Phlebotomy Practice Exam 2
This test is for phlebotomy students to practice for final exams and state board.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
A blood smear made from an EDTA specimen should be made
- A.
Anytime after collection
- B.
Within 4 hours of collection
- C.
Within 12 hours of collection
- D.
Within 1 hour of collection
Correct Answer
D. Within 1 hour of collectionExplanation
A blood smear made from an EDTA specimen should be made within 1 hour of collection because EDTA is an anticoagulant that prevents blood clotting by binding calcium ions. After 1 hour, the blood cells may start to deteriorate, making it difficult to obtain accurate results from the blood smear. Therefore, it is important to make the blood smear as soon as possible after collection to ensure the integrity of the blood cells and obtain reliable test results.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Why are capillary blood gases less desirable than arterial bloood gases (ABG's)
- A.
Skin puncture blood contains tissue fluid
- B.
The blood is exposed to air during collection
- C.
Skin puncture blood is only partial arterial
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
C. Skin puncture blood is only partial arterialExplanation
Capillary blood gases are less desirable than arterial blood gases because skin puncture blood, which is obtained from capillaries, is only partially arterial. Arterial blood is considered the gold standard for assessing oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood because it directly reflects the gas exchange happening in the lungs. Capillary blood, on the other hand, contains a mixture of arterial and venous blood, which may not accurately represent the gas exchange happening in the lungs. Therefore, arterial blood gases are preferred over capillary blood gases for more accurate and reliable assessment of respiratory function.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What is the clinical and laboratory standards institute (CLSI) recommended maxium depth of heel puncture?
- A.
1.0 mm
- B.
1.4 mm
- C.
2.o mm
- D.
2.4 mm
Correct Answer
C. 2.o mmExplanation
The clinical and laboratory standards institute (CLSI) recommends a maximum depth of 2.0 mm for heel puncture. This depth allows for an adequate sample to be collected without causing excessive pain or potential complications for the patient. It is important to adhere to these standards to ensure accurate and safe collection of blood samples from infants.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Why are EDTA specimens obtained before other specimens when collected by skin puncture?
- A.
To minimize effects of platelet clumping
- B.
To prevent contamination from carryover
- C.
To reduce negative effects of hemolysis
- D.
To minimize tissue fluid contamination
Correct Answer
A. To minimize effects of platelet clumpingExplanation
EDTA (Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) is an anticoagulant commonly used in blood collection tubes. When collected by skin puncture, there is a higher chance of platelet clumping due to the small sample size and potential trauma to the blood vessels. By obtaining EDTA specimens before other specimens, the anticoagulant can prevent platelet aggregation and clumping, ensuring accurate results for laboratory tests that rely on platelet counts or functions. This helps to minimize the effects of platelet clumping and ensures the integrity of the sample for analysis.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Why should a laboratory report form indicate the fact that a specimen has been collected by capillary puncture?
- A.
Because test results can vary depending on the method of collection
- B.
To satisfy liability insurance requirements and for billing purposes
- C.
So that the patients nurse can check the site for signs of infection
Correct Answer
A. Because test results can vary depending on the method of collectionExplanation
A laboratory report form should indicate the fact that a specimen has been collected by capillary puncture because test results can vary depending on the method of collection. Different collection methods can yield different results due to variations in sample composition or contamination. By indicating the method of collection, laboratory personnel can take this into account when interpreting the test results and ensure accurate diagnosis and treatment.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which of the following is the safest area for infant heel puncture?
- A.
The area of the arch
- B.
The lateral plantar surface
- C.
The posterior curvature
Correct Answer
B. The lateral plantar surfaceExplanation
The lateral plantar surface is the safest area for infant heel puncture because it is less sensitive and has fewer nerve endings compared to other areas such as the arch or the posterior curvature. Puncturing the heel in this area reduces the risk of causing excessive pain or injury to the infant.Rate this question:
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- 7.
A capillary puncture should be done rather than a venipuncture in all of the following situations except when
- A.
A light blue top tube is needed
- B.
The patient has difficult veins
- C.
The test uses very litle blood
Correct Answer
A. A light blue top tube is neededExplanation
In this scenario, a capillary puncture should be done rather than a venipuncture in all situations except when a light blue top tube is needed. Capillary puncture is typically preferred when the patient has difficult veins or when the test requires very little blood. However, a light blue top tube is specifically used for coagulation tests, which usually require a larger volume of blood that can be obtained more efficiently through a venipuncture. Therefore, in the case of needing a light blue top tube, a venipuncture would be more appropriate.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The purpose of wiping away the first drop of blood during skin puncture is to
- A.
Avoid bacterial contamination
- B.
Reduce effects of hemoconcentration
- C.
Eliminate tissue fluid contamination
Correct Answer
C. Eliminate tissue fluid contaminationExplanation
Wiping away the first drop of blood during skin puncture helps to eliminate tissue fluid contamination. Tissue fluid can contain contaminants that may interfere with the accuracy of the blood sample, so removing it ensures a cleaner and more reliable sample. By eliminating tissue fluid contamination, the subsequent drops of blood collected will be more representative of the actual blood composition, allowing for more accurate testing and analysis.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Capillary puncture blood resembles
- A.
Arterial blood
- B.
Tissue fluid
- C.
Venous blood
Correct Answer
A. Arterial bloodExplanation
Capillary puncture blood resembles arterial blood because both types of blood are oxygenated. Capillaries are tiny blood vessels that connect arteries and veins, and they are responsible for the exchange of oxygen and nutrients between the blood and surrounding tissues. Arterial blood is the oxygen-rich blood that is pumped by the heart to deliver oxygen to the body's tissues. Therefore, capillary puncture blood, which is obtained from capillaries, will also contain oxygen and closely resemble arterial blood.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What does the term calcaneous mean?
- A.
Bone infection
- B.
Ostoemyelitis
- C.
Heel bone
Correct Answer
C. Heel boneExplanation
The term calcaneous refers to the heel bone.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Capillary puncture blood reference ranges are higher for this analyte.
- A.
Calcium
- B.
Total protein
- C.
Glucose
Correct Answer
C. GlucoseExplanation
Capillary puncture blood reference ranges for glucose are higher because capillary blood samples may contain a higher concentration of glucose compared to venous blood samples. This is because capillary blood is obtained from the capillaries, which are closer to the site of glucose utilization in the tissues. Therefore, glucose levels in capillary blood may reflect the immediate glucose status of the body and can be higher than venous blood glucose levels.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which microcollection container would be used to collect a specimen for CBC?
- A.
Gray top
- B.
Green top
- C.
Purple top
Correct Answer
C. Purple topExplanation
The purple top microcollection container would be used to collect a specimen for CBC (Complete Blood Count). The purple top tube contains the anticoagulant Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA), which prevents blood from clotting by binding calcium ions. This allows for the collection of whole blood for hematological testing, including CBC, which provides information about the different types and numbers of blood cells present.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What is PKU?
- A.
A hereditary inability to metabolize phenylalanine
- B.
A contagious condition caused by lack of phenylalanine
- C.
An inherited condition caused by lack of thyroid hormone
Correct Answer
A. A hereditary inability to metabolize phenylalanineExplanation
PKU stands for Phenylketonuria, which is a hereditary condition characterized by the inability to metabolize phenylalanine. This means that individuals with PKU are unable to break down an amino acid called phenylalanine, leading to a buildup of this substance in the body. If left untreated, this can cause intellectual disability, developmental delays, and other health problems. Therefore, the correct answer is that PKU is a hereditary inability to metabolize phenylalanine.Rate this question:
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- 14.
It is necessary to control depth of lancet insertion during capillary puncture to avoid
- A.
Bacterial contamination
- B.
Excessive bleeding
- C.
Injuring the heel bone
Correct Answer
C. Injuring the heel boneExplanation
During a capillary puncture, it is necessary to control the depth of lancet insertion to avoid injuring the heel bone. The heel bone, also known as the calcaneus, is located in the heel area and is vulnerable to damage if the lancet is inserted too deeply. Injuring the heel bone can cause pain, discomfort, and potentially lead to complications such as fractures or infections. Therefore, proper control of the lancet depth is crucial to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient during a capillary puncture.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What is the purpose of warming the site before skin puncture?
- A.
It is comforting to the patient
- B.
It makes the veins more visible
- C.
It increases blood flow up to seven times
Correct Answer
C. It increases blood flow up to seven timesExplanation
Warming the site before skin puncture increases blood flow up to seven times. This is beneficial because increased blood flow allows for easier identification and access to veins, making the process of skin puncture smoother and more efficient. Additionally, increased blood flow can help minimize discomfort for the patient during the procedure.Rate this question:
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- 16.
To make a thick blood smear you should take a large drop of blood and spread it to the size of a
Correct Answer
dimeExplanation
To make a thick blood smear, a large drop of blood should be taken and spread to the size of a dime. This means that the blood should be evenly distributed and spread out on a slide until it covers an area similar to the size of a dime. This technique allows for a concentrated sample of blood to be examined under a microscope, making it easier to detect and analyze any abnormalities or pathogens present in the blood sample.Rate this question:
- 17.
A capillary puncture site should not appear _ , which is described as being bluish from lack of oxygen.
Correct Answer
cyanoticExplanation
A capillary puncture site should not appear cyanotic, which is described as being bluish from lack of oxygen. Cyanosis occurs when there is insufficient oxygen in the blood, leading to a bluish discoloration of the skin or mucous membranes. This can be a sign of poor circulation or respiratory issues. In the context of a capillary puncture site, cyanosis would indicate a lack of oxygen reaching the area, which is not desirable and may indicate a problem with the procedure or the patient's health.Rate this question:
- 18.
A good blood smear should exhibit a _, edge.
Correct Answer
featheredExplanation
A good blood smear should exhibit a feathered edge. This means that the edge of the blood smear should be smooth and gradually taper off, resembling the shape of a feather. A feathered edge indicates that the blood has been spread evenly and thinly across the slide, allowing for better visualization and analysis of the blood cells under a microscope. It also suggests that the technique used to create the blood smear was accurate and precise.Rate this question:
- 19.
Capillary bilirubin specimens should be protected from_
Correct Answer
UV lightExplanation
Capillary bilirubin specimens should be protected from UV light because exposure to UV light can cause the breakdown of bilirubin, leading to inaccurate test results. UV light can cause photoisomerization of bilirubin, converting it into a different form that may not be accurately measured. Therefore, protecting the specimens from UV light ensures that the bilirubin levels are measured correctly and accurately reflects the patient's condition.Rate this question:
- 20.
If a patient has cold hands, capillary puncture should be performed on the pinky(little, or 5th finger)
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Performing a capillary puncture on the pinky finger is not the correct approach if a patient has cold hands. Capillary puncture is a method used to collect small blood samples from the fingertips, earlobes, or heels. In the case of cold hands, blood flow to the extremities may be reduced, making it difficult to obtain an adequate sample from the pinky finger. It is recommended to warm the patient's hands before performing a capillary puncture to ensure proper blood flow and sample collection. Therefore, the correct answer is False.Rate this question:
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- 21.
A microhematocrit tube is primarily used for manual potassium determinations.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
A microhematocrit tube is not primarily used for manual potassium determinations. It is actually used for measuring the volume percentage of red blood cells in a blood sample, which is known as the hematocrit. Potassium determinations are typically done using other methods such as blood tests or automated analyzers.Rate this question:
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- 22.
A phlebotomist should puncture a finger perpendicular to the finger print whorls.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
When a phlebotomist punctures a finger perpendicular to the finger print whorls, it allows for an easier and more accurate blood collection. Puncturing perpendicular to the whorls ensures that the needle is inserted into the capillaries located beneath the skin, which results in a smoother blood flow. This technique also reduces the chances of causing pain or discomfort to the patient. Therefore, it is important for a phlebotomist to puncture a finger perpendicular to the finger print whorls.Rate this question:
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- 23.
A magnet and flea are used to mix a CBG specimen
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Using a magnet and flea to mix a CBG specimen is a valid method. The magnet can be used to attract and move the flea, which in turn can help in mixing the specimen. This technique can be particularly useful when dealing with small or delicate samples where traditional mixing methods may not be suitable.Rate this question:
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- 24.
If a baby has a huge, fleshy big toe, it is exceptable to collect a bilirubin specimen from it
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Collecting a bilirubin specimen from a baby's big toe is not acceptable. Bilirubin is typically collected from the baby's heel, as it is a common site for blood collection in newborns. The big toe is not a suitable site for collecting a bilirubin specimen.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which test is most likely to result in fatal consequences if the patient is misidentified?
- A.
Blood cultures
- B.
Type and crossmatch
- C.
Drug screen
Correct Answer
B. Type and crossmatchExplanation
The type and crossmatch test is most likely to result in fatal consequences if the patient is misidentified. This test is performed before a blood transfusion to ensure compatibility between the donor and recipient blood types. If the patient is misidentified, and incompatible blood is transfused, it can lead to a severe immune reaction called a transfusion reaction, which can be life-threatening.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which test requires strict skin antiseptis procedures before specimen collection?
- A.
Blood culture
- B.
Type and crossmatch
- C.
Complete blood count
Correct Answer
A. Blood cultureExplanation
Blood culture requires strict skin antiseptic procedures before specimen collection because it is a test used to detect the presence of bacteria or fungi in the bloodstream. Contamination of the sample with bacteria from the skin can lead to false positive results, so it is important to thoroughly clean the skin to reduce the risk of contamination. This is not necessary for type and crossmatch or complete blood count tests, as they do not involve the collection of a specimen from the bloodstream.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What type of additive is recommended for collecting an ethanol test specimen?
- A.
EDTA
- B.
Sodium fluoride
- C.
No additive
Correct Answer
B. Sodium fluorideExplanation
Sodium fluoride is recommended as an additive for collecting an ethanol test specimen. This additive is commonly used to inhibit the growth of bacteria in the specimen and prevent the breakdown of ethanol over time. It helps to preserve the integrity of the specimen and ensure accurate test results.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which test is used to monitor heparin therapy?
- A.
PT
- B.
BT
- C.
ACT
Correct Answer
C. ACTExplanation
The ACT (Activated Clotting Time) test is used to monitor heparin therapy. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication used to prevent blood clots. The ACT test measures the time it takes for blood to clot after adding an activator, which helps determine the effectiveness of heparin in preventing clotting. By monitoring the ACT levels, healthcare professionals can adjust the dosage of heparin to ensure it is within the therapeutic range and reduce the risk of clotting or bleeding complications.Rate this question:
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- 29.
At what intervals is the blood blotted during a bleeding time test?
- A.
15 seconds
- B.
30 seconds
- C.
45 seconds
Correct Answer
B. 30 secondsExplanation
During a bleeding time test, the blood is blotted at 30-second intervals. This is done to monitor the rate at which the blood stops bleeding. By blotting the blood at regular intervals, healthcare professionals can determine how quickly the blood is clotting and assess the individual's overall hemostatic function. The 30-second interval allows for a sufficient amount of time to observe any changes in bleeding and make accurate assessments.Rate this question:
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- 30.
When performing a GTT, the timing should begin
- A.
As soon as the patient finishes the drink
- B.
After the patient arrives in the lab
- C.
When the fasting specimen is collected
Correct Answer
A. As soon as the patient finishes the drinkExplanation
The timing for a GTT (Glucose Tolerance Test) should begin as soon as the patient finishes the drink because this is when the body starts to metabolize the glucose. The purpose of the test is to measure how well the body processes sugar, so it is important to start the timing at the moment the glucose is consumed. Starting the timing after the patient arrives in the lab or when the fasting specimen is collected would not accurately measure the body's response to the glucose drink.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which of the following does not agree with the NIDA patient collection requirements for urine drug screens?
- A.
Documentation is carefully maintained from proctor to courier
- B.
Chain of custody is to be followed during the collection
- C.
The specimen is placed in a locked container during transport
Correct Answer
A. Documentation is carefully maintained from proctor to courierExplanation
The NIDA patient collection requirements for urine drug screens include maintaining careful documentation from the proctor to the courier, following a chain of custody during the collection, and placing the specimen in a locked container during transport. Therefore, the statement "documentation is carefully maintained from proctor to courier" agrees with the NIDA patient collection requirements for urine drug screens.Rate this question:
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- 32.
An autologous blood transfusion is a transfusion of blood
- A.
Donated by the patient for the patient
- B.
Directly from the donor to the patient
- C.
Given by an anonymous donor
Correct Answer
A. Donated by the patient for the patientExplanation
An autologous blood transfusion refers to the process of donating blood by the patient for their own use. This eliminates the need for an external donor and reduces the risk of complications such as transfusion reactions or infections. By using the patient's own blood, there is a higher chance of compatibility and it can be specifically tailored to their individual needs. This method is commonly used in elective surgeries where blood loss is anticipated and allows for a safer and more efficient transfusion process.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which of the following tubes can be used to collect blood for a type and crossmatch
- A.
ETS gray top
- B.
Royal blue top
- C.
Pink top EDTA tube
Correct Answer
C. Pink top EDTA tubeExplanation
The pink top EDTA tube can be used to collect blood for a type and crossmatch. EDTA, or ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid, is an anticoagulant that prevents blood from clotting. This is important for a type and crossmatch test, as it requires the blood to remain in a liquid state for accurate testing. The pink top indicates that it contains EDTA, making it the appropriate tube for this purpose.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Identify the condition in which a unit of blood is withdrawn from a patient as treatment
- A.
Acute leukemia
- B.
Hemochromatosis
- C.
RH incompatibility
Correct Answer
B. HemochromatosisExplanation
Hemochromatosis is a condition where there is an excessive accumulation of iron in the body. This excess iron can lead to organ damage and other complications. One of the treatment methods for hemochromatosis is phlebotomy, which involves the withdrawal of blood from the patient. By removing blood, the iron levels in the body can be reduced, helping to manage the condition and prevent further complications. Therefore, in the case of hemochromatosis, a unit of blood is withdrawn from the patient as a treatment method.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which of the following test may require special chain of custody documentation when collected
- A.
Drug screen
- B.
TDM
- C.
Crossmatch
Correct Answer
A. Drug screenExplanation
A drug screen may require special chain of custody documentation when collected. This is because drug screens are often used for legal or employment purposes, and it is important to maintain a strict chain of custody to ensure the integrity and validity of the test results. Chain of custody documentation ensures that the sample is properly collected, transported, and stored, and that it has not been tampered with or contaminated in any way. This documentation is crucial in legal proceedings or when the test results may have significant consequences for the individual being tested.Rate this question:
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- 36.
When collecting a blood culture specimen directly from a butterfly into blood culture bottles, which should be filled first?
- A.
Aerobic
- B.
Anaerobic
- C.
Neither, a discard tube must be drawn first
Correct Answer
A. AerobicExplanation
When collecting a blood culture specimen directly from a butterfly into blood culture bottles, the aerobic bottle should be filled first. This is because aerobic bacteria require oxygen to grow and thrive. Filling the aerobic bottle first ensures that any aerobic bacteria present in the specimen have enough oxygen to grow and be detected in the culture. Filling the anaerobic bottle first would limit the oxygen available for aerobic bacteria, potentially leading to false-negative results.Rate this question:
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- 37.
All POC glucose analyzers approved for hospital use have which of the following in commom?
- A.
All of the answers are correct
- B.
Data can be downloaded to a data management program
- C.
They require the use of an authorized operator ID number
- D.
The ability to use capillary, venous, or arterial blood samples
Correct Answer
A. All of the answers are correctExplanation
All POC glucose analyzers approved for hospital use have all of the answers mentioned in common. This means that they have the ability to download data to a data management program, require the use of an authorized operator ID number, and can use capillary, venous, or arterial blood samples.Rate this question:
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- 38.
To prevent introducing a contaminating substance into a trace-element collection tube, it is suggested that the phlebotomist
- A.
Draw it by itself using a syringe oe evacuated tube system
- B.
Use only a royal blue short-draw tube with heparin orEDTA
- C.
Use a syringe and transfer blood into the royal blue tube last
Correct Answer
A. Draw it by itself using a syringe oe evacuated tube systemExplanation
To prevent introducing a contaminating substance into a trace-element collection tube, it is suggested that the phlebotomist draw it by itself using a syringe or evacuated tube system. This method ensures that there is no cross-contamination from other substances or tubes, minimizing the risk of introducing contaminants into the trace-element collection tube. Using a syringe or evacuated tube system allows for a clean and isolated collection of the sample, ensuring the integrity of the trace-element analysis.Rate this question:
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- 39.
A 2-hour postprandial specimen should be drawn
- A.
2 hours before the patient has a meal
- B.
2 hours before patient arrives for the test
- C.
2 hours after the patient has had a meal
Correct Answer
C. 2 hours after the patient has had a mealExplanation
A 2-hour postprandial specimen should be drawn 2 hours after the patient has had a meal because this allows enough time for the body to process and metabolize the food. Drawing the specimen at this time gives a more accurate representation of the patient's blood glucose levels after a meal, which is useful in diagnosing and managing conditions such as diabetes.Rate this question:
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- 40.
TDM is used by physicians to
- A.
Determine a beneficial drug dosage for a patient
- B.
Screen inpatients for abuse of prescriptive drugs
- C.
Maintain peak levels of a drug in a patients system
Correct Answer
A. Determine a beneficial drug dosage for a patientExplanation
TDM, or Therapeutic Drug Monitoring, is a method used by physicians to determine the appropriate and beneficial dosage of a drug for a specific patient. By monitoring the drug levels in the patient's system, physicians can adjust the dosage to ensure optimal therapeutic effects while avoiding toxicity or inefficacy. This helps to personalize the treatment and ensure that the patient receives the right amount of medication for their condition.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Tests that can be performed using special POCT instruments or test kits include
- A.
Aterial blood gases
- B.
Glucose
- C.
Occult blood
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
Special POCT instruments or test kits can be used to perform tests for arterial blood gases, glucose, and occult blood. These instruments and kits are designed to provide quick and accurate results for these specific tests. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above" as all three tests can be performed using special POCT instruments or test kits.Rate this question:
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- 42.
The hormone detected in positive urine pregnancy tests is
- A.
ACTH
- B.
HCG
- C.
TSH
Correct Answer
B. HCGExplanation
HCG, or human chorionic gonadotropin, is the hormone detected in positive urine pregnancy tests. HCG is produced by the placenta during pregnancy and its levels increase rapidly in the early stages. This hormone is responsible for maintaining the production of progesterone, which is vital for maintaining the pregnancy. Urine pregnancy tests work by detecting the presence of HCG in the urine, indicating that a woman is pregnant.Rate this question:
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- 43.
This test requires a specimen with a 9:1 ratio of blood to anticoagulant
- A.
Ethanol
- B.
Prothrombin time
- C.
Red cell count
Correct Answer
B. Prothrombin timeExplanation
This test requires a specimen with a 9:1 ratio of blood to anticoagulant. Prothrombin time is a laboratory test that measures the time it takes for blood to clot. In order to accurately perform this test, it is important to have the correct ratio of blood to anticoagulant. If the ratio is not maintained, it can affect the clotting time and lead to inaccurate results. Therefore, prothrombin time is the correct answer as it directly relates to the requirement mentioned in the question.Rate this question:
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- 44.
The most critical aspect of blood culture is
- A.
Amount of specimen
- B.
Specimen handling
- C.
Skin antisepsis
- D.
The needle gauge
Correct Answer
C. Skin antisepsisExplanation
Skin antisepsis is the most critical aspect of blood culture because it helps prevent contamination of the blood sample with bacteria or other microorganisms that may be present on the skin. Properly cleaning and disinfecting the skin before collecting the blood sample reduces the risk of introducing external pathogens into the culture, which could lead to false-positive results or misdiagnosis. Therefore, ensuring effective skin antisepsis is crucial for obtaining accurate and reliable blood culture results.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Everyone who performs POCT in a clinical setting must meet the requirements of the _ for testing and the guidelines of the _ for specimen handling.
Correct Answer
CLIA
OSHAExplanation
In a clinical setting, individuals who perform Point-of-Care Testing (POCT) must adhere to the requirements set by the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) for testing procedures. Additionally, they must also follow the guidelines established by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) for proper handling of specimens. Both CLIA and OSHA play important roles in ensuring that testing is conducted accurately and safely in clinical settings.Rate this question:
- 46.
Parternity testing is performed to determine the probability that a specific individual fathered a particular child
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Paternity testing is a process used to establish the likelihood of a specific individual being the biological father of a particular child. This is done by comparing the DNA of the alleged father and the child to identify any genetic similarities. The test results provide a probability or likelihood that the tested individual is the biological father. Therefore, the statement "Paternity testing is performed to determine the probability that a specific individual fathered a particular child" is true.Rate this question:
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- 47.
A patient who is lactose intolerant will have a normal glucose curve after ingesting a dose of lactose
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
A patient who is lactose intolerant lacks the enzyme lactase, which is needed to break down lactose (a sugar found in milk and dairy products) into glucose and galactose. Without lactase, lactose cannot be properly digested and absorbed by the body. Therefore, when a lactose intolerant patient ingests lactose, they will not have a normal glucose curve because the lactose will not be properly metabolized into glucose. Hence, the correct answer is False.Rate this question:
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- 48.
A patient who is suspected of having lead poisoning should have his or her lead test specimen drawn in a light blue tube
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
a dark blue EDTA tubeRate this question:
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- 49.
The process of entering a password and gaining access to a computer is called
- A.
Logging on
- B.
Networking
- C.
Interfacing
Correct Answer
A. Logging onExplanation
The process of entering a password and gaining access to a computer is called logging on. This term refers to the action of providing the necessary credentials to authenticate and verify the user's identity, allowing them to access the computer and its resources. Logging on is a fundamental step in computer security, ensuring that only authorized individuals can use the system and protecting sensitive information from unauthorized access. Networking and interfacing, on the other hand, refer to different aspects of computer communication and interaction, but they are not directly related to the process of entering a password and gaining access to a computer.Rate this question:
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- 50.
A specimen would most likely be accepted for testing despite this problem
- A.
No phlebotomist initials
- B.
Incomplete identification
- C.
Quantity not sufficient
Correct Answer
A. No phlebotomist initialsExplanation
The absence of phlebotomist initials on a specimen would most likely not prevent it from being accepted for testing. While it is important to have proper identification and sufficient quantity of the specimen, the lack of phlebotomist initials may be considered a minor issue that can be resolved through other means, such as verifying the information through other documentation or contacting the phlebotomist directly.Rate this question:
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- Radiography Quizzes
- Syndrome Quizzes
- Ultrasound Quizzes
- Vital Signs Quizzes
- Xray Quizzes
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