Physiology: Heart And Muscles Functions! Trivia Quiz
The human body is quite interesting when you get to understand how the organs and systems function. As a physiology student, how much do you know about the functions of the heart and muscles? The test below is hard and designed to help you review what you know about the organs, try it out and get to find out for sure. All the best!
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Anemia may result from
- A.
Low numbers of RBCs
- B.
Low levels of hemoglobin
- C.
Low levels of oxygen
- D.
2 of the above
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. 2 of the aboveExplanation
Anemia may result from low numbers of RBCs and low levels of hemoglobin. Both of these conditions can lead to a decrease in the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, causing symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, and shortness of breath. Low levels of oxygen alone may not necessarily cause anemia, as it can be caused by various factors, but it is often associated with anemia due to the reduced ability of the blood to transport oxygen effectively. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 of the above.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Leukocytes
- A.
Are comprised of 5 different cell types
- B.
Increase in response to low blood oxygen
- C.
Will increase cardiac output
- D.
Are found in the plasma portion of centrifuged blood
Correct Answer
A. Are comprised of 5 different cell typesExplanation
Leukocytes, also known as white blood cells, are a crucial part of the immune system and are responsible for fighting off infections and diseases. They are comprised of 5 different cell types, including neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, and basophils. Each cell type has its own unique function and plays a specific role in the immune response. By having a diverse range of cell types, leukocytes are able to effectively target and eliminate various pathogens, ensuring the body's defense against harmful invaders.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Thrombocytes
- A.
Help with blood clotting
- B.
Help fight infection
- C.
Are not associated with blood products
- D.
Transport Oxygen
Correct Answer
A. Help with blood clottingExplanation
Thrombocytes, also known as platelets, are small cell fragments in the blood that play a crucial role in blood clotting. When there is an injury or damage to blood vessels, thrombocytes gather at the site and form a plug to stop bleeding. They release chemicals that help in the formation of fibrin, a protein that forms a mesh-like structure to trap red blood cells and form a clot. Therefore, thrombocytes indeed help with blood clotting.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Cardiac Output
- A.
Is equal to blood flow times stroke volume
- B.
Can be affected by changes in heart rate
- C.
Is approximately 10 L at rest
- D.
Is equal to stroke volume divided by heart rate
Correct Answer
B. Can be affected by changes in heart rateExplanation
The correct answer is "Can be affected by changes in heart rate." Cardiac output refers to the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute. It is determined by the product of heart rate (number of heartbeats per minute) and stroke volume (volume of blood pumped by the heart with each beat). Therefore, any changes in heart rate, such as an increase or decrease, will directly affect the cardiac output.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Viscosity affects blood flow by changing
- A.
EDV
- B.
TPR
- C.
ESV
- D.
SV
Correct Answer
B. TPRExplanation
Viscosity affects blood flow by changing TPR, which stands for Total Peripheral Resistance. TPR is the resistance encountered by blood flow in the systemic circulation. When viscosity increases, the blood becomes thicker and more resistant to flow, leading to an increase in TPR. This increased resistance can result in higher blood pressure and reduced blood flow to various organs and tissues. Conversely, when viscosity decreases, blood flow becomes easier, leading to a decrease in TPR and potentially lower blood pressure.Rate this question:
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- 6.
An increase in blood pressure can be caused by
- A.
Vasoconstriction
- B.
Vasodilation
- C.
Continuous urination
- D.
Hemorrhage
Correct Answer
A. VasoconstrictionExplanation
Vasoconstriction refers to the narrowing of blood vessels, which can lead to an increase in blood pressure. When blood vessels constrict, the diameter of the vessels decreases, causing an increase in resistance to blood flow. This increased resistance requires the heart to pump harder to maintain the same level of blood flow, resulting in an increase in blood pressure. Therefore, vasoconstriction is a potential cause of elevated blood pressure.Rate this question:
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- 7.
If a vessel vasoconstricts to 1/2 of the initial size, then the flow will
- A.
Increase 4 times
- B.
Increase to 16 times
- C.
Decrease to 1/4
- D.
Decrease to 1/16
Correct Answer
D. Decrease to 1/16Explanation
When a vessel vasoconstricts to 1/2 of its initial size, the flow of liquid through the vessel will decrease. The flow rate is inversely proportional to the cross-sectional area of the vessel. As the vessel constricts to 1/2 of its initial size, the cross-sectional area decreases to 1/4 of the original. According to the principle of continuity, the flow rate must remain constant. Therefore, the velocity of the liquid must increase by a factor of 4. Since the flow rate is the product of velocity and cross-sectional area, the flow rate decreases to 1/16 of the original value.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Long-term decrease in blood pressure can occur
- A.
Through neurological interventions
- B.
Through renal interventions
- C.
Through respiratory interventions
- D.
Long-term decreases in blood pressure cannot occur
Correct Answer
D. Long-term decreases in blood pressure cannot occurExplanation
This answer suggests that long-term decreases in blood pressure cannot occur. This implies that interventions such as neurological, renal, or respiratory interventions may not be effective in achieving a long-term decrease in blood pressure. It is important to note that without further context or information, it is difficult to provide a more comprehensive explanation for why long-term decreases in blood pressure cannot occur.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Contractility of the heart affects blood pressure by affecting (directly or indirectly)
- A.
ESV*
- B.
SV*
- C.
HR
- D.
Two of the above
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. Two of the aboveExplanation
The contractility of the heart refers to its ability to contract and pump blood effectively. This directly affects the stroke volume (SV), which is the amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction. When contractility is increased, SV increases, leading to an increase in blood pressure. Additionally, an increase in heart rate (HR) can also affect blood pressure. Therefore, the contractility of the heart can indirectly affect blood pressure by influencing both SV and HR.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Inhibition of the vagus nerve would
- A.
Increase the heart rate
- B.
Decrease the heart rate
- C.
Have no affect on heart rate
- D.
Two of the above
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
A. Increase the heart rateExplanation
Inhibition of the vagus nerve would increase the heart rate. The vagus nerve is responsible for the parasympathetic control of the heart, which normally slows down the heart rate. When the vagus nerve is inhibited, this parasympathetic influence is reduced, leading to an increase in heart rate.Rate this question:
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- 11.
During ventricular systole
- A.
The EKG is showing a t-wave
- B.
You hear "lub" sound
- C.
Aortic pressure is 120 mmHg
- D.
You have atrial systole
Correct Answer
C. Aortic pressure is 120 mmHgExplanation
During ventricular systole, the pressure in the aorta reaches its highest point, which is typically around 120 mmHg. This is known as systolic pressure and represents the force exerted by the contracting ventricles as they pump blood out of the heart and into the aorta. The aortic pressure gradually decreases during ventricular diastole, when the heart is at rest and filling with blood. The given answer correctly identifies the aortic pressure as 120 mmHg, which is a characteristic feature of ventricular systole.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The hearts pacemaker is
- A.
The AV node
- B.
The ionically leakiest site in the heart
- C.
Directly connected to the bundle of HIs
- D.
Usually found in the apex
Correct Answer
C. Directly connected to the bundle of HIsExplanation
The correct answer is "Directly connected to the bundle of HIs". The AV node, or atrioventricular node, is a specialized group of cells located in the heart that acts as a relay station for electrical signals. It is directly connected to the bundle of His, which is responsible for transmitting these electrical signals from the atria to the ventricles. This connection allows for proper coordination and synchronization of the heart's contractions, helping to maintain a regular heartbeat.Rate this question:
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- 13.
During the P-wave
- A.
The atria are in systole
- B.
The atria are in diastole
- C.
The ventricles are in systole
- D.
Nothing is happening
Correct Answer
A. The atria are in systoleExplanation
During the P-wave of the cardiac cycle, the atria are in systole. Systole refers to the phase of contraction of the heart muscle. The P-wave represents the depolarization of the atria, which leads to their contraction. This contraction allows for the blood to be pushed into the ventricles, preparing them for the next phase of the cardiac cycle. Therefore, it is accurate to say that during the P-wave, the atria are in systole.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Angiotensin II is
- A.
A vagal inhibitor
- B.
A vasoconstrictor
- C.
An osmotic diuretic
- D.
A cholinergic antagonist
Correct Answer
B. A vasoconstrictorExplanation
Angiotensin II is a vasoconstrictor. It acts on blood vessels, causing them to constrict and narrow, which increases blood pressure. This vasoconstrictor effect is important in regulating blood flow and maintaining blood pressure within a normal range.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The hematocrit would be
- A.
The portion of the blood that contains albumin
- B.
The portion of the blood that contains erythrocytes
- C.
The portion of the blood that contains pinocytes
- D.
The portion of the blood that contains osteocytes
Correct Answer
B. The portion of the blood that contains erythrocytesExplanation
The hematocrit refers to the percentage of red blood cells (erythrocytes) in the total volume of blood. It is a measure of the blood's ability to carry oxygen and is typically used to diagnose conditions such as anemia or polycythemia. Therefore, the correct answer is "The portion of the blood that contains erythrocytes."Rate this question:
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- 16.
Erythropoesis is produced in response to
- A.
Low levels of leukocytes
- B.
Low levels of thrombocytes
- C.
Low levels of oxygen
- D.
Low levels of bone marrow
Correct Answer
C. Low levels of oxygenExplanation
Erythropoiesis is the process of producing red blood cells. It is stimulated by low levels of oxygen in the body. When oxygen levels are low, the kidneys release a hormone called erythropoietin, which signals the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells. This is a feedback mechanism to ensure that the body has an adequate supply of oxygen-carrying red blood cells to meet its needs. Low levels of leukocytes, thrombocytes, or bone marrow do not directly stimulate erythropoiesis.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Aldosterone
- A.
Decreases reabsorption of sodium
- B.
Increases vagal tone
- C.
Increases blood pressure
- D.
Is a vasoconstrictor
Correct Answer
C. Increases blood pressureExplanation
Aldosterone is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands that plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure. It acts by increasing the reabsorption of sodium and water in the kidneys, which leads to an increase in blood volume. This increase in blood volume, in turn, raises blood pressure. Therefore, the statement "Aldosterone increases blood pressure" is correct.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which type of blood could a type O+ person recieve in a transfusion?
- A.
A+
- B.
B-
- C.
AB-
- D.
O-
- E.
All of them
Correct Answer
D. O-Explanation
A type O+ person can receive blood from a type O- donor because O- is the universal donor for all blood types. O- blood lacks both A and B antigens, making it compatible with all blood types. Since type O+ has the Rh factor, they can also receive blood from other O+ donors. However, they cannot receive blood from A+, B-, AB-, or any other Rh-negative blood types.Rate this question:
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- 19.
You are pulled over by a cop and your heart immediately starts beating faster. As your adrenaline starts pumping, your ESV will ______ and your stroke volume will ______.
- A.
Increase/Decrease
- B.
Increase/Increase
- C.
Decrease/Increase
- D.
Decrease/Decrease
Correct Answer
C. Decrease/IncreaseExplanation
When you are pulled over by a cop and experience a surge of adrenaline, your ESV (end-systolic volume) will decrease. This is because the increased adrenaline causes your blood vessels to constrict, leading to an increase in blood pressure and a decrease in the amount of blood that is left in the ventricles after each contraction. On the other hand, your stroke volume will increase. This is because the increased adrenaline and constricted blood vessels allow for a more forceful contraction of the heart, resulting in a greater volume of blood being pumped out with each beat.Rate this question:
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- 20.
In orthostatic hypotension, the compensation is
- A.
Increased Heart Rate
- B.
Increased preload
- C.
Vasoconstriction
- D.
Two of the above
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the aboveExplanation
Orthostatic hypotension refers to a drop in blood pressure when a person stands up from a sitting or lying down position. To compensate for this drop, the body undergoes various mechanisms. Increased heart rate helps to pump blood more rapidly, increasing blood pressure. Increased preload, the volume of blood in the heart before it contracts, also helps to increase blood pressure. Vasoconstriction, the narrowing of blood vessels, helps to maintain blood pressure by increasing resistance to blood flow. Therefore, all of the above mechanisms are involved in the compensation for orthostatic hypotension.Rate this question:
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- 21.
In hemophilia, which of the following is missing
- A.
Coagulation factor
- B.
Thrombocytes
- C.
Vascular Endothelium
- D.
Calcium
Correct Answer
A. Coagulation factorExplanation
In hemophilia, the missing component is the coagulation factor. Hemophilia is a genetic disorder that impairs the body's ability to form blood clots, leading to excessive bleeding. Coagulation factors are proteins in the blood that help in the clotting process. In individuals with hemophilia, there is a deficiency or absence of one of these coagulation factors, most commonly factor VIII or factor IX. This deficiency results in prolonged bleeding and difficulty in clot formation, making coagulation factor the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 22.
An increase in afterload would cause
- A.
A decrease in ESV
- B.
An increase in ESV
- C.
A decrease in EDV
- D.
An increase in EDV
Correct Answer
B. An increase in ESVExplanation
An increase in afterload refers to an increase in the resistance that the heart must overcome to eject blood during systole. This increased resistance causes the heart to work harder to pump blood out of the left ventricle. As a result, the left ventricle may not be able to fully empty during systole, leading to an increase in end-systolic volume (ESV). Therefore, the correct answer is an increase in ESV.Rate this question:
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- 23.
In ECG's R-R time would indicate
- A.
Ventricular repolarization
- B.
Ventricular systole
- C.
Atrial diastole
- D.
Heart rate
Correct Answer
D. Heart rateExplanation
The R-R time in an ECG represents the time interval between consecutive R waves, which corresponds to the duration of one complete cardiac cycle. This includes both ventricular depolarization and repolarization. Therefore, the R-R time can be used to measure the heart rate, as it indicates the time it takes for the heart to complete one beat.Rate this question:
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- 24.
A ventricular systolic pressure of 120 mmHg would be due to events occurring in the
- A.
QRS wave
- B.
Atrial diastole
- C.
The U wave
- D.
SA node depolarization
Correct Answer
A. QRS waveExplanation
A ventricular systolic pressure of 120 mmHg would be due to events occurring in the QRS wave. The QRS wave represents ventricular depolarization, which leads to the contraction of the ventricles and the ejection of blood into the arteries. This contraction generates pressure within the ventricles, resulting in the systolic pressure. Therefore, the events occurring in the QRS wave are responsible for the ventricular systolic pressure of 120 mmHg.Rate this question:
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- 25.
ADH causes an increase in BP by
- A.
Increasing vascular diameter
- B.
Increasing heart rate
- C.
Decreasing ESV
- D.
Increasing blood volume
Correct Answer
D. Increasing blood volumeExplanation
ADH, also known as antidiuretic hormone, plays a role in regulating blood pressure. It does so by increasing blood volume. When ADH is released, it signals the kidneys to reabsorb water, which leads to an increase in blood volume. This increase in blood volume results in an increase in blood pressure. Therefore, the correct answer is increasing blood volume.Rate this question:
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- 26.
A good value for EDV would be
- A.
120 mmHg
- B.
80 mmHg
- C.
130 mL
- D.
70 mL
Correct Answer
C. 130 mLExplanation
A good value for EDV would be 130 mL because EDV stands for end-diastolic volume, which refers to the amount of blood present in the ventricles at the end of diastole (relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle). A higher EDV indicates better filling of the ventricles, allowing for a greater stroke volume (amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction) and ultimately a more efficient cardiac output. Therefore, a value of 130 mL suggests optimal ventricular filling and cardiac function.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Motor end plates have _______ receptors
- A.
Muscarinic
- B.
Alpha
- C.
Beta
- D.
Nicotinic
Correct Answer
D. NicotinicExplanation
Motor end plates have nicotinic receptors. Nicotinic receptors are found at the neuromuscular junction, where they mediate the transmission of signals from motor neurons to muscle fibers. Activation of nicotinic receptors by the neurotransmitter acetylcholine leads to muscle contraction. These receptors are named after nicotine, as they can also be activated by this compound. Muscarinic receptors, on the other hand, are found in the autonomic nervous system and are activated by the neurotransmitter acetylcholine as well, but they have different functions compared to nicotinic receptors.Rate this question:
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- 28.
You have taken a poison that blocks the production of ATP only in the muscles. Which of the following would you expect within 12 hours of taking hte poison?
- A.
Floppy Muscles
- B.
Rigid Muscles
- C.
Contracted flexors only
- D.
Contracted extensors only
Correct Answer
B. Rigid MusclesExplanation
Taking a poison that blocks the production of ATP only in the muscles would lead to a lack of energy for muscle contraction. ATP is required for muscle relaxation, so without it, the muscles would remain in a contracted state, resulting in rigid muscles.Rate this question:
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- 29.
You have a rare genetic disease where the troponin does not bind calcium. Although you would probably not survive in utero, if you had, scientists would have found that your tropomyosin would
- A.
Probably be permanently wedged in the groove of the actin
- B.
Probably be permanently blocking the myosin binding spots on the actin
- C.
Be perfectly functioning, there would have been a problem binding actin to the myosin
- D.
Not have formed due to lack of calcium
Correct Answer
B. Probably be permanently blocking the myosin binding spots on the actinExplanation
In individuals with a rare genetic disease where troponin does not bind calcium, the normal regulation of muscle contraction is disrupted. Troponin normally binds calcium, which allows tropomyosin to move and expose the myosin binding sites on actin, leading to muscle contraction. Without calcium binding to troponin, tropomyosin would likely remain in a position that permanently blocks the myosin binding spots on actin, preventing muscle contraction from occurring effectively. This would result in impaired muscle function and potentially lead to severe health complications.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Skeletal muscles are innerveated by nerves that secrete
- A.
Acetylcholine
- B.
Serotonin
- C.
GABA
- D.
Norepiniephrine
Correct Answer
A. AcetylcholineExplanation
Skeletal muscles are innervated by nerves that secrete acetylcholine. Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that plays a crucial role in muscle contraction. It is released from the nerve endings at the neuromuscular junction and binds to receptors on the muscle fibers, causing them to contract. This process is essential for voluntary movement and coordination of skeletal muscles. Other neurotransmitters like serotonin, GABA, and norepinephrine do not have a direct role in skeletal muscle contraction.Rate this question:
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- 31.
T-Tubules
- A.
Are continuous with the srcolemma
- B.
Are in close approximation to the SR*
- C.
Release and recapture CA2+*
- D.
Two of the above
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. Two of the aboveExplanation
The correct answer is "Two of the above." This means that two statements from the given options are correct. In this case, the correct statements are that T-tubules are in close approximation to the SR and they release and recapture CA2+. The other statements, such as T-tubules being continuous with the sarcolemma and all of the above, are not correct.Rate this question:
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- 32.
A patient has low blood Ca. Which of the following symptoms would you expect to see?
- A.
Muscle Spasms
- B.
Increase BP
- C.
Increased HR
- D.
Two of the above
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
A. Muscle SpasmsExplanation
Low blood calcium levels can lead to muscle spasms. Calcium plays a crucial role in muscle contraction and relaxation. When calcium levels are low, the muscles may become hyperexcitable and prone to spasms. Symptoms such as increased blood pressure and heart rate are not directly associated with low blood calcium levels, so they would not be expected in this case. Therefore, the correct answer is "Muscle Spasms."Rate this question:
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- 33.
An individual muscle contraction is known as
- A.
Treppe
- B.
Rigor
- C.
Twitch
- D.
Reflex
Correct Answer
C. TwitchExplanation
A muscle contraction that occurs in response to a single stimulus is known as a twitch. It is a brief and involuntary contraction of a muscle fiber or a group of muscle fibers. This term is commonly used to describe the contraction that occurs in skeletal muscles. Treppe refers to the phenomenon where the force of muscle contraction increases with each subsequent contraction. Rigor refers to the stiffening of muscles after death. Reflex refers to an involuntary and automatic response to a stimulus.Rate this question:
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- 34.
In the stretch reflex,
- A.
The stimulated muscle contracts
- B.
The stimulated muscle relaxes
- C.
The unstimulated muscle contracts
- D.
The tertiary muscle contracts
Correct Answer
A. The stimulated muscle contractsExplanation
In the stretch reflex, the stimulated muscle contracts. This reflex occurs when a muscle is stretched rapidly, causing a sensory receptor called a muscle spindle to detect the change in muscle length. The sensory information is then transmitted to the spinal cord, where it is processed and a motor response is generated. In the case of the stretch reflex, the motor response is the contraction of the muscle that was originally stretched. This reflex helps to maintain muscle tone and protect the body from sudden changes in muscle length.Rate this question:
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- 35.
If the efferent pathway of a reflex was damaged,
- A.
The brain would not know of the reflex
- B.
The brain would know of the reflex at the same rate as an undamaged pathway
- C.
The brain would know of the reflex at a much slower rate
- D.
The brain would know of the reflex at a much faster rate
Correct Answer
B. The brain would know of the reflex at the same rate as an undamaged pathwayExplanation
If the efferent pathway of a reflex was damaged, it would mean that the pathway responsible for carrying signals from the brain to the muscles or glands involved in the reflex response is affected. This would result in a disruption in the communication between the brain and the reflex, leading to a delay or absence of the brain's awareness of the reflex. Therefore, the brain would not know of the reflex or be aware of it at the same rate as an undamaged pathway.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Apr 05, 2010Quiz Created by
Kszabo2
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