

A red-free filter is used in ophthalmology to enhance the visibility of certain structures in the eye by blocking out red light. It accentuates the contrast between different components of the eye, making them easier to distinguish. Choroidal melanoma, retinal nerve fiber layer, and blood vessels are all structures that can be accentuated by a red-free filter. However, choroidal nevi are not accentuated by this filter, meaning they do not stand out as much compared to the other structures.

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49. You are evaluating your patients left eye using your DO, which of the following directions would direct your patient to fixate to center the ONH in your view

Explanation

the reason why up and towards your nose is incorrect is because... we have two eyes, our nose is in the middle of said eyes. when you tell a patient to look towards their nose, they dont know which direction to look, its left for the right eye but right form the left eye, its just confusing. much easier to just tell the patient to look in a direction

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50. Match the following ocular findings with what you would see during distance ophthalmoscopy when focused on the plane of the lens
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51. Match the following fundus reflex appearance with the BEST reason
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52. Which of the following filters would allow the BEST visualization of ONH drusen 

Explanation

The red free filter allows the best visualization of ONH drusen. This filter enhances the contrast between the drusen and the surrounding tissue, making it easier to identify and visualize the drusen. The red free filter blocks red light, which can interfere with the visualization of drusen, while allowing other wavelengths of light to pass through, resulting in a clearer and more detailed image of the drusen.

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53. This is a fundus image of 

Explanation

The fundus image shows a crescent-shaped area in the left eye (OS) that corresponds to the retinal pigment epithelium (RPE). The RPE is a layer of cells located between the retina and the choroid, responsible for supporting the retina and maintaining its function. This crescent-shaped area indicates a specific abnormality or change in the RPE layer in the left eye.

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54. Which of the following is the correct order of optic nerve head rim tissue from thinnest to thickest (in general) 

Explanation

The correct answer is "temporal

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55. Pathological symmetrical thinning of the Optic nerve head rim is only due to 

Explanation

glaucoma is the best answer here, question asked about pathological (reason why large nerve is not correct)
Ocular hypertension does not mean glaucoma, yes high IOP put you at greater risk of developing glaucoma but high IOP is not glaucoma
high myopia goes along with large nerve

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56. Spontaneous venous pulsation is visible when 

Explanation

Spontaneous venous pulsation is visible when the Intraocular Pressure (IOP) is higher than the central retinal venous pressure. This means that when the pressure inside the eye (IOP) is greater than the pressure in the veins of the retina, the veins will pulsate and become visible.

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57. For DO, which aperture could you use to measure your patient's disc size?

Explanation

A medium aperture would be suitable for measuring the patient's disc size. This is because a medium aperture allows for a balance between a narrow and wide opening, providing a moderate amount of light to enter the eye. This aperture size would enable the examiner to accurately assess the size of the patient's disc without overwhelming or insufficient light entering the eye.

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58. True or false? tilted discs usually occur bilaterally

Explanation

usually a bilateral congenital anomaly

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59. Malinsertion of ONH through the scleral canal at an angle usually greater than 15o. can present unilateral or bilateral. associated with elevation of the nasal rim tissue. the disk appears stretched and flattened temporally. commonly seen in myopes and astigmatics. this is a description of which of the following

Explanation

The description provided in the question matches the condition known as oblique insertion. This condition refers to the malinsertion of the optic nerve head (ONH) through the scleral canal at an angle usually greater than 15 degrees. It can present unilaterally or bilaterally and is associated with elevation of the nasal rim tissue. The optic disk appears stretched and flattened temporally. Oblique insertion is commonly seen in individuals with myopia and astigmatism.

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60. You are using your DO, and notice a lesion that seems elevated, you focus on the apex of the lesion then dial in 4 clicks to focus on the base of the lesion. what is the approximate relative height of this lesion 

Explanation

The question describes using a DO (dental operating microscope) to examine a lesion. The examiner first focuses on the apex (top) of the lesion and then adjusts the focus by dialing in 4 clicks to focus on the base (bottom) of the lesion. The question asks for the approximate relative height of the lesion. Since the examiner adjusted the focus by 4 clicks, it suggests that each click corresponds to a specific measurement. Therefore, the approximate relative height of the lesion would be 4 times the measurement of each click. The answer provided, 1.33mm, is the closest option to this calculation.

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61. Match the following signs with the appropriate description
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62. Arterial sclerosis with associated venous deflection at a right angle. the vein appears tapered adjacent to the artery and the underlying vein is concealed 

Explanation

Gunn's sign refers to the presence of arterial sclerosis with associated venous deflection at a right angle. This means that there is a narrowing of the artery and the adjacent vein appears tapered. Additionally, the underlying vein is concealed. This sign is named after Dr. Robert Gunn, who first described it.

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63. In general, when evaluating a retinal hemorrhage, which of the following are matched correctly? (select 2)

Explanation

Bright red blood is likely arterial because arterial blood is oxygenated and has a higher oxygen content, giving it a brighter red color. Dark red blood is likely venous because venous blood has a lower oxygen content and appears darker in color.

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64. Order the following hemorrhages from most anterior(1) ---> most posterior (7)
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65. Which of the following plaques is most common

Explanation

Hollenhorst plaque is the most common plaque among the options given. It is a small, cholesterol-rich plaque that is typically found in the retinal artery. These plaques are often composed of cholesterol crystals and are known to cause blockages in the blood vessels, leading to decreased blood flow and potential damage to the surrounding tissues. This type of plaque is commonly associated with atherosclerosis and can be a significant risk factor for cardiovascular diseases.

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66. Which of the following hemorrhages would obscure your view of the posterior pole (select 2) 

Explanation

Vitreal hemorrhage and pre-retinal hemorrhage are the two types of hemorrhages that can obscure the view of the posterior pole. Vitreal hemorrhage refers to bleeding into the vitreous humor, the gel-like substance that fills the space between the lens and the retina. Pre-retinal hemorrhage, on the other hand, refers to bleeding that occurs between the retina and the vitreous humor. Both of these hemorrhages can obstruct the visual pathway and make it difficult to see the posterior pole of the eye, which includes the optic nerve head and the macula.

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67. You look into Bob's eye and notice the following. severe arteriole narrowing with severe focal constriction, abnormal A/V crossing, macular star-patterned hard exudates, cotton wool spots, retinal edema, and flame heme which stage of hypertensive retinopathy does Bob have 

Explanation

Bob has stage 3 hypertensive retinopathy based on the presence of severe arteriole narrowing with severe focal constriction, abnormal A/V crossing, macular star-patterned hard exudates, cotton wool spots, retinal edema, and flame heme. These findings indicate significant damage to the blood vessels in the retina, including narrowing, constriction, and abnormal crossing of arteries and veins. Additionally, the presence of hard exudates, cotton wool spots, retinal edema, and flame heme suggests the presence of retinal ischemia and hemorrhage, which are characteristic of stage 3 hypertensive retinopathy.

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68. An individual with stage 4 hypertensive retinopathy has a life expectancy of about 

Explanation

An individual with stage 4 hypertensive retinopathy has a life expectancy of about 1 year. This is because stage 4 hypertensive retinopathy is a severe form of the condition, indicating significant damage to the blood vessels in the retina caused by high blood pressure. If left untreated, this can lead to complications such as retinal detachment and vision loss. Therefore, the prognosis for individuals with stage 4 hypertensive retinopathy is generally poor, with a limited life expectancy of approximately 1 year.

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69. Which fundus photos shows grade II hypertensive retinopathy

Explanation

so the major indicator here is papilledema A,B, & D all have disc edema (fuzzy margins) so right away you should know at least grade IV. A,B,D all also have flame hemorrhages and CWS or hard exudates
C shows AV nicking (focal constriction) and arteriolar narrowing

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70. Hard exudates can be all of the following EXCEPT 

Explanation

Hard exudates are yellowish-white deposits that can be seen in the retina of the eye. They are typically caused by leaking blood vessels and are composed of lipids, proteins, and cellular debris. While red blood cells (RBCs) can be present in hard exudates, they are not typically a major component. Therefore, the correct answer is RBC.

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71. In this photo, which grade of arteriosclerotic retinopathy is present in the superior arcade

Explanation

In arteriosclerotic retinopathy, the stages indicate the severity of the condition. Stage IV is the most advanced stage, indicating severe arteriosclerosis and significant narrowing of the blood vessels in the superior arcade of the retina. This narrowing can lead to decreased blood flow and potential damage to the retina. Hence, stage IV is the correct answer as it suggests the highest level of severity in arteriosclerotic retinopathy in the superior arcade.

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72. Regarding cholesterol-related eye disease; match the following "keywords" with the appropriate eye disease
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73. You look into your patient's eye with your BIO and notice this. which of the following is correct

Explanation

The correct answer is OS inferior Branch retinal vein occlusion because the question states that the examiner noticed a specific finding in the patient's eye using a BIO (binocular indirect ophthalmoscope). Based on this finding, the examiner identified an occlusion in the inferior branch of the retinal vein in the left eye (OS). This indicates a blockage of the blood flow in the retinal vein, specifically in the inferior branch, leading to potential vision problems in the affected area.

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74. Which of the following is likely the vein occluded in a hemi-central retinal vein occlusion 

Explanation

some individuals have a bifurcation of the central retinal vein, if one gets occluded, all the blood drained out of that half of the retina through that vein is backed up and will leak. the other half of the retinal blood will drain normally
however a double branch vein occlusion is possible it is extremely unlikely to happen concomitantly

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75. Which of the following would you MOST likely see/find in an eye with a CRAO (select all that apply) 

Explanation

In an eye with a central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO), several findings can be observed. A cherry red spot refers to a small area of the macula that appears red due to the contrast with the pale retina surrounding it. The pale retina is caused by a lack of blood flow to the area. Arteriole narrowing is also commonly observed as a result of the blockage in the central retinal artery. Poor vision is a typical symptom of CRAO due to the lack of blood supply to the retina. Additionally, retinal edema can occur as a consequence of the ischemia. Therefore, the correct answer includes cherry red spot, pale retina, arteriole narrowing, poor vision, and retinal edema.

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76. Which of the following could result from RNFL defect 

Explanation

A defect in the retinal nerve fiber layer (RNFL) could result in more apparent/darker retinal vessels. The RNFL is responsible for transmitting visual information from the retina to the brain, and any damage or defect in this layer can affect the appearance of the retinal vessels. When the RNFL is compromised, the vessels may appear more prominent or darker due to changes in the surrounding tissue or blood flow.

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77. Cotton wool spots are generally at the layer of 

Explanation

Cotton wool spots are generally found at the layer of NFL (nerve fiber layer).

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78. Which filter should you use to evaluate choroidal melanin proliferation to determine malignancy

Explanation

you cannot evaluate determine malignancy strictly based on original appearance, for a nevus, if you flip in a red-free filter, it should disappear. if it has grown past the choroid (malignant) then it will remain visible

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79. Which of the following is correctly matched regarding melanin proliferation (select 2) 

Explanation

The correct answer is "proliferation of melanin in the pigmented epithelium - RPE hyperplasia" and "proliferation of melanin in the choroid - nevus". Melanin is a pigment that gives color to the skin, hair, and eyes. RPE (Retinal Pigment Epithelium) hyperplasia refers to the excessive growth of the pigmented epithelium in the retina, which can lead to an increase in melanin production. On the other hand, a nevus is a benign growth or mole that can occur in various parts of the body, including the choroid. In this case, the nevus leads to the proliferation of melanin in the choroid.

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80. CHRPE can lead to which of the following 

Explanation

CHRPE (congenital hypertrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium) is a benign condition characterized by dark, well-defined spots on the retina. These spots can cause a window defect, which refers to a loss of transparency or a gap in the retinal pigment epithelium. This defect can result in a loss of visual function in the affected area. While CHRPE itself is not associated with malignancy or retinal edema, it can be associated with certain genetic disorders such as familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP), which increases the risk of colorectal cancer.

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81. In terms of anatomical relation to the ONH, the macula is

Explanation

The macula is located 2dd (disc diameters) temporally and slightly inferior to the optic nerve head (ONH). This means that it is positioned to the right and slightly below the ONH when looking at the eye.

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82. During slit-lamp fundoscopy you see these two images, what region of the retina is the red X located on the right eye 

Explanation

remember that slit-lamp fundoscopy is inverted and reversed

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83. While evaluating your patient's right eye, you notice a dot blot hemorrhage. somehow you are able to measure the distance from the foveola to the dot blot heme to be 1.5mm. the heme is located inside which region of the macula  

Explanation

you have to think about RADIUS, the macula is 5.5mm in DIAMETER, which puts the radius at 2.75mm. the radius of the fovea is 0.75mm, the radius of the parafovea is 1.25mm, anything outside of 1.25mm from the foveola is contained within the perifovea.

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84. Which of the following shows Central serous choroidopathy

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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85. Which of the following signs would you see while evaluating an individual with an epiretinal membrane 

Explanation

An epiretinal membrane is a thin layer of scar tissue that forms on the surface of the macula, the central part of the retina responsible for sharp central vision. One of the signs that can be seen while evaluating an individual with an epiretinal membrane is a radial tension line on the macula. This line is caused by the contraction of the scar tissue, which pulls on the macula and causes distortion or blurring of central vision. The other options mentioned, such as radial tension lines around the ONH or circular tension lines around the macula, are not specific signs of an epiretinal membrane. A perfectly circular hole is also not a characteristic finding of an epiretinal membrane.

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86. A red-free filter will accentuate which of the following (select all that apply)

Explanation

remember that for choroidal nevi, they should disappear with a red free filter, malignancies will remain

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87. A 73-year-old female presents to Ketchum Health University Eye Clinic for an eye wellness exam. She is a new patient. Her insurances are VSP and Medicare HMO. Her chief complaint is that she is having a hard time reading the small print on her medicine bottles. which of the following CPT codes should we bill for today's exam (select all that apply) 

Explanation

she is new which means it would be best if we dilated her for comprehensiveness. new Pt ocular health = 92004, she will probably want a glasses rx = 92015

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88. A 73-year-old female presents to Ketchum Health University Eye Clinic for an eye wellness exam. She is an established patient. Her insurances are VSP and Medicare. Her chief complaint is that she woke up this morning with  "a hole" right in the center of her vision. what CPT/procedure code would you use? (just the exam no the special testing)

Explanation

The correct answer is 99213/99214 because these codes are used for evaluation and management (E/M) services for established patients. In this case, the patient is an established patient presenting for an eye wellness exam. The other codes listed are for specific eye procedures or exams, but they are not appropriate for this scenario.

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89. What is the c/d of this eye

Explanation

this is end stage glaucoma very large cup

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90. Put the mechanism of events for an acute angle-closure attack via pupillary block in order from what happens first(1) to what happens last(5)
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91. A 27-Year-Old pregnant female presents for a comprehensive exam. her ocular history is unremarkable however she has developed gestational diabetes. her last eye exam was 2 years ago. Which 2 tonometry methods would be best for a financially unstable clinician (select two)

Explanation

with pregnancy we want to avoid anesthetics if possible, of all the ways of tonometry icare and NCT do not need to utilize anesthetics. they are fast and inexpensive. ORA on the other hand is expensive

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92. Which of the following is NOT measured by the ORA 

Explanation

the ORA adjust for the error in measurement caused by CCT but it does not measure it, it uses the corneal hysteresis and resistance (viscoelastic response) values to account for CCT
a high CH leads to high CRF which is assumed to account for a thicker cornea.

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93. Which of the following are devices/instruments that utilize corneal applanation to measure tonometry (select all that apply) 

Explanation

The devices/instruments that utilize corneal applanation to measure tonometry are GAT (Goldmann applanation tonometer), Mackay-Marg tonometer (tonopen), NCT (Non-contact tonometer), Ocular Response Analyzer (ORA), and Perkins tonometer. These instruments apply pressure to the cornea to determine the intraocular pressure.

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94. Rebound tonometry utilizes  ________________________ to measure IOP 

Explanation

Rebound tonometry utilizes the method of ejecting a small plastic ball towards the cornea and measuring the rate and time of deceleration of the ball after hitting the cornea to measure IOP. This technique allows for non-contact measurement of intraocular pressure.

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95. Which of the following tonometers has the greatest effect on trabecular outflow during the process of measuring IOP 

Explanation

The Shiotz tonometer has the greatest effect on trabecular outflow during the process of measuring IOP. This is because the Shiotz tonometer works by applying a specific amount of force to the cornea, which causes deformation and a subsequent increase in intraocular pressure (IOP). This increase in pressure then leads to an increased outflow of fluid through the trabecular meshwork, which is responsible for draining fluid from the eye. Therefore, the Shiotz tonometer has the greatest effect on trabecular outflow compared to the other tonometers listed.

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96. Which of the following is NOT a cause of transient elevated IOP

Explanation

Transient elevated IOP refers to a temporary increase in intraocular pressure. Pressure on the orbit can cause compression of the eyeball, leading to an increase in IOP. Therefore, pressure on the orbit is a cause of transient elevated IOP.

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97. Match the following GAT problems with what they will cause 
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98. The sensitivity of using 19 mmHg as a cut-off for detecting glaucoma is 60%. The specificity of using 19 mmHg as a cut-off for detecting glaucoma is 70%.
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99. Match the following CPT codes with the services billable 
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100. An ERM is associated with 

Explanation

The correct answer is "break in ILM with subsequent proliferation of GCs or primary vitreal cells". This answer suggests that an ERM (Epiretinal Membrane) is associated with a break in the Internal Limiting Membrane (ILM) of the retina. This break can lead to the proliferation (increased growth) of Glial Cells (GCs) or primary vitreal cells. The explanation implies that the break in the ILM triggers a response in the cells, causing them to multiply or proliferate.

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If there is a suspected problem. when should a baby's first eye...
Which of the following age ranges is the ONLY age range in which its...
True or false? there is a higher insurance reimbursement for including...
Regarding the eye wellness examination @ Ketchum health ...
In general, what is the percentage of the fundus we can see with DO
According to the lecture material, the focal point of a 90D condensing...
Approximately how much power should you dial into the DO to start...
You are evaluating the anterior segment with your DO, starting at the...
Jim is evaluating his patient's right eye for a PSC. Jim knows...
The appearance of this ONH is likely due to which of the following
The indistinct appearance of this ONH is due to
Which of the following characteristics would you NOT expect to find...
In this fundus photo, which of the following would best describe the...
When evaluating the c/d of a patient with an obliquely inserted ONH,...
Which of the following would be a "normal" c/d ratio for a...
True or false? retinal arteries lie above retinal veins.
This reflective plaque is a __________________, and a common indicator...
Talc retinopathy apparently is due to which of the following
Which of the following is responsible for this image 
The newer the cotton wool spot, the 
The macular region consists of 
The foveola is the central _____________mm of the fovea 
Which of the following would you likely NOT find hard exudates 
Which of the following images shows hard exudates 
Which of the following images shows cotton wool spots 
Which of the following shows hard drusen 
True or false? regarding macular holes; IF IT AINT RED...IT AINT A...
A 73-year-old female presents to Ketchum Health University Eye Clinic...
A 73-year-old female presents to Ketchum Health University Eye Clinic...
A 73-year-old female presents to Ketchum Health University Eye Clinic...
When using 21mmHg as the upper limit during tonometry, which of the...
During GAT, what is the diameter of the applanation area when the IOP...
You are preparing to do GAT on Jim. Jim has very high cyl, Rx -3.00...
You look into the oculars during GAT and see this, which adjustment...
A 43 year old patient was seen for a comprehensive eye exam at Ketchum...
A 30-year-old male patient presents for a problem-focused eye exam...
Which of the following is an example of a consultation
Which of the following parts of a routine wellness exam would NOT be...
In the course of an eye wellness exam of an established pt. you do a...
Karen comes into your office and states the following complaint  ...
According to the lectures, what is the minimum number of HPI...
In terms of disc diameters, how large is the FOV of a direct...
You can maximize the FOV of DO by all of the following except 
High myopia will ______________ the FOV of DO
For fundus biomicroscopy, decreasing slit lamp mag or increasing the...
For fundus biomicroscopy, which condensing lens will give the best...
For SL biomicroscopy, increasing the power of the condensing lens will...
A red-free filter will accentuate all of the following EXCEPT
You are evaluating your patients left eye using your DO, which of the...
Match the following ocular findings with what you would see during...
Match the following fundus reflex appearance with the BEST reason
Which of the following filters would allow the BEST visualization of...
This is a fundus image of 
Which of the following is the correct order of optic nerve head rim...
Pathological symmetrical thinning of the Optic nerve head rim is only...
Spontaneous venous pulsation is visible when 
For DO, which aperture could you use to measure your patient's...
True or false? tilted discs usually occur bilaterally
Malinsertion of ONH through the scleral canal at an angle usually...
You are using your DO, and notice a lesion that seems elevated, you...
Match the following signs with the appropriate description
Arterial sclerosis with associated venous deflection at a right angle....
In general, when evaluating a retinal hemorrhage, which of the...
Order the following hemorrhages from most anterior(1) ---> most...
Which of the following plaques is most common
Which of the following hemorrhages would obscure your view of the...
You look into Bob's eye and notice the following. ...
An individual with stage 4 hypertensive retinopathy has a life...
Which fundus photos shows grade II hypertensive retinopathy
Hard exudates can be all of the following EXCEPT 
In this photo, which grade of arteriosclerotic retinopathy is present...
Regarding cholesterol-related eye disease; match the following...
You look into your patient's eye with your BIO and notice this....
Which of the following is likely the vein occluded in a hemi-central...
Which of the following would you MOST likely see/find in an eye with a...
Which of the following could result from RNFL defect 
Cotton wool spots are generally at the layer of 
Which filter should you use to evaluate choroidal melanin...
Which of the following is correctly matched regarding melanin...
CHRPE can lead to which of the following 
In terms of anatomical relation to the ONH, the macula is
During slit-lamp fundoscopy you see these two images, what region of...
While evaluating your patient's right eye, you notice a dot blot...
Which of the following shows Central serous choroidopathy
Which of the following signs would you see while evaluating an...
A red-free filter will accentuate which of the following (select all...
A 73-year-old female presents to Ketchum Health University Eye Clinic...
A 73-year-old female presents to Ketchum Health University Eye Clinic...
What is the c/d of this eye
Put the mechanism of events for an acute angle-closure attack via...
A 27-Year-Old pregnant female presents for a comprehensive exam. her...
Which of the following is NOT measured by the ORA 
Which of the following are devices/instruments that utilize corneal...
Rebound tonometry utilizes  ________________________ to measure...
Which of the following tonometers has the greatest effect on...
Which of the following is NOT a cause of transient elevated IOP
Match the following GAT problems with what they will cause 
The sensitivity of using 19 mmHg as a cut-off for detecting glaucoma...
Match the following CPT codes with the services billable 
An ERM is associated with 
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