Quiz: Questions On Deep Venous Disease!
- 1.LECTURE - When Should A New Oral Anticoagulant Be Used For Acute DVT
- 2.LECTURE - Which Venogram-Occult Iliac Vein Lesions Should Be Treated?
- 3.LECTURE - Update on Pivotal Clinical Trials in Deep Venous Disease
- 4.DEBATE - Catheter-Directed Thrombolysis for Submassive PE: Use It - It Improves Cardiac Hemodynamics
- 5.DEBATE - Catheter-Directed Thrombolysis for Submassive PE: Not Ready For Prime Time
- 6.DEBATE - Catheter-Directed Thrombolysis for Femoropoliteal DVT: Use It Regularly
- 7.DEBATE - Catheter-Directed Thrombolysis for Femoropoliteal DVT: Don't Use It
- 8.If you are an ACS member, what is your member number?
- 9.Please explain any specific instance(s) of bias or conflict of interest:
- 10.Additional Comments
- 11.Are you an ACS member?
- A.
Yes
- B.
No
- 12.Overall, how would you rate this educational activity?
- A.
Excellent
- B.
Very Good
- C.
Good
- D.
Fair
- E.
Poor
- 13.Program topics and content met the stated objectives
- A.
Strongly Agree
- B.
Agree
- C.
Neutral
- D.
Disagree
- E.
Strongly Disagree
- 14.Content was relevant to my educational needs
- A.
Strongly Agree
- B.
Agree
- C.
Neutral
- D.
Disagree
- E.
Strongly Disagree
- 15.Educational format was conducive to learning
- A.
Strongly Agree
- B.
Agree
- C.
Neutral
- D.
Disagree
- E.
Strongly Disagree
- 16.Program was fair, objective, and unbiased toward any product or program
- A.
Strongly Agree
- B.
Agree
- C.
Neutral
- D.
Disagree
- E.
Strongly Disagree
- 17.67 yr old male with history of recent left knee replacement surgery presents with a left femoro-popliteal acute DVT. He has no family history of venous thromboembolic disease. Last month, he went to his primary care MD and his age appropriate cancer screening returned normal. He had history of atrial fibrillation 4 yrs ago for which he was on warfarin briefly. He apparently developed a severe rash along with nausea and malaise. He was advised to stop the drug and was placed on Dabigatran. This was then stopped as he developed anemia and was tested positive for occult blood in the stools. The colonoscopy however returned normal. He underwent successful radio frequency ablation with resolution of atrial fibrillation and the anticoagulation was stopped. He did not have any issues with anemia for the last 3 yrs. What treatment would you recommend for this patient?
- A.
An IVC filter placement
- B.
Dabigatran for 3 months
- C.
Rivaroxaban for 3 months
- D.
Apixaban for 3 months
- E.
Edoxaban for 3 months
- 18.Iliac vein compression is considered as significant
- A.
When IVUS measured cross-sectional area is 80% of the adjacent normal vein
- B.
When the external iliac vein is smaller than the common iliac vein based on venogram or IVUS
- C.
When IVUS measured diameter is smaller at one vein segment than an adjacent segment
- D.
When the common iliac vein is flattenedĀ on venography
- 19.A 35 year-old man with a first-episode, acute iliofemoral DVT presents to the emergency room. Which of the following treatments is not supported by rigorously designed multicenter randomized controlled trials?
- A.
Subcutaneous injections of enoxaparin followed by warfarin
- B.
Oral rivaroxaban
- C.
Elastic compression stockings
- D.
Catheter-directed thrombolysis
- 20.Which of the following statements about the CAVENT Trial is false?
- A.
It found catheter-directed thrombolysis to reduce the risk of post-thrombotic syndrome.
- B.
There were no fatal or non-fatal intracranial bleeds in study patients
- C.
There were no major bleeds that prompted surgical intervention in study patients
- D.
A significant difference was not observed in the risk of recurrent venous thromboembolism between thrombolysis and no-thrombolysis.
- 21.RV/LV ratio is significant in the diagnosis of submassive PE when greater than:
- A.
0.6
- B.
0.9
- C.
1
- D.
1.5
- 22.A 45-year-old female patient presents to the ER in cardiogenic shock. She is resuscitated with IV fluids and dopamine. A massive PE is diagnosed with a CTA of the chest. She is transferred to the ICU after starting a heparin drip. She suddenly becomes hypotensive in the ICU and systemic TPA is considered since she has no contraindications to thrombolytics. The correct dosage of systemic TPA for the treatment of massive PE is:
- A.
40 mg over two hours
- B.
200 mg over one hour
- C.
75 mg over one hour
- D.
100 mg over two hours
- 23.A 43 year old woman is diagnosed with a pulmonary embolus in her right main PA. She is tachpyneic and tachycardic. Her troponin and BNP are normal. Echocardiography demonstrates an RV/LV ratio of 1. Which of the following is true?
- A.
She has a low-risk PE
- B.
She has a high-risk PE
- C.
Catheter-directed lysis will likely reduce her 7 day mortality
- D.
Catheter-directed lysis will likely reduce her RV/LV ratio in 24 hours
- 24.The ULTIMA trial demonstrated which of the following?
- A.
No significant difference in 24 hour echocardiographic outcomes between patients treated with CDT and those treated with heparin alone
- B.
No significant difference in 90 day RV/LV ratio between those treated with CDT and those treated with heparin alone
- C.
Lower mortality in patients treated with CDT
- D.
Higher major bleeding rates in patients treated with CDT
- 25.A 45 year old man with a history of femoropopliteal DVT has a Villalta score of 9, 6 months after the acute event. This is his second VTE event. Which of the following should be part of his management?
- A.
Hypercoagulable testing
- B.
Cessation of anticoagulation
- C.
Assessment of his iliac veins
- D.
Round the clock use of compressive therapy
Questions: 28 | Attempts: 97655 | Last updated: Oct 30, 2021
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