Quiz About Applied Electronics & Instrumentation

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  • 1/76 Questions

    Positively charged particle:

    • Electron
    • Proton
    • Neutron
    • Nucleus
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About This Quiz

Do you know what Applied Electronics and Instrumentation is? It is an advanced branch of engineering which deals with the application of existing or known scientific knowledge in electronics, instrumentation, measurements and control for any process, practical calibration of instruments, automation of processes etc.
Know how much knowledge you have about this topic, and share the result with your friends.

Quiz About Applied Electronics & Instrumentation - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Negatively charged particle:

    • Neutrons

    • Protons

    • Electrons

    • Nucleus

    Correct Answer
    A. Electrons
    Explanation
    Electrons are negatively charged particles that orbit around the nucleus of an atom. They have a small mass compared to protons and neutrons, and they are responsible for the majority of the atom's volume. Electrons play a crucial role in chemical reactions and the formation of chemical bonds. Their negative charge balances out the positive charge of protons in the nucleus, creating a stable atom.

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  • 3. 

    Electrically neutral or uncharged particle:

    • Protons

    • Electrons

    • Neutrons

    • Nucleus

    Correct Answer
    A. Neutrons
    Explanation
    Neutrons are electrically neutral or uncharged particles. Unlike protons, which have a positive charge, and electrons, which have a negative charge, neutrons do not have any charge. They are found in the nucleus of an atom along with protons, and their main role is to contribute to the mass of the atom without affecting its overall charge.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following are characteristics of electricity? 

    • Wires conduct electricity through movement of electrons

    • Friction generates charges

    • Only its effects or actions can be seen

    • Electricity can be pointed to or seen

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Wires conduct electricity through movement of electrons
    A. Friction generates charges
    A. Only its effects or actions can be seen
    Explanation
    Wires conduct electricity through the movement of electrons, which is a characteristic of electricity. Friction generates charges, which is another characteristic of electricity. Only the effects or actions of electricity can be seen, as electricity itself cannot be pointed to or seen.

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  • 5. 

    This form of electricity is used in the home, industry, hospitals and laboratory and involves 60 Hz.

    • Direct Current

    • Alternating Current

    • Static 

    • Magnetic

    Correct Answer
    A. Alternating Current
    Explanation
    Alternating current (AC) is the correct answer because it is the form of electricity commonly used in homes, industries, hospitals, and laboratories. AC involves a frequency of 60 Hz, which means that the direction of the current periodically changes, allowing for efficient transmission of electricity over long distances and easy voltage regulation. In contrast, direct current (DC) flows in only one direction and is typically used for low-voltage applications or specific devices like batteries. Static and magnetic are not forms of electricity but rather related concepts or phenomena.

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  • 6. 

    An open circuit allows for current to flow in an electric circuit. 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    An open circuit does not allow for current to flow in an electric circuit. In an open circuit, there is a break or disconnect in the path of the circuit, preventing the flow of electrons. Without a complete path for the current to travel, no current can flow through the circuit.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following apply to Coulomb's law: 

    • Like charges repel

    • Like charges attract

    • Opposites charges attract

    • Opposite charges repel

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Like charges repel
    A. Opposites charges attract
    Explanation
    Coulomb's law states that like charges repel each other, meaning that two positively charged objects or two negatively charged objects will push each other away. On the other hand, opposite charges attract, which means that a positively charged object will be attracted to a negatively charged object, and vice versa. This law is used to calculate the force between two charged objects based on their charges and the distance between them.

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  • 8. 

    The strength of the interaction of positive and negative electrical charges; the electrical force that causes electrons to move:

    • Voltage

    • Electromotive Force 

    • Current

    • Resistance

    Correct Answer
    A. Electromotive Force 
    Explanation
    Electromotive force (EMF) is the correct answer because it refers to the strength of the interaction between positive and negative electrical charges. EMF is responsible for causing electrons to move in a circuit, creating an electric current. Voltage is a measure of the potential difference between two points in a circuit, which is directly related to EMF. Current refers to the flow of electric charge in a circuit, which is caused by EMF. Resistance, on the other hand, is a property that opposes the flow of current in a circuit.

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  • 9. 

    The movement of free electrons to move in one direction:

    • Electromotive Force

    • Voltage 

    • Current

    • Resistance

    Correct Answer
    A. Current
    Explanation
    Current is the correct answer because it refers to the flow of electric charge in a circuit. When free electrons move in one direction, it constitutes an electric current. Electrons are negatively charged particles that move from the negative terminal to the positive terminal of a power source, such as a battery or generator. The rate at which these electrons flow is measured in amperes (A). Therefore, current is the appropriate term to describe the movement of free electrons in one direction.

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  • 10. 

    Unit of Voltage in EEG:

    • Millivolts

    • Microvolts

    • Nanovolts

    • Megavolts

    Correct Answer
    A. Microvolts
    Explanation
    The unit of voltage in EEG is microvolts. EEG measures the electrical activity in the brain, which is typically in the range of microvolts. Millivolts and nanovolts are too small to accurately measure brain activity, while megavolts are too large and would likely cause harm. Therefore, microvolts is the most appropriate unit for measuring voltage in EEG.

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  • 11. 

    Unit of Voltage in EKG:

    • Millivolts

    • Microvolts

    • Nanovolts

    • Megavolts

    Correct Answer
    A. Millivolts
    Explanation
    The unit of voltage in an EKG is millivolts. EKG, also known as electrocardiogram, is a test that measures the electrical activity of the heart. It records the electrical signals generated by the heart as it beats. The voltage produced by these signals is typically measured in millivolts, which is one thousandth of a volt. This unit of measurement is commonly used in medical devices and tests to accurately assess the electrical activity of the heart.

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  • 12. 

    Unit of Voltage in EPs:

    • Millivolts

    • Microvolts

    • Nanovolts

    • Megavolts

    Correct Answer
    A. Nanovolts
    Explanation
    The unit of voltage in EPs is nanovolts. This is because EPs, or evoked potentials, are very small electrical signals that are generated in response to specific stimuli. These signals are typically measured in the range of microvolts to nanovolts. Therefore, nanovolts is the most appropriate unit to measure the voltage in EPs.

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  • 13. 

    Voltage equals:

    • Intensity x Resistance

    • Intensity/ Resistance

    • Resistance/ Intensity 

    • Intensity x Impedance

    Correct Answer
    A. Intensity x Resistance
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Intensity x Resistance because voltage is equal to the product of current (intensity) and resistance. This relationship is described by Ohm's law, which states that the voltage across a conductor is directly proportional to the current flowing through it and the resistance of the conductor. Therefore, multiplying the intensity and resistance gives the voltage.

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  • 14. 

    10-9

    • Nano

    • Pico

    • Micro

    • Milli

    Correct Answer
    A. Nano
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Nano" because the prefix "nano" represents one billionth (10^-9) of a unit. In this case, it refers to one billionth of a meter.

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  • 15. 

    10,-3

    • Milli

    • Micro

    • Nano

    • Pico

    Correct Answer
    A. Milli
    Explanation
    The answer is "Milli" because the given numbers, 10 and -3, are both positive integers. The prefix "Milli" represents one thousandth of a unit, which is smaller than the other prefixes listed. Therefore, "Milli" is the correct answer.

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  • 16. 

    Pico

    • 10,-12

    • 10,-9

    • 10,-6

    • 10,-3

    Correct Answer
    A. 10,-12
    Explanation
    The given answer "10,-12" represents the coordinates of a point on a graph. The first value, 10, indicates the position of the point on the x-axis, while the second value, -12, indicates the position on the y-axis. Therefore, the point is located at the coordinates (10,-12) on the graph.

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  • 17. 

    This type of shock can cause burns, local tissue damage and ventricular fibrillation. Ranges from 100- 300 mA.

    • Macroshock

    • Microshock

    • Let-Go Current

    • Staticshock

    Correct Answer
    A. Macroshock
    Explanation
    Macroshock refers to an electrical shock that occurs when a person comes into contact with a high current, typically ranging from 100-300 mA. This type of shock can cause severe burns, damage to local tissues, and can even lead to ventricular fibrillation, a life-threatening condition where the heart's rhythm becomes irregular. Unlike microshock, which involves much lower currents, macroshock poses a greater risk to the individual's health and safety. Therefore, the given answer "Macroshock" is correct in relation to the described effects and current range.

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  • 18. 

    This type of shock can be dangerous or lethal if applied directly to the myocardium. 10uA can cause ventricular fibrillation. 

    • Macroshock

    • Microshock

    • Let- Go Current

    • Staticshock

    Correct Answer
    A. Microshock
    Explanation
    Microshock refers to a low-level electrical shock that is applied directly to the myocardium, which is the muscular tissue of the heart. Even a small current of 10uA can cause ventricular fibrillation, a potentially life-threatening condition where the heart's electrical signals become chaotic. Therefore, microshocks can be dangerous or even lethal if they directly affect the heart.

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  • 19. 

    This type of shock can cause contractions so forceful that it will not let you release your grip due to persistent stimulation. Typically contains a current level of 10-20 mA.

    • Macroshock

    • Microshock

    • Let-Go Current

    • Staticshock

    Correct Answer
    A. Let-Go Current
    Explanation
    The let-go current is the correct answer because it refers to the current level at which a person's muscles contract so forcefully that they are unable to release their grip. This is due to persistent stimulation caused by the electric shock. The let-go current typically ranges from 10-20 mA.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following are likely reasons a patient is more at risk of electricity? 

    • Patient is not grounded

    • Connected to multiple AC powered instruments

    • Weakened or comatose

    • Heart may be weak

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Connected to multiple AC powered instruments
    A. Weakened or comatose
    A. Heart may be weak
    Explanation
    The patient is more at risk of electricity because they are connected to multiple AC powered instruments, which increases the chances of electrical contact. Additionally, if the patient is weakened or comatose, they may not be able to react or move away from a dangerous electrical source. Furthermore, if the patient has a weak heart, they may be more susceptible to the effects of electrical shock.

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  • 21. 

    A increase in leakage current is always a problem when considering patient safety.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    An increase in leakage current is not always a problem when considering patient safety. Leakage current refers to the small amount of electric current that flows from an electrical device to the ground. While high levels of leakage current can pose a risk to patient safety, not all increases in leakage current are problematic. Factors such as the type of equipment, its insulation, and the patient's condition should be taken into account when assessing the potential risks associated with leakage current. Therefore, the statement that an increase in leakage current is always a problem is false.

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  • 22. 

    The maximum allowable chassis leakage current when the ground wire is disabled is: 

    • 200 uA

    • 100 uA

    • 300 uA

    • 400 uA

    Correct Answer
    A. 300 uA
    Explanation
    The maximum allowable chassis leakage current when the ground wire is disabled is 300 uA. This means that when the ground wire is not connected, the maximum amount of current that can leak from the chassis is 300 microamperes. This limit is set to ensure the safety of the equipment and prevent any potential electrical hazards.

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  • 23. 

    The ground to chassis resistance must be a very low value of: 

    • <.04 Ohms

    • <.03 Ohms

    • <5 Ohms

    • < .5 Ohms

    Correct Answer
    A. < .5 Ohms
    Explanation
    The ground to chassis resistance must be a very low value of less than 0.5 Ohms. This is important because a low resistance ensures a good electrical connection between the ground and the chassis of a device or system. A high resistance can lead to poor grounding, which can result in electrical noise, voltage fluctuations, or even safety hazards. Therefore, it is crucial to have a low resistance value to ensure effective grounding and proper functioning of the equipment.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following is not a step in electrical safety? 

    • Ensure compliance with protected electrodes. 

    • Ensure patient is connected when powering off machine.

    • Purchase electrically sound equipment.

    • Routine maintenance of equipment. 

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensure patient is connected when powering off machine.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Ensure patient is connected when powering off machine." This is not a step in electrical safety because it is important to disconnect the patient from the machine before powering it off to prevent any potential harm or injury.

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  • 25. 

    The ability of an amplifier to reveal differences in electrical potential between two electrodes inputs, while rejecting common potentials is called the: 

    • Common Rejection Ratio

    • Common Mean Rejection

    • Common Mode Rejection

    • Common Mode Ratio

    Correct Answer
    A. Common Mode Rejection
    Explanation
    Common Mode Rejection refers to the ability of an amplifier to distinguish and amplify the differences in electrical potential between two input electrodes while effectively rejecting any common potentials that may be present. This means that the amplifier is able to amplify the desired signal while minimizing any interference or noise that is present in both input signals. Common Mode Rejection is an important characteristic of amplifiers, especially in applications where there is a need to accurately amplify small differential signals in the presence of common noise or interference.

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  • 26. 

    If I1 is more negative than I2 the signal will deflect upward. 

    • True 

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True 
    Explanation
    If I1 is more negative than I2, it means that the potential difference across I1 is greater than the potential difference across I2. Since a more negative potential difference indicates a lower voltage, this means that I1 has a lower voltage than I2. In a circuit, the current flows from higher voltage to lower voltage. Therefore, if I1 has a lower voltage than I2, the current will flow from I2 to I1. This will cause the signal to deflect upward. Hence, the statement is true.

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  • 27. 

    Amplification is characterized in terms of:

    • Amplitude and Frequency

    • Gain and Sensitivity

    • Gain and Frequency

    • Amplitude and Sensitivity

    Correct Answer
    A. Gain and Sensitivity
    Explanation
    Amplification refers to the increase in the strength or power of a signal. It is characterized by two main factors: gain and sensitivity. Gain represents the amount of amplification applied to the signal, indicating how much the signal is boosted. Sensitivity, on the other hand, measures the ability of the amplifier to detect and respond to small input signals. Therefore, gain and sensitivity are the appropriate characteristics to describe amplification, as they capture both the level of amplification and the amplifier's responsiveness to weak signals.

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  • 28. 

    The ratio of input voltage to the signal deflection it produces: 

    • Gain

    • Amplitude

    • Sensitivity

    • Frequency 

    Correct Answer
    A. Sensitivity
    Explanation
    The term "sensitivity" refers to the ratio of input voltage to the signal deflection it produces. In other words, it measures how responsive a system or device is to changes in input voltage. A higher sensitivity means that even small changes in input voltage will result in a larger signal deflection, while a lower sensitivity means that larger changes in input voltage are required to produce a noticeable signal deflection. Therefore, sensitivity is the correct answer in this context.

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  • 29. 

    The higher the numerical value of sensitivity the higher the amplification recording.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because sensitivity refers to the ability of a recording device to pick up and detect small signals. A higher sensitivity means that the device can detect smaller signals, but it does not necessarily mean that the amplification recording will be higher. The amplification recording depends on the gain or amplification settings of the recording device, which can be adjusted independently of sensitivity.

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  • 30. 

    The standard setting for sensitivity is: 

    • 7 uV/mm

    • 9 uv/mm

    • 10 uV/mm

    • 11 uV/mm

    Correct Answer
    A. 7 uV/mm
    Explanation
    The standard setting for sensitivity is 7 uV/mm. This means that the equipment or device being referred to is set to detect electrical signals with a sensitivity of 7 microvolts per millimeter. This setting determines the level of sensitivity at which the device can detect and measure electrical activity.

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  • 31. 

    The formula for calculating sensitivity is:

    • S= A/V

    • S= V/A

    • V= A/S

    • A= S/V

    Correct Answer
    A. S= V/A
    Explanation
    The formula for calculating sensitivity is S= V/A. This formula represents the ratio of the change in output (V) to the change in input (A). In other words, sensitivity measures how much the output changes in response to a change in the input. By dividing the change in output (V) by the change in input (A), we can determine the sensitivity of the system.

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  • 32. 

    The opposition to alternating current flow, measured after an electrode is applied:

    • Resistance

    • Ohms

    • Impedance

    • Amplification

    Correct Answer
    A. Impedance
    Explanation
    Impedance is the opposition to alternating current flow, measured after an electrode is applied. It is a combination of resistance and reactance, which represents the resistance to the flow of current and the reactance caused by the capacitance or inductance of the circuit. Impedance is measured in ohms and is used to determine the effectiveness of an electrical circuit in allowing current to flow.

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  • 33. 

    Per ACNS Guidelines impedances up to __ Ohms are acceptable.

    • 9

    • 8

    • 10

    • 20

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    According to the ACNS Guidelines, impedances up to 10 Ohms are considered acceptable. This means that any impedance value below or equal to 10 Ohms is within the acceptable range as per the guidelines.

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  • 34. 

    Impedances should not be below 100 Ohms because this causes signal shunt or a short circuit.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Impedance is a measure of the opposition to the flow of alternating current in a circuit. When the impedance is below 100 Ohms, it means that the circuit is not providing enough resistance to the current, which can result in a signal shunt or a short circuit. This can lead to various issues such as signal distortion, excessive current flow, and potential damage to the circuit components. Therefore, it is important to ensure that impedances are not below 100 Ohms to maintain proper circuit functioning and prevent any potential damage.

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  • 35. 

    The activity of interest in an EEG fall within the range of:

    • 1-50Hz

    • 1-25Hz

    • 1-70Hz

    • 1-65Hz

    Correct Answer
    A. 1-70Hz
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1-70Hz because the activity of interest in an EEG, or electroencephalogram, typically falls within this frequency range. EEG measures the electrical activity of the brain, and different frequency bands correspond to different brain states. The delta (1-4Hz) and theta (4-8Hz) bands are associated with deep sleep and relaxation, while the alpha (8-12Hz) and beta (12-30Hz) bands are related to awake and alert states. Gamma waves (30-70Hz) are associated with higher cognitive processes and attention. Therefore, the activity of interest in an EEG is captured within the range of 1-70Hz.

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  • 36. 

    Most cortical activity that is clinical interest falls in the range of about: 

    • 1-30Hz

    • 1-40Hz

    • 1-70Hz

    • 1-60Hz

    Correct Answer
    A. 1-30Hz
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1-30Hz. This is because most cortical activity that is of clinical interest falls within this frequency range. The brain's electrical activity, measured using electroencephalography (EEG), is typically categorized into different frequency bands. The delta (0.5-4Hz), theta (4-8Hz), alpha (8-13Hz), beta (13-30Hz), and gamma (>30Hz) bands are commonly studied. In clinical settings, abnormalities or changes in the brain's activity within the 1-30Hz range can provide valuable insights into various neurological conditions and disorders.

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  • 37. 

    A 5Hz LFF Filter applied to a 5Hz wave will have what affect on the amplitude? 

    • Cut off by 40%

    • Cut off by 50%

    • Cut off by 25%

    • Cut off by 10%

    Correct Answer
    A. Cut off by 25%
    Explanation
    A 5Hz LFF (low-frequency filter) applied to a 5Hz wave will cut off the amplitude by 25%. This means that the filter will reduce the strength or intensity of the wave by a quarter of its original value.

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  • 38. 

    A  30Hz HFF will have what affect on the amplitude of a 15Hz wave?

    • Roll off, 40%

    • Roll off, 50%

    • Cut off, 65%

    • Cut off, 50%

    Correct Answer
    A. Roll off, 50%
    Explanation
    A 30Hz high-frequency filter (HFF) will cause a roll-off effect on a 15Hz wave, reducing its amplitude by 50%. This means that the 15Hz wave will be attenuated or decreased by half when passed through the 30Hz HFF. The roll-off effect refers to the gradual decrease in amplitude or filtering of frequencies above a certain cutoff point, in this case, 30Hz. Therefore, the correct answer is "Roll off, 50%".

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  • 39. 

    Increasing the LFF will cause a decreased filtering of Delta Waves.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Increasing the LFF (Low Frequency Filter) will not cause a decreased filtering of Delta Waves. This is because the LFF is used to filter out low-frequency components from a signal. Delta Waves are low-frequency brain waves typically associated with deep sleep. Therefore, increasing the LFF would result in a stronger filtering of Delta Waves, not a decrease.

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  • 40. 

    The longest time constant corresponds with the lowest LFF setting. 

    • True 

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True 
    Explanation
    The longest time constant corresponds with the lowest LFF setting because the time constant is a measure of how long it takes for a system to respond to changes. A longer time constant means that the system takes more time to respond to changes, while a shorter time constant means that the system responds more quickly. Therefore, the lowest LFF setting, which corresponds to the longest time constant, indicates that the system will take the most time to respond to changes.

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  • 41. 

    The greatest number of cycles per second that a channel will display:

    • Low Frequency Filter

    • High Frequency Filter

    • Time Constant

    • Sensitivity

    Correct Answer
    A. High Frequency Filter
    Explanation
    A high frequency filter is designed to allow only high-frequency signals to pass through, while attenuating or blocking low-frequency signals. Therefore, the greatest number of cycles per second that a channel will display would be determined by the high frequency filter. It allows higher frequency signals to be displayed, while filtering out lower frequency signals.

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  • 42. 

    The lowest number of cycles per second a channel will display:

    • Low Frequency Filter

    • High Frequency Filter

    • Time Constant

    • Sensitivity 

    Correct Answer
    A. Low Frequency Filter
    Explanation
    A low frequency filter is designed to allow only low-frequency signals to pass through while attenuating or blocking higher frequency signals. This means that it will display the lowest number of cycles per second (or hertz) that can be transmitted through the channel. In other words, it filters out higher frequency components, allowing only low-frequency signals to be displayed.

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  • 43. 

    The standard applied setting for a HFF is:

    • 60Hz

    • 65Hz

    • 70Hz

    • 75Hz

    Correct Answer
    A. 70Hz
    Explanation
    The standard applied setting for a HFF is 70Hz. This frequency is commonly used as it provides a balance between smooth motion and reduced flickering on the screen. It is also compatible with most electronic devices and is widely accepted as the standard setting for HFF.

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  • 44. 

    Increasing the HFF setting attenuates more faster frequencies.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Increasing the HFF (High Frequency Filter) setting does not attenuate faster frequencies more. In fact, it does the opposite. Increasing the HFF setting actually attenuates slower frequencies more, while allowing higher frequencies to pass through with less attenuation. Therefore, the statement is false.

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  • 45. 

    A notch filter should be used before attempts to eradicate the cause of interference. 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A notch filter is a type of filter that attenuates a specific frequency or range of frequencies while allowing other frequencies to pass through. It is commonly used to eliminate unwanted interference or noise from a signal. By using a notch filter before attempting to eradicate the cause of interference, it helps to specifically target and remove the unwanted frequencies, improving the effectiveness of the interference removal process. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 46. 

    Display time is typically expressed in:

    • Mm per second

    • Cm per second

    • Um per second

    • Km per second

    Correct Answer
    A. Mm per second
    Explanation
    Display time is typically expressed in millimeters per second. This unit of measurement is commonly used to indicate the speed at which an object or information is displayed on a screen. It represents the distance traveled by the displayed content in millimeters over a period of one second.

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  • 47. 

    A faster display time is used to identify which of the folllowing?

    • Artifacts

    • Slow waves

    • Delta waves

    • Sweat

    Correct Answer
    A. Artifacts
    Explanation
    A faster display time is used to identify artifacts. Artifacts are unwanted or unintended signals that can appear on a display, often caused by external interference or technical issues. By using a faster display time, it becomes easier to distinguish between actual signals of interest and these artifacts, as the artifacts tend to be brief and transient in nature. This allows for a clearer and more accurate interpretation of the displayed data.

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  • 48. 

    The standard EEG paper speed is:

    • 25 mm/sec

    • 30 mm/sec

    • 35 mm/sec

    • 40 mm/sec

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 mm/sec
    Explanation
    The standard EEG paper speed is 30 mm/sec. This refers to the speed at which the paper moves through the EEG machine during recording. A higher paper speed means that the EEG waves will be spread out over a larger distance on the paper, making it easier to analyze individual waveforms. However, a slower paper speed allows for more detail to be captured, as the waves are compressed into a smaller space. 30 mm/sec is a commonly used speed that strikes a balance between capturing detail and allowing for easy analysis.

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  • 49. 

    Each of the 5 subdivisions present on an EEG printout represent how many milliseconds?

    • 300

    • 400

    • 500

    • 200

    Correct Answer
    A. 200
    Explanation
    Each of the 5 subdivisions on an EEG printout represents 200 milliseconds. This means that the printout is divided into equal time intervals of 200 milliseconds, allowing for the analysis and interpretation of brain activity during specific time periods.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Apr 19, 2021
    Quiz Created by
    Catherine Halcomb

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