Pg Blazer - Online Test Series 3 - Surgery

1.

Chronic burrowing ulcer is caused by:
- A.
  
  Microaerophilic streptococci
- B.
  
  Peptostreptococcus
- C.
  
  Streptococcus viridans
- D.
  
  Streptococcus pyogenes
Correct Answer
A. Microaerophilic streptococci

Explanation
Burrowing ulcer / Maleny’s ulcer is caused by synergistic infection of microaerophilic non hemolytic streptococci and aerobic hemolytic streptococci

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2.

Which of the following is not a histological variant of thyroid neoplasm?
- A.
  
  Follicular
- B.
  
  Merkel cell
- C.
  
  Lnsular
- D.
  
  Anaplastic
Correct Answer
B. Merkel cell

Explanation
Merkel cell is not a histological variant of thyroid neoplasm. Merkel cell carcinoma is a rare and aggressive skin cancer that arises from the Merkel cells in the skin. It is not related to thyroid neoplasms, which are tumors of the thyroid gland.

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3.

All of the following are true about Lymphoma of the thymus except:
- A.
  
  More common in females
- B.
  
  Slow growing
- C.
  
  Clinically confused with undifferentiated tumours
- D.
  
  May present with respiratory distress and dysphagia
Correct Answer
B. Slow growing

Explanation
Lymphoma of the thymus is a type of cancer that affects the thymus gland, which is located in the chest. It is characterized by the abnormal growth of lymphocytes, a type of white blood cell. This type of lymphoma is typically more common in males rather than females, making the statement "More common in females" false. Lymphoma of the thymus is known to be slow-growing, meaning it progresses at a relatively slow rate. It can often be confused with undifferentiated tumors, as the symptoms and presentation may be similar. Additionally, it may present with respiratory distress and dysphagia, which are symptoms caused by the tumor's location in the chest. Therefore, the statement "Slow growing" is the correct answer.

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4.

The following is a marker of Paget’s disease of breast
- A.
  
  S- 100
- B.
  
  HMB 45
- C.
  
  CEA
- D.
  
  Neuron specific enolase
Correct Answer
C. CEA

Explanation
CEA stands for carcinoembryonic antigen, which is a protein that is often found in high levels in people with certain types of cancer, including breast cancer. Paget's disease of the breast is a rare form of breast cancer that affects the skin of the nipple and areola. CEA can be used as a marker to help diagnose and monitor the progression of Paget's disease of the breast. Therefore, the presence of CEA is indicative of Paget's disease of the breast.

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5.

All of the following statements about Gynaecomastia are true except:
- A.
  
  Subcutaneous mastectomy is the initial treatment of choice
- B.
  
  Seen in liver disease
- C.
  
  There may be estrogen – testosterone imbalance
- D.
  
  Can be drug induced
Correct Answer
A. Subcutaneous mastectomy is the initial treatment of choice

Explanation
Gynaecomastia is a condition characterized by the enlargement of breast tissue in males. It is commonly seen in liver disease, as the liver plays a role in metabolizing hormones. Gynaecomastia can also be caused by an imbalance of estrogen and testosterone levels, as well as by certain medications. However, subcutaneous mastectomy is not the initial treatment of choice for gynaecomastia. The treatment approach depends on the underlying cause and may include medication, lifestyle changes, or surgery.

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6.

Preferred incision for abdominal exploration in Blunt injury abdomen is:
- A.
  
  Always midline incision
- B.
  
  Depending upon organ
- C.
  
  Transverse incision
- D.
  
  Paramedian
Correct Answer
A. Always midline incision

Explanation
The preferred incision for abdominal exploration in blunt injury abdomen is always a midline incision. This is because a midline incision provides good exposure to all abdominal organs and structures, allowing for thorough examination and assessment of any potential injuries. Additionally, a midline incision is easier to close and has a lower risk of complications compared to other types of incisions.

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7.

Which of the following statements related to gastric injury is not true?
- A.
  
  Mostly related to penetrating trauma
- B.
  
  Treatment is simple debridement and suturing
- C.
  
  Blood in stomach is always related to gastric injury
- D.
  
  Heals well and fast
Correct Answer
C. Blood in stomach is always related to gastric injury

Explanation
The statement "Blood in stomach is always related to gastric injury" is not true. While gastric injury can cause bleeding in the stomach, there are other conditions and factors that can also lead to blood in the stomach, such as ulcers, gastritis, or bleeding disorders. Therefore, the presence of blood in the stomach does not always indicate gastric injury.

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8.

A patient sustained Traumatic injury to major abdominal vessels. lt has been planned to explore the Suprarenal Aorta. the Celiac Axis, the Superior Mesentric Artery, and the Left Renal Artery. What maneuver for exposure is recommended:
- A.
  
  Cranial Visceral Rotation
- B.
  
  Caudal Visceral Rotation
- C.
  
  Left Medial Visceral Rotation
- D.
  
  Right Medical Visceral Rotation
Correct Answer
C. Left Medial Visceral Rotation

Explanation
Left Medial Visceral Rotation is recommended for exposure in this case. This maneuver involves rotating the abdominal organs to the left side, allowing for better access and visualization of the suprarenal aorta, celiac axis, superior mesenteric artery, and left renal artery. This maneuver helps to provide a clear surgical field and facilitates the exploration and repair of the major abdominal vessels after traumatic injury.

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9.

All the following polyps are premalignant except
- A.
  
  Juvenile polyposis syndrome
- B.
  
  Famillial polyposis syndrome
- C.
  
  Juvenile polyp
- D.
  
  Peutz jegher syndrome
Correct Answer
C. Juvenile polyp

Explanation
A juvenile polyp is a type of polyp that is not premalignant, meaning it does not have the potential to develop into cancer. On the other hand, conditions like juvenile polyposis syndrome, familial polyposis syndrome, and Peutz Jeghers syndrome are all associated with premalignant polyps. Therefore, the correct answer is "Juvenile polyp" because it is the only option that does not represent a premalignant condition.

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10.

A 20 yr old girl presents with 9 month history of neck swelling with thyrotoxic symptoms. On investigation increased T4 and decreased TSH with palpable 2 cm nodule was found. Next investigation will be
- A.
  
  USG
- B.
  
  Thyroid scan
- C.
  
  Radioactive iodine uptake
- D.
  
  CT scan
Correct Answer
B. Thyroid scan

Explanation
The next investigation that should be done is a thyroid scan. This is because the patient has a palpable nodule in the neck along with symptoms of thyrotoxicosis. A thyroid scan can help determine the nature of the nodule and whether it is functioning or non-functioning. This information is important for further management and treatment decisions.

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Pg Blazer - Online Test Series 3 - Surgery

Chronic burrowing ulcer is caused by:

Which of the following is not a histological variant of thyroid neoplasm?

All of the following are true about Lymphoma of the thymus except:

The following is a marker of Paget’s disease of breast

All of the following statements about Gynaecomastia are true except:

Preferred incision for abdominal exploration in Blunt injury abdomen is:

Which of the following statements related to gastric injury is not true?

A patient sustained Traumatic injury to major abdominal vessels. lt has been planned to explore the Suprarenal Aorta. the Celiac Axis, the Superior Mesentric Artery, and the Left Renal Artery. What maneuver for exposure is recommended:

All the following polyps are premalignant except

A 20 yr old girl presents with 9 month history of neck swelling with thyrotoxic symptoms. On investigation increased T4 and decreased TSH with palpable 2 cm nodule was found. Next investigation will be