Phlebotomy Practice Exam 2

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1. The process of entering a password and gaining access to a computer is called

Explanation

The process of entering a password and gaining access to a computer is called logging on. This term refers to the action of providing the necessary credentials to authenticate and verify the user's identity, allowing them to access the computer and its resources. Logging on is a fundamental step in computer security, ensuring that only authorized individuals can use the system and protecting sensitive information from unauthorized access. Networking and interfacing, on the other hand, refer to different aspects of computer communication and interaction, but they are not directly related to the process of entering a password and gaining access to a computer.

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About This Quiz
Phlebotomy Practice Exam 2 - Quiz

This test is for phlebotomy students to practice for final exams and state board.

2. Why should a laboratory report form indicate the fact that a specimen has been collected by capillary puncture?

Explanation

A laboratory report form should indicate the fact that a specimen has been collected by capillary puncture because test results can vary depending on the method of collection. Different collection methods can yield different results due to variations in sample composition or contamination. By indicating the method of collection, laboratory personnel can take this into account when interpreting the test results and ensure accurate diagnosis and treatment.

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3. Parternity testing is performed to determine the probability that a specific individual fathered a particular child

Explanation

Paternity testing is a process used to establish the likelihood of a specific individual being the biological father of a particular child. This is done by comparing the DNA of the alleged father and the child to identify any genetic similarities. The test results provide a probability or likelihood that the tested individual is the biological father. Therefore, the statement "Paternity testing is performed to determine the probability that a specific individual fathered a particular child" is true.

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4. The hormone detected in positive urine pregnancy tests is

Explanation

HCG, or human chorionic gonadotropin, is the hormone detected in positive urine pregnancy tests. HCG is produced by the placenta during pregnancy and its levels increase rapidly in the early stages. This hormone is responsible for maintaining the production of progesterone, which is vital for maintaining the pregnancy. Urine pregnancy tests work by detecting the presence of HCG in the urine, indicating that a woman is pregnant.

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5. If a patient has cold hands, capillary puncture should be performed on the pinky(little, or 5th finger)

Explanation

Performing a capillary puncture on the pinky finger is not the correct approach if a patient has cold hands. Capillary puncture is a method used to collect small blood samples from the fingertips, earlobes, or heels. In the case of cold hands, blood flow to the extremities may be reduced, making it difficult to obtain an adequate sample from the pinky finger. It is recommended to warm the patient's hands before performing a capillary puncture to ensure proper blood flow and sample collection. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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6. ASAP or MED emerg specimens must be attended to before routine specimens?

Explanation

ASAP or MED emerg specimens must be attended to before routine specimens because they require immediate attention and are often time-sensitive. These specimens are usually from patients in critical condition or those requiring urgent medical intervention. Attending to these specimens first ensures that the necessary diagnostic tests and treatments can be initiated promptly, potentially saving lives or preventing further complications. Routine specimens, on the other hand, can be processed and analyzed later without significant impact on patient care.

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7. What is the clinical and laboratory standards institute (CLSI) recommended maxium depth of heel puncture?

Explanation

The clinical and laboratory standards institute (CLSI) recommends a maximum depth of 2.0 mm for heel puncture. This depth allows for an adequate sample to be collected without causing excessive pain or potential complications for the patient. It is important to adhere to these standards to ensure accurate and safe collection of blood samples from infants.

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8. Which of the following is the safest area for infant heel puncture?

Explanation

The lateral plantar surface is the safest area for infant heel puncture because it is less sensitive and has fewer nerve endings compared to other areas such as the arch or the posterior curvature. Puncturing the heel in this area reduces the risk of causing excessive pain or injury to the infant.

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9. What is the purpose of warming the site before skin puncture?

Explanation

Warming the site before skin puncture increases blood flow up to seven times. This is beneficial because increased blood flow allows for easier identification and access to veins, making the process of skin puncture smoother and more efficient. Additionally, increased blood flow can help minimize discomfort for the patient during the procedure.

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10. To make a thick blood smear you should take a large drop of blood and spread it to the size of a

Explanation

To make a thick blood smear, a large drop of blood should be taken and spread to the size of a dime. This means that the blood should be evenly distributed and spread out on a slide until it covers an area similar to the size of a dime. This technique allows for a concentrated sample of blood to be examined under a microscope, making it easier to detect and analyze any abnormalities or pathogens present in the blood sample.

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11. If a baby has a huge, fleshy big toe, it is exceptable to collect a bilirubin specimen from it

Explanation

Collecting a bilirubin specimen from a baby's big toe is not acceptable. Bilirubin is typically collected from the baby's heel, as it is a common site for blood collection in newborns. The big toe is not a suitable site for collecting a bilirubin specimen.

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12. Which of the following is used by the laboratory to identify a specimen throughout the testing process?

Explanation

The laboratory uses an accession number to identify a specimen throughout the testing process. This number serves as a unique identifier for the specimen and helps ensure accurate tracking and documentation. It allows the laboratory to easily associate all relevant information and test results with the specific specimen, facilitating efficient and reliable analysis. The accession number is typically assigned when the specimen is received and remains consistent throughout the testing process.

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13. Which of the following statements describe proper centrifuge operation?

Explanation

Proper centrifuge operation requires placing tubes of equal size and volume opposite one another for balance. This ensures that the centrifuge spins evenly and prevents any imbalance that could potentially damage the equipment or cause inaccurate results.

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14. Which test requires strict skin antiseptis procedures before specimen collection?

Explanation

Blood culture requires strict skin antiseptic procedures before specimen collection because it is a test used to detect the presence of bacteria or fungi in the bloodstream. Contamination of the sample with bacteria from the skin can lead to false positive results, so it is important to thoroughly clean the skin to reduce the risk of contamination. This is not necessary for type and crossmatch or complete blood count tests, as they do not involve the collection of a specimen from the bloodstream.

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15. A 2-hour postprandial specimen should be drawn

Explanation

A 2-hour postprandial specimen should be drawn 2 hours after the patient has had a meal because this allows enough time for the body to process and metabolize the food. Drawing the specimen at this time gives a more accurate representation of the patient's blood glucose levels after a meal, which is useful in diagnosing and managing conditions such as diabetes.

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16. This test requires a specimen with a 9:1 ratio of blood to anticoagulant

Explanation

This test requires a specimen with a 9:1 ratio of blood to anticoagulant. Prothrombin time is a laboratory test that measures the time it takes for blood to clot. In order to accurately perform this test, it is important to have the correct ratio of blood to anticoagulant. If the ratio is not maintained, it can affect the clotting time and lead to inaccurate results. Therefore, prothrombin time is the correct answer as it directly relates to the requirement mentioned in the question.

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17. What does the term calcaneous mean?

Explanation

The term calcaneous refers to the heel bone.

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18. It is necessary to control depth of lancet insertion during capillary puncture to avoid

Explanation

During a capillary puncture, it is necessary to control the depth of lancet insertion to avoid injuring the heel bone. The heel bone, also known as the calcaneus, is located in the heel area and is vulnerable to damage if the lancet is inserted too deeply. Injuring the heel bone can cause pain, discomfort, and potentially lead to complications such as fractures or infections. Therefore, proper control of the lancet depth is crucial to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient during a capillary puncture.

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19. A phlebotomist should puncture a finger perpendicular to the finger print whorls.

Explanation

When a phlebotomist punctures a finger perpendicular to the finger print whorls, it allows for an easier and more accurate blood collection. Puncturing perpendicular to the whorls ensures that the needle is inserted into the capillaries located beneath the skin, which results in a smoother blood flow. This technique also reduces the chances of causing pain or discomfort to the patient. Therefore, it is important for a phlebotomist to puncture a finger perpendicular to the finger print whorls.

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20. Which test is most likely to result in fatal consequences if the patient is misidentified?

Explanation

The type and crossmatch test is most likely to result in fatal consequences if the patient is misidentified. This test is performed before a blood transfusion to ensure compatibility between the donor and recipient blood types. If the patient is misidentified, and incompatible blood is transfused, it can lead to a severe immune reaction called a transfusion reaction, which can be life-threatening.

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21. Which of the following test may require special chain of custody documentation when collected

Explanation

A drug screen may require special chain of custody documentation when collected. This is because drug screens are often used for legal or employment purposes, and it is important to maintain a strict chain of custody to ensure the integrity and validity of the test results. Chain of custody documentation ensures that the sample is properly collected, transported, and stored, and that it has not been tampered with or contaminated in any way. This documentation is crucial in legal proceedings or when the test results may have significant consequences for the individual being tested.

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22. An autologous blood transfusion is a transfusion of blood

Explanation

An autologous blood transfusion refers to the process of donating blood by the patient for their own use. This eliminates the need for an external donor and reduces the risk of complications such as transfusion reactions or infections. By using the patient's own blood, there is a higher chance of compatibility and it can be specifically tailored to their individual needs. This method is commonly used in elective surgeries where blood loss is anticipated and allows for a safer and more efficient transfusion process.

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23. Which of the following tubes can be used to collect blood for a type and crossmatch

Explanation

The pink top EDTA tube can be used to collect blood for a type and crossmatch. EDTA, or ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid, is an anticoagulant that prevents blood from clotting. This is important for a type and crossmatch test, as it requires the blood to remain in a liquid state for accurate testing. The pink top indicates that it contains EDTA, making it the appropriate tube for this purpose.

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24. Which microcollection container would be used to collect a specimen for CBC?

Explanation

The purple top microcollection container would be used to collect a specimen for CBC (Complete Blood Count). The purple top tube contains the anticoagulant Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA), which prevents blood from clotting by binding calcium ions. This allows for the collection of whole blood for hematological testing, including CBC, which provides information about the different types and numbers of blood cells present.

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25. When performing a GTT, the timing should begin

Explanation

The timing for a GTT (Glucose Tolerance Test) should begin as soon as the patient finishes the drink because this is when the body starts to metabolize the glucose. The purpose of the test is to measure how well the body processes sugar, so it is important to start the timing at the moment the glucose is consumed. Starting the timing after the patient arrives in the lab or when the fasting specimen is collected would not accurately measure the body's response to the glucose drink.

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26. A capillary puncture should be done rather than a venipuncture in all of the following situations except when

Explanation

In this scenario, a capillary puncture should be done rather than a venipuncture in all situations except when a light blue top tube is needed. Capillary puncture is typically preferred when the patient has difficult veins or when the test requires very little blood. However, a light blue top tube is specifically used for coagulation tests, which usually require a larger volume of blood that can be obtained more efficiently through a venipuncture. Therefore, in the case of needing a light blue top tube, a venipuncture would be more appropriate.

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27. A good blood smear should exhibit a _, edge.

Explanation

A good blood smear should exhibit a feathered edge. This means that the edge of the blood smear should be smooth and gradually taper off, resembling the shape of a feather. A feathered edge indicates that the blood has been spread evenly and thinly across the slide, allowing for better visualization and analysis of the blood cells under a microscope. It also suggests that the technique used to create the blood smear was accurate and precise.

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28. The most critical aspect of blood culture is

Explanation

Skin antisepsis is the most critical aspect of blood culture because it helps prevent contamination of the blood sample with bacteria or other microorganisms that may be present on the skin. Properly cleaning and disinfecting the skin before collecting the blood sample reduces the risk of introducing external pathogens into the culture, which could lead to false-positive results or misdiagnosis. Therefore, ensuring effective skin antisepsis is crucial for obtaining accurate and reliable blood culture results.

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29. This organization develops standards for specimen handling and processing

Explanation

CLSI, or the Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute, is an organization that develops standards for specimen handling and processing. They provide guidelines and best practices for laboratories and healthcare professionals to ensure accurate and reliable testing procedures. CLSI's standards cover a wide range of areas including specimen collection, transport, storage, and processing, with the aim of promoting quality and safety in laboratory testing. The other options, CDC (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention) and FDA (Food and Drug Administration), are important organizations in the field of public health and regulatory affairs respectively, but they are not specifically focused on developing standards for specimen handling and processing.

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30. Which of the following specimens needs to be chilled?

Explanation

Ammonia needs to be chilled because it is a volatile compound that can easily evaporate at room temperature. Chilling the specimen helps to prevent the evaporation and degradation of ammonia, ensuring accurate and reliable test results.

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31. A specimen arrives with less volume than is needed for the test. It will be noted why the specimen was rejected by using the abbreviation _.

Explanation

The abbreviation "QNS" stands for "Quantity Not Sufficient." In this scenario, the specimen received does not have enough volume to conduct the required test. The abbreviation QNS is used to indicate that the specimen was rejected due to insufficient quantity.

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32. Capillary puncture blood reference ranges are higher for this analyte.

Explanation

Capillary puncture blood reference ranges for glucose are higher because capillary blood samples may contain a higher concentration of glucose compared to venous blood samples. This is because capillary blood is obtained from the capillaries, which are closer to the site of glucose utilization in the tissues. Therefore, glucose levels in capillary blood may reflect the immediate glucose status of the body and can be higher than venous blood glucose levels.

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33. At what intervals is the blood blotted during a bleeding time test?

Explanation

During a bleeding time test, the blood is blotted at 30-second intervals. This is done to monitor the rate at which the blood stops bleeding. By blotting the blood at regular intervals, healthcare professionals can determine how quickly the blood is clotting and assess the individual's overall hemostatic function. The 30-second interval allows for a sufficient amount of time to observe any changes in bleeding and make accurate assessments.

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34. Tests that can be performed using special POCT instruments or test kits include

Explanation

Special POCT instruments or test kits can be used to perform tests for arterial blood gases, glucose, and occult blood. These instruments and kits are designed to provide quick and accurate results for these specific tests. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above" as all three tests can be performed using special POCT instruments or test kits.

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35. The purpose of wiping away the first drop of blood during skin puncture is to

Explanation

Wiping away the first drop of blood during skin puncture helps to eliminate tissue fluid contamination. Tissue fluid can contain contaminants that may interfere with the accuracy of the blood sample, so removing it ensures a cleaner and more reliable sample. By eliminating tissue fluid contamination, the subsequent drops of blood collected will be more representative of the actual blood composition, allowing for more accurate testing and analysis.

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36. Capillary puncture blood resembles

Explanation

Capillary puncture blood resembles arterial blood because both types of blood are oxygenated. Capillaries are tiny blood vessels that connect arteries and veins, and they are responsible for the exchange of oxygen and nutrients between the blood and surrounding tissues. Arterial blood is the oxygen-rich blood that is pumped by the heart to deliver oxygen to the body's tissues. Therefore, capillary puncture blood, which is obtained from capillaries, will also contain oxygen and closely resemble arterial blood.

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37. A patient who is suspected of having lead poisoning should have his or her lead test specimen drawn in a light blue tube

Explanation

a dark blue EDTA tube

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38. Glycolysis by erythrocytes and leukocytes in blood specimens can lower glucose values at a rate of up to 10 mg/dl per hour

Explanation

Glycolysis is a metabolic process that breaks down glucose to produce energy. Erythrocytes (red blood cells) and leukocytes (white blood cells) are capable of carrying out glycolysis. In blood specimens, the presence of these cells can lead to the consumption of glucose through glycolysis, causing a decrease in glucose levels. This process can occur at a rate of up to 10 mg/dl per hour, indicating that the statement is true.

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39. A patient who is lactose intolerant will have a normal glucose curve after ingesting a dose of lactose

Explanation

A patient who is lactose intolerant lacks the enzyme lactase, which is needed to break down lactose (a sugar found in milk and dairy products) into glucose and galactose. Without lactase, lactose cannot be properly digested and absorbed by the body. Therefore, when a lactose intolerant patient ingests lactose, they will not have a normal glucose curve because the lactose will not be properly metabolized into glucose. Hence, the correct answer is False.

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40. A bar code is?

Explanation

A bar code is a series of bars and spaces representing numbers and letters. It is a visual representation of data that can be scanned and read by a bar code reader. The bars and spaces vary in width and arrangement to encode the information, which can include product details, identification numbers, or other data. Bar codes are commonly used in retail, inventory management, and logistics to quickly and accurately track and identify items.

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41. A blood smear made from an EDTA specimen should be made

Explanation

A blood smear made from an EDTA specimen should be made within 1 hour of collection because EDTA is an anticoagulant that prevents blood clotting by binding calcium ions. After 1 hour, the blood cells may start to deteriorate, making it difficult to obtain accurate results from the blood smear. Therefore, it is important to make the blood smear as soon as possible after collection to ensure the integrity of the blood cells and obtain reliable test results.

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42. Capillary bilirubin specimens should be protected from_

Explanation

Capillary bilirubin specimens should be protected from UV light because exposure to UV light can cause the breakdown of bilirubin, leading to inaccurate test results. UV light can cause photoisomerization of bilirubin, converting it into a different form that may not be accurately measured. Therefore, protecting the specimens from UV light ensures that the bilirubin levels are measured correctly and accurately reflects the patient's condition.

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43. All POC glucose analyzers approved for hospital use have which of the following in commom?

Explanation

All POC glucose analyzers approved for hospital use have all of the answers mentioned in common. This means that they have the ability to download data to a data management program, require the use of an authorized operator ID number, and can use capillary, venous, or arterial blood samples.

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44. This is a permanent computer memory that instructs the computer to carry out user requested operations

Explanation

ROM stands for Read-Only Memory. It is a type of permanent computer memory that contains instructions or data that cannot be modified or erased by normal computer operations. ROM is responsible for storing firmware or software instructions that instruct the computer to carry out user requested operations. Unlike RAM (Random Access Memory), ROM retains its data even when the computer is powered off. Therefore, ROM plays a crucial role in booting up the computer and initiating the necessary operations for the user.

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45. Which of the following specimens are least likely to require special handling?

Explanation

Cholesterol and uric acid are least likely to require special handling because they are stable compounds that do not degrade easily. They can be stored and transported at room temperature without significant changes in their properties. On the other hand, specimens like gastrin and lactic acid are sensitive to temperature and require special handling to prevent degradation or alteration of their concentrations. Bilirubin and serum folate may also require special handling due to their sensitivity to light and temperature.

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46. A pneumatic tube is a

Explanation

A pneumatic tube is a pressurized air transportation system that is used to transport items such as documents, small packages, or samples between different locations within a building or facility. It operates by using compressed air to propel a carrier through a network of tubes, allowing for quick and efficient transportation. This system is commonly used in hospitals, banks, or offices where there is a need for fast and secure delivery of items.

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47. Which of the following would not be considered a preanalytical error?

Explanation

Misreporting patient results would not be considered a preanalytical error because it does not involve any error or issue related to the collection, handling, or processing of the patient's sample. Preanalytical errors typically occur before the actual analysis of the sample and can include errors such as using the wrong order of draw or failing to mix an additive tube, which could potentially affect the accuracy and reliability of the test results. However, misreporting patient results would fall under the category of post-analytical errors, which involve mistakes in the interpretation or communication of the test results.

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48. The handling of a specimen before it is actualy tested is part of the _ phase

Explanation

The handling of a specimen before it is actually tested is part of the preanalytical phase. This phase involves all the steps and processes that occur prior to the actual analysis of the specimen, including collection, transportation, labeling, and preparation. It is crucial to ensure proper handling during this phase to maintain the integrity and quality of the specimen, as any errors or contamination during this stage can significantly affect the accuracy and reliability of the test results.

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49. What is PKU?

Explanation

PKU stands for Phenylketonuria, which is a hereditary condition characterized by the inability to metabolize phenylalanine. This means that individuals with PKU are unable to break down an amino acid called phenylalanine, leading to a buildup of this substance in the body. If left untreated, this can cause intellectual disability, developmental delays, and other health problems. Therefore, the correct answer is that PKU is a hereditary inability to metabolize phenylalanine.

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50. When collecting a blood culture specimen directly from a butterfly into blood culture bottles, which should be filled first?

Explanation

When collecting a blood culture specimen directly from a butterfly into blood culture bottles, the aerobic bottle should be filled first. This is because aerobic bacteria require oxygen to grow and thrive. Filling the aerobic bottle first ensures that any aerobic bacteria present in the specimen have enough oxygen to grow and be detected in the culture. Filling the anaerobic bottle first would limit the oxygen available for aerobic bacteria, potentially leading to false-negative results.

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51. A magnet and flea are used to mix a CBG specimen

Explanation

Using a magnet and flea to mix a CBG specimen is a valid method. The magnet can be used to attract and move the flea, which in turn can help in mixing the specimen. This technique can be particularly useful when dealing with small or delicate samples where traditional mixing methods may not be suitable.

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52. Transporting blood specimens with the stopper up has nothing to do with:

Explanation

Transporting blood specimens with the stopper up does not affect the sterility of the sample. Sterility is primarily maintained by the vacuum seal within the collection tube, which prevents contamination from entering the tube. Transporting the specimen with the stopper up or down does not impact this seal and therefore does not affect the sterility of the sample.

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53. A microhematocrit tube is primarily used for manual potassium determinations.

Explanation

A microhematocrit tube is not primarily used for manual potassium determinations. It is actually used for measuring the volume percentage of red blood cells in a blood sample, which is known as the hematocrit. Potassium determinations are typically done using other methods such as blood tests or automated analyzers.

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54. What type of additive is recommended for collecting an ethanol test specimen?

Explanation

Sodium fluoride is recommended as an additive for collecting an ethanol test specimen. This additive is commonly used to inhibit the growth of bacteria in the specimen and prevent the breakdown of ethanol over time. It helps to preserve the integrity of the specimen and ensure accurate test results.

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55. Identify the condition in which a unit of blood is withdrawn from a patient as treatment

Explanation

Hemochromatosis is a condition where there is an excessive accumulation of iron in the body. This excess iron can lead to organ damage and other complications. One of the treatment methods for hemochromatosis is phlebotomy, which involves the withdrawal of blood from the patient. By removing blood, the iron levels in the body can be reduced, helping to manage the condition and prevent further complications. Therefore, in the case of hemochromatosis, a unit of blood is withdrawn from the patient as a treatment method.

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56. To prevent introducing a contaminating substance into a trace-element collection tube, it is suggested that the phlebotomist

Explanation

To prevent introducing a contaminating substance into a trace-element collection tube, it is suggested that the phlebotomist draw it by itself using a syringe or evacuated tube system. This method ensures that there is no cross-contamination from other substances or tubes, minimizing the risk of introducing contaminants into the trace-element collection tube. Using a syringe or evacuated tube system allows for a clean and isolated collection of the sample, ensuring the integrity of the trace-element analysis.

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57. TDM is used by physicians to

Explanation

TDM, or Therapeutic Drug Monitoring, is a method used by physicians to determine the appropriate and beneficial dosage of a drug for a specific patient. By monitoring the drug levels in the patient's system, physicians can adjust the dosage to ensure optimal therapeutic effects while avoiding toxicity or inefficacy. This helps to personalize the treatment and ensure that the patient receives the right amount of medication for their condition.

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58. A specimen would most likely be accepted for testing despite this problem

Explanation

The absence of phlebotomist initials on a specimen would most likely not prevent it from being accepted for testing. While it is important to have proper identification and sufficient quantity of the specimen, the lack of phlebotomist initials may be considered a minor issue that can be resolved through other means, such as verifying the information through other documentation or contacting the phlebotomist directly.

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59. Which of the following represents improper aliquot preparation?

Explanation

Pouring the contents into the aliquot tube is considered improper aliquot preparation because it does not involve any protective measures to prevent contamination or spills. When preparing aliquots, it is important to use proper techniques such as removing the stopper behind a splash shield and covering or capping the aliquot tube immediately to ensure the integrity and safety of the sample.

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60. Which test is used to monitor heparin therapy?

Explanation

The ACT (Activated Clotting Time) test is used to monitor heparin therapy. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication used to prevent blood clots. The ACT test measures the time it takes for blood to clot after adding an activator, which helps determine the effectiveness of heparin in preventing clotting. By monitoring the ACT levels, healthcare professionals can adjust the dosage of heparin to ensure it is within the therapeutic range and reduce the risk of clotting or bleeding complications.

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61. This is a source of preanalytical error that occurs before specimen collection.

Explanation

Dehydration can affect the composition of the blood and other bodily fluids, leading to inaccurate test results. If a patient is dehydrated, their blood volume may be reduced, which can affect the concentration of certain analytes. This can lead to false high or false low results, depending on the specific test being performed. Therefore, a dehydrated patient can be a source of preanalytical error as it can impact the accuracy of the laboratory test results.

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62. Which of the following does not agree with the NIDA patient collection requirements for urine drug screens?

Explanation

The NIDA patient collection requirements for urine drug screens include maintaining careful documentation from the proctor to the courier, following a chain of custody during the collection, and placing the specimen in a locked container during transport. Therefore, the statement "documentation is carefully maintained from proctor to courier" agrees with the NIDA patient collection requirements for urine drug screens.

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63. A capillary puncture site should not appear  _ , which is described as being bluish from lack of oxygen.

Explanation

A capillary puncture site should not appear cyanotic, which is described as being bluish from lack of oxygen. Cyanosis occurs when there is insufficient oxygen in the blood, leading to a bluish discoloration of the skin or mucous membranes. This can be a sign of poor circulation or respiratory issues. In the context of a capillary puncture site, cyanosis would indicate a lack of oxygen reaching the area, which is not desirable and may indicate a problem with the procedure or the patient's health.

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64. Applications software called middleware

Explanation

The given correct answer suggests that applications software called middleware is responsible for accepting data downloaded from POC instruments. Middleware acts as a bridge between different software systems, allowing them to communicate and exchange data seamlessly. In this context, it specifically facilitates the transfer of data from point-of-care (POC) instruments to the computer system for further processing and analysis.

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65. Use of one of the newer technologies, RFID, is emerging in healthcare as a

Explanation

RFID (Radio Frequency Identification) technology is being used in healthcare as a method of specimen identification. This technology involves using small electronic tags or labels that contain unique identification information. These tags can be attached to specimens such as blood samples or tissue samples. RFID scanners can then read these tags and quickly and accurately identify the specimens, reducing the chances of errors or mix-ups. This method of specimen identification is more efficient and reliable compared to traditional manual methods, making it increasingly popular in healthcare settings.

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66. Why are EDTA specimens obtained before other specimens when collected by skin puncture?

Explanation

EDTA (Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) is an anticoagulant commonly used in blood collection tubes. When collected by skin puncture, there is a higher chance of platelet clumping due to the small sample size and potential trauma to the blood vessels. By obtaining EDTA specimens before other specimens, the anticoagulant can prevent platelet aggregation and clumping, ensuring accurate results for laboratory tests that rely on platelet counts or functions. This helps to minimize the effects of platelet clumping and ensures the integrity of the sample for analysis.

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67. Which of the following circumstances is least likely to result in delayed clotting of serum sample?

Explanation

When a serum sample is collected, it undergoes clotting, which is a normal process. However, in this question, the circumstance that is least likely to result in delayed clotting of the serum sample is "collection was difficult, hemolyzing red cells." Hemolyzing red cells refers to the breaking down of red blood cells, which can release substances that promote clotting. Therefore, if the red cells are hemolyzed during collection, it is less likely to result in delayed clotting of the serum sample.

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68. An example of a preanalytical error happening during specimen processing is 

Explanation

Inadequate centrifugation refers to the process of not spinning the specimen at the required speed or duration, leading to incomplete separation of the different components of the specimen. This error can result in inaccurate test results as the analytes of interest may not be properly concentrated or separated from interfering substances. It is crucial to ensure proper centrifugation techniques to obtain reliable and valid test results.

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69. According to CLSI, the maxium time limit for seperating serum or plasma from cells is

Explanation

According to CLSI guidelines, the maximum time limit for separating serum or plasma from cells is 2.0 hours from the time collected. This means that after the blood sample is collected, it should be processed and separated within 2.0 hours to obtain accurate results. Waiting longer than this time limit may lead to cell lysis and release of intracellular components, which can affect the quality and reliability of the serum or plasma sample. Therefore, it is important to adhere to this time limit to ensure accurate laboratory testing.

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70. Which specimen can be centrifuged immediately upon arrival in specimen processing?

Explanation

Calcium in a green top tube can be centrifuged immediately upon arrival in specimen processing because the green top tube is typically used for testing that requires whole blood, plasma, or serum. Centrifugation is done to separate the blood components, and in this case, the calcium levels can be accurately measured after centrifugation.

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71. Why are capillary blood gases less desirable than arterial bloood gases (ABG's)

Explanation

Capillary blood gases are less desirable than arterial blood gases because skin puncture blood, which is obtained from capillaries, is only partially arterial. Arterial blood is considered the gold standard for assessing oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood because it directly reflects the gas exchange happening in the lungs. Capillary blood, on the other hand, contains a mixture of arterial and venous blood, which may not accurately represent the gas exchange happening in the lungs. Therefore, arterial blood gases are preferred over capillary blood gases for more accurate and reliable assessment of respiratory function.

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72. Accessioning  takes place in central processing or triage.

Explanation

Accessioning does not take place in central processing or triage. Accessioning is the process of recording and documenting the receipt of a specimen into a laboratory or healthcare facility. It typically occurs in a designated area or department specifically dedicated to accessioning, separate from central processing or triage. Therefore, the correct answer is false.

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73. Everyone who performs POCT in a clinical setting must meet the requirements of the _ for testing and the guidelines of the _ for specimen handling.

Explanation

In a clinical setting, individuals who perform Point-of-Care Testing (POCT) must adhere to the requirements set by the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) for testing procedures. Additionally, they must also follow the guidelines established by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) for proper handling of specimens. Both CLIA and OSHA play important roles in ensuring that testing is conducted accurately and safely in clinical settings.

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74. A condition in which a patient has high blood glucose level is know as

Explanation

Hyperglycemia is a medical term used to describe a condition in which a patient has high blood glucose levels. It is commonly associated with diabetes mellitus, where the body is unable to properly regulate blood sugar levels. Hyperglycemia can lead to various symptoms such as increased thirst, frequent urination, fatigue, and blurred vision. If left untreated, it can have serious complications and long-term effects on the body. Therefore, it is important for individuals with hyperglycemia to manage their blood sugar levels through proper diet, exercise, and medication.

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