Genetics Trivia - Learn About Your Genes

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Genetics Trivia - Learn About Your Genes - Quiz

Genetics is a branch of biology concerned with the study of genes, genetic variation, and heredity in organisms. In humans, genes vary in size from a few hundred DNA bases to more than two million bases.
This is an easy peasy quiz with really simple questions about genetics. All the best!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Explain how to measure if someone has SCD

  • 2. 

    Dominant alleles only show up in heterozygous individuals

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    This statement is incorrect. Dominant alleles can show up in both homozygous (having two copies of the same allele) and heterozygous (having two different alleles) individuals. In fact, dominant alleles will always be expressed in individuals who have at least one copy of the dominant allele, whether they are homozygous or heterozygous for that allele. Therefore, the correct answer is false.

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  • 3. 

    What is the term for when both alleles contribute to the phenotype in the heterozygote individual? 

    • A.

      Incomplete dominance

    • B.

      Complete dominance

    • C.

      Co-Dominant

    • D.

      Homozygous rescesive

    Correct Answer
    C. Co-Dominant
    Explanation
    Co-Dominant is the correct answer because in co-dominance, both alleles are fully expressed in the phenotype of the heterozygous individual. This means that neither allele is dominant or recessive over the other, and both contribute equally to the phenotype. This can result in a phenotype that shows a combination of traits from both alleles, rather than one trait being dominant over the other.

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  • 4. 

    What is the term for when a dominant allele, or form of a gene, does not completely mask the effects of a recessive allele, and the organism's resulting physical appearance shows a blending of both alleles.

    • A.

      Complete dominance

    • B.

      Co dominance 

    • C.

      Incomplete dominance

    • D.

      Recessive

    Correct Answer
    C. Incomplete dominance
    Explanation
    Incomplete dominance is the term used to describe a situation where a dominant allele does not completely mask the effects of a recessive allele. Instead, the organism's physical appearance shows a blending of both alleles, resulting in a phenotype that is intermediate between the two. This is different from complete dominance, where the dominant allele completely masks the effects of the recessive allele. Co-dominance refers to a situation where both alleles are expressed equally and clearly in the phenotype.

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  • 5. 

    When the dominant allele contributes to the full phenotype in the heterozygous individual, it is called what?

    • A.

      Incomplete dominance 

    • B.

      Complete dominance

    • C.

      Co dominance 

    • D.

      Recessive

    Correct Answer
    B. Complete dominance
    Explanation
    Complete dominance occurs when the dominant allele completely masks the effects of the recessive allele in the heterozygous individual. This means that the phenotype of the heterozygote is identical to the phenotype of the homozygous dominant individual. In other words, the dominant allele contributes to the full phenotype, while the recessive allele has no observable effect.

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  • 6. 

    When someone has sickle cell disease, red blood cells sickle in the presence of what?

    Correct Answer
    Low o2 (oxygen)
    Explanation
    When someone has sickle cell disease, their red blood cells have an abnormal shape and become rigid, forming a sickle shape. This happens in the presence of low oxygen levels (low O2) in the body. The sickling of red blood cells can cause blockages in blood vessels, leading to various complications and symptoms associated with sickle cell disease.

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  • 7. 

    True or false, Hemoglobin is a globular protein made up of 2 polypeptide alpha globin units, 2 polypeptide beta globin units, 4 heme groups as well as four phosphorous per heme group.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    False. Iron (Fe++) is present per each heme group, phosphorous is not.

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  • 8. 

    What is true about hemoglobin

    • A.

      Its function is to carry oxygen and carbon monoxide molecules

    • B.

      It contains 4 alpha globin polypeptides

    • C.

      It is found in red blood cells

    • D.

      It is made up of around 600 amino acids

    • E.

      It is a fatty acid 

    • F.

      It is a protein

    • G.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Its function is to carry oxygen and carbon monoxide molecules
    C. It is found in red blood cells
    F. It is a protein
    Explanation
    Hemoglobin is a protein found in red blood cells that carries oxygen and carbon monoxide molecules. It consists of four alpha globin polypeptides and is made up of around 600 amino acids. It is not a fatty acid. Therefore, the correct answer is that all of the above statements are true about hemoglobin.

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  • 9. 

    How does the oxygen leave the hemoglobin and then the red blood cell into the body?

    • A.

      Transformation

    • B.

      Partial pressure

    • C.

      Diffusion

    • D.

      Osmosis

    Correct Answer
    B. Partial pressure
    Explanation
    Oxygen leaves the hemoglobin and then the red blood cell into the body through a process called diffusion. Diffusion occurs due to the difference in partial pressure of oxygen between the blood and the tissues. Oxygen molecules move from an area of high partial pressure (in the blood) to an area of low partial pressure (in the tissues) until equilibrium is reached. This allows oxygen to be delivered to the body's cells where it is needed for cellular respiration.

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  • 10. 

    The reason o2 enters the red blood cell and binds to the hemoglobin protein from the lungs is because...?

    • A.

      This occurs in the heart not the lungs!

    • B.

      Because there is a higher concentration of o2 in the lungs and the law of partial pressure states that gasses diffuse from an area of higher partial pressure to an area of lower partial pressure (like diffusion) and the lungs have a high concentration and the RBC's have a lower concentration. Therefore the o2 enters the RBC's

    • C.

      Because o2 is hydrophilic and areas on the red blood cell are hydrophobic, therefore the o2 is attracted to the hydrophobic areas on the red blood cell and the o2 binds to it. 

    • D.

      O2 does not enter and bind to hemoglobin through the lungs. This occurs in the brain where complexity thrives and blood is constantly entering. 

    Correct Answer
    B. Because there is a higher concentration of o2 in the lungs and the law of partial pressure states that gasses diffuse from an area of higher partial pressure to an area of lower partial pressure (like diffusion) and the lungs have a high concentration and the RBC's have a lower concentration. Therefore the o2 enters the RBC's
    Explanation
    The reason O2 enters the red blood cell and binds to the hemoglobin protein from the lungs is because there is a higher concentration of O2 in the lungs compared to the red blood cells. According to the law of partial pressure, gases diffuse from an area of higher partial pressure to an area of lower partial pressure. Since the lungs have a high concentration of O2 and the red blood cells have a lower concentration, the O2 molecules enter the red blood cells.

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  • 11. 

    True or false, when talking about proteins, the shape is the most important thing that dictates function

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The shape of a protein is crucial for its function because it determines how the protein interacts with other molecules in the body. Proteins are made up of a chain of amino acids that fold into a specific three-dimensional structure. This structure allows the protein to bind to specific molecules, carry out enzymatic reactions, and perform other important functions. If the shape of a protein is altered, it can lead to loss of function or even disease. Therefore, the shape of a protein is indeed the most important factor that dictates its function.

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  • 12. 

    True or false, all amino acids are almost identical. The only thing which makes it different is the R group

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    All amino acids have a common structure consisting of an amino group, a carboxyl group, and a central carbon atom. The only thing that differentiates one amino acid from another is the R group, also known as the side chain. The R group can vary in size, shape, and chemical properties, which gives each amino acid its unique characteristics. Therefore, it is correct to say that all amino acids are almost identical except for the R group.

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  • 13. 

    Amino acids contain. 

    • A.

      Carboxyl group (C-terminus)

    • B.

      Alpha carbon

    • C.

      Amino group (amino terminus) 

    • D.

      R-group

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Carboxyl group (C-terminus)
    B. Alpha carbon
    C. Amino group (amino terminus) 
    D. R-group
    Explanation
    Amino acids contain a carboxyl group (C-terminus) which is a functional group consisting of a carbon atom double-bonded to an oxygen atom and single-bonded to a hydroxyl group. They also contain an alpha carbon, which is the central carbon atom in the amino acid molecule. Additionally, amino acids have an amino group (amino terminus) which is a functional group consisting of a nitrogen atom bonded to two hydrogen atoms. Lastly, amino acids have an R-group, which is a variable side chain that differentiates one amino acid from another.

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  • 14. 

    True or false, a change in PH can denature a protein and cause it to unfold. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A change in pH can denature a protein and cause it to unfold because the pH affects the charges on the amino acid residues in the protein. Proteins have specific pH ranges in which they are stable and functional. When the pH deviates from this range, the charges on the amino acids change, disrupting the protein's structure and causing it to unfold. This unfolding leads to the loss of the protein's function and can result in its denaturation.

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  • 15. 

    The most common and normal reason proteins fold is because...

    • A.

      They become denatured and they fold to nature themselves

    • B.

      Because they always need to move to their lowest energy state 

    • C.

      Chaperones

    • D.

      Of a change in PH

    Correct Answer
    B. Because they always need to move to their lowest energy state 
    Explanation
    Proteins fold because they always need to move to their lowest energy state. This is because proteins are made up of long chains of amino acids, and the folding process allows them to adopt a compact and stable structure. In their folded state, proteins can interact with other molecules and perform their specific functions effectively. Folding to the lowest energy state ensures that the protein is in its most stable conformation, minimizing any potential energy barriers and promoting proper functioning.

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  • 16. 

    Out of the options given, a normal natured protein contains what..

    • A.

      Hydrophobic amino acids in the middle

    • B.

      A heme group

    • C.

      Hydrophilic amino acids around the outside of the protein

    • D.

      Fe++

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Hydrophobic amino acids in the middle
    C. Hydrophilic amino acids around the outside of the protein
    Explanation
    Fe++ and heme groups are only present in hemoglobin. Not normal natured proteins.

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  • 17. 

    Hydrogen bonds are linked by what. 

    • A.

      Tape

    • B.

      The partial negative forces of the oxygen attracting to the partial positive forces from the hydrogen 

    • C.

      Enzymes

    • D.

      Glue

    Correct Answer
    B. The partial negative forces of the oxygen attracting to the partial positive forces from the hydrogen 
    Explanation
    Hydrogen bonds are formed when the partial negative charge of an oxygen atom attracts the partial positive charge of a hydrogen atom. This attraction creates a bond between the two atoms, similar to how opposite ends of a magnet attract each other. This bond is relatively weak compared to covalent or ionic bonds, but it is important in various biological processes, such as the structure of DNA and the folding of proteins.

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  • 18. 

    Why does the amino acid sequence dictate the the shape and therefore the function of the protein. 

    • A.

      Because each amino acid has it's own specific function, and the combos of amino acids create a chemical change causing a different function. 

    • B.

      Because the hydrophilicity and hydrophobicity determine how the protein folds, and because of that, it determines the function of the protein

    • C.

      They don't, the shape of the protein is created based off of specific mRNA signals. 

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Because the hydrophilicity and hydrophobicity determine how the protein folds, and because of that, it determines the function of the protein
    Explanation
    The amino acid sequence dictates the shape and function of the protein because the hydrophilicity and hydrophobicity of the amino acids determine how the protein folds. The interactions between these amino acids cause the protein to adopt a specific three-dimensional structure, which is crucial for its function. The folding pattern of the protein determines its active sites, binding sites, and overall structure, which ultimately determines its function in the cell.

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  • 19. 

    The highest protein energy state is a primary structure

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The highest protein energy state refers to the state where the protein has the most energy. In the context of protein structure, the primary structure refers to the linear sequence of amino acids in the protein. This primary structure is where the protein is in its most unfolded and flexible state, allowing it to have the highest energy. As the protein undergoes folding and forms secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structures, it becomes more stable and the energy decreases. Therefore, the highest protein energy state corresponds to the primary structure.

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  • 20. 

    Secondary protein structures include....

    • A.

      Alpha helix

    • B.

      Globular proteins

    • C.

      Beta sheet

    • D.

      Primary structure

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Alpha helix
    C. Beta sheet
    Explanation
    Secondary protein structures refer to the local folding patterns that occur within a protein chain. The alpha helix and beta sheet are two common types of secondary structures. The alpha helix is a coiled structure formed by hydrogen bonding between amino acids within the protein chain, while the beta sheet is a pleated structure formed by hydrogen bonding between adjacent protein strands. These secondary structures play a crucial role in determining the overall shape and stability of a protein, and they are important for its function. The other options, globular proteins and primary structure, are not examples of secondary protein structures.

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  • 21. 

    True or false,  hemoglobin is an example of a quantary structure

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Hemoglobin is indeed an example of a quaternary structure. Quaternary structure refers to the arrangement of multiple protein subunits to form a functional protein complex. Hemoglobin consists of four subunits - two alpha chains and two beta chains - that come together to form a tetrameric structure. Each subunit binds to a heme group, which allows hemoglobin to bind and transport oxygen in the blood. Therefore, the statement "hemoglobin is an example of a quaternary structure" is true.

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  • 22. 

    When only ONE gene (2 alleles) controls the phenotype it is called a __________  trait.  Ex. Cystic fibrosis. 

    • A.

      Polygenic trait 

    • B.

      Monomorphic trait 

    • C.

      Monogenic trait 

    • D.

      Monoallic trait

    • E.

      Monophenotypic trait

    Correct Answer
    C. Monogenic trait 
    Explanation
    A monogenic trait refers to a trait controlled by a single gene with two alleles. In the case of cystic fibrosis, it is caused by a mutation in a single gene known as the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) gene. This gene has two alleles, one normal and one mutated, and the presence of the mutated allele leads to the development of cystic fibrosis. Therefore, cystic fibrosis is an example of a monogenic trait.

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  • 23. 

    True or false... Monogenic disease are very common in hominids 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Monogenic diseases are not very common in hominids. Monogenic diseases are caused by a mutation in a single gene and are relatively rare. Most diseases in hominids, including humans, are caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors, making them polygenic or multifactorial. These diseases are influenced by multiple genes and are more common in the population. Therefore, the statement that monogenic diseases are very common in hominids is false.

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  • 24. 

    For a full sickle cell disease phenotype what alleles need to be be present. 

    • A.

      Heterozygous dominant(As)

    • B.

      Homozygous recessive because SCD is a recessive disease (AA)

    • C.

      Homozygous dominant for risk alleles (ss)

    • D.

      Heterozygous recessive (sA)

    Correct Answer
    C. Homozygous dominant for risk alleles (ss)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Homozygous dominant for risk alleles (ss)." This is because sickle cell disease (SCD) is caused by a mutation in the hemoglobin gene, specifically the presence of two copies of the sickle cell allele (s). Individuals who are homozygous dominant for the risk alleles (ss) will have the full sickle cell disease phenotype. The other options mentioned in the question, such as heterozygous dominant (As), homozygous recessive (AA), and heterozygous recessive (sA), do not represent the full sickle cell disease phenotype.

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  • 25. 

    True or false, SCD is an example of incomplete dominance

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    SCD refers to Sickle Cell Disease, which is indeed an example of incomplete dominance. In incomplete dominance, neither allele is completely dominant over the other, resulting in a phenotype that is a blend or intermediate between the two homozygous phenotypes. In the case of SCD, individuals who inherit one sickle cell allele and one normal allele have a phenotype that is a blend between having normal red blood cells and having sickle-shaped red blood cells.

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  • 26. 

    True or false. Red blood cells are created when the signaling molecule erythropoientin binds to an enzyme linked receptor in a progenitor cell which creates a kinase cascade to activate the gene to turn the cell into an erythrocyte. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Red blood cells are indeed created when the signaling molecule erythropoietin binds to an enzyme-linked receptor in a progenitor cell. This binding triggers a kinase cascade, which activates the gene responsible for turning the cell into an erythrocyte. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 27. 

    What part of the body produces red blood cells? 

    • A.

      The heart 

    • B.

      The alveoli in the lungs

    • C.

      The red bone marrow

    • D.

      Your brain produces red blood cells

    Correct Answer
    C. The red bone marrow
    Explanation
    The red bone marrow is responsible for producing red blood cells. Red bone marrow is found in the spongy bone inside certain bones of the body, such as the hip bones, ribs, and sternum. It contains stem cells that can differentiate into different types of blood cells, including red blood cells. These red blood cells are essential for carrying oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body and removing carbon dioxide waste.

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  • 28. 

    The gene that is the main contributor to SCD is __________

    Correct Answer
    B-Globin gene
    Explanation
    The B-Globin gene is the main contributor to Sickle Cell Disease (SCD). SCD is a genetic disorder characterized by abnormal hemoglobin, which causes red blood cells to become rigid and sickle-shaped. This gene provides instructions for making a protein called beta-globin, a component of hemoglobin. Mutations in the B-Globin gene result in the production of abnormal hemoglobin molecules, leading to the formation of sickle-shaped red blood cells. These abnormal cells can cause blockages in blood vessels, leading to various complications associated with SCD.

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  • 29. 

    The correct allelic combo in order to obtain the sicklemia phenotype is what? 

    • A.

      AA

    • B.

      AS

    • C.

      SS

    • D.

      HBA

    • E.

      HBS

    Correct Answer
    B. AS
    Explanation
    The sicklemia phenotype is caused by a mutation in the HBB gene, which codes for the beta-globin protein. In individuals with sicklemia, they have inherited one copy of the sickle cell allele (HBS) and one copy of the normal allele (HBA). This combination, AS, leads to the production of both normal and abnormal hemoglobin, resulting in the sickle-shaped red blood cells characteristic of sicklemia. Individuals with AA have two copies of the normal allele and do not have the sicklemia phenotype, while individuals with SS have two copies of the sickle cell allele and typically have a more severe form of the disease. HBA and HBS are simply abbreviations for the normal and sickle cell alleles, respectively.

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  • 30. 

    Where malaria is endemic, the S(risk allele) of SCD is more present in the population. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    True because the s allele protects people against malaria and selective pressures cause that allele to be more present in those populations.

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  • 31. 

    How does the S allele confer resistance to malaria 

    • A.

      Because malaria is much less worse than SCD, therefore selective pressure gives people malaria instead of SCD. 

    • B.

      Because the S allele causes cells to sickle in low O2 and they can eventually lyse. The lyseing of the cells disrupt the parasitic lifestyle therefore selective pressure in malaria endemic regions causes the S allele to be more prominent . 

    • C.

      Because the harmful effects of SCD help to mask many of the negative effects of malaria

    • D.

      The A allele confers resistance to malaria not the S allele

    Correct Answer
    B. Because the S allele causes cells to sickle in low O2 and they can eventually lyse. The lyseing of the cells disrupt the parasitic lifestyle therefore selective pressure in malaria endemic regions causes the S allele to be more prominent . 
    Explanation
    The S allele confers resistance to malaria because it causes cells to sickle in low oxygen conditions, leading to their eventual lysis. This disruption of the parasitic lifestyle of malaria parasites creates selective pressure in malaria endemic regions, causing the S allele to become more prominent.

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  • 32. 

    Lineaus paulding discovered the molecular basis behind SCD by using _______ to look through cells to see which ones were sickled and which ones were not.

    • A.

      Light

    • B.

      Sound

    • C.

      A microscope

    • D.

      Touch 

    Correct Answer
    A. Light
    Explanation
    Linnaeus Pauling discovered the molecular basis behind SCD by using light to look through cells to see which ones were sickled and which ones were not. Light microscopy is a commonly used technique in biology to visualize and study cells and their structures. By using light, Pauling was able to observe the characteristic sickle shape of red blood cells in individuals with sickle cell disease, providing valuable insights into the molecular mechanisms underlying the disease.

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  • 33. 

    The carboxol terminus is on what part of every protein?

    • A.

      The left side

    • B.

      The right side

    • C.

      The middle of the protein

    • D.

      The bottom

    Correct Answer
    B. The right side
    Explanation
    The carboxyl terminus is the end of a protein chain that contains a carboxyl group (-COOH). In a protein, the carboxyl terminus is always located at the right side. This is because proteins are synthesized from the N-terminus (amino end) to the C-terminus (carboxyl end), and the carboxyl group is the last group to be added during protein synthesis. Therefore, the correct answer is "the right side."

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  • 34. 

    To form proteins, amino acids join together using peptide bonds

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Proteins are formed by the joining of amino acids through peptide bonds. Amino acids are organic compounds that contain an amino group and a carboxyl group. When these amino acids combine, the carboxyl group of one amino acid reacts with the amino group of another, resulting in the formation of a peptide bond. This process continues, creating a chain of amino acids that folds and interacts to form a protein. Therefore, the statement "To form proteins, amino acids join together using peptide bonds" is true.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 16, 2021
    Quiz Created by
    Alfredhook3

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