Pd Written Exam 2 Practice Quiz

50 Questions

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Practice Exam Quizzes & Trivia

This is the skin through HEENT, including material from lectures and Bates.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the following, often a result of chronic rubbing, refers to visible and palpable thickening of the epidermis, roughening of the skin and increased visibility of normal skin furrows?
    • A. 

      Scaling

    • B. 

      Crusting

    • C. 

      Lichenification

    • D. 

      Keloids

  • 2. 
    Decreased turgor is often an indication of:
    • A. 

      Edema

    • B. 

      Dehydration

    • C. 

      Scleroderma

    • D. 

      Carotenemia

  • 3. 
    Physical exam findings include cool dry skin with rough texture.  Which might the patient have?
    • A. 

      Anemia

    • B. 

      Scleroderma

    • C. 

      Hyperthyroidism

    • D. 

      Hypothyroidism

  • 4. 
    Vessicles in a unilateral dermatomal pattern are typical of what?
    • A. 

      Vitiligo

    • B. 

      Herpes zoster

    • C. 

      Tinea versicolor

    • D. 

      Acne vulgaris

  • 5. 
    Centeral cyanosis is most evident:
    • A. 

      In the oral mucosa, lips, and tongue

    • B. 

      In the hands, nails and feet

    • C. 

      In the palpebral conjunctiva, lips, hard palate, and undersurface of the tongue

    • D. 

      In the palms, soles and hands

  • 6. 
    Which of the following is hair loss that is not caused by normal or pathologic processes inside the patient's body?
    • A. 

      Alopecia areata

    • B. 

      Tinea capitis

    • C. 

      Trichotillomania

    • D. 

      Alopecia totalis

  • 7. 
    What would a flat lesion under 1cm be classified as?
    • A. 

      Papule

    • B. 

      Plaque

    • C. 

      Macule

    • D. 

      Patch

  • 8. 
    What would a raised, fluid filled lesion 1 cm or larger be classified as?
    • A. 

      Vesicle

    • B. 

      Pustule

    • C. 

      Nodule

    • D. 

      Bulla

  • 9. 
    The condition in which a person breaks out in red, raised itchy bumps (wheals), often from allergic causes, is:
    • A. 

      Dermatographism

    • B. 

      Urticaria

    • C. 

      Telangectasia

    • D. 

      Psoriasis

  • 10. 
    What might be suspect in a patient who presents with jaundice, spider angiomas (and other telangiectasias), palmar erythema, pruritus and purpura?
    • A. 

      Pregnancy

    • B. 

      Liver disease

    • C. 

      Leukemia/lymphoma

    • D. 

      Sickle cell anemia

  • 11. 
    Which is dried residue on the surface of a lesion?
    • A. 

      Scaling

    • B. 

      Ulceration

    • C. 

      Erosion

    • D. 

      Crusting

  • 12. 
    Which of the following is a type of telangiectasia?
    • A. 

      Spider angioma

    • B. 

      Petechia

    • C. 

      Cherry angioma

    • D. 

      Ecchymosis

  • 13. 
    Tiny, reddish or purple non blanching lesions common in infectious mononucleosis or streptococcus infections are:
    • A. 

      Petechiae

    • B. 

      Purpura

    • C. 

      Ecchymosis

    • D. 

      Excoriation

  • 14. 
    Which of the following is a possible cause of onycholysis?
    • A. 

      Bronchiectasis

    • B. 

      Congenital heart disease

    • C. 

      Cirrhosis

    • D. 

      Nail biting

  • 15. 
    Which of the following is a violaceous eruption over the eyelids common in dermatomyositis?
    • A. 

      Keloid

    • B. 

      Carotenemia

    • C. 

      Heliotrope

    • D. 

      Impetigo

  • 16. 
    Which of the following is not a "red flag" in a headache history?
    • A. 

      Recent onset

    • B. 

      Acute onset

    • C. 

      Reversible sensory symptoms

    • D. 

      Markedly elevated blood pressure

  • 17. 
    Nausea and vomiting are common with migraine headaches, but could also indicate:
    • A. 

      Acute sinusitis

    • B. 

      Chronic sinusitis

    • C. 

      Subarachnoid hemorrhage

    • D. 

      Cluster headache

  • 18. 
    If sudden unilateral vision loss is painless, where should a problem be suspected?
    • A. 

      Cornea

    • B. 

      Anterior chamber

    • C. 

      Canal of Schlemm

    • D. 

      Retinal wall

  • 19. 
    Horizontal diplopia may indicate palsy in which of the following (two answers)?
    • A. 

      CN I

    • B. 

      CN III

    • C. 

      CN IV

    • D. 

      CN VI

  • 20. 
    If a patient tells you his hearing loss is worse in noisy environments, which would you expect?
    • A. 

      Conductive loss

    • B. 

      Sensorineural loss

    • C. 

      Meniere's disease

    • D. 

      Otitis externa

  • 21. 
    Epistaxis must be differentiated from:
    • A. 

      Hematemesis

    • B. 

      Hemoptysis

    • C. 

      Hematuria

    • D. 

      Hemolacria

  • 22. 
    What can observing medial crescentic shadows of the iris using light from the temporal side estimate?
    • A. 

      Risk for cataracts

    • B. 

      Risk for narrow angle glaucoma

    • C. 

      Risk for open angle glaucoma

    • D. 

      Mydriasis

  • 23. 
    Nystagmus can be an indicator of which of the following?
    • A. 

      Migraine headaches

    • B. 

      Hyperthyroidism

    • C. 

      Open angle glaucoma

    • D. 

      Labyrinthine disorders

  • 24. 
    Paralysis of which cranial nerve causes the eyes to be conjugate in the right lateral gaze but not the left?
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      III

    • C. 

      IV

    • D. 

      VI

  • 25. 
    What do you suspect if you cannot visualize the red reflex?
    • A. 

      Lens opacity

    • B. 

      Meningitis

    • C. 

      Refractive error

    • D. 

      Chronic open-angle glaucoma

  • 26. 
    The Weber lateralizes to the unaffected ear in which of the following?
    • A. 

      Conductive hearing loss

    • B. 

      Acute otitis media

    • C. 

      Sensorineural hearing loss

    • D. 

      Perforation of the tympanic membrane

  • 27. 
    The Rinne indicates equal or better bone conduction in which of the following?
    • A. 

      Sensorineural hearing loss

    • B. 

      Meniere's disease

    • C. 

      Labyrinthine disorders

    • D. 

      Conductive hearing loss

  • 28. 
    Which of the following is the medical term for dry mouth?
    • A. 

      Sialorrhea

    • B. 

      Xerostomia

    • C. 

      Pytalism

    • D. 

      Oral pruritis

  • 29. 
    Which can be described as mastoid ecchymosis with a temporal/basilar skull fracture afer 48 hours?
    • A. 

      Tophi

    • B. 

      Exostosis

    • C. 

      Induration

    • D. 

      Battle's sign

  • 30. 
    If the tympanic membrane is amber, what could be reasonably suspected?
    • A. 

      A normal ear

    • B. 

      Acute otitis media

    • C. 

      Otitis media with effusion

    • D. 

      Tympanosclerosis

  • 31. 
    If the tympanic membrane is red or bloody, what should be suspected?
    • A. 

      Acute otitis media

    • B. 

      Otitis media with effusion

    • C. 

      Tympanosclerosis

    • D. 

      Basilar skull fracture

  • 32. 
    Which of the following can cause pale or bluish nasal mucosa?
    • A. 

      Viral rhinitis

    • B. 

      Allergic rhinitis

    • C. 

      Polyps

    • D. 

      Cocaine use

  • 33. 
    What can be suspected if the rise of the soft palate and uvula is not symmetric?
    • A. 

      Paralysis of CN IX

    • B. 

      Paralysis of CN X

    • C. 

      A history of chewing tobacco

    • D. 

      90 pack/year smoking history

  • 34. 
    If a tonsillar node pulsates, what should you suspect?
    • A. 

      Bruit

    • B. 

      Lymphadenopathy

    • C. 

      You're palpating the carotid artery and not a lymph node

    • D. 

      You're palpating the external jugular vein and not a lymph node

  • 35. 
    Metastasis of a thoracic or abdominal malignancy may be noticeable in the
    • A. 

      Occipital nodes

    • B. 

      Posterior auricular nodes

    • C. 

      Submental nodes

    • D. 

      Supraclavicular nodes

  • 36. 
    Which test could detect an afferent pupillary defect in the optic nerve?
    • A. 

      Testing the near reaction

    • B. 

      Visual acuity

    • C. 

      Convergence

    • D. 

      Swinging flashlight test (aka direct/consensual response)

  • 37. 
    In which of the following is nystagmus not visible?
    • A. 

      Vestibular neuronitis

    • B. 

      Acoustic neuroma

    • C. 

      Meniere's disease

    • D. 

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

  • 38. 
    When examining the eyelids, you find that the pargin of the lower lid is turned outward, exposing the palpebral conjunctiva.  This is called:
    • A. 

      Ptosis

    • B. 

      Entropion

    • C. 

      Ectropion

    • D. 

      Exophthalmos

  • 39. 
    Slightly raised, yellowish well-circumscribed plaques may be visible along the nasal portions of one or both eyelids in patients with lipid disorders.  These are called:
    • A. 

      Pinguecula

    • B. 

      Episcleritis

    • C. 

      Chalazion

    • D. 

      Xanthelasma

  • 40. 
    Which can be caused by trauma?
    • A. 

      Subconjunctival hemorrhage

    • B. 

      Conjunctivitis

    • C. 

      Glaucoma

    • D. 

      Acute iritis

  • 41. 
    A patient prevents with vision loss with severe, aching, and deep pain in his left eye after a blow to the face.  The pupil is dilated and fixed.  The cornea is steamy and cloudy.  There is no ocular discharge.  The pattern of redness is dilation diffuse.  Which should be suspected?
    • A. 

      Conjunctivitis

    • B. 

      Subconjunctival hemorrhage

    • C. 

      Narrow angle glaucoma

    • D. 

      Open angle glaucoma

  • 42. 
    How do you know whether you are looking at corneal scarring in the fundoscopic exam?
    • A. 

      A thin grayish white arc or circle is present near the edge of the cornea

    • B. 

      Greyness surrounded by a black rim is noticeable with a flashlight when the pupil is dilated

    • C. 

      A grayish white opacity is visible superficially

    • D. 

      Spokelike shadows pointing inward are visible with an opthalmoscope or a flashlight

  • 43. 
    Which of the following is not a cause of anisocoria?
    • A. 

      Horner's syndrome

    • B. 

      Oculomotor nerve paralysis

    • C. 

      Unilateral blindness

    • D. 

      Syphilis

  • 44. 
    Which of the following would cause suspicion of lip carcinoma?
    • A. 

      Angular cheilitis

    • B. 

      Actinic cheilitis

    • C. 

      Angioedema

    • D. 

      Peutz-Jegher's syndrome

  • 45. 
    • A. 

      The anterior cervical lymph nodes are inflamed in mononucleosis, whereas the posterior cervical nodes are inflamed in strep.

    • B. 

      The posterior nodes are inflamed in mononucleosis, whereas the anterior nodes are inflamed in strep.

    • C. 

      The patient's social history of being sexually active with multiple partners

    • D. 

      Strep throat would also have deep purple lesions on the hard palate.

  • 46. 
    Which of the following could be caused from biting the inside of the cheek?
    • A. 

      Fordyce spots

    • B. 

      Koplik's spots

    • C. 

      Leukoplakia

    • D. 

      Petechiae

  • 47. 
    A smooth tongue and often sore tongue that has lost its papillae might suggest
    • A. 

      Excessive antibiotic therapy

    • B. 

      Deficiency in riboflavin

    • C. 

      Immunosuppression

    • D. 

      Systemic candida infection

  • 48. 
    The Rosenbaum eye chart
    • A. 

      Should be read from 20 feet away

    • B. 

      Is helpful for screening field cuts

    • C. 

      Tests for color blindness

    • D. 

      Helps to ascertain whether a patient needs reading glasses

  • 49. 
    The fundoscopic exam reveals drusen.  You suspect:
    • A. 

      Dry macular degeneration

    • B. 

      Wet macular degeneration

    • C. 

      Glaucoma

    • D. 

      Optic nerve lesion

  • 50. 
    A unilateral headache that can be localized behind the eye is probably
    • A. 

      A migraine headache

    • B. 

      A tension headache

    • C. 

      A cluster headache

    • D. 

      An analgesic rebound headache