Pharm Practice Exam 1

30 Questions | Total Attempts: 41

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Educational Psychology Quizzes & Trivia

Includes antifungals, glaucoma drugs, allergy, and a few general questions from the first lecture


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    If a patient presents increased IOP following trauma, a red eye and sudden vision loss, which of the following drugs might be indicated?
    • A. 

      Betaxolol (Betoptic)

    • B. 

      Mannitol

    • C. 

      Latanoprost (Xalatan)

    • D. 

      Dorzolamide (Trusopt)

    • E. 

      Apraclonidine (Iodipine)

  • 2. 
    Which of the following is a combination of a alpha-2 agonist and a beta blocker for treatment of glaucoma?
    • A. 

      Combigan

    • B. 

      Cosopt

    • C. 

      Alphagan P

    • D. 

      Pilocarpine

  • 3. 
    Which of the following organisms is a culprit in acute or chronic inflammation of the lid margins?
    • A. 

      H. influenza

    • B. 

      S. peumoniae

    • C. 

      S. aureus

    • D. 

      E. coli

  • 4. 
    Which of the following would be used to treat the condition referred to in question 3?
    • A. 

      Quinolones (moxifloxacin, gatifloxacin, besifloxacin)

    • B. 

      Bacitracin or erythromycin ophthalmic ointment

    • C. 

      Naphazoline (AK-con)

    • D. 

      IV antibiotics (nafcillin)

  • 5. 
    Which of the following does not treat glaucoma by decreasing production of aqueous humor?
    • A. 

      Timolol

    • B. 

      Acetazolamide

    • C. 

      Brimonidine

    • D. 

      Pilocarpine

  • 6. 
    Which of the following is an indirect acting parasympathomimetic agent?
    • A. 

      Carbachol

    • B. 

      Echothiophate

    • C. 

      Dorzolamide

    • D. 

      Latanoprost

  • 7. 
    Which is a contraindication of indirect acting parasympathomimetic agents?
    • A. 

      Pre-operative situations in which neuromuscular blocking agents may be used

    • B. 

      Severe COPD or asthma

    • C. 

      Concurrent use of MAOIs

    • D. 

      Coronary artery disease

  • 8. 
    Which of the following can not be controlled with compresses and good hygiene?
    • A. 

      Seborrheic blepharitis

    • B. 

      Hordeolum

    • C. 

      Viral conjunctivitis

    • D. 

      Orbital cellulitis

  • 9. 
    Which of the following drugs is not generally associated with bacterial conjunctivitis?
    • A. 

      S. pneumoniae

    • B. 

      H. influenzae

    • C. 

      Pseudomonas

    • D. 

      Proteus sp.

  • 10. 
    Which of the following conditions can cause increased IOP?
    • A. 

      Bacterial conjunctivitis

    • B. 

      Orbital cellulitis

    • C. 

      Hordeolum

    • D. 

      Blepharitis

  • 11. 
    Which is false of alkylamines?
    • A. 

      They are nonselective antihistamines.

    • B. 

      The group includes brompheniramine (Dimetapp)

    • C. 

      They cause more sedation than ethanolamines

    • D. 

      The group contains chlorpheniramine (ChlorTrimeton)

  • 12. 
    Which family of nonselective antihistamines includes promethazine (Phenergan)?
    • A. 

      Alkylamines

    • B. 

      Phenothiazines

    • C. 

      Piperidines

    • D. 

      Piperazines

  • 13. 
    The selective piperidines include:
    • A. 

      Cyproheptadine (Periactin)

    • B. 

      Cetirizine (Zyrtec)

    • C. 

      Desloratadine (Clarinex

    • D. 

      Hydroxyzine (Atarax)

  • 14. 
    Which is true of systemic decongestants?
    • A. 

      They are parasympathomimetic agents

    • B. 

      They should be avoided in patients with hypertension

    • C. 

      The most effective one is phenylephrine (Sudafed PE)

    • D. 

      Prolonged use can result in rhinitis medicamentosa

  • 15. 
    Which of the following is a nasal steroid?
    • A. 

      Phenyephrine (Neo-Synephrine)

    • B. 

      Azelastine (Astelin)

    • C. 

      Oxymetazoline (Afrin)

    • D. 

      Flunisolide (Nasarel)

  • 16. 
    Which class of drugs is also used in acetaminophen overdose?
    • A. 

      Expectorants

    • B. 

      Mast cell stabilizers

    • C. 

      Mucolytics

    • D. 

      Anticholinergic agents

  • 17. 
    Which of the following does not affect azoles?
    • A. 

      Increased gastric pH

    • B. 

      Concurrent electrolyte depletion, e.g. taking thiazides

    • C. 

      Interference with CYP450 metabolism of other drugs the patient is taking

    • D. 

      Therapeutic failure due in the presence of another drug that induces CYP450 enzymes

  • 18. 
    What is the MOA of amphotericin?
    • A. 

      Inhibits ergosterol synthesis by enzyme disruption, increasing permeability of the membrane

    • B. 

      Binds to ergosterol in the cell membrane, allowing cell leakage

    • C. 

      Inhibits the synthesis of beta D glucan, a component of fungal cell wall construction

    • D. 

      Binds to beta D glucan in the cellular membrane, increasing permeability

  • 19. 
    Which of the following is the least potent CYP450 inhibitor?
    • A. 

      Ketoconazole

    • B. 

      Itraconazole

    • C. 

      Voriconazole

    • D. 

      Fluconasole

  • 20. 
    Which is the superior treatment for invasive aspergillosis?
    • A. 

      Voriconazole

    • B. 

      Amphotericin

    • C. 

      Fluconazole

    • D. 

      Itraconazole

  • 21. 
    Which class includes caspofungin, micafungin and anidulafungin?
    • A. 

      Polyenes

    • B. 

      Azoles

    • C. 

      Echinocandins

    • D. 

      Allylamines

    • E. 

      Penicillium derivatives

  • 22. 
    Which of the following demands use of systemic antifungal treatment?
    • A. 

      Oropharyngeal candidiasis

    • B. 

      Tinea pedis

    • C. 

      Tinea unguium

    • D. 

      Vulvovaginal candidiasis

  • 23. 
    Which of the following is false?
    • A. 

      Absorption is dependent on drug solubility.

    • B. 

      Increased lipid solubility enhances drug distribution

    • C. 

      The goal of metabolism is to convert substances into water soluble forms

    • D. 

      Most drugs are eliminated according to zero-order kinetics

  • 24. 
    Which of the following would be used to treat a patient presenting with yellow, friable nails with debris underneath?
    • A. 

      Ciclopirox (Penlac Lacquer)

    • B. 

      Tolnaftate (Tinactin)

    • C. 

      Terbinafine (Lamisil)

    • D. 

      Ketoconazole (Nizoral)

  • 25. 
    What would be used to treat a patient with thick white deposits on the posterior pharyngeal wall and posterior tongue, along with redness and inflammation?
    • A. 

      Citirizine (Zyrtec)

    • B. 

      Fluconazole

    • C. 

      Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

    • D. 

      Amphitericin

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