Medicine- Gastroenterology Exam Prep MCQ Test

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| By Catherine Halcomb
Catherine Halcomb
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1. For Patients with Acute pancreatitis, it is a faint blue discoloration around the umbilicus which may occur as a sign of hemoperitoneum

Explanation

Cullen's sign refers to a faint blue discoloration around the umbilicus. It is a clinical finding that may be observed in patients with acute pancreatitis. This discoloration occurs due to the leakage of blood from the inflamed pancreas into the peritoneal cavity, resulting in hemoperitoneum. Therefore, Cullen's sign can be used as an indicator of internal bleeding in patients with acute pancreatitis.

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Medicine- Gastroenterology Exam Prep MCQ Test - Quiz

Dive into the fascinating world of gastroenterology with our comprehensive Gastroenterology Quiz! Designed to challenge and enlighten, this quiz is perfect for medical students, practicing gastroenterologists, and health... see moreenthusiasts eager to test their knowledge of the intricate workings of the digestive system.

From the basics of gastrointestinal anatomy to the complexities of various digestive disorders, our quiz covers a broad spectrum of topics. Each question has been meticulously crafted by experts in the field to ensure accuracy and relevance. Whether you're revising for exams, looking to brush up on your professional knowledge, or simply curious about gastroenterology, our quiz offers a valuable learning experience.

Engage with interactive content, receive instant feedback on your answers, and track your progress as you learn. Take the Gastroenterology Quiz today and elevate your understanding of one of medicine's most essential fields.
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2. A serum ascites-to-albumin gradient (SAAG) of > 1.1 g/dL indicates that the most likely cause of the ascites is:

Explanation

A serum ascites-to-albumin gradient (SAAG) of > 1.1 g/dL indicates that the most likely cause of the ascites is cirrhosis with portal hypertension. This is because cirrhosis leads to increased pressure in the portal vein, causing fluid to accumulate in the abdomen. The SAAG value helps differentiate between causes of ascites, with a high SAAG indicating portal hypertension-related causes such as cirrhosis. Infection, malignancy, and renal failure are less likely to cause a high SAAG.

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3. After initial stabilization and resuscitation of the patient, each of the following options should be considered in the management of UGI bleeding except:

Explanation

Emergency surgery should not be considered in the management of UGI bleeding after initial stabilization and resuscitation of the patient. The priority in managing UGI bleeding is to determine the source of bleeding, stop acute bleeding, and prevent rebleeding. Emergency surgery is usually reserved for cases where non-operative interventions have failed to control the bleeding or in cases of severe and life-threatening bleeding. However, it is not the first-line approach and should only be considered when other measures have been unsuccessful.

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4. Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT), a well differentiated, superficial gastric lymphoma, is strongly associated with:

Explanation

Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) is a type of lymphoma that is commonly found in the stomach. The given answer states that MALT is strongly associated with H. pylori infection. This is because H. pylori is a bacterium that can cause chronic inflammation in the stomach, leading to the development of MALT lymphoma. Studies have shown that the eradication of H. pylori can lead to the regression of MALT lymphoma in some cases. Therefore, the strong association between MALT lymphoma and H. pylori infection makes this answer the correct choice.

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5. What is the diagnosis for a patient presenting with biliary pain, jaundice, spiking fevers and chills (Charcot's triad)?

Explanation

Ascending cholangitis is the correct diagnosis for a patient presenting with biliary pain, jaundice, spiking fevers, and chills (Charcot's triad). Ascending cholangitis is an infection of the bile ducts that occurs when bacteria from the intestines travel up the bile ducts. This can lead to obstruction, inflammation, and infection, causing symptoms such as biliary pain, jaundice, and systemic signs of infection like fevers and chills. Prompt diagnosis and treatment with antibiotics and biliary drainage are essential to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

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6. The most common cause of clinically apparent chronic pancreatitis

Explanation

Alcoholism is the most common cause of clinically apparent chronic pancreatitis. Excessive and chronic alcohol consumption can lead to inflammation and damage to the pancreas, resulting in the development of pancreatitis. Alcohol-induced pancreatitis is characterized by abdominal pain, digestive problems, and potentially severe complications. It is important to note that while alcoholism is the most common cause, other factors such as gallstone disease, hypertriglyceridemia, and diabetes mellitus can also contribute to the development of chronic pancreatitis.

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7. A patient with an NSAID-related gastric ulcer complicated by UGI bleeding requires continued NSAID treatment. The H. pylori test is positive. Which one of the following is the most effective approach once the index ulcer has healed?

Explanation

The most effective approach once the index ulcer has healed in a patient with an NSAID-related gastric ulcer complicated by UGI bleeding and a positive H. pylori test is to eradicate H. pylori, shift to a COX-2 selective NSAID, and continue maintenance PPI. This approach addresses both the underlying cause of the ulcer (H. pylori infection) and minimizes the risk of further gastric ulceration by switching to a COX-2 selective NSAID, which has a lower risk of gastrointestinal complications compared to non-selective NSAIDs. Maintenance PPI therapy is also important to further reduce the risk of recurrent ulcers.

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8. A 54-year-old man with a history of "alcoholic liver disease" presents with frank hematemesis, a blood pressure of 80/40, a pulse rate of 110, and a respiratory rate of 26. After assessing and managing the airway, which of the following is most likely to provide definitive treatment?

Explanation

Emergent endoscopy with variceal ligation is the most likely to provide definitive treatment in this case. The patient's presentation of frank hematemesis and hemodynamic instability is consistent with bleeding from esophageal varices, which is a common complication of alcoholic liver disease. Variceal ligation is a procedure performed during endoscopy that can effectively stop bleeding from esophageal varices by placing rubber bands around the varices to constrict them. This procedure is considered the gold standard for the treatment of acute variceal bleeding and has been shown to improve outcomes and reduce mortality rates.

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9. This occurs when the gallstone impacted in the cystic duct or neck of the gallbladder causing compression of the CBD

Explanation

Mirizzi's syndrome is a condition where a gallstone becomes impacted in the cystic duct or neck of the gallbladder, leading to compression of the common bile duct (CBD). This compression can cause obstruction of the bile flow and result in symptoms such as jaundice, abdominal pain, and fever. It is important to differentiate Mirizzi's syndrome from other similar conditions like Bouveret syndrome, Boerhaave syndrome, and double duct syndrome, as the management and treatment approaches may differ.

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10. What are the most important risk factors in the development of alcoholic liver disease

Explanation

The most important risk factors in the development of alcoholic liver disease are the quantity and duration of alcohol consumption. This means that the amount of alcohol consumed and the length of time it is consumed are key factors in determining the risk of developing this disease.

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11. A 63/M, with osteoarthritis is self-medicating with diclofenac and celecoxib for 5 years. He experiences sudden severe epigastric pain and fever hours prior to consult. PE shows diffuse abdominal tenderness with epigastric guarding and rigidity. Chest and abdominal radiograph reveals pneumoperitoneum. What condition leads to his acute peritonitis?

Explanation

The patient's symptoms and radiographic findings suggest the presence of pneumoperitoneum, which is the abnormal presence of air in the peritoneal cavity. This is most commonly caused by bowel perforation, where there is a rupture or hole in the wall of the bowel. The sudden severe epigastric pain, fever, diffuse abdominal tenderness, and rigidity are all consistent with acute peritonitis, which occurs when the contents of the bowel leak into the peritoneal cavity, leading to inflammation and infection. Therefore, the correct answer is Bowel Perforation.

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12. Rovsing's sign in acute appendicitis refers to:
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13. A patient with ulcerative colitis develops pustules on the feet, legs and chest that rapidly ulcerate and become violaceous. This extraintestinal complication is known as:

Explanation

Pyoderma gangrenosum is a rare skin condition characterized by the development of painful pustules that rapidly progress to ulcers and become violaceous in color. It is commonly associated with inflammatory bowel diseases such as ulcerative colitis. Dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin manifestation of celiac disease, while erythema nodosum is a skin condition associated with various underlying causes. Sweet's syndrome is a rare inflammatory condition characterized by fever, neutrophilic infiltrates in the skin, and various systemic symptoms.

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14. The most discriminating symptom In duodenal ulcer:

Explanation

The most discriminating symptom in duodenal ulcer is pain that awakens the patient at night. This symptom is characteristic of duodenal ulcers and is often described as a burning or gnawing sensation in the epigastric area. Discomfort precipitated by food is also a common symptom of duodenal ulcers, but it is not as specific as pain at night. Nausea and vomiting may occur in some cases, but they are not as common or specific to duodenal ulcers as nocturnal pain.

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15. X-ray images showing distention of fluid- and gas-filled bowel arranged in a "staircasing" pattern and an absence or paucity of colonic gas are pathognomonic for:

Explanation

The X-ray images showing distention of fluid- and gas-filled bowel arranged in a "staircasing" pattern and an absence or paucity of colonic gas are characteristic findings of small intestinal obstruction. This pattern occurs because the small bowel becomes dilated proximal to the obstruction, causing a buildup of fluid and gas. The "staircasing" appearance is due to the fluid and gas filling the valvulae conniventes, which are the transverse folds in the small intestine. This finding is not specific to other conditions mentioned in the options.

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16. The test of choice for documenting eradication of H.pylori:

Explanation

The urea breath test is the preferred test for documenting eradication of H. pylori. This test involves the patient ingesting a small amount of radioactive urea, which is then metabolized by H. pylori in the stomach. The bacteria produce an enzyme called urease, which breaks down the urea and releases carbon dioxide. The carbon dioxide is then absorbed into the bloodstream and exhaled through the breath. By measuring the amount of radioactivity in the breath, the test can determine if H. pylori is present or not. This test is non-invasive, highly accurate, and can be used to confirm eradication after treatment.

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17. A 60/F, complains of progressive jaundice. Her total bilirubin is 10.2 mg/dL; direct bilirubin of 8.5 mg/dL; SGPT is 30 IU/L; Serum alkaline phosphatase levels is 280 IU/L. What is the most likely cause of her jaundice?

Explanation

The most likely cause of the patient's jaundice is biliary obstruction. This is indicated by the elevated levels of direct bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase. Biliary obstruction can occur due to various reasons such as gallstones, tumors, or strictures in the bile ducts. In this case, the elevated direct bilirubin suggests that there is a blockage in the bile ducts preventing the normal flow of bile from the liver to the intestines, leading to jaundice. The other options such as hemolysis, biliary atresia, and liver cirrhosis do not explain the specific laboratory findings in this patient.

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18. In a patient with severe hematochezia, hypotension, and anemia, both the upper gastroscopy and colonoscopy were not diagnostic. The patient continued to pass clots per rectum. Resuscitation has normalized her vital signs and maintained her Hct at 32%. What is the most effective management strategy?

Explanation

Mesenteric angiography is the most effective management strategy in this case. Severe hematochezia, hypotension, and anemia suggest active bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract. Both upper gastroscopy and colonoscopy were not diagnostic, indicating that the source of bleeding is not visible through these procedures. The patient's stabilized vital signs and maintained hematocrit level suggest that resuscitation has been successful. Mesenteric angiography is a minimally invasive procedure that can accurately identify the source of bleeding and guide further intervention or embolization to stop the bleeding.

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19. Risk factors associated with poor outcome in acute upper gi bleeding except:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Outpatient bleeds." Outpatient bleeds are not considered a risk factor associated with a poor outcome in acute upper GI bleeding. Increasing age, comorbidities, and hematemesis are all known risk factors that can contribute to a worse outcome in this condition. However, outpatient bleeds, which occur outside of a hospital or healthcare setting, are not typically associated with a higher risk of poor outcome.

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20. A 94 y/o diabetic, female suffering from congestive heart failure admitted in the CCU suddenly developed right upper quadrant pain and fever. UTZ showed dilated GB with multiple lithiases and pericholecystic fluid. What is the ideal management?

Explanation

The ideal management for a 94-year-old diabetic female with congestive heart failure who suddenly developed right upper quadrant pain and fever, along with a dilated gallbladder with multiple stones and pericholecystic fluid, would be cholecystostomy and tube drainage. This is because the patient's age, comorbidities, and the presence of pericholecystic fluid indicate a high risk for complications with surgical interventions such as laparoscopic or open cholecystectomy. Cholecystostomy and tube drainage can provide temporary relief by draining the infected fluid and decompressing the gallbladder, allowing for stabilization of the patient's condition before considering further definitive management options.

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21. Upon diagnosis of cholelithiasis, you may recommend cholecystectomy to which of the following patients:

Explanation

A history of a calcified or porcelain gallbladder is a strong indication for cholecystectomy. A calcified or porcelain gallbladder is a rare condition in which the wall of the gallbladder becomes calcified, increasing the risk of gallbladder cancer. Therefore, it is recommended to remove the gallbladder in these cases to prevent any potential complications.

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22. What is the most important treatment intervention for acute pancreatitis? 

Explanation

Administering safe, aggressive intravenous fluid resuscitation is the most important treatment intervention for acute pancreatitis because it helps to maintain adequate fluid balance and prevent complications such as hypovolemia and organ failure. Adequate fluid resuscitation also helps to reduce inflammation and support the healing process of the pancreas. NPO (nothing by mouth) is also important to rest the pancreas and reduce pancreatic stimulation, but fluid resuscitation takes priority in order to maintain hydration and prevent further complications. IV antibiotics may be used if there is evidence of infection, but they are not the most important intervention. Adequate analgesia is also important for pain control, but it is not the primary treatment intervention.

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23. The usual clinical presentation of Crohn's Disease:

Explanation

The correct answer is recurrent right lower quadrant pain and diarrhea. Crohn's disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that commonly affects the terminal ileum and the colon. The most common clinical presentation of Crohn's disease includes abdominal pain, typically in the right lower quadrant, and diarrhea. Other symptoms may include weight loss, fatigue, and occasionally rectal bleeding. However, the presence of recurrent right lower quadrant pain and diarrhea is the most characteristic and specific presentation of Crohn's disease.

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24. A 45/F, obese, with recurrent severe abdominal pain, presents with fever, vomiting, and jaundice. Abdominal PE reveals right upper quadrant tenderness. She has elevated WBC count, SGPT and serum amylase. Ultrasound shows multiple gallstones. Which is the next appropriate test to perform within 24-48 hours?

Explanation

ERCP (Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography) is the next appropriate test to perform within 24-48 hours. This procedure combines endoscopy and fluoroscopy to examine the bile ducts and pancreatic ducts. In this case, the patient's symptoms of severe abdominal pain, fever, vomiting, and jaundice, along with the findings of right upper quadrant tenderness, elevated WBC count, SGPT, and serum amylase, suggest a possible complication of gallstones such as choledocholithiasis or cholangitis. ERCP can help diagnose and treat these conditions by removing gallstones from the bile ducts or placing stents to relieve obstruction.

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25. How many times bowel movement of soft stools should you aim for when giving lactulose in patients with hepatic encephalopathy?

Explanation

Patients with hepatic encephalopathy often experience constipation, which can worsen their condition. Lactulose is a commonly prescribed medication in these patients to help soften the stools and promote regular bowel movements. The aim is to have 2-3 bowel movements per day when giving lactulose. This frequency helps to prevent the buildup of toxins in the gut, which can contribute to hepatic encephalopathy symptoms.

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26. A 60-year-old female came in due to 6 episodes of black tarry stools. BP 110/80 mmHg, CR 98 bpm, after sitting up, BP became 80/60 mmgHg, CR 110bpm. What is your initial management?

Explanation

The patient's presentation of black tarry stools suggests upper gastrointestinal bleeding. The drop in blood pressure and increase in heart rate after sitting up indicates orthostatic hypotension, which further supports the possibility of significant blood loss. Therefore, the initial management should focus on fluid resuscitation to restore intravascular volume and blood product infusion to replace the lost blood. This approach aims to stabilize the patient's hemodynamic status and prevent further complications. Urgent endoscopy may be considered later to identify and treat the source of bleeding, but it is not the initial management in this case. Urgent surgical intervention would only be necessary if conservative measures fail or if there are signs of active ongoing bleeding.

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27. A 41-year-old male with a history of chronic alcoholism has massive hematemesis following a bout of prolonged vomiting. This is most typical for:

Explanation

A Mallory-Weiss tear is the most likely cause of massive hematemesis in a 41-year-old male with a history of chronic alcoholism following prolonged vomiting. Mallory-Weiss tears occur due to a tear in the mucosal lining of the esophagus and stomach, usually caused by forceful or prolonged vomiting. This tear can result in significant bleeding, leading to the presentation of hematemesis. Hiatal hernia, esophageal variceal bleeding, and Boerhaave's syndrome are less likely causes in this scenario.

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28. This type of chronic gastritis has predominantly antral involvement and correlated with H pylori Infection.

Explanation

Type B chronic gastritis is characterized by predominantly antral involvement and is strongly correlated with H pylori infection. H pylori is a bacterium that infects the stomach lining and causes inflammation, leading to chronic gastritis. This type of gastritis typically affects the antrum, which is the lower part of the stomach. It is important to identify and treat H pylori infection in patients with type B chronic gastritis to alleviate symptoms and prevent complications such as peptic ulcers and gastric cancer.

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29. What mechanism accounts for some degree of normal gastroesophageal reflux?

Explanation

Transient lower esophageal sphincter relaxation is the mechanism that accounts for some degree of normal gastroesophageal reflux. This refers to the temporary relaxation of the muscle at the lower end of the esophagus, allowing stomach acid and contents to flow back into the esophagus. This relaxation is a normal physiological process that occurs in everyone to some extent. It is different from conditions like esophageal spasm or impaired clearance of gastric juice, which are abnormal and can cause more severe reflux symptoms.

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30. This condition resembling cholangitis results from progression of acute cholecystitis with persistent cystic duct obstruction to superinfection of the stagnant bile:

Explanation

Empyema of the gallbladder is the correct answer because it is a condition that occurs when acute cholecystitis (inflammation of the gallbladder) progresses and leads to persistent obstruction of the cystic duct. This obstruction causes bile to become stagnant, which can then become superinfected. The term "empyema" refers to the presence of pus in a body cavity, in this case, the gallbladder. Therefore, empyema of the gallbladder accurately describes the condition resulting from the progression of acute cholecystitis with persistent cystic duct obstruction to superinfection of the stagnant bile.

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31. During the "window period" or "gap" when both HbsAg and anti-HBs are negative, this test may represent the only serologic evidence of recent or current HBV infection:

Explanation

During the "window period" or "gap" when both HbsAg and anti-HBs are negative, the presence of Anti-HBc IgM can be the only serologic evidence of recent or current HBV infection. This is because Anti-HBc IgM is an antibody that is produced early in the infection and is usually detectable before other antibodies like HbsAg and anti-HBs. Therefore, if both HbsAg and anti-HBs are negative, but Anti-HBc IgM is positive, it suggests that the person may have a recent or ongoing HBV infection.

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32. Endotracheal intubation for airway protection in the management of acute Upper GI bleeding should be considered:

Explanation

Endotracheal intubation for airway protection is necessary in patients with altered mental status and ongoing hematemesis. These patients may have compromised airways due to their altered mental status and the ongoing hematemesis increases the risk of aspiration. Intubation helps to secure the airway and prevent aspiration of blood into the lungs, which can lead to further complications. Therefore, in these specific patients, endotracheal intubation is crucial for their management.

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33. Clotting factors are produced by hepatocytes except:

Explanation

Clotting factors are proteins that play a role in the blood clotting process. They are primarily produced by hepatocytes, which are liver cells. However, Factor VIII is not produced by hepatocytes. Instead, it is primarily produced by endothelial cells, which line the blood vessels. Therefore, Factor VIII is the correct answer as it is the only clotting factor that is not produced by hepatocytes.

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34. The two most common causes of severe hematochezia requiring hospitalization are:

Explanation

The correct answer is Vascular ectasia and diverticulosis. Severe hematochezia refers to the passage of fresh blood through the rectum, which can be a sign of serious underlying conditions. Vascular ectasia refers to the dilation of blood vessels in the gastrointestinal tract, which can lead to bleeding. Diverticulosis is the presence of small pouches in the colon that can become inflamed or infected, causing bleeding. These two conditions are commonly associated with severe hematochezia requiring hospitalization.

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35. A 75-year-old male came in due to severe abdominal pain accompanied by nausea and vomiting. History revealed that the patient also had episodes of bloody stools. On PE Bp 100/60 HR 110 Bpm Irregularly irregular. The abdomen was soft with slight tenderness on all quadrants. What would be the best imaging modality for the patient?

Explanation

Angiography would be the best imaging modality for this patient because the symptoms and history suggest a possible vascular issue. The patient's age, severe abdominal pain, and bloody stools may indicate a potential gastrointestinal bleed. Angiography can help identify the source of the bleeding by visualizing the blood vessels and detecting any abnormalities or areas of active bleeding. This imaging modality can provide valuable information for further diagnosis and treatment planning.

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36. A 70/M, is receiving vasopressin infusion for hematochezia. Which complication of this treatment should you watch for?

Explanation

When a patient is receiving vasopressin infusion for hematochezia (blood in the stool), it is important to watch for the complication of intestinal ischemia. Vasopressin is a vasoconstrictor that works by narrowing blood vessels, which can potentially reduce blood flow to the intestines and lead to ischemia (inadequate blood supply). This can cause damage to the intestinal tissue and potentially lead to further complications if not monitored closely. Therefore, it is crucial to be vigilant for signs and symptoms of intestinal ischemia in patients receiving vasopressin infusion.

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37. Interpret the following results: HBsAg (+), Anti HBc IGM (+), HbeAg (+)

Explanation

The presence of HBsAg indicates an active Hepatitis B infection. The presence of Anti HBc IgM suggests recent infection, as IgM antibodies are produced during the acute phase of the infection. The presence of HbeAg indicates high viral replication and infectivity. Therefore, the interpretation of these results is Acute Hepatitis B, high infectivity.

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38. Which of the following findings at endoscopy is most reassuring that the patient will not have a significant rebleeding episode within the next 3 days?

Explanation

An ulcer crater with a flat pigmented spot is the most reassuring finding that the patient will not have a significant rebleeding episode within the next 3 days. This is because a flat pigmented spot indicates that the ulcer has already undergone a healing process, suggesting that the bleeding has stopped and the risk of rebleeding is low. Adherent clot on ulcer, Dieulafoy lesion, and esophageal varices with red color sign are all findings that indicate a higher risk of rebleeding.

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39. You will recommend empiric therapy for acid peptic disorders in this case:

Explanation

Empiric therapy is recommended for the 35-year-old patient with recurrent bloatedness who has tried alternative medicine techniques. This is because empiric therapy involves treating a condition based on the symptoms alone, without a confirmed diagnosis. In this case, the patient's recurrent bloatedness suggests an underlying acid peptic disorder, and since alternative medicine techniques have not been effective, empiric therapy can be used to provide relief from the symptoms. However, it is important to note that a proper diagnosis should be sought if the symptoms persist or worsen.

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40. Indication for prophylactic cholecystectomy

Explanation

Congenitally anomalous GB refers to a gallbladder that has a structural abnormality present from birth. This can include variations in size, shape, or position of the gallbladder. Prophylactic cholecystectomy, or the removal of the gallbladder as a preventive measure, may be indicated in cases of congenitally anomalous GB to prevent potential complications such as gallstone formation, inflammation, or obstruction. The other indications listed, such as stone size, diabetes, and multiple stones, are not specifically related to congenital anomalies and do not provide a sufficient explanation for the correct answer.

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41. Most common location of mesenteric ischemia

Explanation

Mesenteric ischemia refers to the restricted blood supply to the intestines, which can lead to tissue damage and potentially life-threatening complications. The rectosigmoid colon is the most common location for mesenteric ischemia because it is the area where the blood vessels supplying the colon are most prone to blockage or narrowing. This is due to the complex vascular anatomy and the presence of multiple branches in this region. When blood flow is compromised in the rectosigmoid colon, it can result in severe abdominal pain, bloody stools, and other symptoms associated with mesenteric ischemia.

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42. True in the laboratory diagnosis of alcoholic fatty liver and alcoholic hepatitis

Explanation

In the laboratory diagnosis of alcoholic fatty liver and alcoholic hepatitis, the AST (aspartate aminotransferase) to ALT (alanine aminotransferase) ratio is usually greater than 1. This means that the AST levels are higher than the ALT levels. This is a characteristic finding in these conditions and can help differentiate them from other liver diseases. The increased AST levels suggest liver damage, while the increased ALT levels indicate ongoing inflammation. Therefore, a higher AST/ALT ratio is indicative of alcoholic liver disease.

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43. Which of the following is NOT TRUE of Hepatorenal Syndrome?

Explanation

Hepatorenal Syndrome (HRS) is a form of functional renal failure without renal pathology that occurs in patients with advanced liver disease. It is characterized by intense renal vasoconstriction, which leads to reduced blood flow to the kidneys and subsequent renal dysfunction. The overall prognosis for HRS is usually poor. However, HRS Type 2 is actually associated with stable renal function and carries a more favorable prognosis compared to HRS Type 1, which is associated with unstable renal function. Therefore, the statement that HRS Type 2 is associated with unstable renal function and carries a less favorable prognosis is not true.

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44. A 28-year-old female came in for pre-employment clearance. She has the following hepatitis profile results: Anti-HAV IgM (-), HbsAg (-), Anti-HBs (+), Anti-HBc IgM (-), Anti HCV (-). What is your interpretation?

Explanation

The presence of Anti-HBs antibodies and the absence of HbsAg, Anti-HAV IgM, Anti-HBc IgM, and Anti-HCV indicate that the individual has been immunized against Hepatitis B. This means that she has received the Hepatitis B vaccine and has developed antibodies against the virus, providing protection against future infections.

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45. A 50/M, suffering from liver cirrhosis, presents with hepatic encephalopathy, uncontrolled ascites, INR of 5, serum albumin of 1 g/dl, and total bilirubin of 5 mg/dl. What is the Child-Pugh Classification of this patient?

Explanation

Based on the given information, the patient has severe liver dysfunction with multiple complications, including hepatic encephalopathy, uncontrolled ascites, and abnormal laboratory values such as INR of 5, serum albumin of 1 g/dl, and total bilirubin of 5 mg/dl. These findings indicate that the patient falls under the Child-Pugh Class C classification. Class C represents the most severe stage of liver disease, indicating poor liver function and a high risk of complications.

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46. A 35-year-old diabetic male came in for a consultation due to perianal pain. A physical exam showed a perianal mass with draining purulent discharge. According to Goodsall's rule, a posterior external fistula will enter the anal canal in the ___ :

Explanation

According to Goodsall's rule, a posterior external fistula will enter the anal canal in the posterior midline. This means that the fistula tract will be located towards the back of the anal canal, rather than on the sides (lateral) or towards the front (anterior midline). The presence of a perianal mass with draining purulent discharge suggests the possibility of a fistula, and based on its location, it is likely to be a posterior midline fistula.

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47. 52 y/o female consulted at your clinic, complaining of a 2-month history of vague abdominal pain, easy fatigability and chest heaviness. On PE: BP 100/60, HR 103, reg RR 22. She was pale, no NVE. Clear BS. DHS tachycardic, regular rhythm, no murmurs. Abdomen was soft, nontender nabs, no palpable mass. DRE: no mass/tenderness/blood PEF. CBC: hypochromic, microcytic anemia (hgb 88); 12-L ECG and 2D echo. FOBT negative.  You decided to do a colonoscopy, the most likely location of the lesion given her clinical presentation is at the: 

Explanation

Based on the patient's symptoms of vague abdominal pain, easy fatigability, and chest heaviness, along with the physical examination findings of pale skin, tachycardia, and hypochromic, microcytic anemia, the most likely diagnosis is iron deficiency anemia. Iron deficiency anemia is commonly caused by chronic blood loss, which can occur from gastrointestinal bleeding. The location of the lesion causing the bleeding is most likely in the ascending colon, as this is the first part of the colon where blood enters after passing through the small intestine. A colonoscopy is necessary to confirm the diagnosis and locate the exact site of bleeding.

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48. The criterion standard in the evaluation of patients with liver disease:

Explanation

Liver biopsy is considered the criterion standard in the evaluation of patients with liver disease because it provides direct and accurate information about the liver tissue. It involves removing a small sample of liver tissue for examination under a microscope to assess the severity and type of liver disease, determine the extent of liver damage, and guide treatment decisions. Ultrasound and triphasic CT scans can provide valuable information about the liver's size, shape, and structure, but they cannot provide detailed information about the cellular and histological changes occurring in the liver. Serum albumin, while an important marker of liver function, is not specific enough to diagnose or evaluate liver disease comprehensively.

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49. This is characterized by transient organ failure (resolves in <48 h) or local or systemic complications in the absence of persistent organ failure. These patients may or may not have necrosis, but may develop a local complication such as a fluid collection that requires a prolonged hospitalization greater than 1 week.

Explanation

Moderately severe acute pancreatitis is the correct answer because it is characterized by transient organ failure or local/systemic complications that resolve within 48 hours. These patients may or may not have necrosis, but may develop a local complication such as a fluid collection that requires a prolonged hospitalization greater than 1 week. This distinguishes it from mild pancreatitis, which does not have these complications, and severe pancreatitis, which has persistent organ failure. Severe complicated pancreatitis is not a recognized classification.

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50. The treatment of choice for patients with uncomplicated acute cholecystitis

Explanation

The treatment of choice for patients with uncomplicated acute cholecystitis is laparoscopic cholecystectomy within 72 hours. This surgical procedure involves the removal of the gallbladder using minimally invasive techniques. It is preferred over antibiotic therapy alone because it provides definitive treatment by removing the source of infection and preventing future episodes of cholecystitis. Performing the surgery within 72 hours helps to minimize the risk of complications and improve outcomes for the patient.

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51. The most clinically benign form of Nonalcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD), consisting of simple accumulation of triglycerides in hepatocytes:

Explanation

Hepatic steatosis is the correct answer because it refers to the simple accumulation of triglycerides in hepatocytes, which is the most clinically benign form of Nonalcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD). Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a more severe form of NAFLD that involves inflammation and liver cell damage. Nonalcoholic hepatitis and benign hepatic chylomicronemia are not accurate terms for describing the simple accumulation of triglycerides in hepatocytes.

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52. Most sensitive indicator of HCV infection:

Explanation

HCV RNA is the most sensitive indicator of HCV infection because it directly detects the presence of the virus in the blood. HCV RNA testing is used to diagnose acute and chronic HCV infections and to monitor treatment response. It can detect HCV infection even before antibodies (Anti HCV) are produced, making it a valuable tool for early detection. HCV DNA testing is not commonly used for diagnosis or monitoring, and HCV Ag testing is less sensitive compared to HCV RNA testing.

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53. True statements regarding diverticulosis include all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

Diverticulosis is a condition where small pouches called diverticula form in the lining of the colon. True statements regarding diverticulosis include that it occurs more in elderly and middle-aged persons, the diverticula may become inflamed and rupture. However, the statement that a high-fiber diet contributes to their formation is incorrect. In fact, a high-fiber diet is often recommended to prevent diverticulosis. A low-fiber diet can lead to constipation and increased pressure in the colon, which can contribute to the formation of diverticula.

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54. All of the following are considered high risk population for whom HBV infection screening is recommended EXCEPT:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Hemophiliacs treated with clotting factor concentrates prior to 1987". This population is not considered high risk for HBV infection because the clotting factor concentrates used prior to 1987 were not associated with transmitting HBV. In contrast, household and sexual contacts of persons with hepatitis B, babies born to HBsAg-positive mothers, and persons with multiple sexual contacts or a history of sexually transmitted disease are all considered high risk populations for whom HBV infection screening is recommended.

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55. Immunization are available for the following types of Hepatitis, except:

Explanation

Immunizations are available for Hepatitis A, Hepatitis B, and Hepatitis E, but not for Hepatitis C. Hepatitis C is a viral infection that primarily spreads through contact with infected blood. Unlike Hepatitis A, B, and E, there is currently no vaccine available to prevent Hepatitis C.

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56. Risk factors associated with diverticular bleeding except

Explanation

Frequent ingestion of nuts or seeds is not a risk factor associated with diverticular bleeding. Diverticular bleeding is commonly caused by the rupture of blood vessels in the diverticula, which are small pouches that can form in the lining of the colon. Risk factors for diverticular bleeding include hypertension, atherosclerosis, and regular intake of NSAIDs. However, there is no evidence to suggest that frequent ingestion of nuts or seeds contributes to the development of diverticular bleeding.

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57. Treatment for patients with severe alcoholic hepatitis, with a discriminant factor >32 or MELD > 20

Explanation

Patients with severe alcoholic hepatitis, with a discriminant factor >32 or MELD > 20, are at high risk of liver failure and death. The recommended treatment for these patients is prednisone 40mg/day for 4 weeks, followed by a tapering dose. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that helps reduce inflammation and suppress the immune response, which can be beneficial in treating alcoholic hepatitis. This treatment approach has been shown to improve survival and reduce the risk of liver failure in these patients. The other options, such as pentoxifylline and monoclonal antibodies, may have some benefits but are not as effective as prednisone in this particular condition. Immediate liver transplantation is not the first-line treatment and is usually reserved for patients who do not respond to medical therapy or have advanced liver disease.

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58. This is an unusual complication of acute pancreatitis manifested by sudden and severe loss of vision:

Explanation

Purtscher's retinopathy is a rare complication of acute pancreatitis that presents with sudden and severe loss of vision. It is characterized by retinal hemorrhages, cotton wool spots, and optic disc swelling. The exact pathophysiology of Purtscher's retinopathy is not fully understood, but it is believed to be related to the release of inflammatory mediators and emboli formation. This condition typically resolves spontaneously within a few weeks, but some patients may have permanent visual impairment. Retinal detachment, retinal artery occlusion, and amaurosis fugax are not associated with acute pancreatitis.

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59. A 55/M, who underwent gastric surgery 5 years ago, presents with crampy abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, LBM and palpitations 30 minutes after meals. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Explanation

Early dumping syndrome is the most likely diagnosis in this case. Dumping syndrome occurs when food moves too quickly from the stomach to the small intestine. Symptoms such as crampy abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea after meals are consistent with early dumping syndrome. The fact that the patient underwent gastric surgery 5 years ago further supports this diagnosis, as dumping syndrome can be a complication of gastric surgery. Palpitations may also occur due to the rapid movement of food causing a drop in blood sugar levels. Afferent loop syndrome, postvagotomy diarrhea, and bile reflux gastropathy do not typically present with the same symptoms as described in the case.

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60. Institution of PPI therapy at presentation in all patients with UGIB

Explanation

The institution of PPI therapy at presentation in all patients with UGIB is the correct answer because it downgrades high-risk ulcer characteristics. This means that by starting PPI therapy early, the severity and risk associated with the ulcer are reduced. This can help prevent complications such as rebleeding and decrease mortality rates. Overall, starting PPI therapy at presentation is beneficial in managing UGIB cases.

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61. Pharmacologic treatment for bleeding esophageal varices in a decompensated cirrhotic patient includes the following except:

Explanation

Pharmacologic treatment for bleeding esophageal varices in a decompensated cirrhotic patient includes somatostatin infusion, antibiotics, and lactulose enema. Proton pump inhibitor (PPI) infusion is not recommended as a treatment for bleeding esophageal varices. PPIs are commonly used to reduce gastric acid production and treat conditions like acid reflux, but they do not directly address the bleeding and hemodynamic instability associated with esophageal varices. Therefore, PPI infusion is not included in the pharmacologic treatment options for this condition.

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62. Which of these disorders have been shown to have a strong association with peptic ulcer disease?

Explanation

Cirrhosis has been shown to have a strong association with peptic ulcer disease. Cirrhosis is a condition in which the liver is damaged and scarred, leading to decreased liver function. This can result in increased production of stomach acid, which can contribute to the development of peptic ulcers. Additionally, cirrhosis can cause changes in the blood vessels of the stomach, making them more susceptible to damage and ulcer formation. Therefore, individuals with cirrhosis are at a higher risk of developing peptic ulcers.

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63.
  1. G.G., a 30-year-old male, sought consultation due to blood-streaked stools. He denied other symptoms such as abdominal pain, fever, and weight loss. He noted a protruding mass after defecation which can be manually reduced. What is the stage of the patient's condition?

Explanation

Based on the given information, the patient is experiencing blood streaked stools and a protruding mass after defecation that can be manually reduced. These symptoms suggest that the patient is likely in stage III of their condition. In this stage, the patient may have internal hemorrhoids that prolapse (protrude) during bowel movements but can be manually reduced. The absence of other symptoms such as abdominal pain, fever, and weight loss also supports this stage.

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64. The most frequent cause of lower GI bleeding is:

Explanation

Hemorrhoids are the most common cause of lower GI bleeding. Hemorrhoids are swollen blood vessels in the rectum or anus that can become irritated and bleed. They are often caused by straining during bowel movements, chronic constipation, or pregnancy. Colonic malignancy refers to cancer in the colon, which can also cause lower GI bleeding but is less common than hemorrhoids. Colonic diverticulosis is the presence of small pouches in the colon that can bleed if they become inflamed or infected. Vascular ectasia refers to dilated blood vessels in the colon that can cause bleeding, but it is not as common as hemorrhoids.

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65. A 50-year-old female from Samar came in due to abdominal enlargement. 1 month prior to consultation, there was noted enlargement of the abdomen and bipedal edema. She was prescribed furosemide for 5 days at a local hospital which provided relief. Recurrence of the above symptoms prompted consultation at your clinic. She complained of difficulty sleeping at night, but her husband claims that she is asleep during the day. The patient is conscious, coherent, and not in distress. Vital signs were stable, anicteric sclerae, (+) fluid wave. Ultrasound showed liver cirrhosis. The following labs were shown: Alb 3.0 g/dL and INR 1.5. What is the patient's Child-Pugh Classification?

Explanation

Based on the given information, the patient has liver cirrhosis, as shown by the ultrasound. The Child Pugh classification is used to assess the severity of liver disease and prognosis. It takes into account various factors including albumin levels, prothrombin time (INR), presence of ascites, encephalopathy, and nutritional status. In this case, the patient has an albumin level of 3.0 g/dL and an INR of 1.5, which indicates moderate liver dysfunction. Therefore, the patient's Child Pugh classification is Class B.

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66. A 27-year-old male came into your clinic for a pre-employment consult. The result of his hepatitis profile revealed: HBsAg + ; Anti-HBs - ; Anti-HBc IgG + ; HBeAg + ; Anti-HBe – How will you interpret the result?

Explanation

The positive result for HBsAg indicates that the patient is currently infected with the hepatitis B virus. The presence of HBeAg suggests high infectivity, meaning that the patient is highly contagious and can easily transmit the virus to others. The absence of Anti-HBs and Anti-HBe antibodies indicates that the patient has not developed immunity to the virus and has not entered the recovery phase. Therefore, the interpretation of the result is chronic hepatitis with high infectivity.

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67. _____ may reflect a severe hepatic synthetic defect, extensive hepatocellular necrosis, and worse prognosis in Acute Viral Hepatitis

Explanation

Prolonged Prothrombin Time may reflect a severe hepatic synthetic defect, extensive hepatocellular necrosis, and worse prognosis in Acute Viral Hepatitis. This is because the liver is responsible for producing clotting factors, including prothrombin. When the liver is severely damaged, as in cases of extensive hepatocellular necrosis, it is unable to produce enough clotting factors, leading to impaired blood clotting and a prolonged prothrombin time. This can be an indicator of the severity of the liver damage and a worse prognosis in Acute Viral Hepatitis.

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68. True of Type 1 Autoimmune Hepatitis

Explanation

Type 1 Autoimmune Hepatitis is associated with p-ANCA, which stands for perinuclear antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies. These antibodies are commonly found in patients with autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis and vasculitis. The presence of p-ANCA in Type 1 Autoimmune Hepatitis helps to differentiate it from other types of autoimmune hepatitis. This type of autoimmune hepatitis is not commonly seen in children and is more prevalent in individuals of Mediterranean descent. The presence of negative ANA (antinuclear antibodies) further supports the diagnosis of Type 1 Autoimmune Hepatitis.

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69. A 28-year-old female constantly complains of heartburn and regurgitation. A mechanism which contributes to her disorder: 

Explanation

The correct answer is "Anatomic distortion of the esophagogastric junction." This is because anatomic distortion of the esophagogastric junction can lead to a condition called hiatal hernia, which can cause symptoms such as heartburn and regurgitation. In this condition, the upper part of the stomach bulges through the diaphragm into the chest cavity, causing the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) to not function properly and allowing stomach acid to flow back into the esophagus. Persistent LES relaxation and increased LES pressure can also contribute to heartburn and regurgitation, but in this case, anatomic distortion is the most likely mechanism.

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70. A postpartum patient who underwent prolonged labor develops severe RUQ pain. She underwent cholecystectomy but no calculus was found in the biliary tree. What mechanism may be implicated in the pathogenesis of her condition?

Explanation

Bile sludge in the cystic duct may be implicated in the pathogenesis of the patient's condition. Bile sludge is a mixture of cholesterol crystals, calcium bilirubinate, and mucin. It can form in the gallbladder due to stasis of bile, which can occur after prolonged labor. This sludge can then obstruct the cystic duct, leading to RUQ pain. The fact that no calculus was found in the biliary tree suggests that the obstruction is due to sludge rather than CBD lithiasis. Sphincter of Oddi dysfunction and high serum cholesterol are not directly related to the presence of sludge in the cystic duct.

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71. Diagnostic Test with the best sensitivity and specificity for chronic pancreatitis

Explanation

The Secretin Stimulation Test is the best diagnostic test for chronic pancreatitis because it has high sensitivity and specificity. This test involves injecting secretin, a hormone that stimulates the pancreas, and measuring the pancreatic secretions. In chronic pancreatitis, the pancreas does not respond properly to secretin, leading to abnormal secretions. This test can accurately diagnose chronic pancreatitis by detecting these abnormalities. MRCP and Endoscopic Ultrasound can also be used to visualize the pancreas, but they are not as specific for chronic pancreatitis. Lipase is an enzyme that can be elevated in pancreatitis, but it is not specific to chronic pancreatitis and can be elevated in other conditions as well.

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72. Regarding IBD and cancer, which of the following is NOT true?

Explanation

The recommended approach to flat, low grade dysplasia is not continued surveillance. Instead, it is recommended to undergo endoscopic resection or colectomy. Continued surveillance is usually recommended for patients with no dysplasia or with indeterminate dysplasia.

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73. First approved therapy for chronic Hepatitis B:

Explanation

Interferon alpha is the first approved therapy for chronic Hepatitis B because it is a type of protein that helps the body's immune system fight against the virus. It is administered through injections and works by reducing the replication of the virus in the liver. Interferon alpha has been shown to have antiviral effects and can help improve liver function in patients with chronic Hepatitis B. Adefovir, Lamivudine, and Entecavir are also antiviral medications used to treat chronic Hepatitis B, but they were approved after Interferon alpha.

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74. A 38-year-old male came in due to epigastric pain radiating to the back. The patient was awake, in severe pain, with the following vital signs: BP 120/80 mmHg, CR 110 bpm, RR 26 cpm, Temp 36.5C. The patient was dry-looking, with clear breath sounds.  The following lab results were noted: WBC 15,000, Bands 4, Seg 90, BUN 28 mg/dL. What is the patient's BISAP score? 

Explanation

The patient's BISAP score is 2. BISAP stands for Bedside Index for Severity in Acute Pancreatitis, which is a scoring system used to assess the severity of acute pancreatitis. The score includes five criteria: blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level >25 mg/dL, impaired mental status, evidence of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), age >60 years, and pleural effusion. In this case, the patient meets two criteria: BUN level of 28 mg/dL and age >60 years, resulting in a BISAP score of 2.

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75. The following is true of upper GI bleed (UGIB): 

Explanation

A nonbloody nasogastric aspirate may be seen in patients with UGIB because the blood may have already clotted or the bleeding may be occurring in the lower gastrointestinal tract.

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76. A 40 year old female came to your with recurrent chronic anal fissures, what can you give this patient:

Explanation

Nitroglycerine ointment is the correct choice for this patient with recurrent chronic anal fissures. Nitroglycerine is a vasodilator that helps to relax the smooth muscles around the anal sphincter, improving blood flow and reducing pain. This can promote healing of the fissures and provide relief for the patient. Nimodipine is a calcium channel blocker used for other conditions such as subarachnoid hemorrhage and is not indicated for anal fissures. Clostridium toxin A injections, also known as Botox injections, may be used in some cases of anal fissures that do not respond to other treatments, but it is not the first-line option. Therefore, the correct answer is Nitroglycerine ointment.

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77. A 50-year-old female came in due to abdominal enlargement and bipedal edema. Physical examination showed (+) fluid wave, and shifting dullness. Paracentesis was done with the following result: serum albumin 2.6 g/dL, ascitic fluid albumin 1.7 g/dL. What is the least likely cause of a patient's ascites?

Explanation

The patient's ascitic fluid albumin level is lower than the serum albumin level, indicating that the ascites is likely due to portal hypertension. Heart failure is the least likely cause of ascites in this patient because it typically causes transudative ascites with a high ascitic fluid albumin level. In contrast, ovarian carcinoma, nephrotic syndrome, and tuberculosis can all cause ascites through various mechanisms.

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78. True in suspected acute variceal bleeding except

Explanation

In suspected acute variceal bleeding, prophylactic antibiotics should be given to all patients, not just those with ascites. This is because acute variceal bleeding can lead to bacterial infection, and prophylactic antibiotics help prevent this complication. Therefore, the correct answer is that prophylactic antibiotics should be given to all patients with suspected acute variceal bleeding.

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79. Currently considered the most effective treatment regimen for acute hepatitis B:

Explanation

The question asks for the most effective treatment regimen for acute hepatitis B, and the correct answer is "None of the above." This means that neither Adefovir, Entecavir, nor Lamivudine is considered the most effective treatment for acute hepatitis B. The question does not provide any further information or options, so we cannot provide a more specific explanation.

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80. A patient suffering from Irritable Bowel Syndrome is recommended to avoid FODMAPS (Fermentable oligosaccharides disaccharides, monosaccharides, and polyols). Which nuts are FODMAPS?

Explanation

Pistachios are a FODMAP because they contain high levels of fermentable oligosaccharides. These oligosaccharides can be difficult for individuals with Irritable Bowel Syndrome to digest, causing symptoms such as bloating, gas, and abdominal pain. Therefore, it is recommended for patients with IBS to avoid consuming pistachios.

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81. Predominant form of TPN associated liver disorder in adults:

Explanation

Steatosis refers to the accumulation of fat in the liver cells. It is the most common form of liver disorder associated with Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) in adults. TPN is a method of providing nutrition directly into the bloodstream when a person is unable to eat or absorb nutrients through the gastrointestinal tract. The high glucose and lipid content in TPN can lead to the development of fatty liver, or steatosis. This condition can progress to more severe liver diseases if not properly managed.

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82. Precore mutant Hepatitis B is characterized by the following, except:

Explanation

Precore mutant Hepatitis B is a specific variant of the Hepatitis B virus that is characterized by the inability to secrete HBeAg, lower levels of HBV DNA, and variable aminotransferase activity. It is also known to progress more rapidly to cirrhosis. However, it is not associated with a lower incidence of hepatocellular carcinoma, which is a type of liver cancer commonly associated with chronic Hepatitis B infection.

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83. A 65/F, presents with chronic history of heartburn and regurgitation. Histology reveals Barrett's esophagus. What is the best treatment that you can offer for this patient?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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84. HBV infection screening is recommended to the following except:

Explanation

Screening for HBV infection is recommended for individuals who are at higher risk of acquiring or transmitting the virus. This includes patients diagnosed with moderate Ulcerative Colitis, patients admitted due to vomiting and epigastric pain with high Creatinine levels, and previous methamphetamine users. However, being a cousin of a patient with Hepatitis B does not necessarily put the individual at a higher risk of infection, so screening is not recommended in this case.

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85. Maximal recommended dose of acetaminophen in patients with chronic alcohol use?

Explanation

The maximal recommended dose of acetaminophen in patients with chronic alcohol use is 3g/day. Chronic alcohol use can lead to liver damage, and acetaminophen is primarily metabolized in the liver. Taking higher doses of acetaminophen can further strain the liver and increase the risk of liver damage. Therefore, it is important to limit the daily dose of acetaminophen to 3g in patients with chronic alcohol use to minimize the risk of liver toxicity.

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86. S.M., a 40-year-old female, came in due to1 month history of intermittent crampy abdominal pain with 2-3 episodes of mucoid, bloody stools/day. BP 110/70mmHg, CR 78bpm, reg.  Endoscopy showed erythematous mucosa, with decreased vascular pattern, and mild friability. What is the extent of disease based on her symptoms? 

Explanation

Based on the symptoms described (intermittent crampy abdominal pain with 2-3 episodes of mucoid, bloody stools/day) and the findings from the endoscopy (erythematous mucosa, decreased vascular pattern, and mild friability), the extent of the disease can be classified as mild.

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87. A patient was discharged stable after more than a week. After 4 weeks, after researching regarding his illness online, he decided to do a CT scan of the abdomen. His CT scan showed a well-circumscribed, round, cystic mass. He denied any symptoms. What will you do?

Explanation

Based on the information provided, the patient is stable and asymptomatic. The CT scan showed a well-circumscribed, round, cystic mass, but the patient denied any symptoms. Given these factors, it would be appropriate to observe the patient rather than immediately initiating treatment or intervention. Monitoring the patient's condition and symptoms over time can help determine if any further action is necessary.

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88. Patients with gallstone pancreatitis should undergo cholecystectomy during admission or within ___ of discharge:

Explanation

Patients with gallstone pancreatitis should undergo cholecystectomy within 4-6 weeks of discharge. This is because cholecystectomy is the definitive treatment for gallstone pancreatitis, and delaying the surgery beyond this time frame increases the risk of recurrent pancreatitis. Additionally, early cholecystectomy has been shown to be associated with lower rates of complications and shorter hospital stays compared to delayed surgery. Therefore, it is recommended to perform the surgery within this time period to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.

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89. The recommended treatment for Acute Hepatitis C:

Explanation

The recommended treatment for Acute Hepatitis C is pegylated interferon plus ribavirin. This combination therapy has been shown to be effective in treating acute hepatitis C by suppressing viral replication and improving liver function. Lamivudine is not recommended for the treatment of hepatitis C, and interferon α alone may not be as effective as the combination therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is pegylated interferon plus ribavirin.

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90. A quantitative marker of a replicative phase of Hepatitis B infection:

Explanation

HBV DNA is the correct answer because it is a quantitative marker that measures the amount of Hepatitis B virus DNA in the blood. This marker is used to determine the replicative phase of Hepatitis B infection, as a higher viral load indicates active replication of the virus. HBs Ag, Anti-HBc, and HBe Ag are other markers used to diagnose Hepatitis B, but they do not provide information about the replicative phase of the infection.

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91. A 65 year old male was admitted for hematemesis from a Forrest IIB ulcer at the antrum. He underwent PCI for a left main artery occlusion 3 months ago and has been on ASA, Clopidogrel. Which is the appropriate management for this patient? (C57, p277)

Explanation

The appropriate management for this patient is to resume ASA within 1 week. ASA (acetylsalicylic acid) is an antiplatelet medication that helps prevent blood clot formation. In this case, the patient has a history of a left main artery occlusion and is at a high risk for cardiovascular events. Discontinuing ASA indefinitely would increase the risk of clot formation and subsequent complications. Resuming ASA within 1 week allows for the prevention of clot formation while minimizing the risk of bleeding from the recent ulcer.

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92. A 24-year-old prostitute consulted you because her new "bugaw" wants to know her hepatitis status. Her hepatitis profile revealed: HBsAg + ; Anti-HAV IgM + ; Anti-HBc IgM - ; Anti-HCV – How will you interpret the result?

Explanation

The patient's hepatitis profile shows that she is positive for HBsAg, which indicates a current infection with hepatitis B. Additionally, she is positive for Anti-HAV IgM, suggesting an acute infection with hepatitis A. Therefore, the correct interpretation of the result is that the patient has acute hepatitis A and B.

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93. A 60 year old female was admitted for sudden massive hematochezia, amounting to 1.5L.  At the ER, her vitals were as follows: BP 80/50 HR 115 RR 25. Which of the following is the appropriate initial diagnostic test? 

Explanation

The appropriate initial diagnostic test in this case is esophagogastroduodenoscopy. This is because the patient is presenting with massive hematochezia, which indicates bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy allows for direct visualization of the upper gastrointestinal tract, including the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum, and can help identify the source of bleeding. It is a less invasive procedure compared to colonoscopy or CT angiography, which are more commonly used for lower gastrointestinal bleeding. Emergent exploratory laparotomy is a surgical procedure and would not be the initial diagnostic test in this case.

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94. Isolated anti-HBc positivity is most commonly due to:

Explanation

Isolated anti-HBc positivity refers to the presence of antibodies against hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc) without detectable hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) or hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBs). This pattern is most commonly seen in individuals who have had a past hepatitis B infection that has resolved. During the acute phase of infection, HBsAg is present in the blood, followed by the appearance of anti-HBc antibodies. As the infection resolves, HBsAg becomes undetectable, but anti-HBc antibodies persist. Therefore, isolated anti-HBc positivity indicates a previous hepatitis B infection rather than active virus replication, low-level viremia, or false-positive immunologic specificity.

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95. A 45-year-old male, with chronic back pain, came in due to 2 episodes of black tarry stools. BP 120/80mmHg, CR 80bpm. EGD showed a nonbleeding visible vessel. What is your next step? 

Explanation

The patient is presenting with chronic back pain and two episodes of black tarry stools, which are indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding. The EGD showed a nonbleeding visible vessel, suggesting a potential risk for rebleeding. Therefore, the next step would be to maintain the patient on nothing by mouth (NPO) and intravenous (IV) proton pump inhibitors (PPI) for three days to allow for healing and prevent further bleeding. This approach aims to minimize the risk of rebleeding and promote recovery.

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96. True regarding the serologic markers for hepatitis B except:

Explanation

The correct answer is that HBsAg becomes undetectable 6 months after the onset of jaundice. This statement is false because HBsAg can remain detectable during the entire icteric or symptomatic phase of acute hepatitis B. HBsAg is the first virologic marker detectable in serum after being infected with HBV, and it precedes elevations of serum aminotransferase.

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97. The following are recommended as first line therapy in Chronic Hepatitis B, except:

Explanation

Lamivudine is not recommended as a first-line therapy in Chronic Hepatitis B because it has a higher rate of resistance compared to other antiviral medications. PEG Interferon, Entecavir, and Tenofovir are all recommended as first-line therapies due to their higher efficacy and lower rates of resistance.

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98. Which of the following statements is true regarding HBV infection:

Explanation

In adulthood-acquired HBV infection, the risk of hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is very low. HCC is a common complication of chronic HBV infection, but it is more commonly associated with infection acquired in early childhood or infancy. In contrast, adults who acquire HBV infection have a lower risk of developing HCC. This is because the immune response in adults is more effective at controlling the virus and preventing the development of liver cancer.

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99.  A 40-year-old male with chronic hepatitis B came in for consult. His latest labs were the following: HbeAg negative, HBV DNA 4000 IU/mL, ALT 80. What is your next plan?  

Explanation

Based on the given information, the patient is a 40-year-old male with chronic hepatitis B. The labs show that he is HbeAg negative, indicating that he is in the inactive phase of the disease. The HBV DNA level is 4000 IU/mL, which is relatively low. The ALT level is elevated at 80, suggesting ongoing liver inflammation. In this scenario, the next plan would be to perform a liver biopsy to assess the degree of liver fibrosis and inflammation. This information will help guide the treatment decision, as the presence of significant fibrosis or inflammation may warrant antiviral therapy.

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100. A 55-year-old female, a known case of Liver Cirrhosis and Chronic Hepatitis B, came in for a consultation. Her latest labs were the following: HBV DNA 3000 IU/mL, ALT 60, HbeAg (+). What is your next step?

Explanation

Based on the given information, the patient has a low viral load (HBV DNA 3000 IU/mL) and a slightly elevated liver enzyme (ALT 60). However, she is positive for HbeAg, indicating active viral replication. In this case, the next step would be to closely monitor the patient's liver function and viral load over time. As her viral load is low and she does not have significant liver damage (evidenced by the slightly elevated ALT), immediate treatment may not be necessary. Regular follow-up and monitoring can help determine if treatment is needed in the future.

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For Patients with Acute pancreatitis, it is a faint blue discoloration...
A serum ascites-to-albumin gradient (SAAG) of > 1.1 g/dL indicates...
After initial stabilization and resuscitation of the patient, each of...
Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT), a well differentiated,...
What is the diagnosis for a patient presenting with biliary pain,...
The most common cause of clinically apparent chronic pancreatitis
A patient with an NSAID-related gastric ulcer complicated by UGI...
A 54-year-old man with a history of "alcoholic liver...
This occurs when the gallstone impacted in the cystic duct or neck of...
What are the most important risk factors in the development of...
A 63/M, with osteoarthritis is self-medicating with diclofenac and...
Rovsing's sign in acute appendicitis refers to:
A patient with ulcerative colitis develops pustules on the feet, legs...
The most discriminating symptom In duodenal ulcer:
X-ray images showing distention of fluid- and gas-filled bowel...
The test of choice for documenting eradication of H.pylori:
A 60/F, complains of progressive jaundice. Her total bilirubin is 10.2...
In a patient with severe hematochezia, hypotension, and anemia, both...
Risk factors associated with poor outcome in acute upper gi bleeding...
A 94 y/o diabetic, female suffering from congestive heart failure...
Upon diagnosis of cholelithiasis, you may recommend cholecystectomy to...
What is the most important treatment intervention for acute...
The usual clinical presentation of Crohn's Disease:
A 45/F, obese, with recurrent severe abdominal pain, presents with...
How many times bowel movement of soft stools should you aim for when...
A 60-year-old female came in due to 6 episodes of black tarry stools....
A 41-year-old male with a history of chronic alcoholism has massive...
This type of chronic gastritis has predominantly antral involvement...
What mechanism accounts for some degree of normal gastroesophageal...
This condition resembling cholangitis results from progression of...
During the "window period" or "gap" when both HbsAg and anti-HBs are...
Endotracheal intubation for airway protection in the management of...
Clotting factors are produced by hepatocytes except:
The two most common causes of severe hematochezia requiring...
A 75-year-old male came in due to severe abdominal pain accompanied by...
A 70/M, is receiving vasopressin infusion for hematochezia. Which...
Interpret the following results: HBsAg (+), Anti HBc IGM (+), HbeAg...
Which of the following findings at endoscopy is most reassuring that...
You will recommend empiric therapy for acid peptic disorders in this...
Indication for prophylactic cholecystectomy
Most common location of mesenteric ischemia
True in the laboratory diagnosis of alcoholic fatty liver and...
Which of the following is NOT TRUE of Hepatorenal Syndrome?
A 28-year-old female came in for pre-employment clearance. She has the...
A 50/M, suffering from liver cirrhosis, presents with hepatic...
A 35-year-old diabetic male came in for a consultation due to perianal...
52 y/o female consulted at your clinic, complaining of a 2-month...
The criterion standard in the evaluation of patients with liver...
This is characterized by transient organ failure (resolves in <48...
The treatment of choice for patients with uncomplicated acute...
The most clinically benign form of Nonalcoholic Fatty Liver Disease...
Most sensitive indicator of HCV infection:
True statements regarding diverticulosis include all of the following...
All of the following are considered high risk population for whom HBV...
Immunization are available for the following types of Hepatitis,...
Risk factors associated with diverticular bleeding except
Treatment for patients with severe alcoholic hepatitis, with a...
This is an unusual complication of acute pancreatitis manifested by...
A 55/M, who underwent gastric surgery 5 years ago, presents with...
Institution of PPI therapy at presentation in all patients with UGIB
Pharmacologic treatment for bleeding esophageal varices in a...
Which of these disorders have been shown to have a strong association...
G.G., a 30-year-old male, sought consultation due to blood-streaked...
The most frequent cause of lower GI bleeding is:
A 50-year-old female from Samar came in due to abdominal enlargement....
A 27-year-old male came into your clinic for a pre-employment consult....
_____ may reflect a severe hepatic synthetic defect, extensive...
True of Type 1 Autoimmune Hepatitis
A 28-year-old female constantly complains of heartburn and...
A postpartum patient who underwent prolonged labor develops severe RUQ...
Diagnostic Test with the best sensitivity and specificity for chronic...
Regarding IBD and cancer, which of the following is NOT true?
First approved therapy for chronic Hepatitis B:
A 38-year-old male came in due to epigastric pain radiating to the...
The following is true of upper GI bleed (UGIB): 
A 40 year old female came to your with recurrent chronic anal...
A 50-year-old female came in due to abdominal enlargement and bipedal...
True in suspected acute variceal bleeding except
Currently considered the most effective treatment regimen for acute...
A patient suffering from Irritable Bowel Syndrome is recommended to...
Predominant form of TPN associated liver disorder in adults:
Precore mutant Hepatitis B is characterized by the following, except:
A 65/F, presents with chronic history of heartburn and regurgitation....
HBV infection screening is recommended to the following except:
Maximal recommended dose of acetaminophen in patients with chronic...
S.M., a 40-year-old female, came in due to1 month history of...
A patient was discharged stable after more than a week. After 4 weeks,...
Patients with gallstone pancreatitis should undergo cholecystectomy...
The recommended treatment for Acute Hepatitis C:
A quantitative marker of a replicative phase of Hepatitis B infection:
A 65 year old male was admitted for hematemesis from a Forrest...
A 24-year-old prostitute consulted you because her new "bugaw" wants...
A 60 year old female was admitted for sudden massive...
Isolated anti-HBc positivity is most commonly due to:
A 45-year-old male, with chronic back pain, came in due to 2 episodes...
True regarding the serologic markers for hepatitis B except:
The following are recommended as first line therapy in Chronic...
Which of the following statements is true regarding HBV infection:
 A 40-year-old male with chronic hepatitis B came in for consult....
A 55-year-old female, a known case of Liver Cirrhosis and Chronic...
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