Radiology Inservice Exam Question Bank

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1. Concerning radionuclide myocardial perfusion imaging which one of the following is NOT associated with an inferior wall perfusion defect on a stress Tc-99m sestamibi SPECT study?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. Inferior wall ischemia characteristically produces a perfusion defect in this region on stress myocardial perfusion images. In the case of reversible ischemia the defect would be expected to resolve on a resting study.
B: Incorrect. An area of prior myocardial infarction typically produces a “fixed” perfusion defect which would be visible both on stress and resting images. Thus from evaluation of stress images alone it cannot be differentiated from a defect due to exercise-induced ischemia as in item A .
C: Correct. Left bundle branch block may be the result of myocardial ischemia or infarction or may be an incidental finding. It may produce perfusion abnormalities on myocardial perfusion scintigraphy in the absence of coronary artery disease. When it produces abnormalities the most common finding is a reversible perfusion defect in the interventricular septum not in the inferior wall. In patients with known left bundle branch block it is preferable to perform a pharmacologic stress test using dipyridamole or adenosine rather than treadmill exercise in conjunction with the imaging since this artifact is more commonly associated with the latter procedure.
D: Incorrect. Diaphragmatic attenuation artifact commonly produces apparent defects in the inferior wall. These defects may or may not be present both on stress and resting images and may be suspected by inspection of planar rotating images from the raw data set. This artifact most often occurs in male patients and is more common in obese patients as well.

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Ultrasound Quizzes & Trivia

The 'Radiology Inservice Exam Question Bank' assesses knowledge in diagnostic imaging through ultrasound, targeting common and complex cases in radiology. It is designed for radiology professionals to evaluate... see moretheir expertise in interpreting diverse ultrasound scenarios. see less

2. Which is an appropriate use of F-18 fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG) PET imaging in breast carcinoma?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. FDG PET imaging is not an appropriate or approved study for breast cancer screening. Screening is best done by self-examination and periodic mammography which are more sensitive and cost-effective approaches to breast cancer screening.
B: Incorrect. FDG PET imaging is less sensitive for the initial staging of breast cancer than lymphoscintigraphy with sentinel lymph node biopsy. Very high sensitivity is provided by the latter approach particularly when immunohistochemistry techniques are utilized. This approach to staging is rapidly becoming the standard of care for these patients.
C: Incorrect. FDG PET imaging is not capable of differentiating between a solitary pulmonary metastasis and a primary lung tumor. In most cases both lesions are associated with increased glucose metabolism and thus increased FDG uptake.
D: Correct. As is true for a number of neoplasms FDG PET imaging is very sensitive and specific for assessing the response to therapy in breast carcinoma whether performed after the completion of therapy (re-staging) or during the course of therapy (treatment monitoring).

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3. A post-menopausal woman with osteoporosis undergoes dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scanning demonstrating marked osteopenia of the lumbar spine and hip but normal bone density of the distal forearm. What is the BEST explanation for these findings?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. While it is true that it is preferable to scan the non-dominant forearm or hip in DEXA scanning and scanning the dominant side could produce a higher bone density value the differ-ences between the dominant and non-dominant sides are often minimal and this is therefore not the best explanation for the findings.
B: Correct. The bones of the extremities such as the radius and ulna are composed primarily of corti-cal bone and contain relatively less trabecular bone than either the spine or hip. Quantitatively the extremities account for the majority of the whole body bone mineral content. Thus bone density measurements of the forearm are most valuable in patients with metabolic bone disease or other conditions associated with decreases in total skeletal calcium content. Post-menapausal osteoporosis preferentially involves the trabecular bone initially which is present in higher percentages in the vertebral bodies and femoral neck regions. Therefore forearm measurements tend to be relatively insensitive for the early detection of post-menopausal osteoporosis.
C: Incorrect. In fact the opposite is true. The presence of arthritic changes is most often associated with falsely elevated bone density measurements especially in the spine secondary to increased bone density at sites of spurring or sclerosis associated with arthritic involvement.
D: Incorrect. Again the opposite is true. Moving from proximal to distal in the forearm there is a pro-gressive increase in the relative trabecular bone content. Typically bone density measurements of the forearm are performed in the distal third of the radius and ulna in order to maximize the contri-bution of trabecular bone in the measurement. Scanning more distally may also be performed to further increase the percentage of trabecular bone being evaluated. Thus scanning more distally would tend to decrease the measured bone mineral density of the forearm.

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4. What is the most commonly cited threshold for the diagnosis of malignancy using standardized uptake value (SUV) on PET imaging for a solitary pulmonary nodule?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. The correct value is 2.5.
B: Incorrect. The correct value is 2.5.
C: Correct. Many malignant lesions will greatly exceed this value and some lesions with SUV values D: Incorrect. The correct value is 2.5.

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5. Concerning infection imaging with In-111 labeled leukocytes which one is CORRECT?

Explanation

A: Correct. While not the sole determinant of uptake the uptake of In-111 labeled leukocytes is dependent upon regional blood flow. For example a walled-off abscess without a direct blood sup-ply will not accumulate In-111 labeled leukocytes and may appear as a photopenic defect.
B: Incorrect. In-111 WBC imaging is very sensitive for active inflammatory bowel disease. It has advantages over Ga-67 citrate imaging in this clinical setting as a result of the absence of normal bowel uptake of the tracer.
C: Incorrect. Transient lung uptake can be seen 4 hours after injection or even longer sometimes mak-ing the diagnosis of pulmonary infection difficult.
D: Incorrect. In-111 WBC’s are less sensitive than Ga-67 citrate for detecting chest infections such as PCP. As a result Ga-67 citrate imaging is preferred in the clinical settings of suspected chest infec-tion or in immunocompromised patients presenting with fever of unknown origin.

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6. The Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) mandates daily performance testing of the ioniza-tion chamber radioisotope dose calibrator for which one of the following?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. Assessment of the effects of geometry is required at time of initial setup or after alter-ation/repair of well calibrator only. This insures that variations in radioactive dose volume or posi-tion in counting chamber will not produce aberrant dose determination.
B: Correct. This daily mandated test measures instrument precision and is designed to show repro-ducible readings day after day on all clinical energy settings. This is essentially a mini-accuracy test that does not account for half-life of long-lived low medium and high energy sealed standards. More or less rigor is applied depending on whether a single 137Cs source is counted in all standard energy settings (Tc99m 201TI 123I 131I etc.) and the same reading is compared day to day or a more elaborate daily count of multiple sealed sources (57Co 133Ba 137Cs) is obtained. No more than a 5% daily count rate variation is allowable.
C: Incorrect. Sequential assay of count rates of the same radioisotope from low to high activity usually by counting an initially high activity Tc-99m source as it decays over 48 hours. This multi-day study can’t be performed daily and is usually performed at installation quarterly thereafter and whenever the device undergoes repair.
D: Incorrect. Designed to insure correct readings throughout the entire energy spectrum clinically encountered this rigorous test requires reproduction of count rates with low medium and high energy sealed standard sources 57Ba 137Cs. This elaborate test is performed at installation of the device annually thereafter and whenever the device undergoes repair.

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7. For the man-made radiation contributions to the background radiation in the United States which of the following represents the MOST significant source of exposure to the U.S. population?

Explanation

A: Correct. Medical x-rays are the most significant source of man-made radiation sources. They con-tribute an annual effective dose of 0.39 mSv or 39 mrem to the U.S. population.
B: Incorrect. Radon is a naturally occurring source of radiation.
C: Incorrect. High-altitude air travel adds to an individual’s cosmic ray exposure and is of very small quantity.
D: Incorrect. Nuclear does not contribute as much as medical x-rays as a source of exposure to the U.S. population. They contribute an annual effective dose of 0.14 mSv or 14 mrem to the U.S. population.

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8. Which one of the following sets of I-123 thyroid scintigraphy findings and history of radiation exposure is associated with the LOWEST relative risk for thyroid carcinoma?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. This combination of scan findings and history is associated with the highest relative like-lihood of malignancy of all those listed in the range of 40%.
B: Correct. The finding of multiple cold nodules without prior radiation exposure is consistent with a non-specific multinodular goiter and carries a risk of underlying malignancy of only ~ 5%.
C: Incorrect. While the absence of prior head and neck irradiation reduces the likelihood of malignan-cy the prevalence of malignancy in patients presenting with solitary cold thyroid nodules is still in the range of about 15-20% overall.
D: Incorrect. The history of prior head and neck irradiation significantly increases the likelihood of malignancy in a patient with a solitary cold nodule with the likelihood being somewhere in the range of 30-40% slightly lower than for option A .

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9. Which one of the following is NOT a normal site of F-18 fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG) localization?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. Symmetrical salivary gland uptake is a normal finding on FDG PET imaging.
B: Correct. The gallbladder is not a normal site of FDG localization. Increased uptake in the gallbladder suggests the presence of cholecystitis or a neoplastic process within the gallbladder.
C: Incorrect. While variable in intensity and extent colonic uptake of FDG is normal.
D: Incorrect. Renal uptake is almost always visualized on FDG PET studies. Renal excretion into the collecting systems and bladder is also seen in the majority of cases.

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10. A patient with pernicious anemia had a normal Stage 1 Schilling Test. Which one of the following could explain the result?

Explanation

A: Correct. The situation described is one where the test yields a false-negative result in a patient with pernicious anemia (as indicated in the history). Measurement of the excreted Cobalt-57 labeled vita-min B-12 is performed by counting the urine. Typical window settings used for counting are 50-200 keV for the 122 and 136-keV photons of Cobalt-57. The presence of other radioactive material in the urine that emits photons within the acceptance window will increase the measured counts and can result in an inaccurate determination of the excretion of the radiolabeled vitamin B-12.
B: Incorrect. The situation described is one where the test result is a false-negative. Incomplete urine collection could result in a low measured excretion and a false positive (not a false negative) result
C: Incorrect. The situation described is one where the test result is a false-negative. Prior resection of terminal ileum could result in a reduced absorption of the orally administered vitamin B-12 and thereby a low excretion
D: Incorrect. The situation described is one where the test result is a false-negative. Prior vitamin B-12 therapy may result in a low measured excretion and a false positive study. The patient should not receive parental vitamin B-12 for at least 3 days prior to the study. Biliary excretion of the previous-ly administered vitamin B-12 may decrease the fractional absorption of the test dose. If it does not get absorbed it cannot get excreted into the urine so measured excretion will be low.

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11. In nuclear medicine what is the main difference between an intrinsic uniformity and extrinsic uniformity quality control test?

Explanation

A: Correct. The intrinsic uniformity or flood test is performed without the collimator and is an indica-tion of the uniformity of the camera itself. The extrinsic test is performed with the collimator on using a large flood source.
B: Incorrect. Either source material may be used. Typically a syringe of Tc-99m at a distance several time larger than the camera crystal is used for the intrinsic test and the extrinsic test is performed with a large water and Tc-99m filled flood source or a solid Co-57 flood source.
C: Incorrect. Internal electronic checks are different from the measured uniformity tests.
D: Incorrect. There are no internal radiation sources to a gamma camera used for uniformity testing.

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12. Concerning the presence of hydrolyzed reduced Tc-99m in a dose of Tc-99m MDP (methylene diphosphonate) administered intravenously for a bone scan which is CORRECT?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. Hydrolyzed reduced technetium-99m is a colloidal impurity that results in hepatic and reticuloendothelial visualization not thyroid visualization which is typical of the presence of free pertechnetate as an impurity.
B: Incorrect. Only chromatography pre-imaging will detect this radiopharmaceutical impurity.
C: Incorrect. On the contrary Sn(II)ion is a reducing agent protecting MDP from hydrolysis.
D: Correct. The introduction of air into a multidose MDP vial is the most frequent cause of this hydrolyzed technetium-99m contaminant. The more violations of the vial the more likely air will be introduced.

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13. Concerning treatment of intractable pain from widespread metastatic bone lesions with Metastron® (Sr-89) and Quadramet® (Sm-153) which one is CORRECT?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. Metastron is a pure beta emitter. The absence of an imagable gamma photon precludes verification of bone lesion uptake. By contrast Sm-153 has an imagable gamma photon energy of 103 keV permitting bone scintigraphy to be performed in conjunction with the therapeutic proce-dure.
B: Incorrect. While it is true that the half-life of Metastron is significantly longer resulting in more prolonged lesion irradiation the clinical efficacy of both treatments are quite similar.
C: Incorrect. Due to bremsstrahlung production of high energy photons when high atomic number material (eg. lead) is used for shielding acrylics are the preferred material for handling of these materials. Materials with lower atomic numbers such as plastic or acrylics make ideal shields. In addition bremsstrahlung production is proportional to the atomic number which is lower for these materials.
D: Correct. The major limitation of both therapies is myelosuppression. Metastron causes 15-30% drops in the platelet and WBC counts from pre-injection values and Quadramet 40-50%. However 8-12 weeks are required for full bone marrow recovery from Metastron versus only 6-8 weeks for Quadramet.

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14. Reduced occipital lobe glucose metabolism on F-18 FDG (fluorodeoxyglucose) cerebral PET imaging is MOST common in which one of the following progressive dementias?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. Alzheimer’s dementia at the earliest stages is associated with temporoparietal and later frontal lobe FDG hypometabolism with typical sparing of sensorimotor and visual cortex (occipital lobe).
B: Incorrect. Pick’s disease is a degenerative dementia predominately involving frontal and temporal lobes. Frontal hypometabolism precedes development of temporal hypometabolism. The visual cor-tex is generally uninvolved.
C: Incorrect. Parkinson’s dementia is a late manifestation of a neurodegenerative disease primarily affecting the basal ganglia. There is occasional involvement of the occipital cortex although tem-poroparietal hypometabolism pattern similar to that of Alzheimer’s but with additional striatal hypometabolism is a more common FDG pattern.
D: Correct. Decreasing cognitive function accompanied by visual disturbance including hallucinations is common presentation in diffuse Lewy body disease (DLBD) which is becoming more widely recognized and accounts for up to 20% of all autopsy confirmed dementias. Medical and lateral occipital lobe FDG metabolism is more severely reduced in DLBD than other dementias. When identified on FDG PET images cholinergic therapy has been useful in controlling the disease.

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15. Concerning the biodistribution of Indium-111 ibritumomab tiuxetan (Zevalin®) 48 hours following intravenous administration which one is CORRECT?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. The cardiac blood pool activity gradually decreases with time as Zevalin is distributed to the other organs and a small component is excreted. Persistent but decreased blood pool activity is normal at 48 hours. The development of a HAMA response occurs in B: Incorrect. The Zevalin therapeutic regime should not be given to patient’s with greater than or equal to 25% lymphoma marrow involvement. Altered biodistribution is suggested with rapid blood pool clearance and increased marrow uptake.
C: Incorrect. Normal renal activity with Indium-111 Zevalin is generally manifested as faint activity (moderately low to very low activity) which is much less intense than hepatic uptake. Altered renal biodistribution is present if renal activity greater than liver is demonstrated on the posterior images.
D: Correct. Bowel activity is common and normal. However normal gastrointestinal biodistribution is activity that is less intense than liver and decreases over time (moderately low to very low intensi-ty). Bowel activity more intense than hepatic uptake is indicative of altered biodistribution.

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16. A 34-year-old male presented with symptoms of irregular heartbeat and tremor. Thyroid function tests revealed an elevated serum T3 normal T4 and reduced TSH. The 24 hour I-123 thyroid uptake was < 1%. Based on these results and the accompanying I-123 thyroid images (Figure 1A: anterior image of neck with radioactive markers around the chin and at the sternal notch and Figure 1B: anterior image of the neck without markers) which one of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. While the patient’s symptoms and laboratory findings are consistent with hyperthyroidism the markedly reduced I-123 thyroid uptake and near non-visualization of the thyroid on I-123 imaging are not consistent with Graves’ disease in which an elevated uptake and an enlarged thyroid with diffusely increased uptake on thyroid imaging would be expected.
B: Incorrect. Acute bacterial thyroiditis presents with fever elevated white blood cell count and focal tenderness over a portion of the gland. The thyroid uptake is variable and thyroid imaging would most likely demonstrate a focal hypofunctioning (“cold”) nodule with normal visualization of the remainder of the gland.
C: Incorrect. Plummer’s disease is toxic nodular goiter. The thyroid uptake may be normal or mildly increased in this disorder but would not be decreased. I-123 thyroid imaging in Plummer’s disease demonstrates one or more focal areas of increased tracer uptake with associated areas of suppression of uptake in other parts of the gland findings which are not present in this case.
D: Correct. Subacute or painless thyroiditis is the most likely etiology for these findings. In this viral disorder there is diffuse or focal inflammation of the gland with release of pre-formed thyroid hormone into the circulation during the acute phase resulting in signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism and elevated thyroid function tests as in this case. There is markedly reduced synthesis of new thyroid hormone by the gland with associated decreased thyroid uptake and poor visualization of the thyroid on I-123 or Tc-99m pertechnetate thyroid imaging. These findings may also be seen in thyrotoxicosis factitia (intake of exogenous thyroid hormone) or in patients with ectopic thyroid hormone production (eg. struma ovarii) but these conditions were not listed as possible answers.
E: Incorrect. Recent iodinated contrast administration may result in a falsely low I-123 thyroid uptake measurement secondary to flooding of the extracellular iodine pool with non-radioactive iodine. In turn poor visualization or non-visualization of the thyroid on thyroid scintigraphy may result. However in most cases these findings would not be associated with clinical evidence of hyperthyroidism as is present in this case.

Findings: There is near-complete non -visualization of the thyroid on I-123 imaging (Figures 1A & 1B) with only faint visualization of the gland which appears grossly normal in size. Thyroid morphology cannot accurately be assessed.

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17. A 57-year-old male presented with a 4 cm right upper lobe pulmonary mass on an outside chest radiograph and chest CT scan. The CT study demonstrated no evidence of mediastinal or hilar adenopathy. You are shown representative coronal transaxial and sagittal images from an F-18 fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG) PET scan (Figure 2A) and the complete series of coronal images (Figures 2B and 2C). The lesion demonstrated a standardized uptake value (SUV) of 7.2. Based upon these findings which one of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. The right upper lobe lesion is highly suspicious for bronchogenic carcinoma especially in light of the SUV value of 7.2. However in the absence of mediastinal or hilar adenopathy this lesion is not consistent with Stage IIIA disease which includes patients with primary lesions of any size but only those with ipsilateral mediastinal or hilar adenopathy.
B: Correct. On the basis of this PET scan this patient has a T2 N0 M0 lesion which is consistent with Stage 1B involvement. Despite its 4 cm size only a primary lesion with evidence of invasion of the mediastinum heart great vessels trachea esophagus vertebral body carina or lesions associated with additional tumor nodules or malignant pleural effusions can be placed into the category of Stage III disease without evidence of adenopathy.
C: Incorrect. Lymphomas are in general very FDG-avid. However the MALT type lesion has been shown to be much less FDG-avid than other cell types and FDG PET imaging is not recommended for patients with this disorder. Furthermore a large focal lung nodule would represent an unusual manifestation of lymphoma in any case even for FDG-avid cell types.
D: Incorrect. Mildly increased FDG uptake may occur in infectious and granulomatous processes including histoplasmosis tuberculosis and others. Such occurrences may result in false positive PET scans for bronchogenic carcinoma. However FDG uptake in such lesions is usually mild typically with SUV values E: Incorrect. Bronchoalveolar carcinoma demonstrates variable FDG uptake and has been reported to be a common cause of a false negative FDG PET scan in bronchogenic carcinoma. The presentation of a solitary large focal pulmonary nodule is not the most common appearance for bronchoalveolar carcinoma. Furthermore it is less common than other cell types of bronchogenic carcinoma and this diagnosis would therefore be less likely than other cells types of non-small cell or small cell carcinoma.

Findings: There is a large focal area of markedly increased FDG uptake in the right upper lobe corresponding to the site of the patient’s known pulmonary nodule on prior imaging studies. There is no evidence of mediastinal or hilar lymphadenopathy. No additional pulmonary nodules are identified. The remaining areas of FDG uptake (eg. liver heart bowel kidneys bone marrow) represent normal sites of uptake.

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18. A 43-year-old female with a history of ovarian carcinoma presented with shortness of breath and low-grade fever following a long airplane ride. You are shown posterior Xe-133 ventilation images (Figure 3A) Tc-99m MAA perfusion images (Figure 3B) and a concurrent PA and lateral chest radiograph (Figures 3C and 3D). Which one of the following BEST characterizes the overall findings in this case?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. The V/Q scan findings of a single moderate ventilation-perfusion mismatch are not consistent with a high probability for pulmonary embolism using any of the commonly employed criteria for interpretation of these studies. Both the modified PIOPED criteria and modified Biello criteria categorize such cases as intermediate probability for pulmonary embolism.
B: Correct. As discussed in item A above a single moderate V/Q mismatch is consistent with an intermediate probability for pulmonary embolism using the two most prevalent sets of diagnostic criteria currently in use. In published retrospective and prospective studies approximately one-third of such cases have been associated with pulmonary embolism on pulmonary angiography.
C: Incorrect. Again a single moderate subsegmental V/Q matching defect is consistent with an intermediate probability for pulmonary embolism both in the modified PIOPED and modified Biello diagnostic criteria. The original PIOPED study incorrectly classified these cases as low probability an error which was corrected when the criteria were subsequently modified following the study.
D: Incorrect. This ventilation-perfusion lung scan demonstrates abnormalities on both the ventilation and perfusion portions of the exam. It is not a normal study.
E: Incorrect. The pattern of perfusion abnormality in this case is not suggestive of lymphangitic carcinomatosis. In that entity the perfusion images typically produce a diffuse pattern of irregularity with numerous small subsegmental perfusion defects corresponding to the interlobular septae. This pattern of abnormality has been termed “contour mapping”. It is not present in this case nor is there an interstitial pattern of pulmonary parenchymal abnormality on the chest radiography to suggest this entity.

Findings: The Xe-133 ventilation study (Figure 3A) demonstrates only mild xenon retention bilaterally most striking at the lung bases. The Tc-99m MAA perfusion images (Figure 3B) demonstrate a single moderate subsegmental perfusion defect in the lateral basal segment of the left lower lobe which does not correspond to a focal ventilatory defect on the ventilation study. The chest radiograph demonstrates no focal infiltrates or pleural effusions.

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19. A 15-year-old female volleyball player presented with low back pain without a specific incident of trauma. You are presented with AP and lateral radiographs of the lumbar spine (Figures 4A and 4B) anterior and posterior planar spot images (Figure 4C) and coronal transaxial and sagittal SPECT images from a Tc-99m MDP radionuclide bone scan (Figures 4D - 4F). No other lesions were present elsewhere in the skeleton. Which one of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?

Explanation

A: Correct. The findings described above are typical for a stress fracture of the left pars interarticularis of L5 a common injury occurring in children involved in athletic activities such as gymnastics volleyball etc. Radiographs may or may not demonstrate a pars defect and in the case of bilateral pars defects spondylolysis may also be present. SPECT imaging is useful in detecting subtle lesions not evident on planar views as well as localizing the lesion to the region of the pars. Increased bone turnover in the site of the lesion suggests that it is the etiology for the patient’s symptoms of localized back pain.
B: Incorrect. Osteoid osteoma can occur in the spine and may be associated with focal areas of increased uptake on bone scintigraphy. However it is less likely to be associated with normal radiographs usually presenting with a focal area of sclerosis sometimes with a visible central radiolucent nidus. It commonly presents with rigid painful scoliosis and may have the classic presentation of pain worse at night and relieved by aspirin. It is less common than a stress fracture of the pars especially in the present clinical setting.
C: Incorrect. Ewing’s sarcoma is uncommon relative to stress fractures and the vertebral column is an uncommon site of involvement. When arising in the vertebral column the sacrum is the most common site. It is often associated with a long history of pain a soft tissue mass and in many cases associated systemic symptoms. Vertebral involvement most often involves the vertebral bodies primarily may be associated with vertebral collapse and is not usually associated with normal radiographic findings. Ewing’s sarcoma is associated with markedly increased uptake of Tc-99m MDP although usually the lesion is much larger at presentation.
D: Incorrect. Vertebral osteomyelitis is usually located in the vertebral bodies and may also spread to the intervertebral disc spaces. Radiographic findings include areas of bone destruction and/or sclerosis similar to the findings of osteomyelitis in other regions of the skeleton. Fever leukocytosis and systemic symptoms are often present. Vertebral osteomyelitis is less common than stress fractures and does not fit the present clinical setting well. Again normal radiographic findings would not be expected with vertebral osteomyelitis.
E: Incorrect. Findings that may be seen in ankylosing spondylitis include increased uptake in the sacro-iliac joints focal areas of increased uptake in the apophyseal joints increased uptake in the intervertebral disc spaces and other sites of arthritic involvement in the peripheral joints and costovertebral and sternoclavicular joints. These findings are not present in this case. While this patient is at the lower end of the typical age range for this disorder ankylosing spondylitis is more common in males and is far less common than post-traumatic injuries.

Findings: The AP and lateral radiographs of the lumbar spine (Figures 4A and 4B) demonstrate very mild scoliosis of the lower lumbar spine possibly positional. Anterior and posterior planar Tc-99m MDP bone images (Figure 4C) demonstrate a focal area of increased tracer uptake at L5 on the left best seen on the posterior image. The coronal transaxial and sagittal SPECT images (Figures 4D-4F) localize this finding to the region of the lamina in the expected location of the pars interarticularis.

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20. A 26-year-old woman presents with vaginal spotting (Figures 7 and 8). Which of the following BEST describes the findings? Figure 7-Sagittal endovaginal US of the uterus Figure 8-Coronal endovaginal US of the uterus

Explanation

A: The sagittal and coronal ultrasound of the uterus shows a small fluid collection surrounded by an echogenic ring. This echogenic ring confirms that we are dealing with a small gestational sac. This gestational sac is seen separate from the endometrial cavity represented by the echogenic line. The gestational sac is in a subendometrial location within the prominent decidua. This is the earliest manifestation of an intrauterine pregnancy that can be seen on transvaginal ultrasound at 3.5 to 4 weeks menstrual age.
B: Endometriotic cysts also known as endometriomas or chocolate cysts form as a result of endometriosis and typically develop on the surface of the ovaries.
C: The pseudogestational sac sign refers to a fluid collection within the endometrial collection. There is fluid sometimes complex fluid within the endometrial complex surrounded by a single echogenic ring and the endometrial stripe is not seen separately because the fluid is actually within the endometrial cavity.
D: This is not fluid in the endometrium as was discussed above. There is no reason to suspect cervical stenosis in this young woman.

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21. Regarding ventilation-perfusion scintigraphy which of the following findings is associated with the IG EST likelihood of acute pulmonary embolism?

Explanation

A: Although classically all triple matched findings (ie. corresponding ventilation perfusion and radiographic abnormalities) are consistent with an intermediate probability for pulmonary embolism according to the revised PIOPED criteria a triple match in the upper lobes is much less likely to be due to pulmonary embolism than a lower lobe triple match. This finding is consistent with the fact that pulmonary emboli occur much more commonly in the lower lobes than the upper lobes most likely as a result of the relatively greater blood flow to those areas.
B: A lower lobe triple match is more likely to be associated with pulmonary embolism than an upper lobe match and according to the modified PIOPED criteria is more worrisome than the finding of a triple match overall which is generally considered to be consistent with an intermediate probability for pulmonary embolism.
C: A whole-lung V/Q match is most often associated with primary ventilatory disorders associated with secondary reflex vasoconstriction such as airway obstruction due to central foreign bodies mucus plugging endobronchial masses or other unilateral primary ventilatory disorders such as Swyer-James Syndrome. This finding is consistent with a low probability for acute pulmonary embolism.
D: While classically this finding is consistent with an intermediate probability for pulmonary embolism in general the larger the corresponding pleural effusion the less likely it is due to pulmonary embolism.

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22. You are shown grayscale (left) and power Doppler (right) ultrasound images (Figure 6) of the groin in a patient who has undergone recent cardiac catheterization. Which of the following would be the BEST method of management for the ultrasound finding?

Explanation

A: This is correct as the ultrasound demonstrates a normal lymph node.

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23. Concerning prospective ECG gating in cardiac CT imaging which of the following is TRUE?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. In prospective ECG gating (also known as ECG triggering) data acquisition is triggered to the R wave of the ECG so data is acquired at a pre specified time. The multi detector CT can be set up to record data at a certain time after the last R wave or before the next R wave of the ECG. Alternatively data can be acquired at a certain percentage of the time between two successive R waves.
B: Correct. Data is ideally only acquired when the heart is relatively motionless as in diastole. So there are parts of the ECG cycle in which data is not being acquired namely during systole (when the heart moves more).
C: Incorrect. Because there is 'missing' data one cannot do a volumetric assessment of the left ventricular cavity. In order to calculate ejection fraction one needs data from both diastole and systole so retrospective ECG gating is needed.
D: Incorrect. Retrospective ECG gating involves more radiation because data is acquired throughout the cardiac cycle. The patient is receiving ionizing radiation throughout the cardiac cycle. The person interpreting the study selects data from selected portions of the cardiac cycle (such as in diastole when the heart is relatively motionless).
References: (1) Wintersperger BJ Nikolaou K. Basics of Cardiac MDCT: techniques and contrast application. European Radiology 2005 15(2):B2-B9

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24. You are shown two images from a contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen (Figures 2A and 2B). What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

Explanation

A: Correct. The mass is nearly completely fat density when compared to subcutaneous fat.
B: Incorrect. Although renal cell carcinoma more commonly extends into the IVC and can contain a small amount of fat this mass has no significant soft tissue component.
C: Incorrect. Oncocytomas are not predominantly fat density and can have a central scar.
D: Incorrect. These masses are cystic and commonly extend into the renal pelvis and not the IVC.

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25. This 4-year-old boy presented with cough and fever. You are shown two CT images (Figures 5A and 5B). Which one of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?

Explanation

Pneumatoceles.
A: Correct. Cystic adenomatoid malformation is a mass of disorganized pulmonary tissue that has a normal communication with the bronchial tree and normal vascular supply and drainage. Three types of cystic adenomatoid malformation are recognized. Type I contains at least one dominant large cyst greater than 2 cm in diameter. Type II is comprised of many small cysts measuring 1 to 10 mm in diameter. Type III appears solid on visual inspection although microscopically there are multiple tiny cysts less than 2 mm in diameter. Most affected patients present in the neonatal period with respiratory distress. Later in life patients present with symptoms related to infection of the lesion as in the test patient. The classic CT appearance of cystic adenomatoid malformation in the neonate is a multilocular mass containing air-filled cysts surrounded by thin walls. Large lesions cause the mediastinum to shift to the opposite hemithorax. In the presence of infection the cysts have thick walls and are surrounded by soft tissue. The most likely diagnosis for the thick-walled multilocular mass in the test patient is an infected cystic adenomatoid malformation.
B: Incorrect. Pulmonary infarction is a rare disease in the pediatric population. Causes of infarction include the pulmonary vasculitides septic emboli and drug abuse. CT findings are a pleural-based wedge-shaped area of parenchymal consolidation with convex bulging borders. The apex of the opacity points toward the hilum. The CT findings in the test patient are not typical for infarction which makes this an unlikely diagnosis. The age of the patient and the absence of any predisposing causes also makes the diagnosis unlikely.
C: Incorrect. Lung abscess is a rare complication of bacterial pneumonitis. CT features include a low attenuation mass with a spherical shape an acute angle with the chest wall thick irregular walls and a poorly defined external surface. Pneumonic infiltrates adjacent to the abscess or elsewhere in the lung and pleural effusion are other common findings. A multilocular mass with otherwise normal lung parenchyma and pleura make abscess an unlikely diagnosis.
D: Incorrect. Necrotizing pneumonitis or cavitary pneumonia refers to an area of non-enhancing low-attenuation parenchyma with a variable number of thin-walled cavities. The decreased parenchymal enhancement after administration of intravenous contrast medium is most likely related to ischemia. With the exception of the multilocular mass the lung in the test patient is normal. There is no evidence of pneumonia. Therefore necrotizing pneumonia is not a good option.
E: Incorrect. Pneumatoceles result when there is obstruction of the smaller airways with destruction of the walls of the subtended alveoli and concomitant overinflation of alveolar spaces. Inflammatory pneumatoceles usually are the result of staphylococcal pneumonitis but they may be associated with other organisms such as Streptococcus pneumoniae Hemophilus influenzae and pneumocystis. In patients with staphylococcal pneumonitis pneumatoceles appear late in the first week of the illness and disappear within 6 weeks. CT findings are a uni- or multilocular cavitary mass with thin walls. Pneumonic infiltrates and pleural disease are also very common. The thick-walled lesion in the test patient and the absence of other pleuroparenchymal disease helps to exclude this diagnosis.

Findings: CT scans demonstrate multiple air-filled cysts with a surrounding rind of soft tissue in the left lower lobe.

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26. You are shown serial 5-minute anterior images and final right anterior oblique and right lateral images from a Tc-99m DISIDA hepatobiliary scan performed on a 55-year-old man with abdominal pain fever and ascites s/p paracentesis (Figures 2A and 2B). What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. The findings are not consistent with acute cholecystitis. There is prompt visualization of the gallbladder as early as 5-10 minute post-injection which essentially excludes acute cholecysti-tis. Furthermore acute cholecystitis does not explain the presence of biliary leakage present in this case. Perforation of the gallbladder may occur in gangrenous cholecystitis but that entity is virtual-ly always associated with cystic duct obstruction which would result in non-visualization of the gallbladder as well.
B: Correct. The findings in this case described above are consistent with a relatively large bile leak most likely arising in the region of the gallbladder fossa. In this case the findings may be secondary to trauma from paracentesis.
C: Incorrect. There is prolonged hepatic clearance and non-visualization of the small bowel both find-ings that occur in the presence of common bile duct obstruction. However in common duct obstruc-tion there is often complete non-visualization of the biliary tree including the gallbladder even in the absence of cholecystitis. In addition common duct obstruction is not usually associated with bil-iary leakage which is present in this case.
D: Incorrect. This study is not normal. A significant degree of biliary leakage is demonstrated as described above. Furthermore the images also demonstrate prolonged hepatic clearance and non-visualization of the small bowel both of which are also abnormal findings.

Findings: There is prompt hepatic uptake with early visualization of activity in the region of the gall-bladder fossa. Faint amorphous activity is noted inferior to the liver on the right beginning at 10 min-utes and better seen thereafter. In addition there is accumulation of activity throughout the peritoneal cavity beginning at 15 minutes post-injection and progressively increasing throughout the study. There is also the appearance of abnormal linear activity along the inferior margin of the left lobe of the liver beginning at 25-30 minutes into the study and progressively increasing in intensity. The right lateral image demonstrates activity spreading anterior to the liver also consistent with intraperitoneal biliary leakage. Hepatic clearance is also moderately prolonged.

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27. A 2-month-old male with marked hypertension is referred for captopril renography. You are shown serial 1-minute posterior pre- and post-captopril images (Figure 3). What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. Although initial (left) study appears symmetrically normal there is clearly a bilateral delay in cortical clearance and excretion on the post-captopril study.
B: Incorrect. In unilateral right renal artery stenosis ACE-inhibitor should create an asymmetric delay in right renal washout not the bilaterally delayed washout present in this case.
C: Incorrect. In unilateral left renal artery stenosis ACE-inhibitor should create an asymmetric delay in left renal washout not the bilaterally delayed washout present in this case.
D: Correct. The post-captopril study fails to demonstrate sequential right and left renal pelvis and bladder activity seen at midpoint of the baseline pre-captopril study. Administration of the ACE inhibitor has produced a symmetric delay in renal cortical clearance manifested by marked bilateral cortical retention and non-visualization of the renal pelves and bladder. These findings are typical for bilateral ACE-inhibition of compensatory post-glomerular vascular constriction with resultant delay in transcortical clearance in this child with bilateral congenital renal artery stenosis.

Findings: The baseline pre-captopril study demonstrates mildly decreased tracer uptake bilaterally with normal excretion. The post-captopril images demonstrate significant bilateral deterioration in excretion with marked cortical retention noted bilaterally.

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28. You are shown representative coronal transaxial and sagittal images from an F-18 FDG (fluorodeoxyglucose) PET scan (Figure 4). What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. The abnormal uptake in this case is located in the posterior mediastinum where adenopa-thy due to lymphoma may occur. However the linear configuration of the activity is characteristic of esophageal activity rather than the typical focal rounded appearance of adenopathy. Furthermore no other sites of adenopathy are present. The findings are characteristic of an esophageal neoplasm making squamous cell carcinoma or adenocarcinoma far more likely than lymphoma.
B: Incorrect. As discussed above the linear uptake located in the posterior mediastinum is characteris-tic in appearance for an esophageal neoplasm. There are no focal pulmonary nodules or foci of mediastinal or hilar adenopathy as would be anticipated in the presence of bronchogenic carcinoma.
C: Correct. The linear pattern of increased FDG uptake in the posterior mediastinum in the expected location of the esophagus is characteristic in appearance for an esophageal neoplasm most likely representing squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus.
D: Incorrect. Mildly increased uptake near the gastroesophageal junction may be seen as a normal vari-ant or in patients with gastroesophageal reflux. Mild diffuse esophageal uptake may also occur in esophagitis. The uptake in this case is far more intense than would be anticipated as a normal vari-ant and the location of the activity remote from the gastroesophageal junction is not consistent with a normal variant.

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29. A 28 year-old HIV positive woman presents with headache papilledema and a ring-enhancing right thalamic mass on CT (not shown). You are shown a transaxial Tl-201 chloride image of the brain (Figure 5). What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

Explanation

A: Correct. CNS lymphoma may produce a ring-enhancing lesion on CT and is thallium-avid. These findings are most consistent with CNS lymphoma arising in an immunocompromised host.
B: Incorrect. CMV is not thallium-avid as is the lesion in this case.
C: Incorrect. Toxoplasmosis can produce cerebral ring-enhancing CT lesion but it is not thallium-avid as is the lesion in this case.
D: Incorrect. The focal area of increased tracer uptake in the midline basal ganglia region represents a striking abnormality which is not attributable to any normal finding. This is not a normal study.

Findings: Transaxial Tl-201 chloride SPECT images of the brain demonstrate a focal area of increased tracer uptake near the midline in the region of the CT lesion in the basal ganglia.

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30. You are shown representative coronal transaxial and sagittal tomographic radionuclide images (Figure 6). Which one of the following radiotracers was MOST LIKELY utilized for this study?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. The normal biodistribution of Tc-99m methylene diphosphonate (MDP) includes the axial and appendicular skeleton kidneys and bladder. The liver spleen mediastinum and brain which are visualized in this case are not seen on a normal bone scintigram.
B: Incorrect. The normal biodistribution of Tc-99m sulfur colloid includes intense liver and spleen activity. Less intense activity is identified in the central bone marrow (skull ribs sternum vertebral bodies pelvis proximal humeri and femora). The most intense activity in this study is osseous. Moderate activity is seen within the spleen and low level activity in the liver mediastinum and brain. This biodistribution is not typical for sulfur colloid.
C: Correct. The normal biodistribution of F-18 fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG) is accumulation in the brain myocardium blood vessels pharynx liver spleen bone marrow kidneys ureters urinary bladder and GI tract. Intense marrow uptake is seen in this patient with lymphoma after administra-tion of granulocyte colony stimulating factor (G-CSF) which is given to support bone marrow func-tion following therapy. Normal marrow uptake is usually less intense than hepatic uptake. While this distribution is not normal it is more characteristic of FDG than any of the other tracers listed.
D: Incorrect. The normal biodistribution of F-18 sodium fluoride is osseous with uptake dependent on regional blood flow and osteoblastic activity by chemisorption. Hydroxyl groups are exchanged to form fluoroapatite in the hydroxyapatite crystals. Because of the superior spatial resolution and three-dimensional localization afforded by PET imaging there is a high sensitivity for the detection of metabolically active skeletal lesions using F-18 sodium fluoride.

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31. Concerning subacute thyroiditis serum thyroid hormone levels are elevated as the result of which one of the following?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. Thyroid hormone production is reduced in subacute thyroiditis. The elevated thyroid function tests and signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism that occur early in the disorder are relat-ed to release of pre-formed thyroid hormone into the circulation from the inflamed thyroid gland.
B: Incorrect. The increased thyroid hormone levels produced by the release of pre-formed hormone into the circulation results in a feedback inhibition of TSH secretion by the pituitary resulting in decreased serum TSH levels.
C: Correct. Subacute thyroiditis is a viral disorder often following a recent upper respiratory infec-tion. The inflammatory response in the gland results in increased permeability and increased release of pre-formed thyroid hormone into the circulation from the colloid. The increased serum thyroid hormone levels in turn result in clinical evidence of hyperthyroidism despite a low thyroid uptake.
D: Incorrect. The pathophysiology of subacute thyroiditis does not involve abnormalties in iodine metabolism per se. The acute inflammatory response in this disorder is associated with decreased iodide uptake and organification during the early stage of the disease.

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32. Gallium-67 citrate scintigraphy is preferred over In-111 leukocyte scintigraphy in which one of the following entities?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. While both radiopharmaceuticals are efficacious for the detection of abdominal abscesses Indium-111 leukocyte imaging is often preferred as the result of the absence of potentially confus-ing normal bowel activity as occurs in Gallium-67 scintigraphy. This normal bowel uptake may lead to false positive gallium studies.
B: Incorrect. Indium-111 leukocyte imaging is superior to gallium-67 scintigraphy in the evaluation of suspected infected joint prostheses in part related to the bone seeking properties of gallium leading to potential false positive gallium studies due to increased tracer localization secondary to increased bone turnover in the absence of infection.
C: Correct. While sensitive for osteomyelitis Indium-111 leukocyte scintigraphy has been found to be less sensitive than gallium-67 scintigraphy for the detection of disc space infection.
D: Incorrect. Again the absence of normal bowel localization makes In-111 leukocyte scintigraphy better suited to the assessment of active inflammatory bowel disease. In gallium-67 scintigraphy normal bowel uptake especially in the colon can be incorrectly attributed to inflammatory bowel disease.

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33. Concerning the presence of multiple focal “hot spots” on a Tc-99m macroaggregated albumin (MAA) scan which one of the following is CORRECT?

Explanation

A: Correct. The finding of focal “hot spots” on a Tc-99m MAA scan indicates the aggregation of the radiopharmaceutical into larger particles which lodge in the pulmonary vascular bed. This artifact may be produced by drawing blood back into the syringe during injection or by failing to resuspend the particles prior to injection in the event the dose is left sitting for a prolonged time after being drawn up. While it is not associated with any adverse effects in the patient these foci of increased activity may obscure portions of the underlying lungs resulting in the need to repeat the study after significant radioactive decay has occurred.
B: Incorrect. While technically these foci do represent small iatrogenic pulmonary emboli they are virtually never associated with any clinically demonstrable adverse effects. In general pulmonary perfusion imaging with Tc-99m MAA is associated with transient occlusion of less the 0.1% of the pulmonary capillary bed. Thus this occurrence is unlikely to produce acute hypoxemia.
C: Incorrect. While these “hot spots” may obscure underlying detail in evaluating pulmonary perfu-sion they are not associated with artifactual perfusion defects that would produce a false positive study.
D: Incorrect. Pulmonary AVMs are associated with right to left shunting permitting Tc-99m MAA par-ticles to bypass the pulmonary capillary bed. Thus AVMs would tend to produce focal perfusion defects rather than focal areas of increased tracer localization.

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34. Concerning the analysis of radionuclide gated blood pool (MUGA) studies which one of the following will result in an UNDERESTIMATION of the left ventricular ejection fraction?

Explanation

A: Placement of the background ROI over the spleen will result in excessive background subtraction. The relative effect of the extra background subtraction will be greater on the systolic ROI which has fewer counts and therefore will not “cancel out”. Thus the denominator of the ejection fraction equation will be relatively reduced resulting in an artifactually elevated rather than reduced.
B: Too small of a systolic region will result in exclusion of value counts from the systolic region mak-ing the percentage change between systolic and diastolic counts appear to be larger than it actually is. Again this error would result in an artifactually elevated calculated ejection fraction.
C: This technique was initially used when the procedure was originally introduced. However by using the same region for both measurements the systolic region extends beyond the actual margins of the ventricle in end-systole thus including background counts from adjacent structures making the apparent ejection fraction artifactually too low. For this reason the standard method of analysis at present requires assignment of separate diastolic and systolic regions of interest in order to improve the accuracy of the measurement.
D: Inclusion of a portion of the left atrium in the diastolic region of interest will have the effect of introducing additional counts into the region that are not valid ventricular counts. Thus the apparent total end-diastolic counts will be inappropriately high resulting in an apparent higher percentage of ventricular emptying and a falsely elevated ejection fraction calculation. Distractors: SCORE ALL CHOICES AS CORRECT

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35. A 46-year-old female underwent a living-related donor renal transplant placed in the left iliac fossa and presented 5 days post-operatively with the acute onset of markedly reduced urine output and elevated serum creatinine. You are presented with an anterior flow study (Figure 5A) and serial static anterior images of the abdomen and pelvis (Figure 5B) from a Tc-99m MAG-3 renal scan. Which one of the following is the BEST interpretation for these findings?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. Post-operative ATN is present immediately after transplantation and a 5 day delay before the onset of symptoms would not be expected. In addition ATN is usually associated with disproportionate impairment of renal tubular function with relatively preserved perfusion which is not present in this case. It is also usually less striking in the case of living-related donor transplantation in which cases the ischemic time of the donor kidney is minimized.
B: Incorrect. Renal artery stenosis is a later complication of transplantation and would not be expected within the first post-operative week. The high-grade degree of impaired perfusion in this case is also not typical for renal artery stenosis.
C: Incorrect. Immunosuppressive drug toxicity similar to ATN is most often associated with a disproportionate impairment of renal tubular function relative to perfusion which is not the case in this instance. Complete lack of perfusion to the renal transplant is not an expected finding with drug toxicity.
D: Incorrect. Complete obstruction of the transplanted kidney could conceivably produce these findings. However it would be unusual to see complete non-perfusion and non-function of the transplant as is present in this case. Acute rejection is a more likely etiology for these findings.
E: Correct. Severe acute or accelerated rejection is the most likely explanation for these findings. Rejection is typically associated with impairment both of perfusion and tubular function of the transplanted kidney and is consistent with the time course in this case. While much less common in living-related donor transplants it can occur even in this setting. The most likely differential diagnostic possibility would be acute occlusion or disruption of the renal vessels which is not one of the options listed.

Findings: The flow study (Figure 5A) demonstrates no evidence of perfusion to the transplanted kidney in the left iliac fossa. The delayed static images (Figure 5B) demonstrate increased background activity and photopenic areas in the configuration of bowel loops without visualization of the renal transplant.

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36. Concerning occupational radiation dose limits once the technologist declares her pregnancy what is the maximum permissible allowed dose in mSv to the embryo/fetus for the entire 9 months?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. This limit is for any one month during pregnancy
B: Correct. The nuclear regulatory commission (NRC) limits the dose to an embryo/fetus to be not more than 5 mSv or 500 mrem for entire 9 months.
C: Incorrect. The limit of 50 mSv applies to occupational exposures and not to fetus exposure.
D: Incorrect. See rationale in B .

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37. What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis in this 30-year-old woman (Figures 1 and 2)?Figure 1-Transabdominal image of left ovaryFigure 2-Transabdominal image of right ovary

Explanation

A: With polycystic ovary disease the ovaries are more modestly increased in size with multiple small peripheral cysts and increased central stroma. These images demonstrate multiple larger diffuse ovarian cysts with associated free fluid which is more typical for theca-lutein cysts associated with ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome.
B: Although serous cystadenomas can be associated with ascites and can rarely be bilateral they are typically a unilocular or multilocular cyst arising from the ovary. These images demonstrate multiple diffuse unilocular ovarian cysts which are more typical for theca-lutein cysts associated with ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome.
C: Although endometriosis can result in multiple pelvic cysts (endometriomas) some of which may arise on surface of ovaries those cysts are typically complex with thick walls. These images demonstrate multiple simple appearing cysts of ovarian origin with associated free fluid which is more typical for theca-lutein cysts associated with ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome.
D: Iatrogenic form of theca-lutein cysts related to drug treatment for infertility. Typically present with multiple large bilateral cysts distributed throughout the ovaries which result in enlargement of the ovaries. Ovarian hyperstimulation can also be associated with significant amounts of free fluid.

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38. You are shown images from a carotid ultrasound (Figures 3 and 4). What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis? Figure 3-Left common carotid waveform Figure 4-Right common carotid waveform

Explanation

A: An aortic valve stenosis has the same effect on the waveform as a stenosis anywhere proximal to the area of sampling and would include delayed systolic upstroke and decreased peak systolic velocities. Images demonstrate normal systolic upstroke and peak systolic velocities.
B: As with arterial venous malformations located throughout the body sampling proximal to AVM could produce increased peak systolic velocity and diastolic flow rather than the reversal of flow shown on these images.
C: Aortic valve incompetence if it is severe enough can result in reversal of diastolic flow and should affect the carotid system bilaterally.
D: A distal unilateral internal carotid artery (ICA) occlusion should result in increased velocities of the patent contralateral carotid system including the contralateral common carotid artery. In addition distal left ICA occlusion will result in a waveform that more closely resembles the left external carotid waveform with high resistance waveform but no reversed diastolic flow in the common carotid artery.

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39. You are shown two images (Figures 5 and 6) from a second trimester ultrasound. What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis? Figure 5-Axial transabdominal image of uterus Figure 6-Longitudinal view of lower uterine segment

Explanation

A: Submitted images particularly the lower uterine segment image confirm that the visualized pregnancy is intrauterine in position and is not an ectopic pregnancy.
B: Partial molar pregnancy by ultrasound will demonstrate a fetus (which is present) combined with an abnormally thickened and complex placenta. The placenta on these images is unremarkable in its visualized portions.
C: There is an intrauterine pregnancy in the right uterine horn with an empty uterine horn on the left. This could represent didelphis or bicornuate uterus based on the images. Physical exam confirmed two cervices consistent with didelphis uterus.
D: Intrauterine pregnancy is present with a separate "mass" to the left of the uterus. Although fibroids can be complex in appearance this "mass" contains what appears to be an endometrium which is most consistent with a separate uterine horn.

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40. You are shown ultrasound images (Figures 9 and 10) of the right testis in a 41-year-old man. What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis? Figure 9-Sagittal image of the right testis Figure 10-Transverse image of the right testis

Explanation

A: The sagittal and transverse ultrasound images of the right testis show a cluster of small cysts in the location of the rete testis. Seminomas can occur in this age group in fact the peak incidence is in the 4th and 5th decade of life. Seminomas can be bilateral. However on ultrasound seminomas appear as hypoechoic relatively homogeneous solid intratesticular mass so this answer is not correct.
B: Lymphoma is the most common testicular tumor in men over the age of 60 and is usually of the B cell type. It can be bilateral and appear as hypoechoic masses or diffuse heterogeneous enlargement of the testis. The age of the patient as well as the ultrasound appearance do not fit this diagnosis.
C: This ultrasound appearance of cluster of small cysts in the location of the rete testis is characteristic of cystic dilatation of the rete testis. This is an 'aunt Minnie' and should be recognized as a normal variant not to be confused with a neoplasm. Cystic dilatation of the rete testis is often but not always bilateral and can be associated with a spermatocele.
D: Orchitis is rarely isolated and usually associated with epididymitis. In this condition the testis is enlarged and hypervascular.

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41. Your attending asks you to anticoagulate a patient undergoing thrombolysis using tissue plasminogen activator (tPA). You write an order for IV heparin 800 U/hour. Why is this a mistake?

Explanation

A: Because thrombolytic agents do not prevent formation of new thrombus systemic heparinization is often used during the course of the procedure and the desired PTT maintained by continuous heparin infusion.
B: Although the patient will likely have received a heparin bolus prior to or during the positioning of the catheter for thrombolysis and your starting dose will subsequently be adjusted depending upon the measured clotting factors 800 units of IV heparin per hour is not an unreasonable order to start with. You do want to keep the dose somewhat light when using tPA.
C: The problem here is that you used an unacceptable abbreviation. In 2004 the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations introduced the Do Not Use list of abbreviations in an effort to reduce medication errors. The reason U as an abbreviation for unit is dangerous is that the U too frequently has been mistaken for a zero. A patient infused 8000 units of heparin an hour would be given ten times more than the intended dose.
D: Correct.

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42. Which of the following radionuclide imaging modalities is the MOST effective in preventing artifactual myocardial perfusion defects due to soft tissue attenuation?

Explanation

A: Tc-99m sestamibi SPECT imaging is affected by soft tissue attenuation artifacts such as breast and diaphragmatic attenuation unless the data specifically undergoes some type of attenuation correction either by means of software correction of hardware correction such as the use of a hybrid SPECT-CT imaging device.
B: As in the case of Tc-99m sestamibi SPECT imaging the dual-isotope method is also subject to soft tissue attenuation artifacts unless specifically corrected. In fact because of the lower gamma photon energies used in thallium-201 chloride myocardial perfusion imaging the thallium images are even more prone to these artifacts than the images obtained using Tc-99m labeled radiopharmaceuticals.
C: There is attenuation correction in FDG PET images whether performed on a dedicated PET imaging device which uses external radioactive sources for attenuation correction or on a hybrid PET-CT imaging device. However FDG myocardial scintigraphy is used to assess myocardial glucose metabolism and is not a myocardial perfusion imaging study.
D: Rb-82 is a positron-emitting isotope with a short half-life of 5 seconds that is used for assessment of myocardial perfusion. It is a potassium analog and exhibits biochemical properties similar to those of Tl-201 chloride. In addition being a PET radiopharmaceutical the use of Rb-82 for myocardial perfusion imaging benefits from the image attenuation correction that is intrinsic to all PET and PET-CT studies.

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43. You are shown a color Doppler image (Figure 7) of a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS). What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

Explanation

A: The most common location for shunt stenosis is in the hepatic vein end of the shunt. Shunt stenosis can be identified by ultrasound by localized high velocity flow and turbulence. This associated with incomplete filling of the hepatic vein end of the shunt with color flow makes this the most likely diagnosis.

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44. You are shown three images from a CT scan focusing on the right adrenal gland. The images include a non-contrast CT scan (Figure 3A) early enhanced phase (Figure 3B) and delayed enhanced phase (Figure 3C). What is the BEST diagnosis?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. Diagnosis of a lipid rich adrenal adenoma is made on the non-contrast CT with HU B: Incorrect. Lipid poor adenoma can be diagnosed if % washout is > 60%. In this case the calculated % washout is 53%. Additionally the early enhanced phase image shows some heterogeneity of the lesion and washout calculations should be done only on homogeneous lesions.
C: Incorrect. Myelolipoma is diagnosed by identifying macroscopic fat within the mass
D: Correct. This nodule is indeterminant by CT washout criteria. A malignant neoplasm can't be excluded and followup or biopsy would be indicated. Additionally close inspection of the images shows there is heterogeneity in this mass rendering washout evaluation of questionable value. Approximately 3 years after this study the patient was found to have a very large adrenocortical carcinoma.

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45. Concerning the use of B Blockers in cardiac CT imaging which of the following statements is TRUE?

Explanation

A: Correct. Several studies which used 4 and 16 detector row CT have shown consistently that at heart rates of greater than 70 beats a minute cardiac motion degrades the images.
B: Incorrect. Asthma is a contraindication to beta blockers. This is because many beta blockers are not cardioselective and block both B1 and B2 receptors. B1 receptors are found in the heart and B2 receptors are found in the airways smooth muscle. Blocking of B2 receptors causes bronchospasm in asthmatics. Even cardioselective beta blockers (such as metoprolol or atenolol) are a relative contraindication in asthmatics and should be avoided.
C: Incorrect. Verapamil can be used as an alternative to beta blockers such as in patients with asthma. It is usually given intravenously in cardiac CT.
D: Incorrect. Atrial fibrillation is not a contraindication to beta blocker use. Although the beta blocker slows the ventricular response rate it will not be effective in preventing atrial fibrillation. Atrial fibrillation (even with a slow ventricular response rate) is a relative contraindication to ECG gating.
References: (1) Choi HS Choi BW Choe KO Choi D Yoo KJ Kim MI Kim J. Pitfalls Artifacts and Remedies in Multi Detector Row CT Coronary Angiography. Radiographics 2004;24:787-800 (2) Kumar and Clark Clinical Medicine Fifth Edition Saunders 2002

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46. You are shown a radiograph an MR image and a CT image of a young boy (Figures 1 and 3). What is the appropriate treatment?

Explanation

A: Osteoid osteoma regression has been documented but only after many years of symptoms. Aspirin or other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications frequently provide effective pain relief. Patients often describe night pain relieved by aspirin. Long-term therapy however may not control night pain and its resultant sleep deprivation and gastrointestinal complications can be serious. Articular or periarticular osteoid osteomas are particularly resistant to conservative therapy and more aggressive intervention is often necessary.
B: Surgical resection has been the treatment of choice for osteoid osteoma with success rates of 88%Ð97% for en bloc open resection. Resection however creates a bone defect predisposing to fracture. Internal fixation and bone grafting may be necessary in some cases. To minimize bone excision numerous methods of intraoperative localization were developed including needle localization of the nidus tetracycline labeling and intraoperative scintigraphy. Even with successful localization and resection the bone may still be prone to fracture. Incomplete surgical resection requires a second surgery. The location of some lesions may preclude surgical excision or increase the risk of injury to adjacent structures. The excision of articular and epiphyseal lesions may require arthrotomy with resultant impairment of bone growth joint mobility or both. Other postsurgical complications include hematoma and infection. The average postoperative hospital stay is 3Ð5 days. Weight-bearing activity is limited for 1Ð6 months after surgery and the use of crutches may be necessary in cases involving the lower limb. CT-guided percutaneous resection is a less-invasive alternative method of treatment that may allow a reduced hospital stay and earlier resumption of weight-bearing activity. However it is associated with postoperative complications similar to those of open surgical excision including hematoma osteomyelitis and fracture. The failure rate with this method of treatment in one patient series was 16%.
C: Percutaneous radiofrequency (RF) ablation is the use of thermal coagulation to induce necrosis and is a minimally invasive alternative to surgical resection of osteoid osteoma. The use of RF ablation to treat osteoid osteoma was first described in 1989 with initial results published in 1992. The procedure is safe effective widely available and should be considered the current treatment of choice. It is performed with CT guidance and with general spinal or propofol-induced anesthesia. Local anesthesia alone usually results in insufficient pain control particularly during entry into the nidus of the lesion. The average procedure can be performed in approximately 90 minutes. Daily activities may be resumed immediately without the use of a cast splint or other external support. Relative contraindications to RF ablation include the location of a lesion in the hand or the spine (D: The imaging findings are diagnostic of a benign osteoid osteoma. No aggressive features are present to suggest malignancy.

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47. You and another woman in your program have a grievance that would be awkward to bring to the attention of the program director or the chairman because of the involvement of one of those gentlemen. Which of the following is your BEST course of action?

Explanation

A: The Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education is responsible for the accreditation of post-MD medical training programs within the United States. Effective 7-1-07 it has become an ACGME common program requirement that the Sponsoring Institution must provide residents with fair reasonable and readily available policies and procedures for grievances. These policies and procedures must minimize conflict of interest by adjudicating parties.
B: This is accomplished at my institution by granting our residents the right under unusual circumstances to bring a grievance directly to the Office of Academic Affairs bypassing the Program Director and Department.'
C: The Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education is responsible for the accreditation of post-MD medical training programs within the United States. Effective 7-1-07 it has become an ACGME common program requirement that the Sponsoring Institution must provide residents with fair reasonable and readily available policies and procedures for grievances. These policies and procedures must minimize conflict of interest by adjudicating parties.
D: The Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education is responsible for the accreditation of post-MD medical training programs within the United States. Effective 7-1-07 it has become an ACGME common program requirement that the Sponsoring Institution must provide residents with fair reasonable and readily available policies and procedures for grievances. These policies and procedures must minimize conflict of interest by adjudicating parties.

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48. According to the World Health Organization (WHO) recommendations which of the following bone densitometry findings is diagnostic for osteoporosis?

Explanation

A: The WH O defines osteoporosis as a T score -2.5.
B: This is the W O definition for osteoporosis although this finding may also be seen in osteomalacia. In addition many patients with T scores higher than -2.5 are deemed to be appropriate candidates for treatment of bone loss. The T score is derived by comparison with a young adult normal control group.
C: The score is derived from comparison with age sex and race-matched controls and is not a direct indicator of osteoporosis.
D: Again the T score rather than the score is used to define the presence of osteoporosis. A highly negative score indicates bone loss out of proportion to the patient's age sex and race.

Findings: WHO definition of osteoporosis is a bone mineral content measurement that is equal to or greater than 2.5 standard deviations below the expected measurement of a young normal control group (T score -2.5).

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49. You are shown two images (Figure 8 and Figure 9) of the lower uterine segment from a second trimester pregnancy. Which of the following is TRUE?

Explanation

A: It is highly unlikely that a complete central placental previa will resolve. Therefore placental position will likely preclude vaginal delivery and require cesarean section.

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50. You are shown two CT images of the same patient one of the chest and one of the mid-abdomen (Figures 4A and 4B). Which one of the following is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. The kidneys are often enlarged in adult polycystic kidney disease but the enlargement is due to innumerable renal cysts not fatty tumors. The masses in this case contain macroscopic fat as evidenced by the HU number of - 97 consistent with angiomyolipomas not cysts. Additionally there is no association of APCD with lung cysts.
B: Incorrect. Acquired cystic renal disease is a condition affecting patients with renal failure. The kidneys are typically small not enlarged as in this case. Multiple cysts develop often complicated by hemorrhage and calcification. Additionally there is increased risk for developing renal cell carcinomas that present as solid masses.
C: Correct. The renal masses in this case have macroscopic fat consistent with angiomyolipomas. 80% of patients with tuberous sclerosis have renal angiomyolipomas and 1% of patients with tuberous sclerosis have lung cysts indistinguishable from those found in lymphangiomyomatosis.
D: Incorrect. Renal cysts and renal cell carcinomas develop in patients with VHL but there is no association with angiomyolipomas. Additionally there is no association of VHL with lung cysts.

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51. Which of the following digital detectors directly converts x-ray signals into an electrical charge?

Explanation

A: Incorrect.
B: Incorrect.
C: Correct. Digital detectors are classified by the signal transfer stages that occur during the image formation process in two categories. Indirect conversion is the process by which the x-rays are absorbed and converted into a secondary signal such as x-rays to light by a scintillator material or x-rays to trapped electrons to stimulation by a laser to light emission by a photostimulable phosphor. This light energy is subsequently converted to electron signals that comprise the signal that generates the corresponding digital value. Direct conversion is the process by which the x-rays directly produce the electron/hole pairs that are used to generate the corresponding digital values. Semi-conductor materials that absorb x-rays without scintillation such as amorphous selenium are classified as direct conversion materials.
D: Incorrect.
References: Mahesh M AAPM/RSNA Physics Tutorial for Residents Digital Mammography: An Overview RadioGraphics 2004; 24:1747 1760

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52. You are shown oblique and PA radiographs (Figures and 5) of the hand and wrist of a ?-year-old woman. What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

Explanation

A: Although there is periarticular osteopenia there are no characteristic erosions at the ulna styloid carpus CP or IP joints. The joint spaces are well maintained. The deformities acquired with RA such as CP joint ulnar subluxation are not reversible.
B: Oblique radiographs show malalignment with CP joint subluxations and first IP hyperextension with subluxation at the right first IP joint. There are no osseous erosions. There is no joint space narrowing. These deformities are reduced by placing the hands on the imaging cassette. Reversible non-erosive deformity is the hallmark of acoud s arthropathy described in patients with rheumatic fever and seen in patients with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus. It has been described in about 5- 0% of patients with SLE much more common in patients with long standing disease. Infrequently cartilage loss with joint space narrowing occurs secondary to disuse atrophy or joint malalignment with subsequent pressure erosion. This is not due to inflammation or pannus. In addition to deforming nonerosive arthropathy other musculoskeletal abnormalities encountered in patients with SLE include myositis symmetric polyarthritis tendon weakening and rupture osteonecrosis and soft tissue calcification. Symmetric polyarthritis is one of the most common presentations of the disease seen in up to 90% of patients. Although clinical manifestations are similar to those of rheumatoid arthritis conventional radiographs may show only soft tissue swelling periarticular osteopenia and joint effusion. Tendon weakening and rupture is manifested in this case as bilateral scapholunate dissociation and scapho-lunate ligament tear a complication of the disease and the associated steroid therapy.
C: The arthropathy of CPPD (calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate) deposition refers to the destructive changes that may occur following such crystal deposition. CPPD deposition at the ligaments tendons and capsule as well as the more common chondrocalcinosis of hyaline- (articular) and fibro-cartilage (menisci labrum TFCC) may be visible radiographically. Ensuing arthropathy at the hand and wrist including joint space narrowing subchondral cyst formation (often prominent) subchondral sclerosis and osteophyte formation usually affects the radiocarpal midcarpal and CP joints rather than the basal and IP joints commonly involved with typical osteoarthritis. Scapho-lunate dissociation is the only finding that may be present in this and other arthridities.
D: There is no evidence of subperiosteal bone resorption acro-osteolysis or soft tissue calcifications. Ligament rupture is associated with hyperparathyroidism due to sub-ligamentous bone resortion.

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53. What is the annual permissible effective dose equivalent for a radiation worker in the United States?

Explanation

A: According to NCRP report 116 1 mSv is the annual effective dose limit for general population which indicates the amount of shielding required for x-ray facilities
B: Incorrect.
C: Incorrect.
D: According to NCRP report 116 the annual effective dose equivalent limit for radiation worker is 50 mSv.

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54. Regarding radiochemical purity of Tc-99m-labeled radiopharmaceuticals which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Explanation

A: The ratio of Mo-99 to Tc-99m is a measure of radionuclidic purity.
B: The presence of alumina in the eluate represents a type of chemical impurity involving a non-radioactive contaminant within the radiopharmaceutical and does not represent a radiochemical impurity.
C: Radiochemical purity is defined by the fraction of radioactivity in a dose that is in the desired chemical form such as the amount of properly labeled Tc-99m MDP versus the remaining free Tc-99m pertechnetate within a bone scan dose. Thin-layer chromatography is the most common method of testing radiochemical purity with Tc-99m labeled compounds.
D: The amount of alumina in the eluate which is a measure of chemical purity is commonly measured using this technique.

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55. You are shown two images (Figure 10 and Figure 11). What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

Explanation

A: Images demonstrate a large fetus as well as a much smaller second gestation without cardiac activity. This constellation of findings is most suggestive of demise of one of the twin gestations also known as demise of a co-twin.

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56. You are shown a KUB (Fig 5A) and noncontrast CT scan of the abdomen (Fig 5B) in a 55 year old woman. Which one of the following is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. Chronic glomerulonephritis is a cause of cortical nephrocalcinosis not medullary nephrocalcinosis as is seen in this case.
B: Incorrect. Acute cortical necrosis is a cause of cortical nephrocalcinosis not medullary nephrocalcinosis as is seen in this case.
C: Correct. Hyperparathyroidism is the most common cause of medullary nephrocalcinosis. Other common causes include renal tubular acidosis type I (distal type) and medullary sponge kidney.
D: Incorrect. Although milk-alkali syndrome is known to cause medullary nephrocalcinosis it is much less common than hyperparathyroidism renal tubular acidosis type I (distal type) and medullary sponge kidney.

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57. In regards to constrictive pericarditis which of the following statements is TRUE?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. The pericardium normally measures 2mm in thickness or less.
B: Incorrect. Most cases of constrictive pericarditis are secondary to idiopathic pericarditis or pericarditis following cardiac surgery and radiation therapy.
C: Incorrect. Although calcification is associated with constriction the observation of calcification does not imply constriction. In order to make the diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis the patient must have physiologic changes in association with pericardial thickening or calcification. This includes impaired diastolic filling and equalization of diastolic pressures in the right and left ventricles. The most common causes of calcific pericarditis include infection (tuberculosis) uremia and trauma.
D: Correct. Pericardial thickening or calcification may be present without physiologic impairment although constrictive physiology is usually present when there is extensive pericardial calcification.

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58. You are shown MR images (Figures 6 and 7) of the pelvis and lumbar spine of a 33-year-old man with back pain. What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

Explanation

A: The reconversion of lipoid marrow to active hematopoietic marrow may occur when there is an increased demand i.
E: anemia high altitudes marrow replacement. This occurs with relative sparing of the epiphyses and apophyses which remain fatty following normal marrow conversion during the growing years. In addition hematopoetically active red bone marrow is 0% fat and therefore demonstrates signal intensity slightly higher than skeletal muscle with T1 weighted imaging.
B: Reconversion may occur in patients with anemia. The marrow changes however are too homogeneous and involve the epiphyses and apophyses. Furthermore hematopoetically active red bone marrow is about 0% fat and therefore demonstrates signal intensity slightly higher than skeletal muscle with T1 weighted imaging. In addition there is no characteristic bone necrosis at the femoral heads femoral shafts or vertebral body endplates (H-shaped vertebra).
C: Hemosiderin deposition in the marrow produces very low signal intensity with both T1- and T2-weighted imaging much lower than of skeletal muscle due to the paramagnetic effects of the deposited iron. It is not a painful process.
D: Acute leukemia may occur in children and adults. In children it is almost always lymphoblastic. In adults it is frequently myeloid in cell origin. A L is an infiltrative marrow disease characterized by neoplastic proliferation of one of the blood-forming cells. This may cause bone pain especially at the spine. Diffuse marrow infiltration is characteristic and is manifested by low to intermediate signal intensity throughout the bone marrow similar in signal intensity to skeletal muscle. There is absence of the normal fatty and hematopoietic elements seen in the normal adult skeleton following physiologic marrow conversion. The epiphysis and epiphyseal remants normally contain fat. Hematopoetically active marrow is 0% fat and therefore slightly higher in SI than adjacent skeletal muscle.

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59. In a patient with acute chest pain and suspected pulmonary embolism the MOST appropriate initial imaging test is a:

Explanation

A: The chest radiograph is to exclude other causes of acute chest pain. It is also the cheapest study with a minimal relative radiation level.
B: CT pulmonary angiogram is the standard of care for detection of PE but should be performed after a chest radiograph.
C: US lower extremity with Doppler can be performed if chest x-ray is negative and index of suspicion is high but does not address the direct question about PE.
D: Tc99m V/Q study is indicated if the chest x-ray is negative and CTPA is contraindicated or nondiagnostic.

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60. Regarding radionuclide imaging in patients with intractable seizures which of the following findings is MOST LIKELY to be observed during the interictal phase?

Explanation

A: The opposite is true.
B: Seizure foci particularly in the temporal lobes typically demonstrate decreased perfusion (SPECT) and decreased metabolic activity (PET) during the interictal phase and increased perfusion and metabolic activity during the ictal phase.
C: Metabolic activity is typically decreased during the interictal phase.
D: This finding can be seen in the setting of a supratentorial lesion such as a stroke or tumor that results in decreased activity in the contralateral cerebellar hemisphere. It is not a typical finding in patients with isolated seizure disorders.

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61. You are shown a sagittal (Figure 12) and coronal (Figure 13) image of the left ovary/ adnexal region in a 26-year-old woman with lower abdominal pain. Color Doppler (not shown) did not demonstrate any flow within the lesion. What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

Explanation

A: The sonogram shows a well defined complex cystic mass surrounded by ovarian parenchyma. There is good posterior enhancement confirming the cystic nature of the lesion. The internal complex pattern has a reticular appearance combined with the more echogenic retracting clot. The age of the patient and the symptoms of pain makes this diagnosis most likely as well. The absence of doppler flow confirms the diagnosis.

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62. You are shown images (Figures 6A and 6B) from a retrograde cystogram on a 48 year old man who presented after a motor vehicle accident. What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. The contrast is seen surrounding loops of bowel and outlining the peritoneal cavity. These findings would not be present with extraperitoneal bladder rupture.
B: Incorrect. As noted in rationale A the contrast is in the peritoneum (as well as in the bladder). Although it would be hard from these 2 projections to exclude contrast in the rectum no appearance particularly suggestive of that is seen and it would be distinctly unusual to have a colo-vesical fistula as a manifestation of trauma. A colo-vesical fistula may be seen in the setting of diverticulitis or sometimes in malignancy (often post-XRT) but a much more irregular contour to the contrast collections would be expected in such a case due to inflammation or neoplasm.
C: Incorrect. Interstitial bladder rupture is a rare injury which is a result of incomplete perforation of the bladder wall. On cystography a mural defect is seen in the bladder wall without extravasation of contrast.
D: Correct. The bladder lumen is shown with a foley catheter balloon and there is considerable contrast extravasation outlining the peritoneal cavity and adjacent bowel loops.

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63. Concerning anomalous origins of the coronary arteries which of the following is TRUE?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. Coronary artery anomalies are rare estimated at about 1% of the population. About one third of these anomalies refer to the origin of the coronary artery. Most anomalous coronary arteries are “benign” that is the coronary artery courses posterior to the aortic root or anterior to the pulmonary trunk. Hemodynamically significant or “malignant” coronary artery anomalies occur when the artery passes between the right ventricular outflow tract and the ascending aorta. These are much less common.
B: Correct. Coronary arteries that pass between the right ventricular outflow tract / pulmonary artery and the ascending aorta are hemodynamically significant. The coronary artery can become compressed between two arteries during systole when the vessels expand.
C: Incorrect. Compression of the “malignant” coronary artery occurs during diastole when the ascending aorta and right ventricular outflow tract / pulmonary artery are more dilated.
D: Incorrect. “Malignant” coronary artery anomalies are associated with sudden death in young athletes. This is thought to be due to compression of the coronary artery between the right ventricular outflow tract / pulmonary artery and the ascending aorta during diastole.

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64. You are shown a CT image (Figure 8). Which of the following would be OST appropriate for this patient?

Explanation

A: Incorrect.
B: Incorrect.
C: Incorrect.
D: CT shows a heterogeneous lenticular shaped mass with a soft tissue component isodense to muscle containing liner streaks of fat deep to the scapular tip diagnostic of elastofibroma. Elastofibroma dorsi occurs near the scapula tip deep to the serratus anterior and latissimus dorsi muscles. Only 1% of cases are found elsewhere. This reactive phenomenon may be related to scapula motion at the adjacent chest wall. There is no malignant potential. R may show intermediate SI with areas of entrapped fat. The combination of appearance and location is characteristic of this soft tissue pseudotumor often seen incidentally on Chest CT examinations performed for other reasons. Elastofibroma dorsi is most frequently seen in women age 60-75 years with a reported femal
E:male ratio of 5-13:1. Lesions 3 cm or smaller are found at autopsy in 2 . % of women and 11.2% of men over the age of 55 years. This is a do-not-touch lesion. Although follow-up imaging is usually not required medical radiation or surgical treatment is inappropriate.

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65. In a patient with clinically suspected avascular necrosis of the hip the initial imaging study should be:

Explanation

A: This would not be the appropriate initial exam.
B: This would not be the appropriate first exam.
C: This would not be the appropriate initial exam.
D: MRI of the hip (answerA: is the most sensitive method for detection of AVN but not indicated before radiographs in part due to expense. Cross-table lateral radiograph of the hips (answer
B: have poor detail due to overlapping soft tissues which limits usefulness. Nuclear medicine bone scan (answer
C: is a sensitive method for detection of AVN but not indicated before radiographs. AP radiograph of the pelvis (answer
D: is essential for initial evaluation in patients at risk for AVN who present with hip pain. It also has a low relative radiation level.

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66. You are shown anterior and posterior whole-body images (Figure 1) obtained from an elderly man presenting with severe back and extremity pain that is unresponsive to analgesics. Based on these findings which one of the following radionuclides MOST LIKELY would be beneficial in treating the patient’s pain?

Explanation

A: Sm-153 labeled lexidronam (Quadramet) is a high energy beta emitting radiopharmaceutical that localizes in bone and demonstrates increased localization in sites of osteoblastic metastases with a distribution similar to that of Tc-99m MDP. In addition it also emits a gamma ray of 103 KeV energy permitting imaging as well as therapy for painful bony metastases. This treatment is most often employed in patients with numerous symptomatic sites precluding spot radiotherapy treatment alone. It is associated with significant pain relief in a high percentage of patients often lasting months and with generally manageable hematologic toxicity.

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67. Concerning ultrasound imaging of cavernous hemangiomas of the liver which of the following is CORRECT?

Explanation

A: Larger hemangiomas may be more heterogenous due to the presence of scar or thrombosis.

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68. Concerning hysterosalpingography which of the following is TRUE?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. HSGs are performed on days 7-10 of menstrual cycle after menstrual bleeding complete.
B: Correct. Contraindications for HSG include acute PID active bleeding preganancy and hypersensitivity to contrast.
C: Incorrect. 'T-shaped' hypoplastic uterus is seen with in utero DES exposure and has an association with clear-cell adenocarcinoma of the vagina.
D: Incorrect. Hysterosalpingography is insensitive for diagnosing pelvic adhesions but if extensive adhesions are present abnormalities may be seen such as failure of contrast spillage from the fimbriated end of the tube may or if contrast spills loculations of contrast.

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69. In regards to cyanotic congenital heart disease presenting in infancy which one of the following is MOST common?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. Although Hypoplastic left heart syndrome is the most common cause of congestive failure in the neonate it only occasionally results in cyanosis.
B: Correct. Tetralogy of Fallot is the most common cause of cyanotic heart disease presenting in the first month of life.
C: Incorrect. Truncus arteriosus is a cause of cyanotic heart disease in infancy but occurs with a much lower frequency than tetralogy of Fallot.
D: Incorrect. Ventricular septal defects are the most common clinically evident congenital heart defect in infants but only present with cyanosis after the development of secondary pulmonary hypertension. Therefore cyanosis is not characteristic in infancy.

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70. You are shown a lateral radiograph of the thoracic spine (Figure 9). Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to be associated with this radiograph?

Explanation

A: OPPL may occur at the cervical thoracic and lumbar spine with differing clinical manifestations. OPPL is most common at the cervical spine where resulting spinal stenosis may be severe. DISH is commonly associated with cervical spine involvement. Involvement at the thoracic spine is commonly asymptomatic. It is more common in women than in men and rarely associated with DISH.
B: Sacroiliitis is associated with the seronegative spondyloarthropathies including Ankylosing spondylitis Psoriatic arthritis Reactive or Reiters arthritis and the arthritis of inflammatory bowel disease. All may demonstrate para-vertebral ossification of varying types. Isolated ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament however is not seen.
C: Perhaps 5% of patients with psoriasis develop psoriatic arthritis. It is more prevalent in those patients with moderate to severe skin abnormalities. Psoriatic spondyloarthropathy may result in paravertebral ossification that is characteristically focal bulky and asymmetric or unilateral in distribution. It does not uniformly involve the posterior longitudinal ligament.
D: Disc herniation is often associated with degenerative disc disease (intervertebral osteochondrosis and spondylosis deformans). The paravertebral ossification of DDD is osteophyte formation which typically has a horizontal orientation and is associated with loss of disc space height vacuum phenomenon and subchondral sclerosis as seen on conventional radiographs. Ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament is not related to DDD or disc herniation.

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71. According to the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education (ACGME) incorporating considerations of cost awareness in patient care is part of which competency?

Explanation

A: According to the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education (ACGME) incorporating considerations of cost awareness in patient care is part of systems-based practice
B: Incorrect.
C: Incorrect.
D: Incorrect.
E: Incorrect.

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72. You are shown serial anterior images of the abdomen obtained between 30 and 60 minutes postinjection from a Tc-99m DISIDA hepatobiliary scintigram (Figure 2) and 4-hour delayed anterior and right lateral images (Figure 3). What is the BEST diagnosis?

Explanation

A: The initial images during the first hour of the study demonstrate normal transit of radiopharmaceutical through the liver and biliary system to the duodenum. The gallbladder is not visualized throughout the first hour. The 4 hour delayed image in lieu of a post morphine imaging series confirms the absence of gallbladder visualization. This constellation of findings is consistent with acute cholecystitis. While these findings may also occur in chronic cholecystitis they are more characteristic of acute cholecystitis.

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73. Regarding real-time sonographic imaging how is the lateral resolution affected if the depth of field decreases and the frame rate remains the same?

Explanation

A: Given a constant sampling rate of ultrasound pulses with the frame rate constant decreasing the field of view will allow more sampling per frame.

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74. Concerning testicular neoplasms which of the following is TRUE?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. Testicular neoplasms most commonly present as a painless mass.
B: Incorrect. Although about 10% of patients with microlithiasis have a testicular germ cell tumor detected sonographically at the time of their initial ultrasound examination and there have been case reports of patients who initially present with isolated microlithiasis (i.
E: testicular microlithiasis with no tumor) longitudinal data on groups of patients with isolated testicular microlithiasis have suggest that the risk if real is quite low.
C: Correct. Seminoma is the most common adult testicular tumors accounting for 40-50% of adult neoplasms.
D: Incorrect. Sonography is highly sensitve (95 to 100 %) for the detection of testicular tumors.

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75. Regarding atrial morphology which one of the following is the MOST reliable indicator of the morphologic right atrium?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. Bilateral superior vena cavae may be present which can drain into the coronary sinus or either atria.
B: Correct. Connection with the inferior vena cava is a reliable indicator of right atrial morphology. This can be a useful tool to establish the cardiac anatomy in cases of situs abnormalities and atrioventricular discordance.
C: Incorrect. A thin appendage with a narrow neck is characteristic of the morphologic left atrium. The right atrial appendage is triangular in shape with a broad neck. The characteristic appearance of the right atrial appendage is also a reliable indicator of the morphologic right atrium.
D: Incorrect. In cases of atrioventricular discordance the atrioventricular valves follow the morphologic ventricles not the morphologic atria.

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76. You are shown sagittal and axial MR images (Figure 10 and 11) of the calf. What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

Explanation

A: Location and appearance are not typical. Although 18-20% of rhabdomyosarcomas arise in the extremities they are not this heterogeneous nor elongated. Also they do not follow the course of a specific muscle.
B: The plantaris musculotendinous unit is located deep to the lateral head of the gastrocnemius in the proximal calf and crosses medially superficial to the soleus and deep to the medial head of the gastrocnemius to insert on the calcaneus with the Achilles tendon. The proximal slender muscle belly arises at the lateral supracondylar line just above the attachment of the lateral head of the gastrocnemius. The distal tendon the longest in the body is poorly visualized. Injury with susequent edema hematoma highlights the course of the tendon. Conversely knowing the normal course of the tendon allows for accurate diagnosis of plantaris injury. In all cases of musculotendinous injury hemorrhage hematoma is best diagnosed with the aid of T1 weighted imaging where methhemoglobin will demonstrate high signal intensity usually 1-12 weeks following injury.
C: While the mass could possibly represent an abscess rather than a hematoma the location is classic for a plantaris tear and abscess would not be the most likely diagnosis.
D: Tumoral calcinosis is a periarticular disorder related to abnormal phosphate metabolism usually seen in patents with chronic renal disease. It most commonly occurs around large joints such as the shoulder or hip. Cross-sectional imaging shows a multilobulated mass often with fluid-fluid levels. The -ray appearance of a multi-lobulated calcified mass with fluid-fluid levels is characteristic.

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77. Concerning the Accreditation Council of Graduate Medical Education (ACGME) toolbox for assessment of the General Competencies which of the following terms describes how well assessment measures represent or predict a residents ability?

Explanation

A: Incorrect.
B: Incorrect.
C: According to the ACGME's assessment toolbox validity describes "how well assessment measures represent or predict a resident's ability."
D: Incorrect.
E: Incorrect.

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78. You are shown (clockwise from lower left) transaxial sagittal and coronal SPECT images (Figure 4) of the abdomen. What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis based on the findings demonstrated in this study?

Explanation

A: The findings demonstrated are typical for a benign hepatic hemangioma. This lesion is classically associated with focal areas of increased tracer uptake on delayed images secondary to the increased blood volume within the lesion. Early images may demonstrate less intense uptake which gradually increases over time similar to the phenomenon of delayed contrast enhancement observed on CT.

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79. Regarding normal renal anatomy which one of the following is CORRECT?

Explanation

A: The right kidney is usually of smaller volume than the left kidney possibly due to the longer length of the right renal artery and effect upon the right kidney by the liver during development.

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80. Concerning malacoplakia which of the following is TRUE?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. It is not a premalignant condition.
B: Correct. Malacoplakia is an uncommon inflammatory condition of the ureter associated with chronic urinary tract infection. It is more common among immunocompromised patients.
C: Incorrect. The urinary bladder is the most common site of urinary tract involvement.
D: Incorrect. Contain basophilic staining inclusions known as Michaleis-Gutmann bodies.

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81. Regarding coronary artery aneurysms which one of the following statements is CORRECT?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. A coronary artery aneurysm is defined as an increase in diameter by 50% not 100%.
B: Incorrect. Most coronary aneurysms are secondary to atherosclerosis.
C: Correct. Kawasaki disease has multiple manifestations in the heart including coronary aneurysm formation. Large aneurysms (> 8mm) are frequently complicated by thrombosis and subsequent myocardial infarction. They may also rupture. Small aneurysms tend to regress to normal caliber over time.
D: Incorrect. Rupture of atherosclerotic coronary aneurysms is rare.

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82. You are shown MR images (Figures 12-15) of the knee of a young man following trauma. Which of the following statements is CORRECT

Explanation

A: Meniscal ossicle occurs at the posterior horn of the medial meniscus. This focal ossification which may be developmental or post traumatic may be confused with a joint body when seen on conventional radiographs. The signal characteristics are those of bone with bone marrow and easily appreciated with R imaging.
B: Meniscal ossicle occurs at the posterior horn of the medial meniscus. This focal ossification which may be developmental or post traumatic may be confused with a joint body when seen on conventional radiographs. The signal characteristics are those of bone with bone marrow and easily appreciated with R imaging. Discoid meniscus is usually lateral but medial involvement certainly occurs.
C: Arthroscopic resection may be indicated in symptomatic individuals. However meniscal ossicle is usually an incidental finding on R imaging performed for other reasons.
D: Meniscal ossicle has no malignant potential. Intra-capsular processes with rare malignant potential include P NS and synovial chondromatosis.

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83. Conccming HIPAA which of the following requires written authorization prior to disclosure of Protected Health Information (PHI)?

Explanation

A: Permitted uses and disclosures of PHI include disclosure to related treatment payment and health care operations activities.
B: Patient permission or authorization is required to disclose or use PHI for certain marketing or fundraising activities.
C: PHI may be disclosed without authorization to facilitate donation and transplantation of cadaveric organs eyes and tissue.
D: PHI may be disclosed without authorization for certain research activities if the IRB has granted a waiver.

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84. You are shown a coronal image (Figure 5) and a maximum intensity projection (MIP) image (Figure 6) from an F-18 fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG) PET scan performed on a patient with recently diagnosed left upper lobe bronchogenic carcinoma. Which of the following is the CORRECT stage of the patient’s neoplasm?

Explanation

A: The combination of a primary lesion of T1 - T3 (in this case T1) with mediastinal and supraclavicular adenopathy but no distant metastases is consistent with a Stage IIIB lesion (T1N3M0) which makes the patient not a surgical candidate for an attempted cure.

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85. Concerning hyperechogenicity of the fetal bowel on ultrasound which of the following is CORRECT?

Explanation

A: Hyperechogenicity of fetal bowel is associated with increased risk of IUGR (intrauterine growth restriction) and follow-up ultrasound may be helpful to assess growth rates in the fetus with hyperechoic bowel.

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86. Renal medullary carcinoma:

Explanation

A: Incorrect. Multilocular cystic nephroma is the renal neoplasm that is classically seen in young male patients and older females.
B: Correct. Medullary carcinoma is the renal neoplasm that is classically seen in young black patients with sickle cell trait.
C: Incorrect. Wilms' tumor is a renal neoplasm that arises from the matanephric blastema and is usually diagnosed by age 5.
D: Incorrect. Mesoblastic nephroma is a benign renal neoplasm usually present at birth.

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87. Regarding hypertrophic cardiomyopathy which one of the following is an associated valvular abnormalty?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. Outflow obstruction in the setting of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy occurs in a subvalvular location. While the aortic valve may close prematurely during mid-systole aortic valve stenosis is not characteristic of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
B: Incorrect. Although mitral valve regurgitation may coexist with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy it is not a characteristic of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
C: Correct. The increased flow velocity occurring through the narrowed subvalvular left ventricular outflow tract draws the anterior leaflet of the mitral valve anteriorly due to the Venturi effect. This results in further obstruction of the left ventricular outflow tract.
D: Incorrect. The mitral valve is typically drawn anteriorly during systole in the setting of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Prolapse posteriorly into the left atrium is not a characteristic of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

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88. You are shown R images (Figures 16 and 17) of a 6-year-old woman with a recent injury. Which of the following is recommended?

Explanation

A: Incorrect.
B: Incorrect.
C: The incidental finding of a small well-defined intraosseous lesion with somewhat lobulated borders without adjacent bone marrow edema at the distal femur is fairly common given the frequency of MR imaging of the knee. Further work-up is not required.
D: Incorrect.

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89. A study yields a receiver operator characteristic (ROC) curve that is a straight line from the origin (TPF=FPF=0) to the upper right comer (TPF=FPF=1). Which of the following statements BEST describes the study results?

Explanation

A: The area for this situation is 0.5
B: A perfect ROC curve would be near the upper left
C: This curve shape describes random guessing by observers
D: Threshold criteria vary to create the ROC curve.

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90. You are shown serial posterior images (Figure 7) of the abdomen obtained from a normal adult who is a potential renal transplant donor to assess the patient’s glomerular filtration rate preoperatively. Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals was MOST LIKELY used for this study?

Explanation

A:Tc-99m DPTA is a GFR agent with physiology similar to insulin although approximately 5-10% is bound to plasma proteins therefore it tends to underestimate GFR slightly. Of the agents listed in this question it is the best choice for estimation of the patient's GFR value.

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91. How is anencephaly diagnosed with ultrasound?

Explanation

A: Anencephaly is a diagnosis typically made by 2nd trimester ultrasound as evidenced by absence of telencephalon and cranial vault. Remnants of brain stem and rhomboencephalon are present. Absence of cranial vault is difficult to appreciate prior to 10 weeks due to lack of ossification. In addition brain tissue may be more prominent during 1st trimester and does not involute until 2nd trimester due to exposure to amniotic fluid.

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92. Concerning acquired cystic renal disease which of the following is TRUE?

Explanation

A: False: This disease is found in patients with chronic renal failure on dialysis thus the kidneys are generally small. Multiple small cysts are characteristic.
B: False: Because the kidneys and cysts are small and the renal cell carcinomas that develop also tend to be small contrast enhanced CT or MRI are the imaging modalities of choice
C: False: 7% of patients with acquired cystic renal disease develop renal cell carcinoma.
D: True: The cysts do tend to regress. However the affect of renal transplantation on developing renal cell carcinoma isn't known.

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93. You are shown a posteroanterior (PA) and lateral chest radiograph of a 64-year-old man with chest pain (Figures 1A and 1B). What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. The chest radiograph shows normal heart size and vascularity. There is no evidence of pulmonary edema.
B: Correct. The chest radiograph shows normal heart size and vascularity. On the lateral view there is calcification of the aortic valve consistent with aortic stenosis. Identification of calcification of the aortic valve on a chest radiograph is usually associated with clinically significant aortic stenosis.
C: Incorrect. The chest radiograph shows normal heart size and vascularity. There is no evidence of left atrial enlargement or pulmonary venous hypertension.
D: Incorrect. The chest radiograph shows normal heart size and vascularity. There is no evidence of pericardial effusion.

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94. You are shown a merchant view (Figure 18) of the knees. What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

Explanation

A: There is an impaction fracture at the medial aspect of the right patella indicating transient patella-femoral dislocation. The normal valgus orientation of the knee predisposes to such lateral patella dislocation which typically reduces spontaneouly. There is resulting injury at the medial aspect of the patella lateral aspect of the lateral femoral condyle and medial patella retinaculum. These are routinely evident with MR imaging.
B: Chondromalacia patella strictly speaking refers to softening of the patella cartilage. Cartilage thinning may be demonstrated with conventional radiographs as patella-femoral joint space narrowing. Focal thinning or focal defects are best demonstrated with R which may also show signal inhomogeneity of uncertain significance.
C: The excessive lateral patellar pressure syndrome is due to a tight lateral patella retinaculum causing lateral patellar tilt and increased contact forces at the lateral patellofemoral facet. There may be slight medial patella subluxation.
D: The dorsal patella defect appears as a focal well-defined subchondral lucency at the superolateral aspect of the patella. It has been regarded as a developmental variation like bi-partite patella superolateral in position. Recently a traumatic pathogenesis has been suggested.

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95. Conccming patient care the American College of Radiology practice guidelines and standards for imaging of pregnant or potentially pregnant adolescents and women with ionizing radiation state that:

Explanation

A: The American College of Radiology practice guidelines and standards for imaging of pregnant or potentially pregnancy adolescents and women with ionizing radiation states: "The vast majority of routine diagnostic studies deliver less than 20 mGy to the uterus and single-phase acquisition computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen including pelvis usually delivers less than 35."
B: The American College of Radiology practice guidelines and standards for imaging of pregnant or potentially pregnant adolescents and women with ionizing radiation states: "The purpose of screening patients for the possibility of pregnancy is to reasonably minimize the number of unexpected exposures of pregnant patients who have enteral a potentially vulnerable stage of gestation. In developing a screening policy it must be realized that no screening policy will guarantee 100% detection."
C: The American College of Radiology practice guidelines and standards for imaging of pregnant or potentially pregnant adolescents and women with ionizing radiation states: "For an imaging examination using ionizing radiation obtaining consent from a patient known to be pregnant is an essential component of providing comprehensive medical care This process requires: I) a realistic overview of the limited risk to the patient and her developing child from the examination and 2) the beneficial role of this imaging procedure in maternal or fetal health evaluation. Whether particular institutions use written consent forms or verbal consent this interaction must be documented in the patients medical record and in compliance with state law. The written consent form must be retained in the medical record. The verbal consent should be documented within the radiology information system."
D: The American College of Radiology practice guidelines and standards for imaging of pregnant or potentially pregnant adolescents and women with ionizing radiation states: If the results of a pregnancy test are available the information should be used with discretion. A negative pregnancy test should not be used by technologists as a reason to forgo standard screening procedures for pregnancy. If a patient does not pass standard verbal or written screening queries about menstrual history or potential for pregnancy the radiologist should be notified and the date and mutts of the negative pregnancy test should be included in the notification."

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96. The gamma camera images shown (Figure 8) are used to evaluate which of the following quality assurance (QA) parameters?

Explanation

A: Bar phantom studies performed at least weekly are usually obtained four ways by rotating through all quadrants to check both resolution and linearity without employing a separate linearity phantom.

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97. Which of the following BEST describes a bicornuate uterus?

Explanation

A: The presence of two separate uterine horns but with single cervix would best describe the appearance of a bicornuate uterus of the choices given.

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98. Concerning a 3.0 cm simple ovarian cyst in an asymptomatic post-menopausal woman which of the following is TRUE?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. The risk of malignancy for a simple cyst smaller than 5.0cm diameter in a post-menopausal women is very low and these masses can be followed with repeat ultrasound exams every 3-6 months without operative intervention.
B: Incorrect. The most common neoplasm in those cases that had surgical removal is serous cystadenoma.
C: Correct. The CA-125 is a tumor marker that if elevated in a post-menopausal woman with an ovarian cyst indicates that removal is required.
D: Incorrect. See 'A' above. The natural history of these masses is unknown and follow-up is required.

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99. You are shown two images from a non-enhanced CT scan in a 77-year-old woman who has undergone pacemaker placement (arrow) and mitral valve replacement (arrowhead) (Figures 2A and 2B). The calcifications are related to which one of the following?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. The calcifications are located in the wall of the left atrium.
B: Incorrect. Calcification of the pulmonary arteries may occur in patients with longstanding severe pulmonary arterial hypertension. The calcifications in this case are located in the wall of the left atrium.
C: Correct. The calcifications are secondary to endocarditis from rheumatic heart disease. Other caus-es of endocarditis can also cause calcification of the left atrial wall.
D: Incorrect. The areas of calcification do not correspond with the anatomic location of the coronary arteries.

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100. You are shown a PA view (Figure 19) of the hand of a 60-year-old woman. What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis.

Explanation

A: There is joint space narrowing central erosion subchondral sclerosis and peripheral osteophytosis at the second third and fourth PIP joints. There is a resulting gullwing configuration. Historically a subgroup of patients with the typical Heberdon s and Bouchard s nodes (osteophytosis about the PIP and DIP joints of the hands) of osteoarthritis presented with pain tenderness and swelling suggesting inflammatory disease. This phenomenon was initially dubbed inflammatory osteoarthritis. Radiologic analysis demonstrated the unique central erosion not present in typical OA. Hence the term erosive osteoarthritis. Whether or not this represents a unique arthritis or rather inflammatory arthritis superimposed upon osteoarthritic joints remains controversial. Like the seronegative arthritides ankylosis may result.
B: oint space narrowing peripheral and central erosions peri-articular osteopenia without subchondral sclerosis and lack of osteoophyte formation is characteristic of RA. sually there is first involvement of the wrist and CP joints prior to more distal involvement.
C: Psoriatic arthritis characteristically has joint space narrowing peripheral and central erosion and lack of subchondral sclerosis and osteophyte formation. Appositional new bone formation at its articular end or cupping may be present. The IP joint are typically involved.
D: The granulomatous infiltration of the bone marrow in patients with sarcoidosis typically produces numerous patterns of bone lysis the lace-like or reticular pattern being fairly characteristic. oint involvement may be acute or chronic but joint destruction is rare. uscle involvement is the least common form of musculoskeletal sarcoid.

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101. In a young or middle-aged patient (

Explanation

A: Not the most appropriate initial examination.
B: Not the most appropriate initial examination.
C: Not the most appropriate initial examination.
D: In a young or middle aged patient (D:. This is performed to exclude pneumothorax and possibly identify a rib fracture. There is no indication to perform an ultrasound of the chest (answerA: CT of the chest with or without contrast (answer
B: or radiograph of the ribs (rib views) (answer
C:. Radiograph of the ribs (rib views) alone may miss a pncumothorax. The addition of radiographs of the ribs (rib views) after a radiograph of the chest does not generally change management.

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102. You are shown anterior and posterior images (Figure 9) of the head chest abdomen and pelvis. Which one of the following is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

Explanation

A: Octreotide scintigraphy is commonly used to evaluate patients with suspected or known carcinoid tumor involvement to assess for recurrence or metastatic disease with high sensitivity as well as to stratify patients for sandostatin therapy. This is a case of metastatic carcinoid tumor involving the liver.

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103. Concerning massive ovarian edema which of the following is CORRECT?

Explanation

A: Massive ovarian edema in most patients is felt to represent intermittent or partial torsion of the ovary which results in some degree of obstruction of the venous and lymphatic drainage of the ovary but with preservation of arterial flow.

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104. Concerning a septate uterus which of the following is TRUE?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. Septate uterus comprises about 55% of mullerian duct anomalies the most common type. Bicornuate constitutes about 10% of mullerian duct anomalies.
B: Incorrect. Hysteroscopic resection can typically be done for patients with septate uterus and recurrent pregnancy loss.
C: Correct. The fundal contour is the basic anatomic feature that distinguishes septate uterus from bicornuate uterus. Septate uterus will have a flat convex or minimally concave (D: Incorrect. Septate uterus has the poorest reproductive outcomes of the congenital uterine anomalies. There is a reported spontaneous abortion rate in the literature of nearly 65% for patients with septate uterus.

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105. You are shown a posteroanterior (PA) and lateral chest radiograph of a 75-year-old woman (Figures 3A and 3B). What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. The chest radiograph shows enlargement of the central pulmonary arteries with diminu-tion of the peripheral vasculature consistent with pulmonary arterial hypertension. If the left-to-right shunt in atrial septal defect is 2:1 or greater the chest radiograph will show evidence of over-circulation which is characterized by enlargement of all segments of the pulmonary arteries throughout the lung (shunt vascularity). Right heart enlargement is also a feature of atrial septal defect a finding which is not present in this case.
B: Incorrect. Chronic thromboembolic disease is an uncommon cause of pulmonary arterial hyperten-sion. The chest radiograph in this case demonstrates marked hyperinflation of the lungs and emphy-sema making pulmonary arterial hypertension secondary to chronic lung disease the most likely diagnosis.
C: Incorrect. Early radiographic changes of pulmonary venous hypertension are characterized by pul-monary venous distention equalization of the size of upper and lower lobe vessels and indistinct vessel margins. This case does not demonstrate these findings.
D: Correct. This case shows enlargement of the central pulmonary arteries with diminished size of the peripheral vasculature characteristic of pulmonary arterial hypertension. In this patient the pul-monary arterial hypertension is a result of the severe emphysema as manifested by markedly increased lung volumes flattening of the diaphragm and increase in AP diameter of the chest. Cor pulmonale is defined as pulmonary hypertension secondary to chronic lung disease.

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106. The apparent loss of soft tissue visibility in this lateral C-spine (Figure 20) is the result of:

Explanation

A: Incorrect.
B: Although digital radiographic technology such as CR and DR has extended dynamic range (latitude) compared with analog screen-film photographic technology it is still possible to exceed the latitude of these detectors and cause detector saturation. When this occurs image processing and window level adjustment can do nothing to recover the lost information. The saturated regions will appear black or dark gray.
C: Incorrect.
D: Incorrect.

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107. The legal basis for an action filed against any person who submits a claim to the federal government (Medicare) that he or she knows or should know is incorrect is called the:

Explanation

A: The Deficit Reduction Act does not address false claims.
B: This act provides a safe haven for those idcntifying false claims against Medicare (CMS) but does not address the penalties for those who file false claims.
C: The False Claims Act does address the filing of false claims.
D: The Stark II law does not address the filing of false claims.

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108. A 35-year-old patient who is clinically hyperthyroid with an autonomously functioning thyroid adenoma is referred for radioiodine therapy. Which of the following therapeutic doses of I-131 would be MOST appropriate?

Explanation

A: Individuals with toxic multinodular goiter or a solitary autonomous functioning nodule generally require higher doses of radioactive iodine for successful ablation than patients with Graves' disease. Furthermore partial treatment with lower doses may result in partial loss of suppression of uptake by the remainder of the gland resulting in a lower percentage of a subsequently administered therapeutic dose being taken up by the lesion. Treatment doses given are usually in the "high out-patient" range of 20-30 mCi although under current NRC guidelines even higher doses may be given to many patients without hospitalization required.

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109. Which one of the following BEST describes Mirizzi syndrome?

Explanation

A: Mirizzi syndrome involves impaction of a gallstone in cystic duct resulting in obstruction of common hepatic duct from adjacent inflammation/mass effect. This process is likely potentiated by a parallel course of a low inserting cystic duct and common hepatic duct. Patient may experience acute or chronic cholecystitis cholangitis and jaundice.

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110. You are shown an axial contrast-enhanced CT scan of the chest (Figure 4). What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. Ostium primum defects are the second most common atrial septal defects (ASD) accounting for about 15 percent of all ASDs. The primum portion of the atrial septum is located inferiorly at the level of the mitral and tricuspid valves. Ostium primum defects are often associated with atrioventricular defects. The abnormality on the image is not in this location.
B: Incorrect. Ostium secundum defects are the most common ASD accounting for approximately 75 percent of all ASDs and are located near the fossa ovalis in the middle of the atrial septum. The abnormality on the image is not in this location.
C: Correct. Sinus venosus defects are the third most common ASD accounting for approximately 10 percent of all cases. The sinus venosus portion of the atrial septum separates the left atrium from the superior vena cava. The defect in this case is located in the superolateral aspect of the atrial septum at the junction of the superior vena cava and right atrium near the insertion of the right pulmonary veins consistent with a sinus venosus ASD.
D: Incorrect. Patent foramen ovale occurs in up to 25 percent of adults. The flap of tissue covering the foramen ovale typically closes the defect since the left atrial pressure is higher than the right atrial pressure. Normally this flap of tissue fuses with the septum after the first year of life. The abnor-mality on the image is not in the location of the foramen ovale.

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111. Which of the following is associated with malignant degeneration of Paget disease?

Explanation

A: Osteoporosis circumscripta refers to the well defined geographic lytic region seen at the skull secondary to the intense osteoclastic activity of the lytic phase of Paget disease.
B: The mosaic pattern describes the histology of Pagetoid bone namely the arrangement of coarsened and enlarged osseous trabeculae.
C: Malignant degeneration of Paget disease is typically a focal process resulting in bone destruction that appears lytic and aggressive on conventional radiographs and CT. Osteosarcoma is the most common of these secondary sarcomas. They lack the new bone formation with sclerosis and periosteal reaction more typical of primary osteosarcoma seen in children.
D: Not all involved vertebral bodies enlarge in Paget s disease. Occasionally diffuse osteosclerosis of a vertebral body may mimic metastasis and lymphoma. The more characteristic pattern however is the picture-frame vertebral body with enlargement due to cortical thickening. Pagetic involvement of both the anterior and posterior elements is often helpful with differential diagnosis blastic metastasis and lymphoma tending to more focally involve the vertebral body. Malignant degeneration involves osteolysis not sclerosis.

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112. Concerning ethics the American College of Radiology Code of Ethics states that:

Explanation

A: The American College of Radiology Code of Ethics states "Members should at all times be aware of their limitations and be willing to seek consultations in clinical situations where appropriate."
B: The American College of Radiology Code of Ethics does not state that physicians not personally interpreting images should not sign a report of another physician under any circumstances. It states "A physician who has not personally interpreted the images obtained in a radiological examination should not sign a report or take attribution of an interpretation of that examination rendered by another physician in a manner that causes the reader of a report to believe that the signing radiologist was the interpreter."
C: The American College of Radiology Code of Ethics states "Members should at all times be aware of their limitations and be willing to seek consultations in clinical situations where appropriate. These limitations should be appropriately disclosed to patients and referring physicians."
D: The American College of Radiology Code of Ethics states "The medical profession should safeguard the public and itself against physicians deficient in moral character or professional competence by reporting to the appropriate body without hesitation perceived illegal or unethical conduct of members of the medical profession." Perceived illegal or unethical conduct of any member of the medical profession must be reported to the appropriate governing body.

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113. Regarding scrotal varicoceles which of the following is TRUE?

Explanation

Scrotal varicoceles consist of multiple dilated veins measuring greater than 2 mm. This means that the veins in the scrotum become enlarged and dilated, measuring more than 2 mm in diameter. This condition is a common cause of correctable male infertility, contrary to the statement in the question. Secondary varicoceles are indeed affected by patient position, as they tend to disappear when the patient is lying down.

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114. Regarding endometrioid ovarian cancer which of the following is TRUE?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. It is actually the second most common form of ovarian cancer. Serous cystadenocarcinoma is the most common form. Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma is the third most common form of ovarian cancer.
B: Correct. Thus if you see endometrial thickening and an ovarian mass consider endometrioid ovarian cancer. The endometrial cancer is thought to be a primary tumor rather than a metastatic focus.
C: Incorrect. 15% are bilateral.
D: Incorrect. It is just as likely to cause elevated CA-125 .

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115. You are shown an oblique coronal reformatted image from a contrast-enhanced CT (Figure 5). Which coronary artery is depicted by the arrow?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. The left anterior descending artery gives off epicardial diagonal branches over the antero-lateral wall. The artery shown in this image does not arise from the left anterior descending artery. Instead it arises between the left anterior descending artery and the left circumflex artery.
B: Incorrect. The left circumflex artery arises from the left main artery and gives off obtuse marginal branches which supply the lateral wall of the left ventricle. The artery shown in this image does not arise from the left circumflex artery. Instead it arises between the left anterior descending artery and the left circumflex artery.
C: Correct. The left main coronary artery may trifurcate giving off the left anterior descending artery the left circumflex artery and the ramus intermedius or intermediate artery which arises between the left anterior descending and left circumflex arteries as shown in this case.
D: Incorrect. The left anterior descending coronary artery gives off septal branches that supply the interventricular septum. The artery shown in this image does not arise from the left anterior descending artery. Instead it arises between the left anterior descending artery and the left circum-flex artery.

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116. Which of the following does NOT affect the total time for an MRI exam?

Explanation

A: Frequency encoding steps do not add additional time to the total image acquisition time since the gradients are applied to the receiving echo to separate signals in a particular direction or frequency.
B: Incorrect.
C: Incorrect.
D: Incorrect.

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117. In a postmcnopausal patient with vaginal bleeding the MOST appropriate initial imaging test is:

Explanation

A: Not the most appropriate initial imaging examination.
B: Not the most appropriate initial imaging examination.
C: Not the most appropriate initial imaging examination.
D: In a postmenopausal patient with vaginal bleeding the initial imaging study should be ultrasound pelvis transabdominal and/or pelvis transvaginal (answer
D:. MRI of the pelvis with contrast (answerA: CT of the pelvis with contrast (answer
B: and ultrasound hysterosonogram (answer
C: are not firstÐline investigations.

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118. A woman received a single dose of 10 mCi of I-131 for treatment of Graves’ disease 3 weeks ago. Today she calls to tell you she discovered she was pregnant at the time of the test and is now about 7 weeks pregnant. You should:

Explanation

A: The fetal thyroid begins functioning between 8 and 12 weeks post conception. The initial effective half-life of the I-131 is about 6.5 days. By the time the fetal thyroid begins functioning less than about 5% of the administered dose will remain. Almost all this remaining I-131 will have been trapped in the mother’s thyroid. The circulating I-131 will be in the I-131 labeled T3 and T4 released from the mother’s thyroid. By the time the fetal thyroid begins functioning the circulating I-131 level will be much less than the 5% estimate. The dose to the fetus depends on many factors but is probably in the range of 0.025-0.050 mGy per MBq (0.1- 0.2 rad/mCi). A conservative estimate of the increased risk of leukemia due to this dose would be less than 1%. For this reason choices A and B are false. Blocking doses of KI would have to be given daily because of the risk of fetal goiter.

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119. After placement of a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) which one of the following is a normal Doppler finding?

Explanation

A: The intrahepatic portal veins usually flow toward and drain through the TIPS shunt.

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120. Adenocarcinoma of the prostate gland most commonly occurs in what location?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. Only approximately 5% of carcinomas occur in this region of the prostate.
B: Incorrect. This area accounts for about 5% of the prostate volume and is located in the periurethral tissue. This zone accounts for approximately 10% of prostate cancers. This area is prone to benign prostatic hyperplasia.
C: Correct. This area accounts for about 70% of the volume of the prostate gland and approximately 85% of prostate cancer is located in this zone.
D: This is the nonglandular portion of the prostate gland and is located anteriorly. It does not typically present with pathology.

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121. You are shown axial (see Figures 6A and 6B) and sagittally-reconstructed (Figure 6C) images from a contrast-enhanced CT scan of the chest obtained after a motor vehicle collision. What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. There is only a tiny strand of soft tissue density material connecting the proximal descending aorta and the left pulmonary artery. This represents the ligamentum arteriosum.
B: Incorrect. The bulge along the underside of the aorta is smooth and there is no evidence of any flap or periaortic hematoma. These findings make traumatic laceration highly unlikely.
C: Correct. The combination of a small smooth bump along the bottom edge of the aorta along with the lack of any evidence of flap or mediastinal hematoma is typical of a ductus diverticulum. The soft tissue strand joining the bump to the pulmonary artery represents the ligamentum arteriosum the remnant of the ductus arteriosus.
D: Incorrect. The bump has none of the hallmarks of penetrating atherosclerotic ulcer

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122. Which of the following is associated with sublime tubercle avulsion at the elbow

Explanation

A: Avulsion fracture of the sublime tubercle (medial aspect of the coronoid process) requires valgus stress resulting in tension at the medial aspect of the elbow and the anterior band of the ulnar collateral ligament.
B: The anterior band of the ulnar collateral ligament attaches to the sublime tubercle (medial aspect of the coronoid process) of the proximal ulna. It is the primary stabilizer resisting valgus forces at the elbow.
C: The resulting small avulsed fragment of bone does not displace into the joint. Avulsion of the medial epicondyle is more commonly associated with intra-articular entrapment in children.
D: algus stress to the skeletally immature elbow typically injures the medial epicondyle the proximal attachment of the ulnar collateral ligament and common flexor tendon. Avulsion of the medial epicondyle is not uncommon and associated intra-articular entrapment is a known complication in children.

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123. According to the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education (ACGME) use of information technology to improve learning is part of which competency?

Explanation

A: Incorrect.
B: Incorrect.
C: Incorrect.
D: According to the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education (ACGME) use of information technology to improve learning is part of practice-based learning and improvement.
E: Incorrect.

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124. Concerning In-111 pentetreotide (OctreoScan) which one of the following receptors serves as the basis for its uptake by neuroendocrine tumors?

Explanation

A: Several agents have been developed which readily bind to somatostatin receptors. In-111 pentreotide (Octreoscan) binds with high affinity with the SSTR2 and SSTR5 subtypes and to a lesser degree with the SSTR3 subtype. A total of 5 subtypes are present in humans.

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125. Which one of the following is TRUE regarding siderotic nodules (Gamna-Gandy bodies) in the spleen?

Explanation

Siderotic nodules, also known as Gamna-Gandy bodies, are small, benign lesions that can occur in various organs including the spleen. These nodules are typically seen as echogenic foci on ultrasound imaging. The term "echogenic" refers to the ability of an object to produce echoes in ultrasound waves, resulting in a bright appearance on the ultrasound image. Therefore, the statement that "they appear as echogenic foci on ultrasound" is true for siderotic nodules in the spleen.

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126. What is the average energy of a 100 kVp x-ray beam?

Explanation

A: Incorrect.
B: Incorrect.
C: Correct. The average energy of a polychromatic x-ray beam is usually one-third to one-half of the maximum kVp depending on the beam filter. Hence the average energy for 100 kVp x-rays would be between 33- 50 keV and therefore 40 keV is correct.
D: Incorrect.

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127. Concerning the morphologic right ventricle which of the following is the MOST reliable indicator?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. Normally the right ventricle receives blood from the right atrium lies anterior to and is more trabeculated than the left ventricle. The inflow and outflow valves of the right ventricle are separated by the muscular infundibulum in contrast to the left ventricle where the valves are con-tiguous. In complex congenital cardiac anomalies the separation of the inflow and outflow valves is the most reliable indicator of the morphologic right ventricle.
B: Incorrect. Normally the right ventricle receives blood from the right atrium lies anterior to and is more trabeculated than the left ventricle. The inflow and outflow valves of the right ventricle are separated by the muscular infundibulum in contrast to the left ventricle where the valves are con-tiguous. In complex congenital cardiac anomalies the separation of the inflow and outflow valves is the most reliable indicator of the morphologic right ventricle.
C: Correct. Normally the right ventricle receives blood from the right atrium lies anterior to and is more trabeculated than the left ventricle. The inflow and outflow valves of the right ventricle are separated by the muscular infundibulum in contrast to the left ventricle where the valves are con-tiguous. In complex congenital cardiac anomalies the separation of the inflow and outflow valves is the most reliable indicator of the morphologic right ventricle.
D: Incorrect. Normally the right ventricle receives blood from the right atrium lies anterior to and is more trabeculated than the left ventricle. The inflow and outflow valves of the right ventricle are separated by the muscular infundibulum in contrast to the left ventricle where the valves are con-tiguous. In complex congenital cardiac anomalies the separation of the inflow and outflow valves is the most reliable indicator of the morphologic right ventricle.

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128. Concerning ACL reconstruction which of the following is CORRECT?

Explanation

A: Isometry refers to the constant length and tension of the graft during full range of motion. Accurate location of the femoral tunnel is essential in achieving isometry of the ACL graft.
B: If the tibial tunnel is placed too far anteriorly the graft may be impinged upon by the anteroinferior margin of the intercondylar roof.
C: The most common grafts employed are bone-patella tendon-bone and hamstring allografts and autografts. The middle one-third of the patellar tendon with patella bone plug attached to one end and tibial bone plug attached at the other has been the standard for ACL reconstruction because of its inherent strength and stiffness. Interference screws commonly are used as fixation devices. The development of painful patellar-tendon abnormalities however has led to the utilization of a four-strand hamstring graft often made of semitendinosus or gracilis tendon or both. The tendon segments are folded and braided to form a quadruple-thickness structure. There is a low reported morbidity related to the graft harvesting site. Proper fixation of the graft with interference screws endobuttons a screw-washer construct or staples is crucial to avoid changes in the graft position during the initial postoperative period.
D: Foci of increased SI may be seen within the graft for several years representing the physiologic ligamentization of the tendon graft and not necessarily a partial tear.

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129. Concerning patient care the American College of Radiology practice guideline for performance of screening and diagnostic mammography states that:

Explanation

A: The American College of Radiology practice guideline for performance of screening and diagnostic mammography states: "Diagnostic mammography is a radiographic examination performed to evaluate patients who have signs and/or symptoms of breast disease imaging findings of concern or prior imaging findings requiring specific follow-up. Diagnostic mammography requires direct supervision. A diagnostic mammogram should be performed under the direct supervision of a physician qualified in mammography under MQSA."
B: The American College of Radiology practice guideline for performance of screening and diagnostic mammography stat
E: "Asymptomatic women 40 years of age or older should have an annual screening mammogram. It is unclear at what age if any women cease to benefit from screening mammography. Because this age is likely to vary depending on the individual's overall health the decision as to when to stop routine mammography screening should be made on an individual basis by each woman and her physician."
C: The American College of Radiology practice guideline for performance of screening and diagnostic mammography stat
E: "Symptomatic women and women with a previously detected abnormality for whom short interval follow-up or further evaluation has been recommended are not candidates for screening mammography."
D: The American College of Radiology practice guideline for performance of screening and diagnostic mammography stat
E: "Asymptomatic women with breast implants may undergo screening mammography. At the discretion of the facility asymptomatic women with breast implants may receive a diagnostic mammogram."

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130. Concerning patients with well-differentiated papillary thyroid cancer which one of the following serum assays is the MOST useful in conjunction with I-131 whole-body scintigraphy for the detection of recurrent disease following thyroidectomy and high-dose I-131 ablation?

Explanation

A: Thyroglobulin (Tg) is produced by the thyroid epithelial cells and is used by the thyroid gland to produce the thyroid hormones thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3). Serum thyroglobulin (Tg) is the most accurate tumor marker to detect the recurrence of tumor in well differentiated thyroid carcinomas (papillary and follicular). It is not useful in patients with the anaplastic or medullary forms of thyroid cancer.

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131. Regarding ultrasound evaluation of a hemodialysis access graft which one is TRUE?

Explanation

A: The peak systolic velocity within the graft is usually 100-400 cm/sec and the end diastolic velocity is usually 60-200 cm/sec.

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132. Concerning iodinated contrast induced nephropathy (CIN) in patients with pre-existing renal insufficiency which one is TRUE?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. High osmolar agents have greater incidence of CIN
B: Incorrect. Diabetic patients have increased risk of CIN especially if they already have baseline renal insufficiency
C: Correct. IV hydration with ? normal saline 12 hours before and after contrast administration decreases the incidence of CIN in patients with chronic renal insufficiency.
D: Incorrect. Allergic reactions are a separate contrast reaction type and are not considered a risk factor for CIN. Pre-existing renal insufficiency diabetes mellitus (especially with pre-existing renal insufficiency) dehydration cardiovascular disease with CHF and myeloma are among the risk factors with increased incidence of CIN.

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133. Concerning the location of cardiac valves on a posteroanterior (PA) and lateral chest radiograph which one is TRUE?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. The aortic valve lies inferior to the pulmonary valve. The pulmonary valve is the most superiorly located valve.
B: Correct. The tricuspid valve is the most anteriorly located valve.
C: Incorrect. The mitral valve is the most posteriorly located valve. The tricuspid valve lies inferior to the mitral valve.
D: Incorrect. The aortic valve is contiguous with the mitral valve and shares a common fibrous skele-ton.

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134. What is the MOST notable difference expected in an image obtained from a 0.2T open MRI when compared with a 1.5T MRI?

Explanation

A: Both low and high field strength RI systems can produce good spatial resolution of high contrast objects. The resolution is dependent more on the magnetic field gradients and RF bandwidth as well as the number of echoes sampled.
B: Incorrect.
C: The number of signal producing nuclei that can produce a signal is proportional to the magnetic field strength. Consequently stronger and less noisy signals are generally detected on higher field strength systems leading to less image noise and better low contrast detectability.
D: The field of view is dependent on the magnet design but not directly dependent on the magnetic field strength. Low field strength open RI systems often have larger FO capabilities.

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135. The American Medical Association (AMA) developed and maintains CPT Coding. CPT coding is defined as:

Explanation

A: Correct.
B: Incorrect.
C: Incorrect.
D: Incorrect.

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136. Which of the following drugs is used to augment cholescintigraphy in cases of suspected biliary atresia?

Explanation

A: Phenobarbital is used to augment the cholescintigraphy in neonates suspected of biliary atresia. The dose is 5mg/kg/day in divided doses for 5-7 days before the exam to increase the metabolic activity of the liver. The serum phenobarbital level should be checked prior to imaging.

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137. Concerning adenomyosis of the uterus which one is TRUE?

Explanation

A: Adenomyosis is caused by ectopic endometrial glands and stroma located in the myometrium. There is associated myometrial hypertrophy. These ectopic endometrial glands may become cystically dilated and appear as small 2-3 mm myometrial cysts.

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138. What is the principle reason that iodine contrast media causes an increase in the blood's ability to attenuate x-rays?

Explanation

A: Correct. Since the probability of photoelectric absorption is proportional to (Z)^3 the high atomic number of iodine greatly increases the stopping of the x-rays by photoelectric interactions
B: Incorrect. The probability of Compton scattering is independent of the atomic number.
C: Incorrect. There is little change in the blood's density.
D: Incorrect. There is little change in the blood's density.

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139. Concerning the position of the interventricular septum on short axis images of the heart which one is TRUE?

Explanation

A: Correct. On short axis images the interventricular septum is curved with the convexity toward the right ventricle. This appearance is maintained during systole and diastole. Straightening bowing with convexity toward the left ventricle and sinusoidal appearance of the interventricular septum are abnormal.
B: Incorrect. On short axis images the interventricular septum is curved with the convexity toward the right ventricle. This appearance is maintained during systole and diastole. Straightening bowing with convexity toward the left ventricle and sinusoidal appearance of the interventricular septum are abnormal.
C: Incorrect. On short axis images the interventricular septum is curved with the convexity toward the right ventricle. This appearance is maintained during systole and diastole. Straightening bowing with convexity toward the left ventricle and sinusoidal appearance of the interventricular septum are abnormal.
D: Incorrect. On short axis images the interventricular septum is curved with the convexity toward the right ventricle. This appearance is maintained during systole and diastole. Straightening bowing with convexity toward the left ventricle and sinusoidal appearance of the interventricular septum are abnormal.

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140. Concerning hyperextension injuries of the cervical spine which of the following is CORRECT?

Explanation

A: Posterior arch C1 fracture may be isolated or associated with other injuries. Prevertebral soft-tissue swelling is a clue to the latter. Because of the frequent association of posterior arch fractures with more severe injuries CT is indicated in the evaluation of all patients with these fractures.
B: Radiographs often underestimate hyperextension dislocation injuries showing no malalignment because of immediate realignment following trauma. The presence of diffuse prevertebral soft-tissue swelling may be the only finding. An avulsion fracture is seen in two-thirds of cases at the anteroinferior endplate of the vertebral body. Widening of the disk space anteriorly and the presence of a vacuum disk are less frequently present. The transverse dimension of the anteroinferior avulsion fracture fragment is typically greater than its vertical height distinguishing it from hyperextension teardrop fracture its triangular fragment has a greater vertical than transverse dimension. With hyperextension dislocation the anterior longitudinal ligament disk and ligamentum flavum are all disrupted. Stripping of the posterior longitudinal ligament and tears of the paraspinal musculature may also be present. Neurologic impairment with acute central cord syndrome is almost always present ranging from upper extremity paresthesias to complete quadriplegia.
C: Hangman s fracture or traumatic spondylolisthesis of C2 is the second most common C2 fracture and involves the pars interarticularis not the odontoid. The usual mechanism of injury involves direct impact to the face (rather than judicial hanging) with hyperextension and pathologic loading of the posterior aspect of the axis producing bilateral vertically oriented fractures of the pars interarticularis. Subsequent separation of the body and posterior arch of C2 results in decompression of the spinal canal. An atypical variant of traumatic spondylolisthesis has been described with either unilateral or bilateral fractures in the coronal plane through the posterior body of C2. The identification of atypical traumatic spondylolisthesis is clinically relevant due to the greater degree of mechanical and potential neurologic deficit associated with this variant. The most common C2 fracture involves the odontoid process and may also result from hyperextension. There is however no association with the Hangman s injury.
D: Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis predisposes to significant injury from cervical hyperextension. Patients with ankylosing spondylitis are also at increased risk for fractures of the cervical spine which commonly result from hyperextension. The cervicothoracic junction is most frequently involved with the fracture extending horizontally through the intervertebral disk to involve the entire spine at this level. Neurologic deficit may be present in over 50% of patients with a high mortality rate.

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141. Conccming the Accreditation Council of Graduate Medical Education (ACGME) toolbox for assessment of the General Competencies simulations for the assessment of clinical performance should:

Explanation

A: Simulations should include a wide array of options.
B: Simulations need not necessarily involve anatomical models of mannequins.
C: Simulations often involve role-playing.
D: According to the ACGME a key attribute of simulations is that they allow examinees to make life-threatening errors without harming a real patient.

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142. Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals is the MOST appropriate agent for imaging renal parenchymal scarring due to pyelonephritis?

Explanation

A: Tc-99m Dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) is the radiopharmaceutical of choice for renal cortical scintigraphy. There is minimal urinary excretion at 2 hours and approximately 40% of the injected dose localized and remains fixed to the renal cortex binding to sulfhydryl groups of proximal tubular cells. With this agent both static imaging using parallel hole and pinhole collimators as well as SPECT imaging may be performed.

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143. The ultrasound of a 38-year-old G0 P0 woman who has been married for 5 years shows bilateral enlarged ovaries with multiple anechoic cysts and a moderate amount of free abdominal fluid. The right ovary measures 7 x 8 x 8 cm and the left ovary measures 9 x 8 x 8 cm. Which one is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

Explanation

A: Although the history of fertility treatment was withheld this would be a reasonable assumption given the history provided. In ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome the ovaries are significantly enlarged with multiple cysts. Ascites and pleural effusion can be present.

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144. Concerning endometriosis which one is TRUE?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. CT is normal in most patients although larger endometriomas may be seen.
B: Incorrect. Larger endometriomas usually have internal echoes from debris. Most patients with endometriosis have no abnormalities on US related to this entity.
C: Incorrect. Women 30 -40 years old are most commonly affected. The growth of endometriosis appears to be estrogen sensitive and grow under cyclical hormonal influence.
D: Correct. These small implants are usually not seen by any imaging modality. Laparoscopy is typically used for diagnosis.

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145. Concerning cardiac aneurysms which one is TRUE?

Explanation

A: Correct. It is thought that atherosclerosis of saphenous vein bypass grafts results in decreased wall elasticity and resulting dilatation of the graft lumen over time.
B: Incorrect. Rupture of a sinus of Valsalva aneurysm typically involves the right sinus. Rupture of the left sinus is rare.
C: Incorrect. True aneurysms of the left ventricle most commonly occur in the anterolateral and apical wall. In contrast false aneurysms are most commonly located in the posterolateral and diaphragmat-ic aspect of the left ventricle.
D: Incorrect. Left ventricular pseudoaneurysms typically have a narrow communication between the pseudoaneurysm and the left ventricular cavity. In contrast the neck of a left ventricular true aneurysm is typically broad.

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146. Concerning amyloid arthropathy which of the following is CORRECT?

Explanation

A: Amyloid arthropathy is most commonly seen in patients undergoing hemodialysis with elevated serum levels of B2-microglobin and in patients with plasma cell dyscrasias with elevated serum levels of monoclonal immunoglobulin light chain fragments. It is less frequently seen in patients with chronic inflammatory disorders such as rheumatoid arthritis with elevated serum levels of acute phase protein amyloid A .
B: Amyloid spondyloarthropathy typically occurs in patients receiving hemodialysis. It may appear quite destructive mimicking septic spondylitis or neuropathic spondyloarthropathy.
C: Bilateral involvement of the shoulders hips and knees is typical. Characteristic x-ray and CT imaging findings of amyloid arthropathy include periarticular osteopenia juxtarticular soft-tissue mass subchondral cysts osseous erosion joint effusion and preservation of the joint space. The latter is more typical of any condition that preserves the articular cartilage until late in the course of the disease i.
E: P NS synovial chondromatosis chronic tophaceous gout and tuberculous arthritis. The inflammatory arthritides tend to uniformly destroy the articular cartilage early on. Deposits are characterized by low to intermediate signal intensity regardless of pulse sequence with R imaging. The lesions exhibit no paramagnetic effect with gradient-echo imaging.
D: Bilateral involvement of the shoulders hips and knees is typical in the appendicular skeleton. Characteristic -ray and CT imaging findings of amyloid arthropathy at the appendicular skeleton include periarticular osteopenia juxtaarticular soft-tissue masse subchondral cysts osseous erosion joint effusion and preservation of the joint space. Amyloid spondyloarthropathy typically occurs in patients receiving hemodialysis. It may appear quite destructive mimicking septic spondylitis or neuropathic spondyloarthropathy.

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147. Regarding an institution's pharmaceutical charge generated from intravenous contrast material used from a single-use vial which of the following represents the MOST appropriate practice?

Explanation

A: Incorrect.
B: Incorrect.
C: Incorrect.
D: An institution can charge for waste pharmaceuticals if the material is not useable subsequently and the waste is documented.

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148. Regarding the mechanism of captopril-enhanced renal scintigraphy in unilateral renovascular hypertension which one of the following statements is CORRECT?

Explanation

A: Angiotensin I is cleaved to angiotensin II by the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) mostly within the lungs. Captopril an ACE inhibitor blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II thus alleviating renovascular hypertension but in the process also further reducing the glomerular filtration rate of the affected kidney that has compensated by means of the renin-angiotensin system.

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149. Regarding the sonographic diagnosis of liver masses which of the following statements is TRUE?

Explanation

A: Hilar cholangiocarcinoma (Klatskin tumor) classically presents as dilated intrahepatic right and left bile ductal system that do not meet in the center. The obstructing tumor is often isoechoic to the liver parenchyma or infiltrating and thus difficult to visualize. The tumor may encase or occlude the portal vein at the porta hepatis.

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150. Concerning primary megaureter which one is TRUE?

Explanation

A: Correct. Most cases involve dilatation only the lower third of the ureter although the lowest portion of the ureter adjacent to the ureterovesicle junction is normal in caliber. Severe cases can involve the entire ureter but are less common.
B: Incorrect. There is functional obstruction of the juxtavesical ureter due to inadequate musculature which fails to transmit normal peristalsis and is less distensible than normal ureter. This portion of the ureter is relatively normal with no associated filling defect or stenosis. There is prominent dilatation of the normal ureter above this level.
C: Incorrect. It is unilateral in 75% of cases. Left side is more commonly affected than right and it is more common in men than women.
D: Incorrect. In contrast to true ureteral obstruction the calyces are typically sharp with no delay in excretion or other signs typical of acute obstruction.

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151. Concerning coronary artery atherosclerosis which one is TRUE?

Explanation

A: Correct. Coronary artery calcification is almost always associated with coronary atherosclerosis.
B: Incorrect. On angiography a significant stenosis is one in which there is obstruction of at least 50 percent of the diameter or 75 percent of the cross-sectional area of the vessel lumen.
C: Incorrect. On angiography a severe stenosis is one in which there is obstruction of at least 75 per-cent of the diameter or 90 percent of the cross-sectional area of the vessel lumen.
D: Incorrect. Coronary artery calcification when present accounts for approximately 20 percent of the total plaque burden.

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152. Concerning diabetic myonecrosis which of the following is CORRECT?

Explanation

A: Patients characteristically present with the sudden onset of intense pain and a rapidly evolving tender soft tissue mass usually at the thigh.
B: Over 80% of cases involve the thigh and approximately 20% the calf. Involvement of the upper extremities is extremely rare. 10% of cases are bilateral.
C: Treatment is supportive and includes pain control and rest. Surgery (including open biopsy) is contraindicated due to the high rate of complications and prolongation of recovery time.
D: Patients are usually long-standing insulin dependent diabetics with poor control. The majority have existing diabetic complications including nephropathy retinopathy and neuropathy.

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153. In a patient with right upper-quadrant pain elevated WBC and positive Murphy sign the MOST appropriate initial imaging test is:

Explanation

The correct answer is right upper-quadrant ultrasound. Right upper-quadrant pain, elevated white blood cell count (WBC), and positive Murphy sign are indicative of possible gallbladder pathology, such as cholecystitis or cholelithiasis. Ultrasound is the most appropriate initial imaging test for evaluating the gallbladder and biliary tree, as it is non-invasive, readily available, and can detect gallstones, gallbladder wall thickening, and signs of inflammation. CT of the abdomen may be considered if ultrasound findings are inconclusive or for further evaluation of other abdominal structures. ERCP/MRCP and Tc-99m IDA study are not initial imaging tests for this presentation.

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154. Regarding the use of ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scintigraphy in suspected pulmonary embolism the primary role of the ventilation portion of the study is to increase scan:

Explanation

A: The ventilation scan improves the relatively low specificity of the perfusion scan particularly in patients with obstructive pulmonary physiology or a variety of other parenchymal lung disorders.

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155. You are shown longitudinal and transverse gray scale images of the uterus (Figures 1A and 1B) of a 32 year-old woman with positive pregnancy test. These findings are most consistent with which ONE of the following types of pregnancy?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. Normal intrauterine pregnancy implants eccentrically within the endometrium and not at the interstitial portion of the fallopian tube. The implantation in this case is at the interstitial portion of the fallopian tube as the overlying myometrium is very thin (B: Incorrect. For heterotopic pregnancy one has to demonstrate both intra and extra uterine pregnancy present at the same time.
C: Correct. Cornual pregnancy (interstitial pregnancy) accounts for less than 2 % of pregnancies and is important to recognize as these patients present very late. A major complication is a ruptured uterus. Sonographically it is identified by eccentric location and usually an echogenic band can be seen connecting the ectopic pregnancy with the endometrial stripe called interstitial line (sign).
D: Incorrect. Fimbrial pregnancy is an ectopic pregnancy outside the uterus in the fimbrial portion of the fallopian tube.

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156. Concerning urinary bladder diverticula which one is TRUE?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. Most are acquired and related to bladder outlet obstruction.
B: Incorrect. Ipsilateral reflux is associated with a Hutch diverticulum.
C: Incorrect. Medial deviation of the distal ureter adjacent to a diverticulum is more common than lateral deviation.
D: Correct. A urachal diverticulum arises anterosuperiorly whereas typical bladder diverticula arise from the lateral walls or adjacent to ureteral orifices.

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157. Which one of the following congenital anomalies is MOST commonly associated with anomalous pulmonary venous drainage?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. Drainage of the pulmonary veins should be assessed in all patients with congenital anom-alies. Nearly all patients with sinus venosus atrial septal defect have anomalous pulmonary venous drainage most commonly drainage of the right upper lobe to the superior vena cava. Approximately 10 percent of patients with an ostium secundum atrial septal defect will have anomalous pulmonary venous drainage.
B: Incorrect. Drainage of the pulmonary veins should be assessed in all patients with congenital anom-alies. Nearly all patients with sinus venosus atrial septal defect have anomalous pulmonary venous drainage most commonly drainage of the right upper lobe to the superior vena cava. Approximately 10 percent of patients with an ostium secundum atrial septal defect will have anomalous pulmonary venous drainage.
C: Incorrect. Drainage of the pulmonary veins should be assessed in all patients with congenital anom-alies. Nearly all patients with sinus venosus atrial septal defect have anomalous pulmonary venous drainage most commonly drainage of the right upper lobe to the superior vena cava. Approximately 10 percent of patients with an ostium secundum atrial septal defect will have anomalous pulmonary venous drainage.
D: Correct. Drainage of the pulmonary veins should be assessed in all patients with congenital anom-alies. Nearly all patients with sinus venosus atrial septal defect have anomalous pulmonary venous drainage most commonly drainage of the right upper lobe to the superior vena cava. Approximately 10 percent of patients with an ostium secundum atrial septal defect will have anomalous pulmonary venous drainage.

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158. Concerning musculoskeletal tuberculosis which of the following is CORRECT?

Explanation

A: Less than 5% of patients with tuberculosis have involvement of the musculoskeletal system. About half of these have septic spondylitis and the other half have septic arthritis bursitis most commonly involving the knee shoulder and hip.
B: Uniform destruction of the articular cartilage typically is a slow process with preservation of the joint space for several months unlike more common bacterial arthritides.
C: Rice bodies are bits of sloughed infarcted synovium a sequela of end-stage inflammatory processes most commonly rheumatoid and tuberculous arthritis. R may demonstrate numerous small bodies of similar size within the joint or bursa.
D: Tuberculous dactylitis involves the short tubular bones of the hands and feet in children. At radiography these lesions demonstrate soft-tissue swelling and periostitis. These findings are followed by gradual bone destruction and sequestrum formation. Expansion of the bone with cystic changes is known as spina ventosa. The radiologic differential diagnosis includes pyogenic or fungal infections syphilitic dactylitis sarcoidosis hemoglobinopathies hyperparathyroidism and leukemia.

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159. What is the single radiation dose threshold for temporary epilation?

Explanation

A: 3 Gy is the threshold for temporary epilation

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160. What is the problem with the field uniformity image shown below?

Explanation

A: Image indicates that the photomultiplier tube positioned behind the scintillator is bad and therefore shows non-uniformity in the shape of photomultipler tube.

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161. You are shown longitudinal gray scale image of the testis in an asymptomatic 57 year old man (Figure 2). A color flow Doppler ultrasound of the abnormal area did not reveal any flow. What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

Explanation

A: Correct. Tubular ectasia is a benign condition and occurs usually in men older than 55 years of age. It is located in or adjacent to the mediastinum testis. It is usually bilateral and is accompanied by spermatocele.
B: Incorrect. Larger serpiginous structures are present in intratesticular varicoceles. The appearance is similar to extratesticular varicoceles and would have blood flow within.
C: Incorrect. Testicular cystic tumors can occur anywhere; however mediastinum testis is not a characteristic location for them. The tubular ectasia occurs classically adjacent to mediastinum testis and is postero-lateral in location. Cystic immature teratoma is the main differential consideration and it usually has rind of echogenic tissue around it.
D: Incorrect. Testicular abscesses have irregular shaggy margins with peripheral hyperemia. They usually occur as complication of epididymo-orchitis or secondary to infection in testicular hematoma.

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162. Concerning seminal vesicle cysts which one is TRUE?

Explanation

A: Correct. Ipsilateral seminal vesicle cysts absent ipsilateral ureter absent ipsilateral hemitrigone and absent ipsilateral vas deferens are all associated with renal agenesis.
B: Incorrect. They are usually lateral to the prostate.
C: Incorrect. They are typically unilateral.
D: Incorrect. They are usually due to congenital hypoplasia of the ejaculatory duct.

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163. What is the greatest advantage of conventional CR imaging systems over DR imaging systems?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. CR typically exhibits lower detection effiency and lower detective quantum efficiency (a measure of the information transfer from the input x-rays to the information content of the output image) chiefly due to thinner screens (compared to CsI structured phosphors) or lower atomic num-ber (compared to Gd2O2S screens : Gd Z=53 versus BaFBr CR screens : Br Z=35)
B: Correct. This is the main advantage of CR…. A passive cassette-based imaging detector that emu-lates the screen-film paradigm allowing use of conventional imaging equipment and providing excellent positioning flexibility that active DR detectors in their current technology state cannot provide.
C: Incorrect. This is the advantage of DR over conventional CR (not including the newer line-scan and mechanical CR automatic readers)
D: Incorrect. The intrinsic (prior to sampling) resolution of CR is lower than that of scintillator and photoconductor-based DR units. This is easily discerned by the MTF curves of each modality. The reasons are chiefly due to the use of a structured scintillator (CsI) used for most DR indirect detec-tor systems which confines the emitted light without spreading and the use of high voltage placed across the semiconductor materials of DR direct detector which actively collects the electron/hole pairs from spreading out during acquisition. Of all detector converters the semiconductor detector has the highest intrinsic spatial resolution.

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164. Which of the following may be associated with posterior ankle impingement?

Explanation

A: The talus has two posterior tubercles between which is the fibro-osseous tunnel for the flexor hallucis longus tendon. An os trigonum is an ununited posterior lateral tubercle of the talus (normal fusion occurs by about 13 years of age). It occurs in 10% of the population and is bilateral 50% of the time. Impingement of the flexor hallucis longus tendon (posterior ankle impingement) is usually associated with activities that involve weight-bearing with ankle plantar flexion such as ballet dancing. An os trigonum may (os trigonum syndrome) or may not be associated with posterior impingement. ost individuals with an os trigonum are asymptomatic. any with posterior impingement have no os trigonum.
B: The os tibiale externum is a Type II accessory navicular bone located in the midfoot at the medial aspect of the navicular at the posterior tibial tendon insertion. nlike the Type I smaller sesamoid of the posterior tibial tendon this is an accessory ossification center usually 1 cm in size. When the latter is fused there is a medial posterior prominence of the navicular which is often referred to as a cornuate navicular. Pain has been associated with the os tibiale externum. Both bone scan and RI may be abnormal with focal radionuclide uptake or bone marrow edema respectively.
C: The os peroneum is an anterior structure embedded in the peroneus longus tendon at the level of the cuboid. It may fracture.
D: The os calcaneus secondarius is an unfused ossification center of the anterior process of the calcaneus. It is well corticated and should not be confused with an avulsion fracture of the anterior process of the calcaneus at the bifurcate ligament insertion.

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165. In interdisciplinary teams decisions should be made by:

Explanation

A: Interdisciplinary teams should make decisions by majority opinion or consensus with deference to more expert opinion.

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166. In radionuclide multigated acquisition (MUGA) cardiac studies which one of the following maneuvers is used to improve separation of the left ventricle from the left atrium?

Explanation

In radionuclide multigated acquisition (MUGA) cardiac studies, the maneuvers of 70° left anterior oblique, 45° right anterior oblique, 30° cephalic tilt, and 10° caudal tilt are used to improve the separation of the left ventricle from the left atrium. These maneuvers help to obtain different angles and views of the heart, allowing for better visualization and differentiation of the left ventricle from the left atrium.

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167. You are shown a transverse image of the uterus from a 24-year-old woman with a positive urine pregnancy test (Figure 3). What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. Although ectopic pregnancy should be considered in any female patient with positive pregnancy test and absence of intrauterine pregnancy the large echogenic mass occupying the central portion of uterus would make complete hydatidiform mole the most likely diagnosis.
B: Incorrect. Blighted ovum is characterized by gestational sac without an embryonic pole but of such size that an embryonic pole/yolk sac would be expected. The submitted image demonstrated multiple small intrauterine cystic areas in the context of a large central echogenic intrauterine mass which would be more consistent with complete hydatidiform mole.
C: Correct. The submitted image demonstrates an enlarged uterus with large echogenic mass occupying the central portion of the uterus. Multiple small cystic areas are present and there is no discernable endometrial stripe or fetal parts. Considering this appearance and clinical presentation complete hydatidiform mole is the most likely diagnosis.
D: Incorrect. The submitted image demonstrates no evidence of a embryonic pole which would be expected at 8 weeks. In addition the uterus is grossly abnormal in appearance.

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168. Concerning papillary necrosis which one is TRUE?

Explanation

A: Correct. The common etiologies of papillary necrosis have been immortalized by the mnemonic NSAID: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs Sickle cell anemia Analgesic nephropathy Infection (such as tuberculosis) and Diabetes mellitus.
B: Incorrect. Radiographs are usually normal. They can also show irregular calcifications 2-6 mm in size if part or all of the papilla is necrotic and may show a ring of calcification in a sloughed but retained papilla.
C: Incorrect. Up to 50% of sickle cell patients develop papillary necrosis.
D: Incorrect. Medullary type papillary necrosis shows only central erosion of the papilla.

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169. Which one of the following structures directly communicates with the transverse sinus?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. The oblique sinus is separated from the transverse sinus by a pericardial reflection.
B: Incorrect. The postcaval recess arises from the pericardial cavity proper and is separated from the transverse sinus by a pericardial reflection
C: Correct. The superior aortic recess arises from the transverse sinus and extends superiorly to sur-round the posterior right lateral and anterior aspect of the ascending aorta.
D: Incorrect. The posterior pericardial recess is a superior extension of the oblique sinus which does not communicate directly with the transverse sinus.

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170. Concerning diabetes-related osteomyelitis of the foot which of the following is CORRECT?

Explanation

A: Nearly all diabetes-related foot infections result from the contiguous spread of a skin ulcer.
B: Following x-ray examination MR imaging is recommended for the detection of ostemyelitis which will also demonstrate soft tissue findings such as callus skin ulceration sinus tract cellulitis abscess and foreign body.
C: The contiguous spread of infection from skin ulceration results in osteomyelitis in the diabetic foot. Neuropathic osteoarthropathy is primarily an articular process. Abnormal bone marrow signal without adjacent ulceration as well as periarticular disease including joint bodies and subchondral cyst formation suggests neuroarthropathy. Location is also essential to diagnosis. Neuroarthropathy most commonly affects the tarsometatarsal and metatarsophalangeal joints. Osteomyelitis is more likely to occur distal to the tarsometatarsal joint or at the calcaneus and malleoli. Therefore the midfoot presents the greatest diagnostic difficulty. Secondary signs of infection such as direct spread from ulceration and sinus tract formation suggest osteomyelitis. Bone marrow changes associated with superimposed osteomyelitis are commonly diffuse. Bone marrow involvement in neuroarthropathy is periarticular. The ghost sign helps distinguish acute neuropathic disease from neuroarthropathy with superimposed osteomyelitis. Bones that disappear on T1-weighted R images and reappear (become morphologically more distinct) on T2-weighted images or after the administration of contrast material are more likely have superimposed osteomyelitis.
D: With T1-weighted imaging low signal intensity at the bone marrow adjacent to an ulcer or sinus tract is diagnostic of osteomyelitis. There are several secondary signs including periosteal reaction skin ulceration sinus tract cellulitis abscess or less commonly foreign body.

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171. In a patient with acute chest pain and suspected myocardial ischemia the MOST appropriate initial imaging test is:

Explanation

A: Radiologists have a role in ensuring that medical resources are utilized efficiently and appropriately. In a patient with acute chest pain and ST elevation myocardial infarction chest radiography is the routinely indicated initial study.

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172. Regarding Zevalin radioimmunotherapy in lymphoma which of the following is a CONTRAINDICATION to this treatment?

Explanation

A: A platelet count of > 150K is desireable and permits use of the higher dose range of Y-90 Zevalin of 0.4mCi/kg with a maximum dose of 32 mCi. Patients with platelet counts in the 100-150K range may be treated with a lower dose of 0.3mCi/kg but treatment is contraindicated if the platelet count is lower because of concerns for bleeding secondary to the hematologic toxicity of the agent.

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173. You are shown an image from a second trimester OB ultrasound (Figure 4). What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

Explanation

A: Correct. Bowel loops are seen to extend through an anterior abdominal wall defect and are not covered by a membrane. This appearance is consistent with gastroschisis.
B: Incorrect. Bladder exstrophy is characterized by lower anterior abdominal wall mass inferior to the umbilicus representing the protruding exposed posterior surface of the bladder rather than the free floating bowel loops on submitted image.
C: Incorrect. Although teratomas can appear complex by ultrasound origin from the anterior abdominal wall is not typical.
D: Incorrect. Although bowel loops are seen to extend through an anterior abdominal wall defect these bowel loops are floating free within the amniotic fluid and are not covered by a membrane. This appearance is consistent with gastroschisis rather than omphalocele.

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174. You are shown a sagittal T2-weighted image from an MR of the pelvis in a 38-year-old woman with pelvic pain (Figure 1). What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. Although leiomyomas typically have low intensity on T2 weighted images they would be expected to be round and well defined.
B: Correct. Adenomyosis results from the presence of heterotopic endometrial glands and stroma in the myometrium with adjacent myometrial hyperplasia. It is frequently associated with symptoms of pelvic pain hypermenorrhea and uterine enlargement. The diffuse thickening of the low intensity junctional zone is typical of diffuse adenomyosis of the uterus (junctional zone thickness ? 12 mm is generally considered diagnostic) and other imaging findings include poor definitions of the bor-ders of the junctional zone or the presence of high-signal foci on T2- or T1-weighted images. This case demonstrates diffuse adenomyosis; focal adenomyosis may also be seen.
C: Incorrect. For endometrial cancer one would expect the high intensity endometrial stripe to be thickened as well as inhomogeneous.
D: Incorrect. For cervical cancer one would expect an isointense mass in the area of the cervix which may deform the endocervical canal or disrupt the low-signal-intensity fibrous stroma and one may see tumor extension towards the vagina and/or parametrium. In this case the endocervical canal and cervical region appears normal.

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175. Concerning coronary artery dominance which one is TRUE?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. Coronary dominance is determined by which artery supplies the posterior descending artery (PDA). In most patients (85%) the PDA is supplied by the right coronary artery and there-fore is a right dominant system. If the PDA is supplied by the circumflex coronary artery it is con-sidered to be a left dominant system. A codominant system is one in which both the right coronary artery and circumflex coronary artery supply the PDA or when the right coronary artery supplies the PDA and the left circumflex coronary artery supplies the inferior left ventricular wall.
B: Incorrect. Dominance is determined by which artery supplies the posterior descending artery (PDA). In most patients (85%) the PDA is supplied by the right coronary artery and therefore is a right dominant system. If the PDA is supplies by the circumflex coronary artery it is considered to be a left dominant system. A codominant system is one in which both the right coronary artery and circumflex coronary artery supply the PDA or when the right coronary artery supplies the PDA and the left circumflex coronary artery supplies the inferior left ventricular wall.
C: Correct. Dominance is determined by which artery supplies the posterior descending artery (PDA). In most patients (85%) the PDA is supplied by the right coronary artery and therefore is a right dominant system. If the PDA is supplies by the circumflex coronary artery it is considered to be a left dominant system. A codominant system is one in which both the right coronary artery and cir-cumflex coronary artery supply the PDA or when the right coronary artery supplies the PDA and the left circumflex coronary artery supplies the inferior left ventricular wall.
D: Incorrect. Dominance is determined by which artery supplies the posterior descending artery (PDA). In most patients (85%) the PDA is supplied by the right coronary artery and therefore is a right dominant system. If the PDA is supplies by the circumflex coronary artery it is considered to be a left dominant system. A codominant system is one in which both the right coronary artery and circumflex coronary artery supply the PDA or when the right coronary artery supplies the PDA and the left circumflex coronary artery supplies the inferior left ventricular wall.

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176. Concerning multiple myeloma which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Explanation

A: The radiographic skeletal survey is still the recommended method for initial diagnostic imaging evaluation. However whole-body magnetic resonance ( R) imaging has higher sensitivity and it is recommended in patients with solitary plasmacytoma or monoclonal gammopathy and a normal radiographic bone survey or few (B: Several studies have shown that 99-m Tc bone scans significantly underestimate the extent of bone involvement with myeloma and the radiographic bone survey is still most commonly used.
C: Extraskeletal myeloma is extremely unusual found in less that 5% of patients with the disease.
D: While most skeletal lesions are lytic a blastic form of the disease is associated with POMPS syndrome (polyneuropathy organomegaly endocrinopathy monclonal gammopathy skin changes).

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177. For a conventional fluoroscopy examination using 80 kVp and 2 mA what fraction of the incident scattered radiation from the patient is absorbed by a lead apron of 0.5 mm thickness?

Explanation

A: A 0.5 mm lead apron provides the best radiation protection from scattered radiation although this comes at a price of heavy and less flexible outer protective wear. Other items for consideration of protection include glasses (leaded glass is best) and thyroid shields

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178. According to Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) regulations which one of the following radionuclide administrations requires a written directive signed by the authorized user?

Explanation

A: A written directive is required for any administration of > 30uCi of I-131 or any therapeutic administration of an unsealed radionuclide.

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179. You are shown a longitudinal image of the left kidney (Figure 5). Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. The pyramids are echogenic characteristic of medullary nephrocalcinosis. Normal pyramids are isoechoic to slightly hypoechoic with respect to the adjacent cortex
B: Incorrect. On ultrasound the gas will produce echogenic foci with distal dirty shadowing which obscures visualization of deeper structures. This is not seen on these images.
C: Incorrect. This is usually associated with obstructive nephropathy which is not seen here. XGP is suggested with parenchymal thinning debris in a dilated collecting system perinephric fluid collection and stones. These are not the findings in this case.
D: Correct. Hyperparathyroidism is one of the etiologies of medullary nephrocalcinosis. The sonographic findings include medullary pyramids that are more echogenic than the adjacent cortex as seen on these images.

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180. You are shown two ultrasound images of the scrotum in a 44-year-old man (Figures 2A and 2B). What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. Testicular torsion typically presents as acute testicular pain with or without testicular enlargement. Testicular echogenicity is typically homogeneous with normal testicular echogenicity initially becoming hypoechoic with ongoing torsion and infarct.
B: Correct. The images show an intratesticular mass. Seminoma is the most common solid intratesticular neoplasm.
C: Incorrect. While epididymo-orchitis can cause enlargement of the testicle as well as hypoechoic areas within the testicle it is not typically painless.
D: Incorrect. While lymphoma could present as a testicular mass it is less common than germ cell tumors such as seminoma.

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181. Concerning a patient presenting with an acute myocardial infarction accompanied by severe bradycardia which coronary artery or branch is MOST LIKELY involved?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. The diagonal artery is a branch of the left anterior descending coronary artery. The atri-oventricular (AV) node artery supplies the AV node. In 85-90 percent of patients the AV node artery arises from the right coronary artery at the point where it gives off the posterior descending artery.
B: Incorrect. The atrioventricular (AV) node artery supplies the AV node. In 85-90 percent of patients the AV node artery arises from the right coronary artery at the point where it gives off the posterior descending artery.
C: Correct. The atrioventricular (AV) node artery supplies the AV node. In 85-90 percent of patients the AV node artery arises from the right coronary artery at the point where it gives off the posterior descending artery.
D: Incorrect. The atrioventricular (AV) node artery supplies the AV node. In 85-90 percent of patients the AV node artery arises from the right coronary artery at the point where it gives off the posterior descending artery. A branch of the circumflex artery supplies the AV node in the remaining cases.

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182. You are shown an MR image of the shoulder (Figure 1). What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

Explanation

A: The shoulder is a common site for synovial chondromatosis. Multiple joint bodies of similar size distributed throughout the joint capsule are characteristic. A solitary synovial chondroma may occur but is less likely especially in the setting of an absent long biceps tendon and a torn subscapularis tendon.
B: A SLAP (superior labrum anterior to posterior) tear is a lesion of the superior labrum and/or biceps anchor. These structures are not included in the presented image.
C: The bicipital groove is empty. The tendon has dislocated medially. The subscapularis tendon is abnormal. Medial dislocation of the long biceps tendon results from injury to the biceps pulley or sling composed of the superior glenohumeral (SGHL) and coracohumeral (CHL) ligament complex and the subscapularis tendon insertion. A medially dislocated long biceps tendon may displace within the joint deep to the subscapularis tendon and is associated with disruption of the subscapularis tendon and SGHL-CHL complex insertion at the lesser tuberosity. Extra-articular dislocation may occur with the tendon superficial to the subscapularis or within the substance of the subscapularis in the case of subscapularis delamination.
D: Intra-articular loose bodies in the glenohumeral joint are usually found in the posterior joint axillary recess or subcoracoid recess. This could potentially represent a loose body but when viewed in the context of an empty bicipital groove the most likely choice is biceps tendon dislocation.

Findings: There is a low signal intensity structure at the anterior aspect of the joint. There is a joint effusion. The bicipital groove is empty. The subscapularis tendon appears thickened and irregular.

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183. Regarding F-18 fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG) PET imaging which one of the following lesions is MOST LIKELY to result in a focal area of increased tracer uptake within the lung?

Explanation

A: A lung abscess like other active inflammmatory lesions may be associated with increased metabolic activity and could produce significantly increased FDG uptake on a PET study. In fact the use of PET for the detection of infectious and other inflammatory processes is currently under evaluation as a significant potential future indication for PET imaging.

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184. You are shown a midline image in the transverse plane from an abdominal ultrasound in a 40-year-old woman (Figure 6). What structure corresponds to the arrow?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. The common bile duct in the transverse plane can be seen as a circular structure in the lateral aspect of the head of the pancreas.
B: Incorrect. The pancreatic duct is at least partially seen in 86% of patients. In the transverse plane it can be seen in the central portion of the body of the pancreas.
C: Correct. In the transverse plane the left renal vein can be seen crossing anterior to the aorta on its way to the IVC.
D: Incorrect. In the transverse plane the splenic vein is posterior inferior to the pancreas and courses from the splenic hilum to join the superior mesenteric vein to form the portal vein.

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185. You are shown a pelvic ultrasound (Figure 3A) and T1-weighted (Figure 3B) and fat-saturated T1-weighted (Figure 3C) MR images in a pregnant patient. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. An ectopic pregnancy can present as a complex mass by ultrasound although it typically will not have the classic features of a teratoma described in the discussion for the correct answer in 'A'. More importantly a heterotopic pregnancy (concurrent intra-uterine and ectopic pregnancy) incidence is estimated at 1 out of 30000 pregnancies. The finding of an intrauterine pregnancy effectively excludes an ectopic pregnancy in a patient except for those with high risk factors (ovulation induction etc.)
B: Correct. The ovarian teratoma (dermoid) is the most common ovarian neoplasm and occur most commonly during the reproductive years of a woman's life. The ultrasound exam demonstrates a complex right adnexal mass that has two features highly sug-gestive of an ovarian teratoma. The first is the highly echogenic non-shadowing nodule along the caudal wall of the mass. This is most consistent with a Rokitansky protuberance in a teratoma. The second is the hyperechoic lines and dots within the cystic portion of the mass that is caused by hair within the teratoma. The MRI confirms the diagnosis by showing high signal intensity fat within a portion of the mass on T1 images that 'saturates' or loses signal intensity on T1 images with fat suppression technique. This is diagnostic of an ovarian teratoma containing fat.
C: Incorrect. Serous cystadenoma is the most common epithelial neoplasm of the ovary and can occur in a young pregnant female. However the sonographic appearance is typically of an anechoic unilocular cyst or minimally complex cyst with a few internal septations. Additionally there would be no evidence for fat within the mass as is seen with the teratoma in this case.
D: Incorrect. The ovarian fibroma is an uncommon neoplasm of the ovary in the stromal tumor category. It comprises only 4% of ovarian neoplasms. The sonographic appearance is typically of a solid hypoechoic or mixed echogenicity mass that may attenuate sound posteriorly much like a pedunculated leiomyoma. Additionally no fat would be present within this neoplasm.

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186. Concerning pulmonary vein ablation which one is TRUE?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. Accessory pulmonary veins are more common on the right.
B: Incorrect. Myocardium extends 2-17 mm into the pulmonary veins and is called the myocardial sleeve. The myocardial sleeve is thickest at the atriopulmonary venous junction of the left superior vein. The myocardial sleeves are longer in the superior pulmonary veins than in the inferior pul-monary veins.
C: Correct. Due to the risk of stroke following manipulation of the left atrium the presence of left atrial thrombus is a contraindication to pulmonary vein ablation.
D: Incorrect. Pulmonary venous anatomy varies widely. A common variation is a common pulmonary vein draining the entire lung which typically occurs on the left.

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187. You are shown a CT image (Figure 2) of the pelvis of a 75-year-old man. What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

Explanation

A: Radiation-induced changes at the pelvis include focal sclerosis osteonecrosis and insufficiency fracture. Although the latter are common at the sacrum in patients with osteoporosis such fracture at the ilium suggests underlying radiation injury.
B: Sarcomatous transformation of Pagets disease develops in about 1% of patients perhaps related to the extent of disease. The femur pelvis and humerus are most commonly involved. Except for the higher frequency in the humerus and the lower frequency in the skull and vertebra the distribution is similar to the underlying disorder itself. The most common type of sarcoma is osteosarcoma followed by malignant fibrous histiocytoma/fibrosarcoma and chondrosarcoma. Prognosis is uniformally poor. Bone lysis cortical destruction lack of periosteal reaction and soft tissue mass is characteristic. Additional types of neoplastic involvement include Giant cell tumor of bone (benign and malignant) myeloma lymphoma leukemia and metastatic disease.
C: Although blastic metastases may be diffuse coarsening of the trabeculae and cortical thickening are not features.
D: Renal osteodystrophy is osteomalacia and secondary hyperparathyroidism with or without complications of dialysis itself. Although bone sclerosis or osteopenia may result coarsening of the trabeculae and cortical thickening are not features.

Findings: There is diffuse sclerosis at the visualized osseous structures with coarsening of the trabelulae and cortical thickening. On the left at the medial aspect of the ilium there is focal bone destruction and a soft tissue mass.

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188. In a patient who has sudden onset of severe headache the MOST appropriate initial imaging test is:

Explanation

A: Radiologists have a role in ensuring that medical resources are utilized efficiently and appropriately. Head CT is the investigation of choice and the others are indicated only in special circumstances.

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189. Concerning In-111 WBC scintigraphy which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Explanation

A: In-111 WBC scintigraphy is superior to gallium scintigraphy for detection of active inflammatory bowel disease because there is no interfering normal bowel uptake as does occur with gallium imaging.

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190. Concerning the reverberation artifact in ultrasound which one of the following is TRUE?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. In reverberation artifact echoes decrease in intensity with distance.
B: Incorrect. Reverberation artifact has horizontally positioned linear echoes that are spaced equally.
C: Correct. The highly reflective interfaces causing the reverberation artifact are usually but not always near the transducer. They allow identification of a specific type of reflector such as a surgical clip.
D: Incorrect. Presence of air can be identified by the presence of reverberation artifact. Side lobes are due to radial vibration of the transducer crystal and not the presence of air. Side lobes arise from sound beams that are emitted from the side of the primary beam.

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191. You are shown a delayed contrast-enhanced CT image (Figure 4) in a 60-year-old with hematuria. What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. Not a typical appearance. No calcifications.
B: Incorrect. Should not be adherent to the wall and enhancing.
C: Incorrect. Not cystic.
D: Correct. Often multifocal. Classically enhance. Rarely calcify.

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192. Concerning the Ross procedure which one is TRUE?

Explanation

A: Correct. The Ross procedure replaces the aortic valve with the patient’s pulmonary valve and replaces the pulmonary valve with a cryopreserved pulmonary valve homograft. Follow-up studies have shown interval growth of the aortic valve graft in children and infants.
B: Incorrect. The Ross procedure replaces the aortic valve with the patient’s pulmonary valve and replaces the pulmonary valve with a cryopreserved pulmonary valve homograft. Because a homo-graft is used anticoagulation is not necessary.
C: Incorrect. The Ross procedure replaces the aortic valve with the patient’s pulmonary valve and replaces the pulmonary valve with a cryopreserved pulmonary valve homograft. Because both the pulmonary and aortic valves are replaced the Ross procedure is a more extensive operation com-pared to conventional aortic valve replacement.
D: Incorrect. The Ross procedure is performed to correct aortic valve disease.

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193. You are shown MR images (Figures 3 and 4) and a CT image (Figure 5) of the proximal thigh of a young boy. What is the MOST appropriate recommendation? Axial proton density fat-saturated Sagittal proton density fat-saturated Axial CT

Explanation

A: Although the MR demonstration of the soft tissue mass is rather non-specific and therefore worrisome for soft tissue sarcoma the extensive surrounding muscle edema suggests a traumatic inflammatory or reactive condition. The CT demonstrates a pattern of mineralization characteristic of Myositis Ossificans i.
E: mature cortical bone at the periphery with non-mineralized immature osteoid centrally. Biopsy of evolving myositis ossificans especially at the center of the lesion will demonstrate immature cells which may be confused with osteosarcoma.
B: Although the MR demonstration of the soft tissue mass is rather non-specific and therefore worrisome for soft tissue sarcoma the extensive surrounding muscle edema suggests a traumatic inflammatory or reactive condition. The CT demonstrates a pattern of mineralization characteristic of Myositis Ossificans i.
E: mature cortical bone at the periphery with non-mineralized immature osteoid centrally. When fully mature these lesions may be resected. If resected too early they may recur. Radiation therapy is not indicated.
C: Although the MR demonstration of the soft tissue mass is rather non-specific and therefore worrisome for soft tissue sarcoma the extensive surrounding muscle edema suggests a traumatic inflammatory or reactive condition. The CT demonstrates a pattern of mineralization characteristic of Myositis Ossificans i.
E: mature cortical bone at the periphery with non-mineralized immature osteoid centrally. Follow-up imaging to document further maturation is appropriate.
D: Although the MR demonstration of the soft tissue mass is rather non-specific and therefore worrisome for soft tissue sarcoma the extensive surrounding muscle edema suggests a traumatic inflammatory or reactive condition. The CT demonstrates a pattern of mineralization characteristic of Myositis Ossificans i.
E: mature cortical bone at the periphery with non-mineralized immature osteoid centrally. The search for metastatic disease is premature.

Findings: There is a focal soft issue lesion at the iliopsoas muscle. MR demonstrates extensive surrounding muscle edema. CT shows well-defined peripheral ossification.

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194. In a patient with acute renal failure the MOST appropriate initial imaging test is:

Explanation

A: Radiologists have a role in ensuring that medical resources are utilized efficiently and appropriately. In a patient with renal failure the only imaging study indicated is renal ultrasound. The others are specialized investigations.

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195. The finding of gastric and thyroid uptake on a Tc-99m methylene diphosphonate bone scan is due to which one of the following?

Explanation

A: The fraction of the total radioactivity in the administered radiopharmaceutical (tc-99mMDP bone agent) is not in the desired bound range of >95%. More than 5% of the Tc-99m added to the diphosphonate bone agent kit is free or unbound resulting in uptake corresponding to the biodistribution of Tc-99m pertechnetate which includes gastric salivary gland thyroid renal and choroid plexus uptake.

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196. Theca lutein cysts are MOST commonly associated with:

Explanation

A: Incorrect. Patients with Stein-Leventhal syndrome represent a subset of women with polycystic ovary disease that have the clinical manifestations of oligomenorrhea/amenorrhea hirsutism and obesity. The ovaries of polycystic ovary disease can be normal in appearance or enlarged with increased number of small subcapsular follicles. This is significantly different from the large septated theca lutein cysts which can replace the ovaries with elevated hCG levels.
B: Correct. Theca lutein cysts are associated with elevated hCG levels which can be seen with gestational trophoblastic disease and exogenous hCG used for infertility treatment.
C: Incorrect. Theca lutein cysts are associated with elevated hCG levels rather than elevated progesterone levels.
D: Incorrect. Not commonly seen in normal singleton pregnancy.

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197. You are shown an image from a hysterosalpingogram on a 32-year-old woman (Figure 5). What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

Explanation

A: Incorrect. No contrast has entered the endometrial cavity. Only the endocervix contains contrast. Thus you cannot comment on the size of the uterus.
B: Incorrect. No contrast has entered the endometrial cavity. Thus there is no evidence that only one uterine horn exists.
C: Incorrect. No contrast has entered the endometrial cavity. In addition HSG doesn't allow the specific diagnosis of filling defects which might be seen within the endometrial cavity. A differential diagnosis must be given including polyp fibroid synechia and cancer.
D: Correct. Contrast fills only the endocervix despite multiple attempts to fill the endometrial cavity. These women usually report having very short and light menstrual days and give a history of a prior D&C (common) or prior complications from pregnancy (uncommon).

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198. Concerning the Blalock-Taussig shunt which one is TRUE?

Explanation

A: Correct. The Blalock-Taussig shunt creates a connection between the systemic and arterial systems and is a palliative procedure that increases systemic arterial oxygenation by increasing blood flow to the pulmonary artery.
B: Incorrect. The Fontan procedure creates a conduit between the right atrium and the pulmonary artery.
C: Incorrect. The Mustard procedure creates an atrial switch using an intra-atrial baffle made of peri-cardium
D: Incorrect. The Glenn procedure connects the superior vena cava with the pulmonary artery.

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199. You are shown an MR image of the forefoot (Figure 6). What is the MOST LIKELY pathogenesis?

Explanation

A: Incorrect.
B: Incorrect.
C: A soft tissue mass at the plantar aspect of the metatarsal heads especially at the third or fourth web space is most likely a Mortons neuroma. Correlation with water-sensitive images is important to exlude a fluid collection such as a bursitis. The plantar digital nerve usually between the third and fourth metatarsals is susceptible to compression or entrapment at the deep transverse intermetatarsal ligament. Resulting damage leads to thickening and peri-neural fibrosis. This is therefore primarily a degenerative post-traumatic disorder. The second web space may also be involved the first uncommonly and the fourth rarely. It is usually unilateral and women are much more affected. Short axis T1WIs are best for detection.
D: Incorrect.

Findings: There is a soft tissue mass at the plantar aspect of the metatarsal heads at the third web space consistent with Mortons neuroma. There is no osseous erosion.

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200. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the Code of Ethics?

Explanation

A: The Code of Ethics is intended to aid the radiology community individually and collectively in maintaining a high level of ethical conduct. The code is not a set of laws but rather a framework by which radiologists may determine the propriety of conduct in their relationship with patients with the public with colleagues and with members of allied professions.

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You are shown longitudinal and transverse gray scale images of the...
Concerning urinary bladder diverticula which one is TRUE?
Which one of the following congenital anomalies is MOST commonly...
Concerning musculoskeletal tuberculosis which of the following is...
What is the single radiation dose threshold for temporary epilation?
What is the problem with the field uniformity image shown below?
You are shown longitudinal gray scale image of the testis in an...
Concerning seminal vesicle cysts which one is TRUE?
What is the greatest advantage of conventional CR imaging systems over...
Which of the following may be associated with posterior ankle...
In interdisciplinary teams decisions should be made by:
In radionuclide multigated acquisition (MUGA) cardiac studies which...
You are shown a transverse image of the uterus from a 24-year-old...
Concerning papillary necrosis which one is TRUE?
Which one of the following structures directly communicates with the...
Concerning diabetes-related osteomyelitis of the foot which of the...
In a patient with acute chest pain and suspected myocardial ischemia...
Regarding Zevalin radioimmunotherapy in lymphoma which of the...
You are shown an image from a second trimester OB ultrasound (Figure...
You are shown a sagittal T2-weighted image from an MR of the pelvis in...
Concerning coronary artery dominance which one is TRUE?
Concerning multiple myeloma which of the following statements is...
For a conventional fluoroscopy examination using 80 kVp and 2 mA what...
According to Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) regulations which one...
You are shown a longitudinal image of the left kidney (Figure 5)....
You are shown two ultrasound images of the scrotum in a 44-year-old...
Concerning a patient presenting with an acute myocardial infarction...
You are shown an MR image of the shoulder (Figure 1). What is the MOST...
Regarding F-18 fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG) PET imaging which one of the...
You are shown a midline image in the transverse plane from an...
You are shown a pelvic ultrasound (Figure 3A) and T1-weighted (Figure...
Concerning pulmonary vein ablation which one is TRUE?
You are shown a CT image (Figure 2) of the pelvis of a 75-year-old...
In a patient who has sudden onset of severe headache the MOST...
Concerning In-111 WBC scintigraphy which of the following statements...
Concerning the reverberation artifact in ultrasound which one of the...
You are shown a delayed contrast-enhanced CT image (Figure 4) in a...
Concerning the Ross procedure which one is TRUE?
You are shown MR images (Figures 3 and 4) and a CT image (Figure 5) of...
In a patient with acute renal failure the MOST appropriate initial...
The finding of gastric and thyroid uptake on a Tc-99m methylene...
Theca lutein cysts are MOST commonly associated with:
You are shown an image from a hysterosalpingogram on a 32-year-old...
Concerning the Blalock-Taussig shunt which one is TRUE?
You are shown an MR image of the forefoot (Figure 6). What is the MOST...
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the Code of...
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