Ot 5491 Assistive Technology Mid Term

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Assistive Technology Quizzes & Trivia

Mid Term given for March 5, 2012.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following terms correctly fit this description?   Tangible, readily available vs. captured in 3 forms: people, written, and computer

    • A.

      Low Tech vs. High Tech

    • B.

      Appliance vs. Tools

    • C.

      Hard Tech vs Soft Tech

    • D.

      Commercial vs. Custom

    Correct Answer
    C. Hard Tech vs Soft Tech
    Explanation
    The terms "Hard Tech" and "Soft Tech" correctly fit the description provided. "Hard Tech" refers to tangible and readily available technology, while "Soft Tech" refers to technology that is captured in three forms: people, written, and computer. The other options, such as "Low Tech vs. High Tech," "Appliance vs. Tools," and "Commercial vs. Custom," do not accurately capture the distinction between tangible and intangible technology forms.

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  • 2. 

    An individual who has a spinal cord injury uses modified eating utensils and a pencil with a rubber gripper to take notes in class.  These devices can be classified as:

    • A.

      Low technology

    • B.

      Maximal technology

    • C.

      Soft technology

    • D.

      High technology

    • E.

      Tool

    Correct Answer
    A. Low technology
    Explanation
    The individual's use of modified eating utensils and a pencil with a rubber gripper suggests that they are utilizing simple and basic devices to assist with their daily activities. These devices do not involve complex or advanced technology, hence they can be classified as low technology.

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  • 3. 

    An individual with cerebral palsy is able to speak, but on occasion his speech is difficult to understand, therefore he sometimes may clarify his speech by using a letter board to spell out words not understood.  This letter board is an example of which type of technology.

    • A.

      General technology

    • B.

      Minimal technology

    • C.

      High technology

    • D.

      Soft technology

    • E.

      Maximal technology

    Correct Answer
    B. Minimal technology
    Explanation
    The letter board mentioned in the question is a simple and low-tech solution that the individual with cerebral palsy uses to clarify his speech. It does not involve any advanced or complex technology, hence it can be categorized as minimal technology.

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  • 4. 

    According to Cook & Hussey, a device that aprovides benefits to the individual independent of the individual's skill level is a(n):

    • A.

      Tool

    • B.

      Custom modificiation

    • C.

      Appliance

    • D.

      Soft technology

    • E.

      Hard technology

    Correct Answer
    C. Appliance
    Explanation
    According to Cook & Hussey, an appliance is a device that provides benefits to the individual independent of their skill level. Unlike tools or custom modifications that may require certain skills to operate or utilize, appliances are designed to be user-friendly and provide benefits without much expertise. Soft technology refers to intangible systems or processes, while hard technology refers to physical devices or equipment. Therefore, the correct answer in this case is "Appliance".

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  • 5. 

    Which components fit the HAAT model?

    • A.

      Person, Environment, Occupation

    • B.

      Impairment, Activities, Environmental and Person Factors

    • C.

      Context, human, activity, assistive technology

    • D.

      Milieu, personality, technology

    Correct Answer
    C. Context, human, activity, assistive technology
    Explanation
    The components that fit the HAAT (Human Activity Assistive Technology) model are context, human, activity, and assistive technology. The HAAT model is a framework used to understand the relationship between the person, the environment, and the assistive technology in order to enhance participation in activities. It emphasizes the importance of considering the individual's context, such as their cultural and social environment, as well as their abilities and limitations, the activities they engage in, and the assistive technology that can support them in achieving their goals.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following does NOT follow the systems approach as outlined by the HAAT model?

    • A.

      Measuring capacity of a person to push a manual wheelchair in a clinic

    • B.

      Measuring skill using powered wheelchair in driving an accessible van under different road conditions

    • C.

      Measuring performance in feeding self independently using AT at school and at home

    • D.

      Measuring skill using variety of switches with augmentative communicationdevices for different subjects in school

    • E.

      All of the above are examples of the systems approach

    Correct Answer
    A. Measuring capacity of a person to push a manual wheelchair in a clinic
    Explanation
    The HAAT model, which stands for Human Activity Assistive Technology, is a systems approach that considers the interaction between the person, the activity, the assistive technology, and the context in which it is used. It focuses on how these components work together to achieve a desired outcome. The measurement of a person's capacity to push a manual wheelchair in a clinic does not fully align with the systems approach because it only considers the person's physical ability without taking into account the other components of the model.

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  • 7. 

    Cook and Hussey describe the HAAT model and the four major considerations related to the contexts.  In the following example which context is dictating the characteristics of the assistive technology system:   Chloe is unwilling to wear a hearing aid because she feels that people look at her differently when she wears it.

    • A.

      Social Context

    • B.

      Institutional Context

    • C.

      Cultural Context

    • D.

      Physical Context

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Social Context
    Explanation
    Chloe's unwillingness to wear a hearing aid because she feels that people look at her differently when she wears it is indicative of the social context dictating the characteristics of the assistive technology system. This suggests that the social environment and people's perceptions and attitudes towards individuals using assistive technology are influencing Chloe's decision.

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  • 8. 

    Outcome measures evaluate the end result of the assistive technology intervention.  Please identify the LEAST ideal assistive technology outcome assessment:

    • A.

      QUEST (Quebec User Evaluation of Satisfaction with AT)

    • B.

      FIM (Functional Independence Measure)

    • C.

      COPM (Canadian Occupational Performance Measure)

    • D.

      OT FACT (Occupational Therapy Functional Assessment Compilation Tool)

    Correct Answer
    B. FIM (Functional Independence Measure)
    Explanation
    The FIM (Functional Independence Measure) is the least ideal assistive technology outcome assessment because it primarily focuses on measuring a person's level of independence in performing daily activities, rather than specifically evaluating the effectiveness of assistive technology interventions. The other options, QUEST, COPM, and OT FACT, are all assessments that specifically evaluate user satisfaction, occupational performance, and functional abilities related to assistive technology interventions, making them more suitable for measuring the outcomes of such interventions.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following outcome measures was developed to assess user-satisfaction?

    • A.

      Health-Related Quality of Life (HRQL)

    • B.

      Psychosocial Impact of Assistive Devices Scale (PIADS)

    • C.

      The Occupational Therapy Functional Assessment Compilation Tool (OT FACT)

    • D.

      Functional Independence measure (FIM)

    • E.

      Quebec User Evaluation of Satisfaction with Assistive Technology (QUEST)

    Correct Answer
    E. Quebec User Evaluation of Satisfaction with Assistive Technology (QUEST)
    Explanation
    The Quebec User Evaluation of Satisfaction with Assistive Technology (QUEST) was specifically developed to assess user-satisfaction with assistive technology. This outcome measure focuses on evaluating the satisfaction levels of individuals using assistive technology devices. It is designed to gather information about the user's perception of the effectiveness, ease of use, and overall satisfaction with the assistive technology they are using. The QUEST provides valuable insights into the user's experience and helps to identify areas for improvement in assistive technology interventions.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following is NOT a subscale of the Psychosocial Impact of Assistive Devices Scale (PIADS) measurement tool?

    • A.

      Adaptability

    • B.

      Device Features

    • C.

      Competence

    • D.

      Self-esteem

    Correct Answer
    B. Device Features
    Explanation
    The question asks for a subscale that is NOT a part of the Psychosocial Impact of Assistive Devices Scale (PIADS) measurement tool. The three options, Adaptability, Competence, and Self-esteem, are all subscales of the PIADS. However, Device Features is not a subscale of the PIADS. Therefore, the correct answer is Device Features.

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  • 11. 

    According to Cook & Hussey, reasons for which a client stops using a device (technology abandonment) include:

    • A.

      Failure of providers to take consumers' opinions into account

    • B.

      Psychosocial and cultural variables that determine the meaning individuals assign to AT

    • C.

      Poor device performance

    • D.

      Changes in consumers' need or priorities

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above" because Cook & Hussey state that the reasons for technology abandonment include failure of providers to consider consumers' opinions, psychosocial and cultural variables that influence individuals' perception of assistive technology, poor device performance, and changes in consumers' needs or priorities. This means that all of these factors contribute to clients stopping the use of a device.

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  • 12. 

    The goal of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 was to:

    • A.

      Provide civil rights, employment and reasonable accommodations

    • B.

      Provide training and technical assistance to individuals with disabilities

    • C.

      Provide free, appropriate public education

    • D.

      Provide universal access to telecommunications equipment and services

    • E.

      Increase the number of individuals with disabilities in the work force

    Correct Answer
    A. Provide civil rights, employment and reasonable accommodations
    Explanation
    The Rehabilitation Act of 1973 aimed to provide civil rights, employment opportunities, and reasonable accommodations for individuals with disabilities. This legislation sought to ensure that individuals with disabilities are not discriminated against and have equal access to employment and services. It aimed to promote inclusivity and provide necessary support to individuals with disabilities to enable them to fully participate in society.

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  • 13. 

    What is the purpose of Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973?

    • A.

      Established the Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board for enforcing ADAAG regulations

    • B.

      Extended civil rights provision for equal access to work sites and worksite accommodations including assistive technology

    • C.

      Defined assistive technology and assistive technology services

    • D.

      Required government agencies to purchase electronic equipment that is accessible to people with disabilities (e.g., computers, copiers, telephones)

    • E.

      Defines service dogs as assistive technology

    Correct Answer
    B. Extended civil rights provision for equal access to work sites and worksite accommodations including assistive technology
    Explanation
    Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 extends civil rights provisions to ensure equal access to work sites and worksite accommodations, including assistive technology. This means that individuals with disabilities are protected from discrimination in the workplace and are entitled to reasonable accommodations that allow them to perform their job duties effectively. This provision aims to promote inclusivity and equal opportunities for individuals with disabilities in the workforce.

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  • 14. 

    Which piece of legislation was the first legislation to address technology-related needs specifically for people with disabilities?

    • A.

      Rehabilitation Act of 1973

    • B.

      ADA (1990)

    • C.

      IDEA (1997)

    • D.

      Technology-Related Assistance for Individuals with Disabilities Act (1988)

    • E.

      Smith-Fess Act (1920)

    Correct Answer
    D. Technology-Related Assistance for Individuals with Disabilities Act (1988)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Technology-Related Assistance for Individuals with Disabilities Act (1988). This legislation was the first to specifically address technology-related needs for people with disabilities. It aimed to promote the availability and accessibility of assistive technology devices and services for individuals with disabilities. This act played a crucial role in recognizing the importance of technology in improving the lives of people with disabilities and ensuring equal opportunities for them.

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  • 15. 

    Each state receives funding for an assistive technology program.  The state of Missouri uses these funds to provide services and programs through the MO Assistive Technology Council.  The MO AT Council offers many different programs including an exchange program and a low interest loan program for acquiring assistive technology devices.  Which piece of legislation made this possible?

    • A.

      Rehabilitation Act of 1973

    • B.

      ADA (1990)

    • C.

      IDEA (1997)

    • D.

      Technology-Related Assistance for Individuals with Disabilities Act (1994)

    • E.

      The Developmental Assistance and Bill of Rights Act

    Correct Answer
    D. Technology-Related Assistance for Individuals with Disabilities Act (1994)
    Explanation
    The Technology-Related Assistance for Individuals with Disabilities Act (1994) made it possible for the state of Missouri to receive funding for an assistive technology program. This legislation allowed the state to allocate these funds towards services and programs provided by the MO Assistive Technology Council, including an exchange program and a low interest loan program for acquiring assistive technology devices.

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  • 16. 

    The purpose of RESNA is to improve the potential of people with disabilities to achieve their goals through the use of technology. RESNA stands for:

    • A.

      Research and Engineering Society of North America

    • B.

      Rehabilitation Engineering and Assistive Technology Society of North America

    • C.

      Rehabilitate Enable and Support New users of Assistive technology

    • D.

      Referral and Evaluation Services for New Assistive technology users

    • E.

      Rehabilitation Engineering Students of North America

    Correct Answer
    B. Rehabilitation Engineering and Assistive Technology Society of North America
    Explanation
    RESNA stands for Rehabilitation Engineering and Assistive Technology Society of North America. This organization's purpose is to improve the potential of people with disabilities by promoting research, engineering, and the use of assistive technology. They aim to enhance the lives of individuals with disabilities and enable them to achieve their goals through the application of technology.

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  • 17. 

    When determining a client’s lower leg length during a mat evaluation, the OT measures:

    • A.

      Distance from floor to footplate on current wheelchair

    • B.

      Distance from seat to footplate on current wheelchair

    • C.

      Distance from client’s patella to bottom of foot

    • D.

      Distance from client’s popliteal fossa to bottom of most commonly worn shoe

    Correct Answer
    D. Distance from client’s popliteal fossa to bottom of most commonly worn shoe
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Distance from client’s popliteal fossa to bottom of most commonly worn shoe." This measurement is important because it determines the appropriate length for the client's lower leg support, such as a footplate on a wheelchair or the height of a walking aid. By measuring from the popliteal fossa (the hollow behind the knee) to the bottom of the shoe, the OT can ensure that the client's leg is properly supported and aligned, promoting comfort and stability during mobility activities.

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  • 18. 

    According to Cook & Hussey which is the correct order of the AT service delivery process?

    • A.

      Referral, Initial Evaluation, Recommendations and Report, Implementation, Follow-up, Follow along

    • B.

      Evaluation, Intake, Follow-up, Implementation, Follow-along

    • C.

      Intake, Follow-along, Recommendation, Initial Evaluation, Implementation

    • D.

      Implementation, Recommendation, Intake, Referral, Follow-up, Follow-along

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Referral, Initial Evaluation, Recommendations and Report, Implementation, Follow-up, Follow along
  • 19. 

    According to Cook & Hussey which steps of the service delivery process does funding need to be requested in order to continue?

    • A.

      Initial Evaluation, Implementation

    • B.

      During the delivery of the assistive technology

    • C.

      Referral and Intake, Recommendations and Report, Follow-up and Follow along

    • D.

      Referral, Initial Evaluation, Recommendations and Report, Implementation, Follow-up, Follow along

    Correct Answer
    C. Referral and Intake, Recommendations and Report, Follow-up and Follow along
    Explanation
    Funding needs to be requested during the steps of Referral and Intake, Recommendations and Report, and Follow-up and Follow along in order to continue with the service delivery process according to Cook & Hussey. These steps involve identifying the need for assistive technology, gathering information and making recommendations, and ensuring ongoing support and follow-up for the individual receiving the technology. By requesting funding during these steps, the necessary resources can be secured to provide the assistive technology and support services.

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  • 20. 

    The first step in the assistive technology design process is:

    • A.

      Fabrication

    • B.

      Concept generation

    • C.

      Concept selection

    • D.

      Recognition of need

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Recognition of need
    Explanation
    The first step in the assistive technology design process is the recognition of need. This involves identifying and understanding the specific challenges or limitations that individuals with disabilities face in their daily lives. By recognizing these needs, designers can then proceed to develop solutions and technologies that address these specific requirements and improve the quality of life for individuals with disabilities. This step is crucial as it sets the foundation for the entire design process, ensuring that the resulting assistive technology is tailored to the needs of the end-users.

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  • 21. 

    Dr. Klaesner described the design process as having eight (8) steps.  Occupational therapists may be able to make significant contributions to the most difficult step.  Which of the following is the most important and most difficult step in the design process?

    • A.

      Problem definition

    • B.

      Concept generation

    • C.

      Concept selection

    • D.

      Optimization

    • E.

      Fabrication

    Correct Answer
    B. Concept generation
    Explanation
    Occupational therapists may be able to make significant contributions to the most difficult step in the design process, which is concept generation. This step involves brainstorming and coming up with innovative ideas and solutions to address the problem at hand. It requires creativity, critical thinking, and a deep understanding of the needs and preferences of the individuals for whom the design is being created. Occupational therapists, with their knowledge of human behavior, functional abilities, and environmental factors, can provide valuable insights and input during this step to ensure that the concepts generated are practical, effective, and client-centered.

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  • 22. 

    Jack has recently developed a pressure sore on his sacrum that has damaged his skin down to the underlying fascia.  The damage has not yet gone through the fascia.  Which of the following skin ulcer stages best reflects Jack’s pressure sore?

    • A.

      Stage I

    • B.

      Stage II

    • C.

      Stage III

    • D.

      Stage IV

    • E.

      Stage V

    Correct Answer
    C. Stage III
    Explanation
    Jack's pressure sore has damaged his skin down to the underlying fascia, but it has not yet gone through the fascia. This indicates that the pressure sore is in Stage III, as Stage III ulcers involve damage to the full thickness of the skin and may extend into the subcutaneous tissue, but do not penetrate through the fascia.

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  • 23. 

    Which statement is FALSE?

    • A.

      Lack of blood flow causes a pressure sore

    • B.

      Pressure causes a pressure sore

    • C.

      Pressure=Force/Area

    • D.

      Pressure can only be distributed

    Correct Answer
    B. Pressure causes a pressure sore
    Explanation
    This statement is false because pressure alone does not cause a pressure sore. While pressure is a contributing factor, it is the combination of pressure, friction, and shear forces that lead to the development of pressure sores. These additional factors can disrupt blood flow and damage the skin and underlying tissues, resulting in the formation of pressure sores.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following is an example of an extrinsic risk factor for pressure ulcers?

    • A.

      Age

    • B.

      Obesity

    • C.

      Decreased sensation

    • D.

      Shear forces

    • E.

      Edema

    Correct Answer
    D. Shear forces
    Explanation
    Shear forces refers to the mechanical stress that occurs when layers of tissue move in opposite directions, causing friction and leading to the breakdown of skin. This is an extrinsic risk factor for pressure ulcers because it is an external force that contributes to the development of ulcers. Age, obesity, decreased sensation, and edema are all intrinsic risk factors, meaning they are related to the individual's internal characteristics or conditions.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following statements is FALSE?

    • A.

      Any force applied over a small area generates more pressure than the same force applied over a larger area.

    • B.

      In the equation Pressure = Force/Area, force is the easiest variable to control

    • C.

      Decreased blood flow is caused by deformation of the vascular bed

    • D.

      Average cost to treat an ischemic ulcer ranges from $3,000 to $70,000

    • E.

      Approximately 60,000 patients per year die from complications related to ischemic ulcers

    Correct Answer
    B. In the equation Pressure = Force/Area, force is the easiest variable to control
    Explanation
    The statement that force is the easiest variable to control in the equation Pressure = Force/Area is false. While force can be controlled to some extent, the area over which the force is applied is often easier to control. By changing the area, the pressure can be adjusted accordingly. Therefore, it is incorrect to say that force is the easiest variable to control in this equation.

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  • 26. 

    When considering cushions, a benefit of foam cushions compared to air cushions is:

    • A.

      Durability

    • B.

      Pressure distribution

    • C.

      Stability

    • D.

      Good prevention of pressure ulcers for those at high risk

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Stability
    Explanation
    Foam cushions provide stability compared to air cushions. Foam is a solid material that offers a firm and stable support, whereas air cushions can be prone to shifting or losing air pressure, resulting in instability. Stability is important for maintaining proper posture and preventing discomfort or injuries while sitting. Therefore, foam cushions are preferred over air cushions in terms of stability.

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  • 27. 

    Which type of cushion would you most likely recommend for someone who is at very high risk for a pressure sore?

    • A.

      Air

    • B.

      Gel

    • C.

      Foam

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Air
    Explanation
    For someone at a very high risk for a pressure sore, an air cushion would be the most likely recommendation. Air cushions provide excellent pressure redistribution and help to reduce the risk of developing pressure sores. They are adjustable and can be customized to accommodate the individual's specific needs, providing optimal comfort and support. Additionally, air cushions offer good ventilation, which helps to prevent moisture buildup and skin breakdown.

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  • 28. 

    True or False:  Pressure mapping systems (such as the Xsensor) operate with a standard scale that cannot be adjusted by the evaluator.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Pressure mapping systems, such as the Xsensor, do not operate with a standard scale that cannot be adjusted by the evaluator. In fact, these systems allow the evaluator to adjust the scale according to their specific requirements. This flexibility enables the evaluator to customize the pressure mapping system to accurately measure and analyze pressure distribution on different surfaces or for different individuals. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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  • 29. 

    The study by Yuen and Garrett (2001) compares the pressure-relieving performance of different wheelchair cushions for person with SCI.  Which of the following cushions did they find to be most effective?

    • A.

      Roho Enhancer

    • B.

      Jay Extreme

    • C.

      Pindot Ulti-Mate

    • D.

      Ride Design R01

    Correct Answer
    A. Roho Enhancer
    Explanation
    The study by Yuen and Garrett (2001) found that the Roho Enhancer cushion was the most effective in terms of pressure-relieving performance for individuals with SCI.

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  • 30. 

    True or False:  Yuen and Garrett (2001) state that because the identified cushion was so effective at relieving pressure, there was not a need for the study participant to continue regular use of his pressure relief activities (push-ups, skin hygiene, etc).

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Yuen and Garrett (2001) did not state that the identified cushion was so effective at relieving pressure that there was no need for the study participant to continue regular use of his pressure relief activities. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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  • 31. 

    According to Cook and Hussey, what should be the first area addressed when positioning an individual?

    • A.

      Pelvis

    • B.

      Sacrum

    • C.

      Head

    • D.

      Femurs

    • E.

      Scapulas

    Correct Answer
    A. Pelvis
    Explanation
    When positioning an individual, the first area that should be addressed according to Cook and Hussey is the pelvis. The pelvis serves as the foundation for proper alignment and stability of the body. Correct positioning of the pelvis ensures optimal alignment of the spine and allows for efficient movement and weight distribution. By addressing the pelvis first, it sets a solid base for positioning the rest of the body correctly.

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  • 32. 

    When performing a mat evaluation you determine that the person‘s pelvis is higher on the right side and lower on the left side.  How would you describe this.

    • A.

      Right side pelvis obliquity

    • B.

      Left side pelvic obliquity

    • C.

      Windswept hips

    • D.

      Right pelvic rotation

    • E.

      Left pelvic rotation

    Correct Answer
    B. Left side pelvic obliquity
    Explanation
    The given correct answer, "Left side pelvic obliquity," describes the condition where the person's pelvis is higher on the right side and lower on the left side. This means that the pelvis is tilted or slanted towards the left side, causing an imbalance in the pelvic alignment.

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  • 33. 

    During a mat evaluation you determine your client is a “hands dependent sitter”.  According to Cook & Hussey which of the following statements would be TRUE?

    • A.

      This person can sit for prolonged periods without using their hands for support.

    • B.

      This person lacks any ability to support themselves while sitting on the mat.

    • C.

      This persons seating system will require total body support.

    • D.

      This persons seating system will be designed for mobility and will have a low back and provide very little support.

    • E.

      This persons seating system will be designed to provide pelvic or trunk support to free up their hands for functional activities.

    Correct Answer
    E. This persons seating system will be designed to provide pelvic or trunk support to free up their hands for functional activities.
    Explanation
    According to Cook & Hussey, a "hands dependent sitter" is someone who relies on their hands for support while sitting. Therefore, their seating system should be designed to provide pelvic or trunk support, allowing them to free up their hands for functional activities. This means that the person can sit for prolonged periods but requires support for their core stability in order to use their hands effectively.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding basic seating and positioning principles:

    • A.

      The therapist should focus on positioning distally first to allow for improved proximal stability.

    • B.

      In the seating system, the therapist should try to provide the minimum amount of support (external positioning devices) to achieve objectives.

    • C.

      The therapist goal in the seating system is to provide maximum stability regardless of if the person is comfortable or not.

    • D.

      The therapist should not try to inhibit tone within the seating system.

    Correct Answer
    B. In the seating system, the therapist should try to provide the minimum amount of support (external positioning devices) to achieve objectives.
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that in the seating system, the therapist should try to provide the minimum amount of support (external positioning devices) to achieve objectives. This means that the therapist should only provide the necessary amount of support to meet the specific goals of the individual. This approach allows for the person to maintain as much independence and function as possible while still ensuring their safety and comfort. By providing minimal support, the therapist can promote active participation and engagement in activities while also preventing over-reliance on external devices.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following statements about manual wheelchairs is FALSE?

    • A.

      The more forward the axle placement is on the wheelchair the less “tippy” the wheelchair is.

    • B.

      The main difference between a standard manual wheelchair and a hemi height wheelchair is the floor to seat height.

    • C.

      Increasing camber increases the side to side stability of a wheelchair.

    • D.

      Dump (bucketing) can help provide balance and security but can also cause more pressure over the ischials

    • E.

      Ultra lightweight wheelchairs weigh less than 30 pounds

    Correct Answer
    A. The more forward the axle placement is on the wheelchair the less “tippy” the wheelchair is.
    Explanation
    The statement that the more forward the axle placement is on the wheelchair the less "tippy" the wheelchair is, is false. In reality, the more forward the axle placement is, the more tippy the wheelchair becomes. This is because the weight distribution shifts towards the front of the wheelchair, making it easier for the user to tip forward.

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  • 36. 

    36. What does the term “dump” refer to in a manual wheelchair?

    • A.

      Angle of the wheels in relation to the ground

    • B.

      Difference between front seat height to back height

    • C.

      Difference between seat depth to rear seat height

    • D.

      Difference between front seat height to rear seat height

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Difference between front seat height to rear seat height
    Explanation
    The term "dump" in a manual wheelchair refers to the difference between the front seat height and the rear seat height. This means that the front of the seat is positioned lower than the rear, creating a downward slope. This positioning is often used to provide better stability and positioning for the user, especially when propelling the wheelchair. It can also help to distribute the user's weight more evenly and prevent them from sliding forward in the seat.

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  • 37. 

    When recommending a wheelchair for a client, the OT must know the difference between the classes of wheelchairs.  Which class of manual wheelchairs would most likely be reimbursed by Medicare when the client has a temporary mobility impairment (broken leg)?

    • A.

      Standard (K0001)

    • B.

      Standard Hemi (K0002)

    • C.

      Lightweight (K0003)

    • D.

      High Strength Lightweight (K0004)

    • E.

      Ultra Lightweight (K0005)

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard (K0001)
    Explanation
    Medicare typically covers durable medical equipment, including wheelchairs, for individuals with temporary mobility impairments. The Standard (K0001) class of manual wheelchairs is the most basic and least expensive option. It is designed for short-term use and provides basic mobility assistance. Since the client's mobility impairment is temporary due to a broken leg, Medicare is more likely to reimburse for a standard wheelchair rather than a higher class option.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following is a BENEFIT to having small casters on a wheelchair? 

    • A.

      Acts like shock absorbers when traveling over rough surfaces

    • B.

      Makes rolling over large cracks or holes in the road easier

    • C.

      Improves turning radius and ease of turning

    • D.

      Increases the stability of the wheelchair

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Improves turning radius and ease of turning
    Explanation
    Having small casters on a wheelchair improves the turning radius and ease of turning. This is because smaller casters allow for greater maneuverability and agility, making it easier to navigate tight spaces and turn in different directions. Larger casters may be more stable and absorb shocks better, but they can also limit the wheelchair's ability to make sharp turns. Therefore, small casters provide the benefit of improved turning radius and ease of turning.

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  • 39. 

    What increases the chances of repetitive strain injury (chronic overuse injuries)?

    • A.

      Poor wheelchair propulsion mechanics, obesity, and poorly adjusted equipment

    • B.

      Obesity, poor diet, and incontinence

    • C.

      Heavy wheelchairs, incontinence, and stroke

    • D.

      Ultralight wheelchairs and expensive wheels

    Correct Answer
    A. Poor wheelchair propulsion mechanics, obesity, and poorly adjusted equipment
    Explanation
    Poor wheelchair propulsion mechanics, obesity, and poorly adjusted equipment can increase the chances of repetitive strain injury (chronic overuse injuries). Poor wheelchair propulsion mechanics refer to incorrect techniques used while propelling the wheelchair, which can put excessive strain on the muscles and joints. Obesity can contribute to the development of repetitive strain injuries due to the increased load on the musculoskeletal system. Poorly adjusted equipment, such as improperly fitted cushions or backrests, can also lead to increased stress on the body during wheelchair use, further increasing the risk of injury.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following statements about tilt and recline is FALSE?

    • A.

      Tilt-in-space keeps the seat to back angle constant

    • B.

      Recline only moves the back of the wheelchair

    • C.

      Tilt-in-space is commonly recommended for someone who is unable to independently perform a weight shift.

    • D.

      When tilt-in-space is used it causes shearing forces between the skin and clothing.

    • E.

      A benefit of recline is that it is useful in obtaining a good position to perform ADLs (such as dressing or self-catherization)

    Correct Answer
    D. When tilt-in-space is used it causes shearing forces between the skin and clothing.
    Explanation
    Tilt-in-space does not cause shearing forces between the skin and clothing. Tilt-in-space actually helps to redistribute pressure and reduce the risk of pressure ulcers. Shearing forces occur when there is friction or sliding between the skin and a surface, and tilt-in-space helps to minimize this by maintaining a constant seat to back angle.

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  • 41. 

    Powered wheelchairs are made with three different types of drive, each with distinct characteristics.  Which of the following statements is TRUE?

    • A.

      Powered wheelchairs with front-wheel drive have six wheels, which make the chair perform poorly outdoors.

    • B.

      Powered wheelchairs with mid-wheel drive have 6 wheels, four large wheels in the front and the back of the chair, and two small wheels in the middle.

    • C.

      Powered wheelchairs with front-wheel drive tend to fishtail when driving at higher speeds.

    • D.

      Power chairs with rear-wheel drive have the smallest turning radius.

    • E.

      Mid-wheel drive wheelchairs are designed mainly to be used outside over surfaces such as grass, sand and gravel.

    Correct Answer
    C. Powered wheelchairs with front-wheel drive tend to fishtail when driving at higher speeds.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Powered wheelchairs with front-wheel drive tend to fishtail when driving at higher speeds." This statement is true because front-wheel drive wheelchairs have the drive wheels located in the front, which can cause the chair to lose traction and slide sideways (fishtail) when accelerating or turning at higher speeds.

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  • 42. 

    The weakness of THIS TYPE of power wheelchair is the largest turning radius – both front turning radius and overall turning radius

    • A.

      Front wheel drive

    • B.

      Rear wheel drive

    • C.

      Middle wheel drive

    • D.

      Central wheel drive

    Correct Answer
    B. Rear wheel drive
    Explanation
    Rear wheel drive power wheelchairs have the largest turning radius among the different types mentioned. This means that they require more space to make turns compared to front wheel drive, middle wheel drive, and central wheel drive power wheelchairs. The positioning of the drive wheels at the back of the wheelchair affects its maneuverability, making it less agile in tight spaces or crowded areas.

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  • 43. 

    Ray is ten-year boy who has spastic cerebral palsy. His movements are uncoordinated and ataxic.  Ray has just been fitted for his first power wheelchair.  As the occupational therapist which of the following settings would you recommend to be adjusted to decrease the sensitivity in the input to the joystick?

    • A.

      Steer Correct

    • B.

      Parking Brake Trip

    • C.

      Sensitivity or tremor dampening

    • D.

      Turn Speed

    • E.

      Acceleration

    Correct Answer
    C. Sensitivity or tremor dampening
    Explanation
    Adjusting the sensitivity or tremor dampening setting would decrease the sensitivity in the input to the joystick. This would be beneficial for Ray, as his movements are uncoordinated and ataxic due to his spastic cerebral palsy. By decreasing the sensitivity, the power wheelchair would respond less to any unintentional or involuntary movements, allowing Ray to have better control and maneuverability.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following best describes a client that might benefit from a scooter?

    • A.

      Client has difficulties transferring

    • B.

      Client requires a specialized seat unit or pressure care cushion

    • C.

      Client has poor upper extremity strength

    • D.

      Client has poor endurance and fatigues easily and needs a mobility device to assist with long distances

    Correct Answer
    D. Client has poor endurance and fatigues easily and needs a mobility device to assist with long distances
    Explanation
    A client who has poor endurance and fatigues easily would benefit from a scooter because it would provide them with a mobility device to assist with long distances. This client may not have the physical stamina to walk or use other types of mobility devices for extended periods of time, so a scooter would allow them to conserve their energy while still being able to travel longer distances.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following is an ADVANTAGE of a scooter compared to a powered wheelchair?

    • A.

      Can be lighter weight and breakdown into pieces for transportability

    • B.

      More expensive and lighter weight

    • C.

      Improved postural support from seat

    • D.

      Multiple options for alternative drive controls

    • E.

      Multiple options for alternative drive controls

    Correct Answer
    A. Can be lighter weight and breakdown into pieces for transportability
    Explanation
    A scooter can be advantageous compared to a powered wheelchair because it can be lighter in weight and can be broken down into pieces for easier transportation. This means that it can be more convenient to transport and maneuver in different locations.

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  • 46. 

    46. According to Jan Clarke (pediatric seating guest lecturer), when a child is being evaluated for his/her seating system, one key item to remember is:

    • A.

      With a flexible deformity you should try to accommodate the position

    • B.

      With a flexible deformity you should try to improve the position

    • C.

      With a fixed deformity you should try to accommodate the position

    • D.

      With a fixed deformity you should try to improve the position

    • E.

      B & C

    Correct Answer
    E. B & C
    Explanation
    When a child has a flexible deformity, it is important to accommodate their position when evaluating their seating system. This means that the seating system should be adjusted to support and maintain the child's current position. On the other hand, when a child has a fixed deformity, the goal should be to improve their position through the seating system. This means that the seating system should be designed in a way that helps correct or alleviate the deformity, if possible. Therefore, the correct answer is B & C, as both accommodating and improving the position are important considerations depending on the type of deformity.

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  • 47. 

    47. True or False:  As the child grows out of their wheelchair, insurance companies are willing to work with the clients to reimburse for a new larger wheelchair, no matter the time frame. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Insurance companies are not always willing to reimburse for a new larger wheelchair as the child grows out of their current one, regardless of the time frame. This statement is false because insurance companies often have specific guidelines and criteria for covering the cost of a new wheelchair, including time frames and medical necessity. They may require documentation and approval from healthcare professionals before providing reimbursement.

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  • 48. 

    47. Prone standing is BEST for children who:

    • A.

      Have no potential for unsupported head control

    • B.

      Use a ventilator

    • C.

      Have limited head control but have potential to work on head control

    • D.

      Have breathing issues

    • E.

      Are unresponsive

    Correct Answer
    C. Have limited head control but have potential to work on head control
    Explanation
    Prone standing is best for children who have limited head control but have the potential to work on head control. This position allows them to strengthen their neck and upper body muscles, which can improve their head control over time. It also provides a stable base of support for the child, allowing them to practice weight-bearing through their arms and legs. Additionally, prone standing helps promote proper alignment of the spine and hips, which can contribute to overall postural stability and development.

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  • 49. 

    47. Which of the following people would benefit most from a molded seating system? 

    • A.

      Person with lower leg amputation

    • B.

      Newly injured person with a spinal cord injury

    • C.

      Child with fixed skeletal curvatures and pelvic obliquities

    • D.

      Child with arthritis

    • E.

      Person with multiple sclerosis

    Correct Answer
    C. Child with fixed skeletal curvatures and pelvic obliquities
    Explanation
    A molded seating system would benefit a child with fixed skeletal curvatures and pelvic obliquities the most. This is because a molded seating system provides customized support and helps maintain proper alignment and posture for individuals with specific skeletal issues. It can help alleviate discomfort, prevent further deformities, and promote functional independence and mobility for the child.

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  • 50. 

    47. True or False: Making a molded seating system for a child is a quick, easy, one-step process.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement suggests that making a molded seating system for a child is not a quick, easy, one-step process. This implies that it requires more time and effort, involving multiple steps, to create a molded seating system for a child.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 24, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Lisa Connor
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