Patient care Final Exam

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Patient care Final Exam - Quiz

Are you revising for you patient care final exam this semester? If your answer is yes, then this quiz is for you. It has questions covering all the areas and topics within the patient care curriculum. All the best.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which age is not fearful of strangers?

    • A.

      3-6 years

    • B.

      6mos-3 years

    • C.

      6-12 years

    • D.

      Birth-6mos

    Correct Answer
    D. Birth-6mos
    Explanation
    Infants between birth and 6 months of age are not fearful of strangers. This is because they are still in the early stages of development and have not yet developed the cognitive ability to distinguish between familiar and unfamiliar faces. As they grow older, particularly around 6 months and beyond, they start to develop a sense of attachment to their primary caregivers and may exhibit fear or anxiety in the presence of strangers.

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  • 2. 

    Which age has fear of strangers initially but also cling to parent?

    • A.

      6-12 years

    • B.

      Birth-6mos

    • C.

      3-6 years

    • D.

      6mos-3 years

    Correct Answer
    D. 6mos-3 years
    Explanation
    Between the ages of 6 months to 3 years, children experience a fear of strangers known as stranger anxiety. During this stage of development, children become wary and anxious around unfamiliar people. Additionally, they also cling to their parents for security and comfort. This behavior is a normal part of a child's social and emotional development as they begin to form attachments and develop a sense of trust in their caregivers.

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  • 3. 

    Which age increases verbal activity and also have a period of fantasy play?

    • A.

      Birth-6mos

    • B.

      6mos-3years

    • C.

      3-6 years

    • D.

      6-12 years

    Correct Answer
    D. 6-12 years
    Explanation
    During the age of 6-12 years, verbal activity increases as children develop their language skills and vocabulary. This is the period when they become more proficient in expressing themselves verbally and engaging in conversations. Additionally, this age group also has a period of fantasy play, where children use their imagination to create and act out scenarios. This type of play allows them to explore different roles and situations, further enhancing their verbal skills as they communicate and interact with others during their imaginative play.

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  • 4. 

    Which age has a period of cognitive growth and use cause and effect?

    • A.

      Birth-6mos

    • B.

      3-6 years

    • C.

      12-19 years

    • D.

      6-12 years

    Correct Answer
    D. 6-12 years
    Explanation
    During the age of 6-12 years, children experience a period of cognitive growth and begin to understand cause and effect relationships. This is a crucial stage in their development where they start to think more logically, solve problems, and make connections between actions and consequences. They become more independent in their thinking and can analyze situations to understand the reasons behind certain outcomes. This period is often referred to as the "concrete operational stage" in Piaget's theory of cognitive development.

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  • 5. 

    Which age begins their identity and heighten awareness of body?

    • A.

      12-19 years

    • B.

      6-12 years

    • C.

      3-6 years

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. 12-19 years
    Explanation
    During the age of 12-19 years, individuals go through a phase of adolescence. This is a crucial period where they start to develop their sense of identity and become more aware of their body. They experience significant physical, emotional, and cognitive changes, which contribute to their heightened self-awareness. It is during this time that they may become more conscious of their appearance, body image, and social interactions, as they navigate through the challenges of puberty and strive to establish their own unique identity.

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  • 6. 

    Which age makes the White Coat Syndrome?

    • A.

      Toddler

    • B.

      Preschool

    • C.

      Infant

    • D.

      School-Age

    Correct Answer
    C. Infant
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Infant. White Coat Syndrome refers to a phenomenon where a person's blood pressure rises when they visit a doctor or medical professional. This is often seen in infants who may feel anxious or uncomfortable in a medical setting. It is believed that the presence of doctors or medical equipment can cause stress and elevate blood pressure in infants, leading to White Coat Syndrome.

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  • 7. 

    Which age cannot be separated from their parents' or DO NOT like to be immobilized?

    • A.

      Infant

    • B.

      Preschool

    • C.

      Toddlers

    • D.

      School-Age

    Correct Answer
    C. Toddlers
    Explanation
    Toddlers cannot be separated from their parents or do not like to be immobilized. This stage of development is characterized by a strong attachment to caregivers and a desire for independence. Toddlers are still very dependent on their parents for support and guidance, and they may become upset or anxious when separated from them. They also have a lot of energy and a natural curiosity about the world, which can make them resistant to being restrained or immobilized.

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  • 8. 

    Which age must see or hear something to understand?

    • A.

      Infants

    • B.

      Toddlers

    • C.

      Preschoolers

    • D.

      School-age

    Correct Answer
    C. Preschoolers
    Explanation
    Preschoolers must see or hear something to understand. At this age, children are developing their cognitive and language skills, and they rely heavily on visual and auditory cues to make sense of the world around them. They are able to comprehend and process information through observation and listening, which aids in their understanding of concepts, language, and social interactions. Infants and toddlers are still in the early stages of language and cognitive development, while school-age children have already acquired a more advanced level of understanding.

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  • 9. 

    Allow parent to remain with child during procedure and enlist their help.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Allowing a parent to remain with their child during a procedure and enlisting their help is beneficial for both the child and the parent. It helps to comfort the child and reduce their anxiety, as they feel more secure with their parent present. The parent's presence also allows them to provide emotional support and reassurance to their child, which can help in managing their distress. Additionally, involving the parent in the procedure can make them feel more empowered and involved in their child's care, fostering a sense of trust and collaboration between the healthcare team and the family.

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  • 10. 

    The greatest danger of a premature infant is?

    • A.

      Heart attack

    • B.

      Kidney failure

    • C.

      Jaundice

    • D.

      Hypothermia

    Correct Answer
    D. Hypothermia
    Explanation
    Premature infants have underdeveloped body systems, including their ability to regulate body temperature. Hypothermia, which is a condition where the body loses heat faster than it can produce it, poses a significant risk for premature infants. Their small size and lack of body fat make it difficult for them to maintain a stable body temperature. Hypothermia can lead to various complications, such as respiratory distress, infection, and even death. Therefore, hypothermia is considered the greatest danger for premature infants.

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  • 11. 

    Between 1960 and 1994 the US population grew by 45%, whereas the over-65 population grew by 100%, and the over-85 population grew by almost 275%, to a total of 3 million persons.  

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Between 1960 and 1994, the US population experienced significant growth. However, the growth rate of the over-65 population was even higher, reaching 100%. This indicates that the proportion of elderly individuals in the population increased during this time period. Additionally, the growth rate of the over-85 population was even more substantial, with a growth rate of almost 275%. This suggests that the number of individuals over the age of 85 nearly tripled during this period. Therefore, the statement that the US population grew by 45% between 1960 and 1994 is true.

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  • 12. 

    10 Chronic conditions of people older than 65 years old?

    • A.

      Arthritis

    • B.

      Hypertension

    • C.

      Hearing Impairment

    • D.

      Heart Disease

    • E.

      Cataracts

    • F.

      Deformity or Orthopedic Impairment

    • G.

      Chronic Sinusitis

    • H.

      Diabetes

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Arthritis
    B. Hypertension
    C. Hearing Impairment
    D. Heart Disease
    E. Cataracts
    F. Deformity or Orthopedic Impairment
    G. Chronic Sinusitis
    H. Diabetes
    Explanation
    The answer provided lists 8 chronic conditions that are commonly found in people older than 65 years old. These conditions include arthritis, hypertension, hearing impairment, heart disease, cataracts, deformity or orthopedic impairment, chronic sinusitis, and diabetes. These conditions are often associated with aging and can have a significant impact on the health and quality of life of older individuals.

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  • 13. 

    Heart disease, cancer and strokes are the cause of 80% of deaths in persons over the age of 65.  

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Heart disease, cancer, and strokes are major health conditions that are more prevalent in older individuals. These conditions are known to be leading causes of death worldwide. According to the given statement, these three diseases are responsible for 80% of deaths in people over the age of 65. This statistic highlights the significant impact these diseases have on the elderly population and emphasizes the importance of preventative measures and healthcare interventions to reduce mortality rates associated with these conditions.

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  • 14. 

    Most Common Health complaints of the Elderly:

    • A.

      Weight Gain

    • B.

      Fatigue

    • C.

      Loss of Bone Mass

    • D.

      Joint Stiffness

    • E.

      Loneliness

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Weight Gain
    B. Fatigue
    C. Loss of Bone Mass
    D. Joint Stiffness
    E. Loneliness
    Explanation
    As people age, they tend to experience various health complaints. Weight gain is a common issue among the elderly due to a slower metabolism and decreased physical activity. Fatigue is also prevalent as aging bodies may have reduced energy levels and increased difficulty in getting quality sleep. Loss of bone mass, or osteoporosis, is a common concern for older individuals, leading to weakened bones and an increased risk of fractures. Joint stiffness is another complaint as aging joints may become less flexible and more prone to inflammation. Lastly, loneliness is a prevalent health complaint among the elderly, as social connections may decrease with age, leading to feelings of isolation and depression.

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  • 15. 

    Most leading cause of death in the elderly?

    • A.

      Stroke

    • B.

      Heart attack

    • C.

      Pulmonary Embolism

    • D.

      Pneumonia

    Correct Answer
    D. Pneumonia
    Explanation
    Pneumonia is the most common cause of death in the elderly. As people age, their immune system weakens, making them more susceptible to infections such as pneumonia. Pneumonia is an infection that affects the lungs, causing inflammation and fluid buildup, which can lead to respiratory failure. Elderly individuals often have underlying health conditions that further increase their risk of developing pneumonia. Additionally, pneumonia can be difficult to diagnose in the elderly, leading to delayed treatment and increased mortality rates. Therefore, pneumonia is the leading cause of death in the elderly population.

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  • 16. 

    Acquired infection from medical care?

    • A.

      Iatrogenic

    • B.

      Community-acquired

    • C.

      Nosocomial

    Correct Answer
    C. Nosocomial
    Explanation
    Nosocomial infections refer to infections that are acquired in a hospital or healthcare facility. These infections are typically caused by bacteria, viruses, or other pathogens that are present in the healthcare environment. The term "nosocomial" is used to distinguish these infections from community-acquired infections, which are acquired outside of a healthcare setting. Therefore, the correct answer, "Nosocomial," accurately describes the acquired infection from medical care.

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  • 17. 

    Because of treatment/procedure develop pneumonia?

    • A.

      Iatrogenic

    • B.

      Community-acquired

    • C.

      Nosocomial

    Correct Answer
    A. Iatrogenic
    Explanation
    Iatrogenic refers to a condition or illness that is caused by medical treatment or procedures. In this case, the correct answer suggests that the pneumonia developed as a result of a medical treatment or procedure. It implies that the pneumonia was not acquired from the community or from a hospital setting, but rather was caused by medical intervention.

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  • 18. 

    Acquired in community entering healthcare instituition with it?

    • A.

      Iatrogenic

    • B.

      Community-acquired

    • C.

      Nosocomial

    Correct Answer
    B. Community-acquired
    Explanation
    The term "community-acquired" refers to an infection or disease that is acquired outside of a healthcare institution, such as in the community or at home. In this context, the question is asking about the source of the infection when entering a healthcare institution. Since the infection is acquired before entering the institution, the correct answer is "Community-acquired."

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  • 19. 

    Infant at birth can acquire infection from mother which is considered?

    • A.

      Iatrogenic

    • B.

      Community-acquired

    • C.

      Nosocomial

    Correct Answer
    C. Nosocomial
    Explanation
    In this scenario, the infant acquires an infection from the mother, indicating that the infection is acquired in a healthcare setting, such as a hospital. Therefore, the correct term to describe this type of infection is nosocomial, which refers to infections acquired in a healthcare facility. Iatrogenic refers to infections caused by medical treatment or procedures, while community-acquired infections are acquired outside of healthcare settings.

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  • 20. 

    Frequent sites for Nosocomial infections?

    • A.

      Bloodstream (venous access devices)

    • B.

      Urinary Tract (Catheters)

    • C.

      Wounds following surgical procedures

    • D.

      Respiratory Tract Infections

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Bloodstream (venous access devices)
    B. Urinary Tract (Catheters)
    C. Wounds following surgical procedures
    D. Respiratory Tract Infections
    Explanation
    Nosocomial infections are infections that are acquired in a healthcare setting. The frequent sites for these infections are the bloodstream, urinary tract, wounds following surgical procedures, and respiratory tract. Bloodstream infections often occur due to the use of venous access devices such as central lines. Urinary tract infections can be caused by catheters that are used for long periods of time. Wounds following surgical procedures can become infected if proper hygiene and wound care are not maintained. Respiratory tract infections can occur through the inhalation of airborne pathogens in healthcare settings. These sites are common sources of nosocomial infections and require strict infection control measures to prevent their occurrence.

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  • 21. 

    Elements needed to Transmit Infection:

    • A.

      Infectious Agent

    • B.

      Reservoir or an Environment

    • C.

      Portal of exit

    • D.

      Means of transmission

    • E.

      Portal of Entry

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Infectious Agent
    B. Reservoir or an Environment
    C. Portal of exit
    D. Means of transmission
    E. Portal of Entry
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes all the elements needed to transmit an infection. The infectious agent refers to the pathogen or microorganism that can cause the infection. The reservoir or environment is where the infectious agent lives and multiplies. The portal of exit is the route through which the infectious agent leaves the reservoir. The means of transmission refers to how the infectious agent is transferred from the reservoir to a susceptible host. Finally, the portal of entry is the route through which the infectious agent enters the host. All of these elements are necessary for the transmission of an infection.

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  • 22. 

    Symptoms are not yet specific, just entering body?

    • A.

      Full Disease

    • B.

      Convalescent

    • C.

      Incubation

    • D.

      Prodromal

    Correct Answer
    C. Incubation
    Explanation
    The term "incubation" refers to the period of time between when a person is exposed to a disease and when symptoms first appear. During this phase, the virus or bacteria is multiplying within the body but the person does not yet show any specific symptoms. Therefore, the statement "Symptoms are not yet specific, just entering body?" suggests that the person is in the incubation stage of the disease.

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  • 23. 

    Symptoms are more specific; Highly Infectious!

    • A.

      Full disease

    • B.

      Convalescent

    • C.

      Incubation

    • D.

      Prodromal

    Correct Answer
    D. Prodromal
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Prodromal" because prodromal refers to the early stage of a disease where symptoms start to appear but are not yet fully developed. This stage is important in identifying and diagnosing the disease as it can help healthcare professionals determine the specific illness and take appropriate measures to prevent its spread. Additionally, the term "Highly Infectious" suggests that the disease is easily transmissible during this prodromal phase.

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  • 24. 

    Contagious!

    • A.

      Full Disease

    • B.

      Convalescent

    • C.

      Incubation

    • D.

      Prodromal

    Correct Answer
    A. Full Disease
  • 25. 

    Symptoms weaken and/or disease becomes dormant.

    • A.

      Full disease

    • B.

      Convalescent

    • C.

      Incubation

    • D.

      Prodromal

    Correct Answer
    B. Convalescent
    Explanation
    Convalescent refers to the stage of an illness where the symptoms start to weaken or the disease becomes dormant. This stage occurs after the full development of the disease and is characterized by the gradual recovery and restoration of health. During the convalescent phase, the body is still healing and the person may still experience some residual symptoms, but overall they are on the path to recovery.

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  • 26. 

    Contract Hepatitis B&C from?

    • A.

      Blood-borne infections

    • B.

      Liver disease

    • C.

      Needle-stick injuries

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Needle-stick injuries
    Explanation
    Needle-stick injuries can lead to the transmission of Hepatitis B and C viruses. These viruses are blood-borne infections, meaning they can be transmitted through contact with infected blood or other bodily fluids. Needle-stick injuries occur when a person is accidentally pricked or pierced by a needle that has been contaminated with infected blood. Therefore, needle-stick injuries can result in the contraction of Hepatitis B and C.

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  • 27. 

    Which hepatitis is in the fecal-oral route?

    Correct Answer
    Hepatitis A&E
    Explanation
    Hepatitis A&E is transmitted through the fecal-oral route. This means that the virus is present in the feces of an infected person and can be transmitted to another person through ingestion of contaminated food or water. Hepatitis A&E is commonly associated with poor sanitation and hygiene practices, and outbreaks often occur in areas with inadequate sanitation systems. This mode of transmission highlights the importance of practicing good hygiene, such as handwashing, and ensuring access to clean water and proper sanitation facilities to prevent the spread of the virus.

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  • 28. 

    Hepatitis in the blood or body-fluid:

    • A.

      B

    • B.

      C

    • C.

      D

    • D.

      G

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. B
    B. C
    C. D
    D. G
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B, C, D, G. This answer suggests that hepatitis can be present in the blood or body fluids. Hepatitis is a viral infection that affects the liver and can be transmitted through contact with infected blood or body fluids, such as through sexual contact, sharing needles, or from mother to child during childbirth. Therefore, it is important to take precautions to prevent the spread of hepatitis, such as practicing safe sex and avoiding sharing needles.

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  • 29. 

    Which hepatitis is the most common for blood-borne infection in the US?

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      B

    • C.

      C

    • D.

      D

    Correct Answer
    C. C
    Explanation
    Hepatitis C is the most common blood-borne infection in the US. It is transmitted through contact with infected blood, such as through sharing needles or receiving blood transfusions. Hepatitis C can cause both acute and chronic liver disease, and if left untreated, it can lead to serious complications such as liver cirrhosis or liver cancer. Therefore, it is important to take precautions to prevent the transmission of hepatitis C, such as using sterile needles and practicing safe sex.

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  • 30. 

    Which aspesis Microorganisms have been eliminated through the use of soap, water, friction, and various chemical disinfectants. Reduces probability and number  

    • A.

      Surgical Asepsis

    • B.

      Medical Asepsis

    • C.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Medical Asepsis
    Explanation
    Medical asepsis refers to the practices and techniques used to prevent the spread of microorganisms in healthcare settings. This includes the use of soap, water, friction, and chemical disinfectants to eliminate microorganisms and reduce the probability and number of infections. Surgical asepsis, on the other hand, refers specifically to the practices used in surgical procedures to maintain a sterile environment. Therefore, the correct answer is Medical Asepsis.

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  • 31. 

    Which asepsis Microorganisms and their spores have been completely destroyed by means of heat or by a chemical process. Reduces ALL  

    • A.

      Surgical Asepsis

    • B.

      Medical Asepsis

    • C.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Surgical Asepsis
    Explanation
    Surgical asepsis refers to the process of completely destroying microorganisms and their spores through heat or chemical methods. This level of asepsis ensures that all potential sources of infection are eliminated, reducing the risk of contamination during surgical procedures. Medical asepsis, on the other hand, focuses on reducing the number of microorganisms and preventing their spread, but may not completely destroy all of them. Therefore, the correct answer is Surgical Asepsis.

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  • 32. 

    Disinfectant- The removal of pathogenic microorganisms from objects or body surfaces.  

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because disinfectants are indeed used to remove pathogenic microorganisms from objects or body surfaces. Disinfectants are chemical agents that are applied to surfaces to kill or inactivate microorganisms that can cause infections. They are commonly used in healthcare settings, as well as in households, to prevent the spread of infectious diseases. Disinfectants work by disrupting the structure or function of microorganisms, making them unable to survive or reproduce.

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  • 33. 

    Personal Protective Equipment:

    • A.

      Gown

    • B.

      Gloves

    • C.

      Mask

    • D.

      Shield

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Gown
    B. Gloves
    C. Mask
    D. Shield
    Explanation
    The personal protective equipment (PPE) includes a gown, gloves, mask, and shield. These items are essential for protecting individuals from potential hazards and preventing the spread of infectious diseases. The gown provides a barrier against contamination, while gloves protect the hands from contact with harmful substances. The mask and shield help to prevent the inhalation of airborne particles and protect the face from splashes or sprays. Together, these PPE items create a comprehensive protective barrier for individuals working in hazardous environments or healthcare settings.

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  • 34. 

    Microbes are spread on evaporated droplets that remain suspended in air or are carried on dust particles in the air and may be inhaled by persons in the room or air space  

    • A.

      Airborne

    • B.

      Droplets

    • C.

      Contact

    Correct Answer
    A. Airborne
    Explanation
    Microbes can be spread through the air when they are attached to evaporated droplets. These droplets can remain suspended in the air or be carried on dust particles. When people are in the same room or airspace, they can inhale these microbes, leading to potential infection or illness. Therefore, the correct answer is "Airborne."

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  • 35. 

    Droplets contaminated with pathogenic microorganisms are placed in the air from an infected person with a droplet-borne infection  

    • A.

      Airborne

    • B.

      Droplets

    • C.

      Contact

    Correct Answer
    B. Droplets
    Explanation
    In this context, the correct answer is "Droplets." This suggests that the transmission of the pathogenic microorganisms occurs through droplets. When an infected person with a droplet-borne infection coughs, sneezes, or talks, small droplets containing the microorganisms are released into the air. These droplets can then be inhaled by others, leading to the spread of the infection. This mode of transmission is different from airborne transmission, where the microorganisms can remain suspended in the air for longer periods and travel longer distances.

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  • 36. 

    Assessing Patient's Mobility:

    • A.

      Deviation from correct body alignment

    • B.

      Immobility or limitations in range of joint motion

    • C.

      Ability to walk

    • D.

      Respiratory, Cardiovascular, Metabolic, & musculoskeletal problems

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Deviation from correct body alignment
    B. Immobility or limitations in range of joint motion
    C. Ability to walk
    D. Respiratory, Cardiovascular, Metabolic, & musculoskeletal problems
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes various factors that are important in assessing a patient's mobility. Deviation from correct body alignment is crucial as it can indicate issues with posture and balance. Immobility or limitations in range of joint motion can suggest joint stiffness or muscle weakness. Ability to walk is a fundamental aspect of mobility and can provide insight into a patient's functional abilities. Respiratory, cardiovascular, metabolic, and musculoskeletal problems are included because these systems can all impact a patient's ability to move and function properly.

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  • 37. 

    Types of Immobilizers:

    • A.

      Limb holders or four-point restraints

    • B.

      Ankle or wrist immobilizers

    • C.

      Immobilizing vest

    • D.

      Waist immobilizer

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Limb holders or four-point restraints
    B. Ankle or wrist immobilizers
    C. Immobilizing vest
    D. Waist immobilizer
    Explanation
    The given answer lists various types of immobilizers. Limb holders or four-point restraints are used to immobilize all four limbs, providing maximum restraint. Ankle or wrist immobilizers specifically target those areas for immobilization. An immobilizing vest is used to restrict movement in the upper body, while a waist immobilizer focuses on immobilizing the waist area. These different types of immobilizers offer varying levels of restraint depending on the specific needs of the patient or situation.

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  • 38. 

    Persons may enter in their street clothing. Entrance to surgery department  

    • A.

      Zone 3

    • B.

      Zone 2

    • C.

      Zone 1

    Correct Answer
    C. Zone 1
    Explanation
    Zone 1 is the correct answer because it states that persons may enter in their street clothing, which implies that it is an area where people can enter without having to change into special clothing or scrubs. This suggests that Zone 1 is likely a non-sterile area or a waiting area outside of the surgery department. Zones 2 and 3 are not mentioned in relation to street clothing or entrance to the surgery department, so they are not the correct answer.

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  • 39. 

    Only persons who are dressed in scrub clothing with hair & shoe covers may enter this area. Hallways of the surgery department  

    • A.

      Zone 3

    • B.

      Zone 2

    • C.

      Zone 1

    Correct Answer
    B. Zone 2
    Explanation
    Zone 2 is the correct answer because it states that only persons who are dressed in scrub clothing with hair and shoe covers may enter this area. This aligns with the given information that only persons dressed in scrub clothing with hair and shoe covers can enter the hallways of the surgery department.

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  • 40. 

    Persons wearing scrub attire along with hair & shoe coverings and a mask. Surgical rooms during a procedure  

    • A.

      Zone 3

    • B.

      Zone 2

    • C.

      Zone 1

    Correct Answer
    A. Zone 3
    Explanation
    Zone 3 is the correct answer because it is the area where persons wearing scrub attire along with hair & shoe coverings and a mask are present. This zone is typically the surgical room during a procedure.

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  • 41. 

    If you are wearing a mask for a surgical procedure that has just finished and you are about to head to another surgical room for another procedure, should you wear the same mask?

    Correct Answer
    NO
    Explanation
    It is not recommended to wear the same mask for multiple surgical procedures. Surgical masks are designed for single-use only, as they can become contaminated during the procedure. Reusing the same mask increases the risk of cross-contamination and infection transmission. It is important to discard the used mask properly and wear a new, clean mask for each surgical procedure to maintain a sterile environment.

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  • 42. 

    A sterile package must have an expiration date.  

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A sterile package must have an expiration date because over time, the sterility of the package can degrade. The expiration date ensures that the package is used before the sterility is compromised, reducing the risk of contamination or infection. It also allows healthcare professionals to properly manage their inventory and ensure that they are using sterile products.

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  • 43. 

    Which method of putting on gloves should be used when placing gloves on over a sterile gown? 

    Correct Answer
    Closed Method
    Explanation
    The closed method of putting on gloves should be used when placing gloves on over a sterile gown. This method involves not touching the outside of the gloves with bare hands and instead using the sterile inside of the gloves to pull them on. This helps maintain the sterility of the gloves and prevents contamination.

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  • 44. 

    Measurement of Temperature areas:

    • A.

      Oral

    • B.

      Axillary

    • C.

      Tympanic

    • D.

      Rectal

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Oral
    B. Axillary
    C. Tympanic
    D. Rectal
    Explanation
    The given answer presents a list of different areas where temperature can be measured. The order of the areas mentioned is Oral, Axillary, Tympanic, and Rectal. This implies that measuring temperature orally is the most common and convenient method, followed by measuring it in the axillary (underarm) area, then in the tympanic (ear) area, and finally in the rectal area.

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  • 45. 

    Most common route for temperature?

    • A.

      Tympanic

    • B.

      Oral

    • C.

      Axillary

    • D.

      Rectal

    Correct Answer
    B. Oral
    Explanation
    The most common route for measuring temperature is through the oral cavity. This method involves placing a thermometer under the tongue to obtain an accurate reading of the body's temperature. It is a convenient and non-invasive method that is widely used in both clinical and home settings. Other routes, such as tympanic (ear), axillary (armpit), and rectal, may also be used in certain situations, but oral temperature measurement is the most commonly used method.

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  • 46. 

    Equivalent to Rectal?

    • A.

      Tympanic

    • B.

      Oral

    • C.

      Axillary

    • D.

      Rectal

    Correct Answer
    A. Tympanic
    Explanation
    The term "equivalent to rectal" suggests that the given options are alternative methods of measuring temperature that are comparable to the rectal method. Tympanic refers to measuring temperature in the ear, which is considered to be equivalent to rectal temperature measurement in terms of accuracy. Therefore, tympanic is the correct answer as it is an alternative method that can provide comparable results to rectal temperature measurement.

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  • 47. 

    Most accurate route?

    • A.

      Tymapnic

    • B.

      Oral

    • C.

      Axillary

    • D.

      Rectal

    Correct Answer
    D. Rectal
    Explanation
    Rectal temperature measurement is considered the most accurate route for obtaining body temperature. This is because the rectum is close to the body's core and is not affected by external factors such as environmental temperature or sweating. Rectal thermometers provide a reliable and precise measurement of body temperature, making it the preferred method in certain situations, such as for infants, young children, or patients who are unable to cooperate for other routes of temperature measurement.

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  • 48. 

    Safest route?

    • A.

      Tympanic

    • B.

      Oral

    • C.

      Axillary

    • D.

      Rectal

    Correct Answer
    C. Axillary
    Explanation
    The axillary route is considered the safest route for temperature measurement. This method involves placing the thermometer in the armpit, which is a non-invasive and comfortable way to measure body temperature. It is particularly suitable for infants and young children who may be resistant to other methods such as oral or rectal measurements. Axillary temperature readings are generally accurate and provide a reliable indication of body temperature.

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  • 49. 

    Most common areas for checking pulse rates?

    • A.

      Radial

    • B.

      Carotid

    • C.

      Brachial

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Radial
    B. Carotid
    C. Brachial
    Explanation
    The pulse rate can be checked in various areas of the body, but the most common areas are the radial, carotid, and brachial arteries. The radial artery is located on the wrist, just below the thumb. The carotid artery is found in the neck, on either side of the windpipe. The brachial artery is situated in the upper arm, between the shoulder and elbow. These areas are commonly used for checking pulse rates because they are easily accessible and provide accurate readings.

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  • 50. 

    4 Modes of thinking?

    • A.

      Recall

    • B.

      Habit

    • C.

      Inquiry

    • D.

      Creativity

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Recall
    B. Habit
    C. Inquiry
    D. Creativity
    Explanation
    The given answer lists the four modes of thinking as recall, habit, inquiry, and creativity. Recall refers to the ability to retrieve information from memory. Habit refers to the automatic and routine thinking patterns that guide our actions. Inquiry refers to the process of asking questions and seeking knowledge. Creativity refers to the ability to generate new and original ideas. These four modes of thinking encompass different cognitive processes and strategies that individuals use to approach and solve problems in various situations.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 07, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Justineobean
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