A&p II Test #2 - Part 1

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Dr. Sandel Test II - Part 1 Lymphatic, immune, respiration


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The functions of the lymphatic system include what?

    • A.

      Lipid Absorption

    • B.

      Receovery and return of tissue fluid to the circulatory system

    • C.

      Immune Response

    • D.

      Nueral communication

    • E.

      Choices A, B and C

    Correct Answer
    E. Choices A, B and C
    Explanation
    The correct answer is choices A, B, and C. The lymphatic system performs various functions including lipid absorption, recovery and return of tissue fluid to the circulatory system, and immune response. Lipid absorption occurs in the small intestine where lymphatic vessels called lacteals absorb dietary fats. The lymphatic system also helps in the recovery and return of tissue fluid to the circulatory system, preventing the buildup of excess fluid in tissues. Additionally, the lymphatic system plays a crucial role in the immune response by producing and transporting lymphocytes, which are important in fighting off infections and diseases.

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  • 2. 

    Examples of lymphatic organs include myeloid tissue, thymus gland, spleen, tonsils, and what else?

    • A.

      Kidneys

    • B.

      Mesentery

    • C.

      Myocardium

    • D.

      Lymph Nodes

    • E.

      Thyroid Gland

    Correct Answer
    D. Lymph Nodes
    Explanation
    Lymph nodes are small, bean-shaped organs found throughout the body that play a crucial role in the immune system. They filter lymph fluid, trapping and destroying harmful substances such as bacteria and viruses. Lymph nodes also contain immune cells that help fight infections and diseases. Unlike the other options listed, kidneys, mesentery, myocardium, and thyroid gland are not considered lymphatic organs. Therefore, the correct answer is lymph nodes.

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  • 3. 

    What is the :little red schoolhouse" as far as T-cells are concerned?

    • A.

      Spleen

    • B.

      Lungs

    • C.

      Kidneys

    • D.

      Thymus gland

    • E.

      Myeloid tissue

    Correct Answer
    D. Thymus gland
    Explanation
    The "little red schoolhouse" refers to the thymus gland as far as T-cells are concerned. The thymus gland is an organ located in the upper chest and is responsible for the development and maturation of T-cells, which are a type of white blood cell involved in the immune response. The term "little red schoolhouse" is a metaphor used to describe the thymus gland because it is where T-cells go to learn and mature, similar to how students go to school to learn and grow.

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  • 4. 

    Lymph nodes are concentrated in the inguinal spaces, axilary regions, popliteal spaces, and where else?

    • A.

      Wrists

    • B.

      Ankles

    • C.

      Frontal lobe

    • D.

      Cervical region

    • E.

      Nasal sinuses

    Correct Answer
    D. Cervical region
    Explanation
    Lymph nodes are concentrated in the inguinal spaces, axillary regions, popliteal spaces, and the cervical region. The cervical region refers to the neck area, where lymph nodes are found in abundance. These lymph nodes play a crucial role in filtering and trapping harmful substances, such as bacteria and viruses, before they can reach other parts of the body. They also help in producing immune cells that fight against infections. Therefore, the cervical region is an important location for lymph nodes.

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  • 5. 

    Of the three principal lines of defense, which one involves the immune system and leaves the body with a "memory"?

    • A.

      Primary line

    • B.

      Secondary line

    • C.

      Tertiary line

    • D.

      Quarternary line

    Correct Answer
    C. Tertiary line
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the tertiary line. The immune system is involved in the tertiary line of defense, which is the third and final line of defense against pathogens. This line of defense includes specific immune responses that target and eliminate pathogens. It also involves the development of immunological memory, which allows the body to recognize and respond more effectively to future infections by the same pathogen. The primary and secondary lines of defense refer to physical and chemical barriers, while the quaternary line is not a recognized term in the context of the immune system.

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  • 6. 

    Of the 3 principal lines of defense, which one is non-specific and involves the skin and mucous membranes?

    • A.

      Primary line

    • B.

      Secondary line

    • C.

      Tertiary line

    • D.

      Quarterary line

    • E.

      Choices A and B

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary line
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Primary line". The primary line of defense is non-specific and involves the skin and mucous membranes. The skin acts as a physical barrier, preventing pathogens from entering the body. Mucous membranes, such as those in the respiratory and digestive tracts, produce mucus that traps pathogens and contains antimicrobial substances. These non-specific defenses are the body's first line of defense against pathogens and help to prevent infection. The secondary line of defense involves the immune system, while the tertiary and quarterary lines refer to specific immune responses.

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  • 7. 

    Of the mechanisms of pathogenic destruction, which one involves, for example, the liver and spleen removing antibodies from antigen-antibody complexes on erythrocyte cell surfaces and nuetralizing them... the principal mode of removing foreign antigens from the blood stream?

    • A.

      Inflammation

    • B.

      Immune clearance

    • C.

      Phagocytosis

    • D.

      Cytolysis

    • E.

      Choices A and C

    Correct Answer
    B. Immune clearance
    Explanation
    Immune clearance is the correct answer because it involves the liver and spleen removing antibodies from antigen-antibody complexes on erythrocyte cell surfaces and neutralizing them. This process is the principal mode of removing foreign antigens from the bloodstream. Inflammation, phagocytosis, and cytolysis are other mechanisms of pathogenic destruction, but they do not specifically involve the removal of antibodies from antigen-antibody complexes.

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  • 8. 

    The cardinal signs of inflammation include what?

    • A.

      Pain

    • B.

      Swelling

    • C.

      Fever

    • D.

      Redness

    • E.

      Choices A, B, C, and D

    Correct Answer
    E. Choices A, B, C, and D
    Explanation
    The cardinal signs of inflammation include pain, swelling, fever, and redness. These signs are commonly observed in the body's response to injury or infection. Pain is caused by the release of chemicals that stimulate nerve endings, swelling occurs due to increased blood flow and fluid accumulation, fever is a systemic response to inflammation, and redness is caused by increased blood flow to the affected area. All of these signs are characteristic of the inflammatory process.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following is a characteristic of "immune surveillance"?

    • A.

      NK cells continually patrolling the body

    • B.

      NK cells continually "on the lookout" or "watching" for pathogens

    • C.

      NK cells "educating" naive T-cells

    • D.

      NK cells functioning much like "sentries" or "cavalry" cells

    • E.

      Choices A, B, and D

    Correct Answer
    E. Choices A, B, and D
    Explanation
    The characteristic of "immune surveillance" is that NK cells are continually patrolling the body, continually "on the lookout" or "watching" for pathogens, and functioning much like "sentries" or "cavalry" cells. This means that NK cells are constantly monitoring the body for any potential threats and are ready to respond to any invading pathogens.

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  • 10. 

    Wjat is the term describing any chemical that provides a "trail" that neutrophils and other leukocytes can "follow" to specific sites of infection...a "homing" mechanism?

    • A.

      Immune surveillance

    • B.

      Tissue repair

    • C.

      Chemotaxis

    • D.

      Swelling

    • E.

      Phototaxis

    Correct Answer
    C. Chemotaxis
    Explanation
    Chemotaxis is the correct answer because it refers to the process by which cells, such as neutrophils and leukocytes, are attracted to specific sites of infection or inflammation through the detection of chemical signals. These chemical signals act as a "trail" that guides the cells to the site of infection, allowing them to effectively respond and eliminate the pathogens. Immune surveillance refers to the continuous monitoring of the body for foreign substances, tissue repair is the process of healing damaged tissues, swelling is the abnormal enlargement of body parts, and phototaxis is the movement of organisms in response to light.

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  • 11. 

    What type of immunity involves production by one's own immunocompetent immune system?

    • A.

      Natural active

    • B.

      Natural passive

    • C.

      Artificial passive

    • D.

      Administration of antibiotics

    Correct Answer
    A. Natural active
    Explanation
    Natural active immunity involves the production of antibodies by one's own immunocompetent immune system. This type of immunity occurs when the body is exposed to a pathogen, such as through an infection or vaccination, and subsequently mounts an immune response to produce specific antibodies against that pathogen. This immune response leads to the development of memory cells, which provide long-lasting protection against future encounters with the same pathogen.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following is (are) characteristic of cell-mediated immunity?

    • A.

      Lymphocytes directly attacking and destroying foreign or diseased host cells

    • B.

      Ridding the body of pathogens residing within cells where they are inaccessible to antibodies

    • C.

      Acts against parasitic worms, cancer cells, and cells of transplanted tissues and organs

    • D.

      A type of immunity facilitated by antibodies

    • E.

      Choices A, B and C

    Correct Answer
    E. Choices A, B and C
    Explanation
    Cell-mediated immunity is a type of immune response that involves lymphocytes directly attacking and destroying foreign or diseased host cells. It also plays a role in ridding the body of pathogens that reside within cells, where they are inaccessible to antibodies. Additionally, cell-mediated immunity acts against parasitic worms, cancer cells, and cells of transplanted tissues and organs. This type of immunity is not facilitated by antibodies, which are involved in humoral immunity. Therefore, the correct answer is choices A, B, and C.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following is (are) characteristic of antibodies?

    • A.

      They "tag" pathogens for destruction by lymphocytes

    • B.

      They are very specific

    • C.

      There are 5 basic classes of antibodies, and antibodies are typicalls called immunoglobulins

    • D.

      The titer or titre of an antibodies refers to its concentration

    • E.

      Choices A, B, C, and D

    Correct Answer
    E. Choices A, B, C, and D
    Explanation
    Antibodies have several characteristics that make them unique and essential in the immune response. Firstly, antibodies "tag" pathogens for destruction by lymphocytes, acting as a signal for the immune system to eliminate them. Secondly, antibodies are highly specific, meaning they can recognize and bind to specific antigens. Additionally, antibodies are classified into five basic classes and are commonly referred to as immunoglobulins. Lastly, the titer or titre of an antibody refers to its concentration, which can be measured to assess the immune response. Therefore, all of the given choices (A, B, C, and D) accurately describe characteristics of antibodies.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following is (are) true of B-cells?

    • A.

      Some of the B cells differentiate in to plasma cells

    • B.

      The Bm (B memory cells) act as a "ready-reserve" or "standby reserve" of B cells that can execute a quick 2nd degree (2nd level) response

    • C.

      It is the Bm cells that "give instructions" to plasma cells as to what types of antibodies to produce

    • D.

      B cells conduct an indirect attack against foreign antigens

    • E.

      Choices A, B, C, and D

    Correct Answer
    E. Choices A, B, C, and D
    Explanation
    B-cells are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune response. Some B cells differentiate into plasma cells, which are responsible for producing antibodies. B memory cells, also known as Bm cells, act as a reserve of B cells that can quickly respond to a second-degree attack. These Bm cells provide instructions to plasma cells on what types of antibodies to produce. B cells conduct an indirect attack against foreign antigens by producing antibodies that bind to the antigens and mark them for destruction. Therefore, all of the statements A, B, C, and D are true regarding B-cells.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is (are) true of antibiotics?

    • A.

      Are designed to kill by disrupting metabolic machinery of particular pathogens

    • B.

      May be administered without due consideration to the type of pathogen involved in the disease process

    • C.

      Are effective against extracellular pathogens only

    • D.

      May be administered during a viral infection to protect the patient against a 2 degree infection

    • E.

      Choices A, C, and D

    Correct Answer
    E. Choices A, C, and D
    Explanation
    Antibiotics are designed to kill pathogens by disrupting their metabolic machinery. They can be administered without considering the type of pathogen involved, which can lead to the misuse of antibiotics. They are effective against extracellular pathogens, but not against intracellular ones. Antibiotics may also be administered during a viral infection to protect the patient against a secondary bacterial infection. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are true statements about antibiotics.

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  • 16. 

    What type of immunity involves immune memory and the production of one's own antibodies as a result of natural exposure to an antigen? An example would be contracting a particular bacterial infection.

    • A.

      Natural active immunity

    • B.

      Artificial active immunity

    • C.

      Natural passive immunity

    • D.

      Artifical passive immunity

    Correct Answer
    A. Natural active immunity
    Explanation
    Natural active immunity involves immune memory and the production of one's own antibodies as a result of natural exposure to an antigen. This occurs when the body is exposed to a pathogen, such as contracting a bacterial infection, and mounts an immune response to eliminate the infection. The immune system then remembers this specific pathogen, allowing for a faster and more effective response if re-exposed to the same pathogen in the future.

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  • 17. 

    What type of immunity does not involve memory, is temporary, and results from antibodies present in immune serum administered to a patient? Examples include snake bites, botulism, tetanus, and rabies.

    • A.

      Natural active immunity

    • B.

      Artificial active immunity

    • C.

      Natural passive immunity

    • D.

      Artifical passive immunity

    Correct Answer
    D. Artifical passive immunity
    Explanation
    Artificial passive immunity is the correct answer because it involves the administration of pre-formed antibodies from an external source, such as immune serum, to provide immediate, temporary protection against a specific pathogen. This type of immunity does not involve memory because the antibodies are not produced by the individual's immune system. It is temporary because the transferred antibodies eventually degrade and are eliminated from the body. Examples of artificial passive immunity include the administration of antivenom for snake bites or immune globulin for diseases like rabies or tetanus.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the "R's" of the immune response enables an immunocompetent immune system to identify a specfic foreign antigen?

    • A.

      Recuperate

    • B.

      Reorganize

    • C.

      Recognize

    • D.

      Reconcile

    • E.

      Remunerate

    Correct Answer
    C. Recognize
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Recognize". In the immune response, the ability to identify a specific foreign antigen is crucial for the immune system to mount an appropriate response. Recognition involves the recognition of antigens by immune cells, such as T cells and B cells, through their antigen receptors. This recognition allows the immune system to distinguish between self and non-self antigens, leading to the activation of immune responses against foreign invaders.

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  • 19. 

    Which region of an antibody molecule distinguishes it as a unique type?

    • A.

      Constant region

    • B.

      Variable region

    • C.

      Laterla region

    • D.

      Medial region

    • E.

      Choices, A, C, and D

    Correct Answer
    B. Variable region
    Explanation
    The variable region of an antibody molecule is the part that distinguishes it as a unique type. This region contains specific amino acid sequences that determine the antibody's binding specificity and recognize different antigens. The constant region, on the other hand, is responsible for the effector functions of the antibody, while the lateral and medial regions are not relevant in this context. Therefore, the correct answer is the variable region.

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  • 20. 

    Of the classes of immunoglobulins, which type is the most prevalent and plays a crucial role in a 2nd degree response by an immunocompetent immune system?

    • A.

      Gamma

    • B.

      Alpha

    • C.

      Mu

    • D.

      Delta

    • E.

      Epsilon

    Correct Answer
    A. Gamma
    Explanation
    Gamma immunoglobulins, also known as IgG, are the most prevalent class of immunoglobulins in the body. They play a crucial role in the immune response by providing long-term immunity and protection against pathogens. IgG antibodies are produced during a secondary immune response, which occurs when the immune system encounters a pathogen it has previously encountered. This class of immunoglobulins is responsible for neutralizing toxins, opsonization (marking pathogens for destruction), and activating complement proteins to enhance the immune response.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following is (are) characteristic of a 2nd degree immune response by an immunocompetent immune system compared to a 1st degree response by the same immunocompetent immune system?

    • A.

      Antibody titer increases earlier

    • B.

      Antibody titer increases more rapidly

    • C.

      Choices A, B, D, and E

    • D.

      Antibody titer reaches levels many times greater than the 1st degree response

    • E.

      Antibody titer endures far longer than the 1st degree response.

    Correct Answer
    C. Choices A, B, D, and E
    Explanation
    In a 2nd degree immune response, the antibody titer increases earlier, more rapidly, reaches levels many times greater than the 1st degree response, and endures far longer than the 1st degree response. This means that the immune system is able to mount a faster and stronger response to the same antigen in a 2nd degree response compared to a 1st degree response. This is due to the immune system's memory of the antigen from the previous exposure, allowing for a more efficient and effective immune response.

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  • 22. 

    What is true regarding the term "isograft"

    • A.

      Tissue graft transplanted from 1 body site to another in the same person

    • B.

      Tissue graft transplanted from individuals not genetically identical but belong to the same species

    • C.

      Tissue graft transplanted from another animal species such as a baboon heart into a human being

    • D.

      Choices A, and C

    • E.

      Tissue graft donated to a patient from a geneticallt identical individual, such as identical twins

    Correct Answer
    E. Tissue graft donated to a patient from a geneticallt identical individual, such as identical twins
    Explanation
    The term "isograft" refers to a tissue graft that is donated to a patient from a genetically identical individual, such as identical twins. This means that the donor and recipient have the same genetic makeup, which greatly reduces the risk of rejection or complications during the transplant. Isografts are considered the most compatible type of grafts and have a higher success rate compared to grafts from individuals who are not genetically identical.

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  • 23. 

    What is true regarding the term "Xenograph"?

    • A.

      Tissue graft transplanted from 1 body site to another in the same person

    • B.

      Tissue graft transplanted from individuals not genetically identical but belong to the same species

    • C.

      Tissue graft transplanted from another animal species such as a baboon heart into a human being

    • D.

      Choices A, and B

    • E.

      Tissue graft donated to a patient from a geneticallt identical individual, such as identical twins

    Correct Answer
    C. Tissue graft transplanted from another animal species such as a baboon heart into a human being
    Explanation
    The term "Xenograph" refers to a tissue graft that is transplanted from another animal species, such as a baboon heart, into a human being. This is different from choices A and B, which involve tissue grafts within the same person or within the same species. It is also different from choice D, which involves tissue grafts donated from genetically identical individuals. Therefore, the correct answer is the option that states "Tissue graft transplanted from another animal species such as a baboon heart into a human being."

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  • 24. 

    What class of T-cells is responsible for moderating cell mediated and humoral mediated immunity...matching the immune response to the threat?

    • A.

      T-h

    • B.

      T-m

    • C.

      T-s

    • D.

      T-x

    • E.

      T-c

    Correct Answer
    C. T-s
    Explanation
    T-s refers to T-suppressor cells, also known as regulatory T-cells. These cells play a crucial role in moderating the immune response by suppressing the activity of other immune cells. They help prevent excessive immune reactions and maintain immune homeostasis. T-s cells are responsible for regulating both cell-mediated and humoral-mediated immunity, ensuring that the immune response is appropriately matched to the threat.

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  • 25. 

    What are typical characteristics of a "good" vaccine?

    • A.

      Can be administered in different forms

    • B.

      Is economically feasible

    • C.

      Has sufficient shelf-life

    • D.

      Does no or minimal harm to the patient regardless of age or gender

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    A "good" vaccine should possess several characteristics. Firstly, it should be able to be administered in different forms, allowing for flexibility in delivery. Secondly, it should be economically feasible, ensuring accessibility for a wide range of individuals. Thirdly, it should have a sufficient shelf-life, enabling storage and distribution without compromising its effectiveness. Lastly, it should cause no or minimal harm to the patient, regardless of their age or gender. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above" as all these characteristics are important for a vaccine to be considered "good".

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  • 26. 

    What are the common names for the trachea, pharynx, and larynx, respectively?

    • A.

      Throat, voice box, and windpipe

    • B.

      Windpipe, voice box, throat

    • C.

      Throat, windpipe, voice box

    • D.

      Voice box, windpipe, throat

    • E.

      Windpipe, throat, voice box

    Correct Answer
    E. Windpipe, throat, voice box
    Explanation
    The given correct answer for the common names of the trachea, pharynx, and larynx are windpipe, throat, and voice box, respectively. The windpipe is the tube that connects the throat to the lungs, the throat is the passage that leads from the mouth to the esophagus and windpipe, and the voice box is the structure in the throat that contains the vocal cords and is responsible for producing sound.

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  • 27. 

    What is the proper scientific term for the respiratory system component responsible for warming, moistening, and flitering inhaled air and is lined with olfactory epithelium?

    • A.

      Larynx

    • B.

      Pharynx

    • C.

      Epiglottis

    • D.

      Nasal chambers

    • E.

      Glottis

    Correct Answer
    D. Nasal chambers
    Explanation
    The nasal chambers are the proper scientific term for the respiratory system component responsible for warming, moistening, and filtering inhaled air. They are lined with olfactory epithelium, which is responsible for the sense of smell. The nasal chambers have a large surface area and contain mucous membranes that help to trap particles and filter out impurities in the air before it reaches the lungs. Additionally, the nasal chambers have blood vessels that warm the air as it passes through, ensuring that it reaches the lungs at the optimal temperature for gas exchange.

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  • 28. 

    Which principal respiratory division is responsible solely for respiratory gas exchange?

    • A.

      Respiratory or exchange zone

    • B.

      Conducting zone

    • C.

      Zone of conduction

    • D.

      Tracheal zone

    • E.

      Bronchial zone

    Correct Answer
    A. Respiratory or exchange zone
    Explanation
    The respiratory or exchange zone is responsible solely for respiratory gas exchange. This zone includes the respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, and alveoli, where oxygen is taken in and carbon dioxide is released. The conducting zone, zone of conduction, tracheal zone, and bronchial zone are all involved in conducting air to and from the respiratory zone, but they do not participate in gas exchange.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following is (are) true regarding inspiration?

    • A.

      The thoracic cavity moves out and up, increasing thoracic volume

    • B.

      The diaphragm drops down, again, increasing thoracic volume

    • C.

      It is an active process requiring the expenditure of energy

    • D.

      Pressue within the thoracic cavity decreases relative to atmospheric pressure

    • E.

      Choices A, B, C, and D

    Correct Answer
    E. Choices A, B, C, and D
    Explanation
    During inspiration, the thoracic cavity expands as the diaphragm contracts and moves downward, increasing the volume of the thoracic cavity. This expansion creates a decrease in pressure within the thoracic cavity compared to atmospheric pressure, allowing air to flow into the lungs. Inspiration is an active process that requires the expenditure of energy. Therefore, all of the given choices (A, B, C, and D) are true regarding inspiration.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following is (are) true regarding the Hering-Breuer phenomenon?

    • A.

      It concerns safe-guards against lung over-inflation

    • B.

      It is facilitated by "stretch receptors" with lung tissue

    • C.

      It is one of the many inputs regulating lung function along with conscious input from the cerebral hemispheres and subconscious input from carotid and aortic artery bodies

    • D.

      It is a reflex

    • E.

      Choices A, B, C, and D

    Correct Answer
    E. Choices A, B, C, and D
    Explanation
    The Hering-Breuer phenomenon is a reflex that concerns safe-guards against lung over-inflation. It is facilitated by "stretch receptors" within the lung tissue. It is one of the many inputs regulating lung function, along with conscious input from the cerebral hemispheres and subconscious input from carotid and aortic artery bodies. Therefore, all of the choices A, B, C, and D are true regarding the Hering-Breuer phenomenon.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following is (are) true concering the respiratory chemoreceptors?

    • A.

      They include aortic and carotid artery bodies monitoring arterial blood pH

    • B.

      Peripheral chemoreceptors transmit nerve signals to the brain stem respiratory centers via cranial nerves IX and X

    • C.

      They also include central chemoreceptors located within the brain stem medulla oblongota

    • D.

      Central chemoreceptors monitor CSF pH

    • E.

      Choices A, B, C, and D

    Correct Answer
    E. Choices A, B, C, and D
    Explanation
    The respiratory chemoreceptors include both the aortic and carotid artery bodies, which monitor the arterial blood pH. Peripheral chemoreceptors transmit nerve signals to the brain stem respiratory centers through cranial nerves IX and X. Additionally, central chemoreceptors are located within the brain stem medulla oblongata and monitor the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Therefore, all of the statements A, B, C, and D are true regarding the respiratory chemoreceptors.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following is (are) true regarding tidal volume (TV)?

    • A.

      It is the volume of air inhaled/exhaled in one breath at rest

    • B.

      The typical value is 0.5 liter

    • C.

      Not all of the TV contributes to pulmonary ventilation

    • D.

      Some of the TV contributes to dead space

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    Tidal volume (TV) refers to the volume of air that is inhaled or exhaled during one breath at rest. The typical value for tidal volume is 0.5 liters. Not all of the tidal volume contributes to pulmonary ventilation, as a portion of it contributes to dead space. Therefore, all of the statements mentioned in the options are true regarding tidal volume.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following is (are) true regarding lung measurements?

    • A.

      Lung volumes are measured

    • B.

      Lung volumes are measured with a spirometer

    • C.

      Choices A, B, D, and E

    • D.

      Lung capacities are calculated or estimated

    • E.

      Lung capacities are calculated using volume measurements

    Correct Answer
    C. Choices A, B, D, and E
    Explanation
    Lung volumes can be measured using a spirometer, which is a device specifically designed for this purpose. Lung capacities, on the other hand, are not directly measured but are calculated or estimated using the volume measurements obtained from the spirometer. Therefore, choices A, B, D, and E are all true regarding lung measurements.

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  • 34. 

    Boyles Law predicts that as a gas volume increases, the pressue exerted by the gas does what?

    • A.

      Remains unchanged

    • B.

      Decreases

    • C.

      Increases

    • D.

      Goes to ZERO

    • E.

      Goes to infinity

    Correct Answer
    B. Decreases
    Explanation
    According to Boyle's Law, as the volume of a gas increases, the pressure exerted by the gas decreases. This is because when the volume increases, the gas particles have more space to move around, resulting in fewer collisions with the container walls, leading to a decrease in pressure.

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  • 35. 

    Oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation (oxygen saturation) curves indicate that as the blood pH decreases (increasing acidity), the curve shifts how?

    • A.

      To the left and down

    • B.

      To the right and up

    • C.

      To the left and up

    • D.

      To the right and down

    • E.

      Remains stationary

    Correct Answer
    D. To the right and down
    Explanation
    As the blood pH decreases (increasing acidity), the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to the right and down. This means that at a given partial pressure of oxygen, hemoglobin has a lower affinity for oxygen and releases it more readily to the tissues. This shift is known as the Bohr effect and is important in facilitating oxygen unloading in tissues with high metabolic activity, such as during exercise or in areas of low pH, such as in actively respiring cells.

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  • 36. 

    Infants born with insufficient lung surfactant in the aveoli typically suffer from what?

    • A.

      Hemolytic disease of the newborn

    • B.

      Erythroblastosis fetalis

    • C.

      Respiratory distress syndrome

    • D.

      Hyaline membrane disease

    • E.

      Choices C and D

    Correct Answer
    E. Choices C and D
    Explanation
    Infants born with insufficient lung surfactant in the aveoli typically suffer from respiratory distress syndrome and hyaline membrane disease. These conditions occur when the lungs do not produce enough surfactant, a substance that helps keep the air sacs in the lungs open. As a result, the lungs become stiff and it becomes difficult for the infant to breathe. Both respiratory distress syndrome and hyaline membrane disease are characterized by symptoms such as rapid breathing, grunting sounds, and bluish skin coloration.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following is (are) true regarding respiratory acidosis?

    • A.

      Choices B, C, D, and E

    • B.

      Too much carbon dioxide in the blood stream (hypercapnia)

    • C.

      Elevated respiratory rate (hyperventilation)

    • D.

      Acidic urine characterized by the kidneys "dumping" hydrogen ion into the urine

    • E.

      Lungs and kidneys working cooperatively to make adjustments and return blood pH back to normal

    Correct Answer
    A. Choices B, C, D, and E
    Explanation
    Respiratory acidosis is characterized by too much carbon dioxide in the bloodstream (hypercapnia), an elevated respiratory rate (hyperventilation), acidic urine characterized by the kidneys "dumping" hydrogen ions into the urine, and the lungs and kidneys working cooperatively to make adjustments and return blood pH back to normal.

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  • 38. 

    What is the definition of the term "hypocapnia"?

    • A.

      Excess oxygen in the blood stream

    • B.

      Excess nitrogen in the blood stream

    • C.

      Excess carbon dioxide in the blood stream

    • D.

      Deficiency of carbon dioxide in the blood

    • E.

      Choices B and C

    Correct Answer
    D. Deficiency of carbon dioxide in the blood
    Explanation
    Hypocapnia is defined as a deficiency of carbon dioxide in the blood. This condition occurs when there is an abnormally low level of carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. Carbon dioxide is a waste product of cellular metabolism and is normally expelled from the body through respiration. When there is a deficiency of carbon dioxide, it can lead to symptoms such as dizziness, shortness of breath, and tingling sensations.

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  • 39. 

    What is the definition of the term "apnea"

    • A.

      Temporary cessation of breathing

    • B.

      Permanent cessation of breathing

    • C.

      Normal breathing

    • D.

      Elevated respiration rate

    • E.

      Choices A and B

    Correct Answer
    A. Temporary cessation of breathing
    Explanation
    Apnea refers to the temporary cessation or pause in breathing. It is a condition where a person stops breathing for a short period, usually lasting for a few seconds to minutes. This interruption in breathing can be caused by various factors, such as sleep apnea, respiratory disorders, or certain medications. During an apnea episode, the individual's oxygen levels may drop, leading to symptoms like snoring, gasping, or choking. Prompt medical attention and treatment are necessary to address the underlying cause of apnea and prevent any potential complications.

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  • 40. 

    A patient with a hole in the thoracic wall (i.e. breached thoracic wall) has what type of condition?

    • A.

      Pneumonia

    • B.

      Pneumothorax

    • C.

      Pneumoccoccus infection

    • D.

      Pneumonic plague

    Correct Answer
    B. Pneumothorax
    Explanation
    A patient with a hole in the thoracic wall, also known as a breached thoracic wall, has a condition called pneumothorax. Pneumothorax refers to the presence of air or gas in the pleural cavity, which is the space between the lungs and the chest wall. This condition can occur when there is a rupture or hole in the lung or chest wall, causing air to leak into the pleural cavity and leading to a collapsed lung. Symptoms of pneumothorax may include sudden chest pain, difficulty breathing, and decreased breath sounds on one side of the chest.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following is (are) true regarding the chloride shift phenomenon?

    • A.

      When a bicarbonate ion departs the erythrocyte, it is replaced by a chloride ion, and this corrects ionic charge imbalance

    • B.

      Chloride shift maximizes the quantity of carbon dioxide that the blood stream can transport back to the lungs

    • C.

      Both A and B

    Correct Answer
    C. Both A and B
    Explanation
    Both statements A and B are true regarding the chloride shift phenomenon. In statement A, when a bicarbonate ion leaves the erythrocyte, it is replaced by a chloride ion, which helps correct the ionic charge imbalance. In statement B, the chloride shift maximizes the amount of carbon dioxide that can be transported back to the lungs by the bloodstream. Therefore, both statements A and B are correct.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following is (are) true regarding metabolic alkalosis?

    • A.

      Choices B, C, D, and E

    • B.

      Too little carbon dioxide in the blood stream (hypocapnia)

    • C.

      Depressed respiratory rate (hyperventilation)

    • D.

      Alkaline urine characterized by the kidneys withholding hydrogen ion from the urine

    • E.

      Lungs and kidneys working cooperatively to make adjustments and return the blood pH back to normal

    Correct Answer
    A. Choices B, C, D, and E
    Explanation
    Metabolic alkalosis is a condition characterized by an increase in blood pH. This can occur due to various factors, including excessive vomiting or the use of certain medications. In metabolic alkalosis, there is a decrease in carbon dioxide levels in the blood (hypocapnia), which can be caused by hyperventilation (depressed respiratory rate). The kidneys also play a role in metabolic alkalosis by withholding hydrogen ions from the urine, leading to alkaline urine. Both the lungs and kidneys work together to restore the blood pH back to normal, indicating that choices B, C, D, and E are all true regarding metabolic alkalosis.

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  • 43. 

    When an individual exhlaes, in which direction does the diaphragm move?

    • A.

      To the right

    • B.

      To the left

    • C.

      Upward

    • D.

      Downward

    • E.

      Choices A and B

    Correct Answer
    C. Upward
    Explanation
    When an individual exhales, the diaphragm moves upward. The diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscle located at the base of the lungs. During inhalation, the diaphragm contracts and moves downward, causing the lungs to expand and fill with air. During exhalation, the diaphragm relaxes and moves upward, allowing the lungs to deflate and expel air. This upward movement of the diaphragm helps to push air out of the lungs.

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  • 44. 

    Oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation (oxygen saturation) curves relate oxygen tension in the blood (X axis) to percent oxygen saturation of hemoglobin (Y axis). As the blood plasma pH becomes more alkaline (increases blood pH), how does the curve shift?

    • A.

      Up and then down

    • B.

      Up and to the right

    • C.

      Down and to the right

    • D.

      Remains stable

    • E.

      Up and to the left

    Correct Answer
    E. Up and to the left
    Explanation
    When the blood plasma pH becomes more alkaline, it means that the pH increases. This causes a decrease in the concentration of hydrogen ions in the blood, leading to an increase in the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen. As a result, the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to the left, indicating that at any given oxygen tension, there is a higher percent saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen.

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  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 22, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Chris23manj
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