A And P II - Midterm Lecture Practice Test

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    ______________ have the thickest tunica media.

    • A.

      Large arteries

    • B.

      Large veins

    • C.

      Capillaries

    • D.

      Small arteries

    • E.

      Small veins

    Correct Answer
    A. Large arteries
    Explanation
    Large arteries have the thickest tunica media. The tunica media is the middle layer of the arterial wall and is composed of smooth muscle fibers. Large arteries, such as the aorta and the pulmonary artery, have a thicker tunica media compared to smaller arteries and veins. This is because large arteries need to withstand the high pressure and force of blood flow from the heart. The thick tunica media provides strength and elasticity to the arterial wall, allowing it to expand and contract with each heartbeat.

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  • 2. 

    In people who stand for long periods, blood tends to pool in the lower limbs and this may result in varicose veins. Varicose veins are caused by

    • A.

      An aneurysm or weak point in an artery.

    • B.

      A ruptured aneurysm in a vein.

    • C.

      Failure of the venous valves.

    • D.

      An aneurysm or weak point in a vein.

    • E.

      Failure of the lymphatic valves.

    Correct Answer
    C. Failure of the venous valves.
    Explanation
    Varicose veins are caused by the failure of the venous valves. When the valves in the veins of the lower limbs do not function properly, blood is not effectively pumped back to the heart and instead pools in the veins. This pooling of blood leads to the enlargement and twisting of the veins, resulting in varicose veins. An aneurysm or weak point in an artery or vein, as well as a ruptured aneurysm in a vein, are unrelated to the development of varicose veins. Failure of the lymphatic valves is also not a cause of varicose veins.

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  • 3. 

    What is the mean arterial pressure for a person with 110 and 65 mm Hg as systolic and diastolic pressure, respectively?

    • A.

      45 mm Hg

    • B.

      90 mm Hg

    • C.

      80 mm Hg

    • D.

      175 mm Hg

    • E.

      87.5 mm Hg

    Correct Answer
    C. 80 mm Hg
    Explanation
    The mean arterial pressure is calculated by adding one-third of the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures to the diastolic pressure. In this case, the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures is 110 - 65 = 45 mm Hg. One-third of 45 mm Hg is 15 mm Hg. Adding 15 mm Hg to the diastolic pressure of 65 mm Hg gives us a mean arterial pressure of 80 mm Hg.

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  • 4. 

    The velocity of blood flow decreases when

    • A.

      Viscosity increases.

    • B.

      Afterload increases.

    • C.

      Vessel radius increases.

    • D.

      Vasomotion decreases.

    • E.

      Blood pressure increases.

    Correct Answer
    A. Viscosity increases.
    Explanation
    When the viscosity of blood increases, it means that the blood becomes thicker and less fluid. This increased thickness hinders the smooth flow of blood through the vessels, causing the velocity of blood flow to decrease. As a result, it takes longer for the blood to travel through the circulatory system, leading to a decrease in velocity.

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  • 5. 

    The medullary ischemic reflex results in

    • A.

      Increased circulation to the adrenal medulla.

    • B.

      Increased circulation to the brain.

    • C.

      Ischemia of the medulla oblongata.

    • D.

      Reduced circulation to the brain.

    • E.

      Hormone secretion by the adrenal medulla when perfusion drops.

    Correct Answer
    B. Increased circulation to the brain.
    Explanation
    The medullary ischemic reflex is a physiological response that occurs when there is a decrease in blood flow to the brain. This reflex aims to increase circulation to the brain in order to maintain adequate perfusion and oxygenation. It does not result in increased circulation to the adrenal medulla or hormone secretion by the adrenal medulla. Ischemia of the medulla oblongata refers to a lack of blood supply to this region of the brain, which is not the outcome of the medullary ischemic reflex. Therefore, the correct answer is increased circulation to the brain.

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  • 6. 

    All of these increase blood pressure except

    • A.

      Angiotensin II.

    • B.

      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

    • C.

      Atrial natriuretic peptide.

    • D.

      Norepinephrine.

    • E.

      Aldosterone.

    Correct Answer
    C. Atrial natriuretic peptide.
    Explanation
    Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is a hormone released by the heart in response to high blood pressure. Its main function is to promote the excretion of sodium and water, leading to a decrease in blood volume and blood pressure. Therefore, ANP does not increase blood pressure. On the other hand, angiotensin II, antidiuretic hormone (ADH), norepinephrine, and aldosterone all have vasoconstrictive effects and can increase blood pressure.

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  • 7. 

    The vasomotor center of the __________________ controls blood vessels throughout the body.

    • A.

      Medulla oblongata

    • B.

      Cortex

    • C.

      Cerebellum

    • D.

      Spinal cord

    • E.

      Hypothalamus

    Correct Answer
    A. Medulla oblongata
    Explanation
    The medulla oblongata is responsible for controlling blood vessels throughout the body. It is a part of the brainstem and plays a crucial role in regulating various autonomic functions, including blood pressure and heart rate. The vasomotor center, located in the medulla oblongata, receives signals from the hypothalamus and adjusts the diameter of blood vessels to regulate blood flow and maintain homeostasis.

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  • 8. 

    ____________ are powerful vasoconstrictors, and _______________ also increases heart rate.

    • A.

      Epinephrine and angiotensin II; epinephrine

    • B.

      Epinephrine and antidiuretic hormone (ADH); antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

    • C.

      Norepinephrine and atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP); norepinephrine

    • D.

      Norepinephrine and antidiuretic hormone (ADH); antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

    • E.

      Epinephrine and aldosterone; epinephrine

    Correct Answer
    A. Epinephrine and angiotensin II; epinephrine
    Explanation
    Epinephrine and angiotensin II are powerful vasoconstrictors, meaning they cause blood vessels to constrict or narrow. This leads to an increase in blood pressure. Additionally, epinephrine also increases heart rate, which further contributes to an increase in blood pressure.

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  • 9. 

    The most important force driving filtration at the arterial end of a capillary is

    • A.

      Interstitial hydrostatic pressure.

    • B.

      Oncotic pressure.

    • C.

      Blood hydrostatic pressure.

    • D.

      Blood colloid osmotic pressure.

    • E.

      Tissue fluid colloid osmotic pressure.

    Correct Answer
    C. Blood hydrostatic pressure.
    Explanation
    The most important force driving filtration at the arterial end of a capillary is blood hydrostatic pressure. This pressure is exerted by the blood pushing against the walls of the capillary, forcing fluid and solutes out of the capillary and into the interstitial space. Oncotic pressure, blood colloid osmotic pressure, and tissue fluid colloid osmotic pressure all play roles in regulating fluid movement, but they are not the primary force driving filtration at the arterial end of a capillary.

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  • 10. 

    The most important force driving reabsorption at the venous end of a capillary is

    • A.

      Tissue fluid colloid osmotic pressure.

    • B.

      Interstitial hydrostatic pressure.

    • C.

      Blood colloid osmotic pressure.

    • D.

      Oncotic pressure.

    • E.

      Blood hydrostatic pressure.

    Correct Answer
    C. Blood colloid osmotic pressure.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is blood colloid osmotic pressure. When blood enters the capillaries, it contains proteins and other solutes that create an osmotic pressure. This osmotic pressure is higher in the blood compared to the tissue fluid, causing water and solutes to be drawn back into the capillaries from the interstitial space. This process is essential for maintaining fluid balance and preventing the buildup of excess fluid in the tissues. The other options mentioned, such as interstitial hydrostatic pressure and blood hydrostatic pressure, play a role in capillary filtration rather than reabsorption.

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  • 11. 

    ____________ would not increase capillary filtration.

    • A.

      Dietary protein deficiency

    • B.

      Obstructed venous return

    • C.

      Dehydration

    • D.

      Blockage of lymphatic capillaries

    • E.

      Increased capillary permeability

    Correct Answer
    C. Dehydration
    Explanation
    Dehydration would not increase capillary filtration because when the body is dehydrated, there is a decrease in blood volume, which leads to a decrease in blood pressure. Low blood pressure reduces the force pushing fluid out of the capillaries and into the surrounding tissues, resulting in decreased capillary filtration.

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  • 12. 

    A mean arterial pressure (MAP) below 60 mmHg can cause _____, whereas a MAP above 160 mmHg can cause _____________.

    • A.

      Syncope; cerebral edema

    • B.

      Syncope; neurogenic shock

    • C.

      Neurogenic shock; cardiogenic shock

    • D.

      Neurogenic shock; syncope

    • E.

      Compensated shock; decompensated shock

    Correct Answer
    A. Syncope; cerebral edema
    Explanation
    A mean arterial pressure (MAP) below 60 mmHg can cause syncope, which is a temporary loss of consciousness due to a lack of blood flow to the brain. On the other hand, a MAP above 160 mmHg can cause cerebral edema, which is the swelling of the brain due to increased pressure.

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  • 13. 

    A bee sting can trigger a massive release of histamine, which causes ___________ and a(n) _____________ in arterial blood pressure.

    • A.

      Vasodilation; increase

    • B.

      Vasodilation; decrease

    • C.

      Vasoconstriction; oscillation

    • D.

      Vasoconstriction; increase

    • E.

      Vasoconstriction; decrease

    Correct Answer
    B. Vasodilation; decrease
    Explanation
    When a bee stings, it injects venom into the body. This venom can cause a massive release of histamine, which is a chemical that triggers an inflammatory response. Histamine causes blood vessels to widen, a process known as vasodilation. This widening of blood vessels leads to a decrease in arterial blood pressure. Therefore, the correct answer is "vasodilation; decrease."

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  • 14. 

    Myocardial infarction can lead to _______________ shock.

    • A.

      Cardiogenic

    • B.

      Venous pooling (vascular)

    • C.

      Hypovolemic

    • D.

      Obstructed venous return

    • E.

      Neurogenic

    Correct Answer
    A. Cardiogenic
    Explanation
    Myocardial infarction, also known as a heart attack, can lead to cardiogenic shock. This occurs when the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's needs, resulting in inadequate blood flow and oxygen delivery to the organs and tissues. Cardiogenic shock is a serious condition that can be life-threatening and requires immediate medical intervention.

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  • 15. 

    The most important force in venous flow is

    • A.

      The pressure generated by the heart.

    • B.

      One way flow due to valves.

    • C.

      The thoracic (respiratory) pump.

    • D.

      Cardiac suction.

    • E.

      The skeletal muscle pump.

    Correct Answer
    A. The pressure generated by the heart.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the pressure generated by the heart. The heart acts as a pump that creates pressure in the circulatory system, including the veins. This pressure pushes the blood forward, aiding in venous flow. While the other options, such as one-way flow due to valves, the thoracic pump, cardiac suction, and the skeletal muscle pump, also contribute to venous flow, the pressure generated by the heart is the most important force.

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  • 16. 

    Blood flow to the _______________ remains quite stable even when mean arterial pressure (MAP) fluctuates from 60 to 140 mm Hg.

    • A.

      Adrenal gland

    • B.

      Stomach

    • C.

      Skeletal muscles

    • D.

      Hypothalamus

    • E.

      Kidneys

    Correct Answer
    D. Hypothalamus
    Explanation
    The hypothalamus is responsible for regulating blood flow to various parts of the body. It helps maintain a stable blood flow to the organs and tissues, even when there are fluctuations in mean arterial pressure (MAP). This is because the hypothalamus can adjust the diameter of blood vessels and control blood flow accordingly. Therefore, blood flow to the hypothalamus remains quite stable despite changes in MAP.

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  • 17. 

    The lungs receive a systemic blood supply by way of the

    • A.

      Pulmonary veins.

    • B.

      Left pulmonary artery.

    • C.

      Bronchial arteries.

    • D.

      Lobar arteries.

    • E.

      Right pulmonary artery.

    Correct Answer
    C. Bronchial arteries.
    Explanation
    The bronchial arteries provide a systemic blood supply to the lungs. While the pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart, the bronchial arteries supply oxygenated blood to the bronchial tree and other non-respiratory lung tissues. This blood supply is important for the nourishment and oxygenation of these tissues, as well as for the regulation of local blood flow and immune responses within the lungs.

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  • 18. 

    There are no ________________ in humans.

    • A.

      Right and left subclavian arteries.

    • B.

      Right and left brachiocephalic arteries.

    • C.

      Right and left common carotid arteries.

    • D.

      Right and left brachiocephalic veins.

    • E.

      Right and left subclavian veins.

    Correct Answer
    B. Right and left brachiocephalic arteries.
    Explanation
    The brachiocephalic arteries, also known as the innominate arteries, are large arteries that arise from the aortic arch. In humans, there is only one brachiocephalic artery, which then branches into the right subclavian artery and the right common carotid artery. There is no left brachiocephalic artery in humans. Therefore, the correct answer is "right and left brachiocephalic arteries" because there are no brachiocephalic arteries on both sides in humans.

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  • 19. 

    The _______________ supplies 80% of the cerebrum.

    • A.

      Occipital artery

    • B.

      Anterior cerebral artery

    • C.

      Superficial temporal artery

    • D.

      Internal carotid artery

    • E.

      Middle cerebral artery

    Correct Answer
    D. Internal carotid artery
    Explanation
    The internal carotid artery supplies 80% of the cerebrum. This artery is a major blood vessel that provides oxygenated blood to the brain. It branches off from the common carotid artery and enters the skull through the carotid canal. Once inside the skull, it gives rise to several branches, including the middle cerebral artery, which supplies a large portion of the cerebrum. Therefore, the internal carotid artery is responsible for delivering a significant amount of blood to the cerebrum, making it the correct answer.

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  • 20. 

    From superior to inferior, the major branches of the abdominal aorta are

    • A.

      Celiac truck, superior mesenteric artery, renal arteries, gonadal arteries, inferior mesenteric artery, and common iliac arteries.

    • B.

      Superior mesenteric artery, inferior mesenteric artery, celiac truck, gonadal arteries, renal arteries, and common iliac arteries.

    • C.

      Celiac truck, superior mesenteric artery, gonadal arteries, renal arteries, inferior mesenteric artery, and common iliac arteries.

    • D.

      Superior mesenteric artery, celiac truck, renal arteries, gonadal arteries, inferior mesenteric artery, and common iliac arteries.

    • E.

      Superior mesenteric artery, celiac truck, gonadal arteries, renal arteries, inferior mesenteric artery, and common iliac arteries.

    Correct Answer
    A. Celiac truck, superior mesenteric artery, renal arteries, gonadal arteries, inferior mesenteric artery, and common iliac arteries.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is celiac trunk, superior mesenteric artery, renal arteries, gonadal arteries, inferior mesenteric artery, and common iliac arteries. This is the correct order of the major branches of the abdominal aorta from superior to inferior. The celiac trunk is the first branch, followed by the superior mesenteric artery, renal arteries, gonadal arteries, inferior mesenteric artery, and finally the common iliac arteries.

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  • 21. 

    The principal venous drainage of the thoracic organs is accomplished by way of

    • A.

      The coronary and pulmonary veins.

    • B.

      Mesenteric circulation.

    • C.

      The azygos system.

    • D.

      The branches of the celiac trunk.

    • E.

      The hepatic portal system.

    Correct Answer
    C. The azygos system.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the azygos system. The azygos system is responsible for draining blood from the thoracic organs. It is a network of veins that runs parallel to the vertebral column and collects blood from various organs, including the lungs, esophagus, and chest wall. The blood then flows into the superior vena cava, which carries it back to the heart. The other options mentioned, such as the coronary and pulmonary veins, mesenteric circulation, branches of the celiac trunk, and the hepatic portal system, are not primarily involved in the venous drainage of the thoracic organs.

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  • 22. 

    These are all tributaries of the inferior vena cava except

    • A.

      The internal and external iliac veins.

    • B.

      The vertebral veins.

    • C.

      The hepatic veins.

    • D.

      The lumbar veins.

    • E.

      The inferior phrenic veins.

    Correct Answer
    B. The vertebral veins.
    Explanation
    The question asks for the tributaries of the inferior vena cava that are not included in the given options. The correct answer is "the vertebral veins". The other options - the internal and external iliac veins, the hepatic veins, the lumbar veins, and the inferior phrenic veins - are all tributaries of the inferior vena cava. Therefore, the vertebral veins are the only option that is not a tributary of the inferior vena cava.

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  • 23. 

    _____________ are the largest of the lymphatic vessels and they empty into the _______________.

    • A.

      Collecting ducts; subclavian arteries

    • B.

      Lymphatic trunks; subclavian arteries

    • C.

      Lymphatic trunks; collecting ducts

    • D.

      Lymphatic trunks; subclavian veins

    • E.

      Collecting ducts; subclavian veins

    Correct Answer
    E. Collecting ducts; subclavian veins
  • 24. 

    _____________ are found especially in the mucous membrane, standing guard against parasites, and allergens.

    • A.

      Eosinophils

    • B.

      Basophils

    • C.

      Lymphocytes

    • D.

      Neutrophils

    • E.

      Monocytes

    Correct Answer
    A. Eosinophils
    Explanation
    Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell that are primarily found in the mucous membrane. They play a crucial role in the immune system by defending against parasites and allergens. These cells release toxic substances that help to kill parasites and regulate allergic reactions.

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  • 25. 

    ___________ employ a "respiratory burst" to produce bactericidal chemicals such as hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) and hypochlorite (HClO).

    • A.

      Suppressor T cells

    • B.

      Basophils

    • C.

      Neutrophils

    • D.

      Natural killer cells

    • E.

      Cytotoxic T cells

    Correct Answer
    C. Neutrophils
    Explanation
    Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune response. They are known for their ability to perform a "respiratory burst," which involves the production of bactericidal chemicals like hydrogen peroxide and hypochlorite. This respiratory burst helps neutrophils effectively kill bacteria and other pathogens. Therefore, neutrophils are the cells that employ a respiratory burst to produce bactericidal chemicals like hydrogen peroxide and hypochlorite.

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  • 26. 

    Basophils of the blood help to get defensive leukocytes to the site quickly by releasing an anticoagulant called _____ and a vasodilator called ____________.

    • A.

      Selectin; prostaglandin

    • B.

      Histamine; heparin

    • C.

      Heparin; histamine

    • D.

      Prostaglandins; selectin

    • E.

      Bradykinin; histamine

    Correct Answer
    C. Heparin; histamine
    Explanation
    Basophils are a type of white blood cell that plays a role in the immune response. They release certain substances to help other immune cells reach the site of infection or injury quickly. Heparin is an anticoagulant that prevents blood clotting, allowing immune cells to move freely. Histamine is a vasodilator that widens blood vessels, increasing blood flow to the site and facilitating the movement of immune cells. Therefore, the correct answer is heparin; histamine.

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  • 27. 

    Complement C3b protein coats bacteria and stimulates phagocytosis by ___________ in a process called _____________.

    • A.

      Mast cells and basophils; opsonization

    • B.

      Lymphocytes and monocytes; opsonization

    • C.

      Neutrophils and macrophages; opsonization

    • D.

      Neutrophils and macrophages; cytolysis

    • E.

      Mast cells and basophils; cytolysis

    Correct Answer
    C. Neutrophils and macrophages; opsonization
    Explanation
    Complement C3b protein coats bacteria and stimulates phagocytosis by neutrophils and macrophages in a process called opsonization. Opsonization is the process of marking pathogens for destruction by immune cells, such as neutrophils and macrophages, by coating them with molecules that enhance their recognition and uptake. This coating helps the immune cells recognize and bind to the bacteria more efficiently, leading to their engulfment and destruction.

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  • 28. 

    Vaccination stimulates

    • A.

      Artificial specific immunity.

    • B.

      Artificial passive immunity.

    • C.

      Natural passive immunity.

    • D.

      Natural active immunity.

    • E.

      Artificial active immunity.

    Correct Answer
    E. Artificial active immunity.
    Explanation
    Vaccination stimulates artificial active immunity because it involves the administration of a weakened or inactivated form of a pathogen or its components. This triggers the immune system to produce a specific response, including the production of antibodies and memory cells. As a result, the individual develops immunity to the pathogen, providing protection against future infections. This type of immunity is considered artificial because it is induced through a deliberate intervention, such as vaccination, rather than through natural exposure to the pathogen.

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  • 29. 

    T cells achieve immunocompetence in

    • A.

      The liver.

    • B.

      The thymus.

    • C.

      The spleen.

    • D.

      The bone marrow.

    • E.

      The blood stream.

    Correct Answer
    B. The thymus.
    Explanation
    T cells achieve immunocompetence in the thymus. The thymus is a primary lymphoid organ located in the chest, where T cells mature and develop their ability to recognize and respond to foreign antigens. T cells undergo a process of selection and education in the thymus, which ensures that they can distinguish between self and non-self antigens. This process is crucial for the proper functioning of the immune system. The liver, spleen, bone marrow, and blood stream also play important roles in immune responses, but they do not specifically contribute to the development of immunocompetence in T cells.

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  • 30. 

    Antibodies do not

    • A.

      Bind to enemy cells changing their shape, so their complement-binding sites are exposed.

    • B.

      Differentiate into memory antibodies, which upon reexposure to the same pathogen would mount a quicker attack.

    • C.

      Neutralize antigens by binding to regions of an antigen that can be pathogenic.

    • D.

      Bind antigen molecules of two or more enemy cells and stick them together.

    • E.

      Link antigen molecules together.

    Correct Answer
    B. Differentiate into memory antibodies, which upon reexposure to the same pathogen would mount a quicker attack.
  • 31. 

    This is the correct sequence of events in the humoral immune respons

    • A.

      Antigen recognition → differentiation → antigen presentation → clonal selection → attack

    • B.

      Antigen recognition → antigen presentation → clonal selection → differentiation → attack

    • C.

      Antigen presentation → antigen recognition → clonal selection → attack differentiation

    • D.

      Antigen presentation → antigen recognition → clonal selection → differentiation → attack

    • E.

      Antigen recognition → antigen presentation → differentiation → clonal selection → attack

    Correct Answer
    B. Antigen recognition → antigen presentation → clonal selection → differentiation → attack
  • 32. 

    Before B cells secrete antibodies they differentiate into

    • A.

      Plasma cells.

    • B.

      Macrophages.

    • C.

      Stem cells.

    • D.

      Antigen-presenting cells.

    • E.

      T cells.

    Correct Answer
    A. Plasma cells.
    Explanation
    B cells are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune response. Before B cells secrete antibodies, they undergo a process called differentiation. During this process, B cells transform into plasma cells. Plasma cells are specialized B cells that produce and secrete large amounts of antibodies, which are proteins that help to identify and neutralize pathogens. Therefore, the correct answer is plasma cells.

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  • 33. 

    A person who is HIV-positive and has a helper T (TH) cells count lower than ____________ has AIDS.

    • A.

      50 cells/μL

    • B.

      5,000 cells/μL

    • C.

      200 cells/μL

    • D.

      1,000 cells/μL

    • E.

      20,000cells/μL

    Correct Answer
    C. 200 cells/μL
    Explanation
    A person who is HIV-positive and has a helper T (TH) cells count lower than 200 cells/μL has AIDS. This is because a low helper T cell count indicates a weakened immune system, which is a defining characteristic of AIDS.

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  • 34. 

    Autoimmune diseases are disorders in which the immune system fails to distinguish ____________ from foreign ones.

    • A.

      Self-immunoglobulins

    • B.

      Self-complement proteins

    • C.

      Self-interleukins

    • D.

      Self-antibodies

    • E.

      Self-antigens

    Correct Answer
    E. Self-antigens
    Explanation
    Autoimmune diseases occur when the immune system mistakenly targets and attacks the body's own cells and tissues. In these disorders, the immune system fails to distinguish "self-antigens" from foreign antigens. Antigens are substances that can trigger an immune response, and "self-antigens" are normally present in the body. In autoimmune diseases, the immune system mistakenly identifies these self-antigens as foreign and launches an immune response against them, leading to inflammation and damage to the body's own tissues.

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  • 35. 

    Which two ligaments extend from the thyroid cartilage to the arytenoid cartilages?

    • A.

      Vestibular and vocal ligaments

    • B.

      Cricoids and arytenoids

    • C.

      Corniculate and cricoid

    • D.

      Thyrohyoid and cricoids

    • E.

      Laryngeal and corniculate

    Correct Answer
    A. Vestibular and vocal ligaments
    Explanation
    The correct answer is vestibular and vocal ligaments. These two ligaments extend from the thyroid cartilage to the arytenoid cartilages. The vestibular ligaments, also known as false vocal cords, help to protect the vocal cords and assist in closing the glottis during swallowing. The vocal ligaments, also known as true vocal cords, are responsible for producing sound when air passes through them. Together, these ligaments play a crucial role in phonation and protecting the airway.

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  • 36. 

    Each alveolus is surrounded by a basket of blood capillaries supplied by

    • A.

      The superior vena cava

    • B.

      The aorta

    • C.

      The pulmonary vein

    • D.

      The inferior vena cava

    • E.

      The pulmonary artery

    Correct Answer
    E. The pulmonary artery
    Explanation
    The pulmonary artery is the correct answer because it carries deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs. The alveoli in the lungs are responsible for gas exchange, where oxygen is taken in and carbon dioxide is released. The deoxygenated blood from the body is pumped into the pulmonary artery and then transported to the lungs, where it enters the capillaries surrounding the alveoli. In the alveoli, oxygen diffuses into the blood while carbon dioxide diffuses out, allowing for the exchange of gases. Therefore, the alveoli are surrounded by a basket of blood capillaries supplied by the pulmonary artery.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following does not have cilia?

    • A.

      Respiratory bronchioles

    • B.

      The trachea

    • C.

      The nasal cavity

    • D.

      Terminal bronchioles

    • E.

      The bronchi

    Correct Answer
    A. Respiratory bronchioles
    Explanation
    The respiratory bronchioles are the only option in the list that do not have cilia. Cilia are hair-like structures that line the respiratory tract and help to move mucus and trapped particles out of the lungs. The trachea, nasal cavity, terminal bronchioles, and bronchi all have cilia to aid in the clearance of debris. However, the respiratory bronchioles are the smallest branches of the bronchial tree and do not have cilia.

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  • 38. 

    The Valsalva maneuver can assist in diagnosing a hernia by

    • A.

      Increasing mediastinal pressure.

    • B.

      Decreasing intraabdominal pressure.

    • C.

      Increasing expiratory force.

    • D.

      Increasing intrathoracic pressure.

    • E.

      Reducing expiratory force.

    Correct Answer
    B. Decreasing intraabdominal pressure.
    Explanation
    The Valsalva maneuver involves attempting to exhale forcefully while keeping the mouth and nose closed. This maneuver increases pressure in the chest and abdomen. In the case of a hernia, the increased intraabdominal pressure can cause the hernia to protrude or become more noticeable. Therefore, the correct answer is decreasing intraabdominal pressure, as the Valsalva maneuver would have the opposite effect and potentially reduce the visibility or protrusion of a hernia.

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  • 39. 

    ____ states that the total pressure of a gas mixture is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of its individual gases.

    • A.

      Boyle's aw

    • B.

      Henry's law

    • C.

      Charles's law

    • D.

      Dalton's law

    • E.

      Valsalva's law

    Correct Answer
    D. Dalton's law
    Explanation
    Dalton's law states that the total pressure of a gas mixture is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of its individual gases. This means that in a mixture of gases, each gas exerts its own pressure independent of the others. The total pressure is simply the sum of these individual pressures. This law is important in understanding the behavior of gases in various mixtures and is widely used in fields such as chemistry and physics.

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  • 40. 

    In  a healthy person, which of the following will have the greatest influence on resistance to pulmonary airflow?

    • A.

      Atmospheric pressure

    • B.

      Respiratory rate

    • C.

      Quantity of surfactant

    • D.

      Bronchiole diameter

    • E.

      The diaphragm

    Correct Answer
    D. Bronchiole diameter
    Explanation
    Bronchiole diameter will have the greatest influence on resistance to pulmonary airflow in a healthy person. The diameter of the bronchioles determines the amount of air that can flow through them. If the bronchioles are constricted or narrowed, it will increase resistance to airflow and make it more difficult for air to pass through. On the other hand, if the bronchioles are dilated or widened, it will decrease resistance to airflow and allow for easier breathing. Therefore, changes in bronchiole diameter can significantly affect the resistance to pulmonary airflow.

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  • 41. 

    The amount of air in excess of tidal volume that can be inhaled with maximum effort is called

    • A.

      Inspiratory capacity

    • B.

      Inspiratory reserve volume.

    • C.

      Expiratory reserve volume.

    • D.

      Vital capacity.

    • E.

      Residual volume.

    Correct Answer
    B. Inspiratory reserve volume.
    Explanation
    The inspiratory reserve volume refers to the additional amount of air that can be inhaled with maximum effort, beyond the normal tidal volume. It represents the maximum amount of air that can be inhaled after a normal inhalation. This is different from inspiratory capacity, which is the total amount of air that can be inhaled after a normal exhalation. Expiratory reserve volume refers to the additional amount of air that can be exhaled with maximum effort, while vital capacity is the maximum amount of air that can be exhaled after a maximum inhalation. Residual volume is the amount of air that remains in the lungs after a maximum exhalation.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following has no effect on oxyhemoglobin dissociation

    • A.

      Low pH

    • B.

      Thyroid hormone

    • C.

      Epinephrine

    • D.

      Erythrocyte count

    • E.

      Fever

    Correct Answer
    D. Erythrocyte count
    Explanation
    Erythrocyte count refers to the number of red blood cells in the blood. It does not directly affect the dissociation of oxyhemoglobin, which is the release of oxygen from hemoglobin. The dissociation of oxyhemoglobin is primarily influenced by factors such as low pH, which is caused by increased carbon dioxide levels, and other factors like epinephrine and fever. Thyroid hormone can also affect the dissociation of oxyhemoglobin by increasing the metabolic rate and oxygen demand in the body. Therefore, erythrocyte count is the only option that does not have a direct effect on oxyhemoglobin dissociation.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following enzymes in an RBC breaks H2CO3 down to water and carbon dioxide?

    • A.

      Carbaminoreductase

    • B.

      Carboxyhemoglobin

    • C.

      Hemoglobin

    • D.

      Bisphosphoglycerate

    • E.

      Carbonic anhydrase

    Correct Answer
    E. Carbonic anhydrase
    Explanation
    Carbonic anhydrase is the correct answer because it is the enzyme responsible for breaking down H2CO3 (carbonic acid) into water and carbon dioxide in red blood cells.

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  • 44. 

    Congestive heart failure results in which of the following?

    • A.

      Idiopathic hypoxia

    • B.

      Hypoxemic hypoxia

    • C.

      Ischemic hypoxia

    • D.

      Histotoxic hypoxia

    • E.

      Anemic hypoxia

    Correct Answer
    C. Ischemic hypoxia
    Explanation
    Congestive heart failure can result in ischemic hypoxia. Ischemic hypoxia occurs when there is a decrease in blood flow, leading to inadequate oxygen supply to tissues. In congestive heart failure, the heart is unable to pump blood effectively, causing reduced blood flow to various parts of the body. This can lead to ischemic hypoxia, as the tissues do not receive enough oxygen due to the compromised blood flow.

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  • 45. 

    ___ is a lung disease marked by a reduced number of cilia, reduced motility of the remaining cilia, goblet cell hypertrophy and hypersecretion, and thick sputum.

    • A.

      Oat-cell carcinoma

    • B.

      Chronic bronchitis

    • C.

      Atelectasis

    • D.

      Emphysema

    • E.

      Asthma

    Correct Answer
    B. Chronic bronchitis
    Explanation
    Chronic bronchitis is a lung disease characterized by the reduction in the number and motility of cilia, which are hair-like structures that help in clearing mucus and foreign particles from the airways. The condition also leads to the enlargement of goblet cells, which produce excessive mucus, and the thickening of sputum. These changes result in the obstruction of the airways and difficulty in breathing. Oat-cell carcinoma is a type of lung cancer, atelectasis refers to the collapse of lung tissue, emphysema is characterized by the destruction of lung tissue, and asthma involves inflammation and narrowing of the airways.

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  • 46. 

    In ___, the lungs are infected with Mycobacterium and produce fibrous nodules arou

    • A.

      Dyspnea

    • B.

      Pneumothorax

    • C.

      Tuberculosis

    • D.

      Pneumonia

    • E.

      Rhinitis

    Correct Answer
    C. Tuberculosis
    Explanation
    Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium that primarily affects the lungs. It leads to the formation of fibrous nodules in the infected lungs. This condition can cause various symptoms such as dyspnea (shortness of breath) due to the compromised lung function. Therefore, tuberculosis is the most appropriate answer for the given question.

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  • 47. 

    Nitrogen bubbles can form in the blood and other tissues when a scuba diver ascen

    • A.

      Hyperbaric disease.

    • B.

      Pulmonary barotrauma.

    • C.

      Decompression sickness.

    • D.

      Cerebral embolism.

    • E.

      Pulmonary edema.

    Correct Answer
    D. Cerebral embolism.
    Explanation
    When a scuba diver ascends too quickly, the pressure decreases rapidly, causing nitrogen bubbles to form in the blood and tissues. This condition is known as decompression sickness or hyperbaric disease. However, cerebral embolism refers to the blockage of a blood vessel in the brain by an embolus, which is a blood clot or other foreign material. This is not directly related to the formation of nitrogen bubbles in the blood and tissues during scuba diving ascent. Therefore, the correct answer is not adequately explained by the given information.

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  • 48. 

    The blood transports more CO2 in the form of ___ than in any other form.

    • A.

      Carbaminohemoglobin

    • B.

      Bisphosphocarbonate

    • C.

      Dissolved CO2 gas

    • D.

      Carboxyhemoglobin

    • E.

      Bicarbonate ions

    Correct Answer
    E. Bicarbonate ions
    Explanation
    When CO2 enters the bloodstream, it combines with water to form carbonic acid. This carbonic acid then dissociates into bicarbonate ions and hydrogen ions. The majority of CO2 in the blood is transported in the form of bicarbonate ions. This is because bicarbonate ions are highly soluble in water and can easily be transported throughout the body. Additionally, bicarbonate ions can be converted back into CO2 in tissues where it is needed for cellular respiration. Therefore, bicarbonate ions play a crucial role in the transportation and regulation of CO2 in the bloodstream.

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  • 49. 

    In____, the lungs are infected with Myocobacterium and produce fibrous nodules around the bacteria, leading to progressive pulmonary fibrosis

    • A.

      Turberculosis

    • B.

      Dyspnea

    • C.

      Pneumothorax

    • D.

      Rhinitis

    • E.

      Pneumonia

    Correct Answer
    A. Turberculosis
    Explanation
    In tuberculosis, the lungs are infected with Myocobacterium and produce fibrous nodules around the bacteria, leading to progressive pulmonary fibrosis.

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  • 50. 

    Cytotoxic T (TC) cells are like a natural killer (NK) cell because they both

    • A.

      Secrete granzymes and perforin.

    • B.

      Participate in the immune response.

    • C.

      Secrete tumor necrosis factor (TNF).

    • D.

      Secrete interferons.

    • E.

      Participate in nonspecific resistance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Secrete granzymes and perforin.
    Explanation
    Cytotoxic T (TC) cells are like natural killer (NK) cells because they both secrete granzymes and perforin. Granzymes are enzymes that induce apoptosis (cell death) in target cells, while perforin is a protein that forms pores in the target cell membrane, allowing granzymes to enter and initiate cell death. This mechanism is important in eliminating infected or cancerous cells. This similarity in function suggests that TC cells and NK cells play a similar role in the immune response.

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    Quiz Edited by
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