RESNA ATP Exam: Trivia Quiz!

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RESNA ATP Exam: Trivia Quiz! - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The Rehabilitation Act of 1973 included a term known as "Least Restrictive Environment". This caused employers and institions to:

    • A.

      Make architectural changes to buildings

    • B.

      Add elevators to buildings

    • C.

      Add ramps and curb cuts

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The Rehabilitation Act of 1973 introduced the concept of "Least Restrictive Environment" which aimed to promote equal opportunities for individuals with disabilities. This term required employers and institutions to make necessary changes to their buildings to ensure accessibility for everyone. These changes could include architectural modifications, such as adding ramps and curb cuts, as well as installing elevators to provide easy access to different levels. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above" as all these changes were required to comply with the act and create an inclusive environment.

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  • 2. 

    There are several attributes that set direct consumer service programs apart from one another. The most distinguishing factor is:

    • A.

      The administrative setting

    • B.

      The type of Assistive Technology being supplied

    • C.

      The type of funding that is available

    • D.

      The cost of the Assistive Technology

    Correct Answer
    A. The administrative setting
    Explanation
    The administrative setting is the most distinguishing factor that sets direct consumer service programs apart from one another. This refers to the structure and organization of the program, including the policies, procedures, and staff involved in delivering the services. Different programs may have different administrative settings, such as being operated by a government agency, a non-profit organization, or a private company. This can greatly impact the overall experience and effectiveness of the program for the consumers.

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  • 3. 

    Which is not an example of Direct Consumer Service?

    • A.

      Rehab Setting

    • B.

      DME Supplier

    • C.

      Client's home

    • D.

      V.A.

    Correct Answer
    C. Client's home
    Explanation
    The client's home is not an example of Direct Consumer Service because it is not a specific service or setting where direct consumer services are typically provided. Direct consumer services usually refer to services provided directly to the consumer, such as in a rehab setting or by a DME supplier. However, the client's home is not a specific service or setting but rather a location where services may be provided.

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  • 4. 

    Any loss or abnormality of psychological, physical, or anatomical structure or functions is: 

    • A.

      Disability

    • B.

      Impairment

    • C.

      Handicap

    • D.

      Functional limition

    Correct Answer
    B. Impairment
    Explanation
    Impairment refers to any loss or abnormality in psychological, physical, or anatomical structure or functions. It is a broad term that encompasses various conditions or disabilities that affect an individual's abilities. Impairment can be temporary or permanent and can range from mild to severe. It is important to note that impairment does not necessarily imply a limitation in daily activities or participation in society, which is why it is distinct from terms like disability or handicap.

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  • 5. 

    ______________ results when one's impairment leads to their inability to perform activity considered normal for human beings.

    • A.

      Disability

    • B.

      Impairment

    • C.

      Handicap

    • D.

      Functional limitation

    Correct Answer
    A. Disability
    Explanation
    Disability is the correct answer because it refers to the condition where a person's impairment hinders their ability to perform activities that are considered normal for human beings. It encompasses a wide range of physical, cognitive, and sensory impairments that can affect a person's functioning and participation in society.

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  • 6. 

    ___________________results when individual with an impairment or disability is unable to fulfill normal role.

    • A.

      Disability

    • B.

      Impairment

    • C.

      Handicap

    • D.

      Functional limitation

    Correct Answer
    C. Handicap
    Explanation
    Handicap is the correct answer because it refers to the limitations or disadvantages that an individual with an impairment or disability may face in fulfilling their normal role or participating in everyday activities. It encompasses the barriers and challenges that arise due to the impairment or disability, such as physical, social, or environmental obstacles. Handicap goes beyond the impairment itself and focuses on the impact it has on the individual's functioning and integration into society.

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  • 7. 

    The ATP's role in direct service include all of the following except:

    • A.

      Assessment

    • B.

      Cognitive ability

    • C.

      Evaluation

    • D.

      Implementation

    Correct Answer
    B. Cognitive ability
    Explanation
    The ATP's role in direct service includes assessment, evaluation, and implementation. However, cognitive ability is not typically a part of the ATP's role in direct service.

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  • 8. 

    Which are contexts for the HAAT Model that is considered essential when considering Assistive Technology and the person's needs?

    • A.

      Setting, social, curltural, and physical

    • B.

      Use, mobility, ease, and competency

    • C.

      Blend of hard and soft technologies

    • D.

      Availibility of equipment , make and model, and funding

    Correct Answer
    A. Setting, social, curltural, and physical
    Explanation
    The HAAT Model is a framework used to assess the fit between a person's needs and assistive technology. When considering assistive technology and the person's needs, it is essential to take into account the setting in which the technology will be used, as well as the social and cultural factors that may impact its effectiveness. Additionally, the physical characteristics of the person, such as their mobility, should be considered. Therefore, the contexts for the HAAT Model that are considered essential include setting, social, cultural, and physical factors.

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  • 9. 

    Another term for Assistive Technology is:

    • A.

      Human support component

    • B.

      Extrinsic enables

    • C.

      Hard technology

    • D.

      ADA

    Correct Answer
    B. Extrinsic enables
    Explanation
    Extrinsic enables is another term for Assistive Technology. This term refers to the external devices or tools that assist individuals with disabilities in performing tasks or activities. These devices are designed to enhance the individual's abilities and enable them to participate more fully in daily life. Extrinsic enables can include a wide range of assistive devices such as wheelchairs, hearing aids, communication devices, and mobility aids. These tools provide support and enable individuals with disabilities to overcome barriers and achieve greater independence and inclusion.

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  • 10. 

    In an information processing model of the Assistive Technology system user, amajor goal of assessment for the purpose of designing AT systems is to identify the disabled person's skills in the following areas:

    • A.

      Sensory funtion, central processing, and motor output and control

    • B.

      Kinesthetic awareness

    • C.

      Rehabilitative objectives

    • D.

      Ability to perform tasks

    Correct Answer
    A. Sensory funtion, central processing, and motor output and control
    Explanation
    The major goal of assessment for the purpose of designing AT systems is to identify the disabled person's skills in sensory function, central processing, and motor output and control. This is because these areas are crucial for understanding how the individual perceives and processes information, as well as how they are able to physically interact with the AT system. By assessing these skills, designers can tailor the AT system to meet the specific needs and abilities of the user, ultimately enhancing their overall functionality and independence.

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  • 11. 

    The typical range of frequencies that can be heard by the human ear is:

    • A.

      10 to 10,000 Hertz

    • B.

      20 to 20,000 Hertz

    • C.

      30 to 30,000 Hertz

    • D.

      40 to 40,000 Hertz

    Correct Answer
    B. 20 to 20,000 Hertz
    Explanation
    The human ear can typically perceive sound waves within the frequency range of 20 to 20,000 Hertz. This range is commonly referred to as the audible range and covers the frequencies of most sounds that humans encounter in their daily lives. Frequencies below 20 Hertz are considered infrasound and are typically felt rather than heard, while frequencies above 20,000 Hertz are known as ultrasound and are generally not audible to humans.

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  • 12. 

    A fundamental requirement for the effective use of AT is that the user be:

    • A.

      Positioned correctly

    • B.

      Able to move his arms

    • C.

      Able to shift weight

    • D.

      Made aware of their disability

    Correct Answer
    A. Positioned correctly
    Explanation
    To effectively use assistive technology (AT), it is crucial for the user to be positioned correctly. This means that the user should be in a comfortable and suitable position in relation to the AT device they are using. Being positioned correctly ensures that the user can access and operate the device with ease, maximizing its benefits. It also helps in preventing any physical discomfort or strain that may hinder the user's ability to utilize the AT effectively.

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  • 13. 

    To achieve distal mobility and function, a client being evaluated for seating and positioning must have:

    • A.

      Good visual acuity

    • B.

      Kinesthetic awareness

    • C.

      Proximal stability

    • D.

      Adequate room for movrment

    Correct Answer
    C. Proximal stability
    Explanation
    Proximal stability refers to the ability of the client to maintain stability and control in their trunk and proximal muscles. This is important for seating and positioning because it provides a stable base of support for the client to perform functional activities and allows for distal mobility and function. Without proximal stability, the client may have difficulty maintaining an upright posture, which can affect their ability to reach and manipulate objects. Therefore, proximal stability is necessary for the client to achieve distal mobility and function during seating and positioning evaluations.

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  • 14. 

    Apraxia is the inablility to:

    • A.

      Execute physical activity

    • B.

      Plan motor movements

    • C.

      Complete a verbal command

    • D.

      Sit in an upright position

    Correct Answer
    B. Plan motor movements
    Explanation
    Apraxia refers to the inability to plan and coordinate voluntary motor movements, such as reaching, grasping, or manipulating objects. It is a neurological condition that affects the ability to carry out purposeful movements despite having the physical ability to do so. Individuals with apraxia may have difficulty with tasks like waving goodbye, using utensils, or dressing themselves. This condition is often caused by damage to the brain, such as from a stroke or brain injury.

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  • 15. 

    The folowing is not a characteristic of functional effector movements:

    • A.

      Resolution

    • B.

      Range

    • C.

      Strenght and versatility

    • D.

      Environment

    Correct Answer
    D. Environment
    Explanation
    Functional effector movements refer to the movements made by effectors (such as limbs or appendages) in order to perform specific tasks or functions. The environment in which these movements occur is not a characteristic of functional effector movements. Characteristics such as resolution (precision of movement), range (extent of movement), strength (force exerted), and versatility (ability to perform various movements) are more relevant in describing functional effector movements.

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  • 16. 

    On a C-3 level quadraplegic/tetraplegic, where would be a funtional site for effectors movements?

    • A.

      Head, neck, or chin

    • B.

      Elbow or forearm

    • C.

      Arm and hands

    • D.

      Elbow to forearm

    Correct Answer
    A. Head, neck, or chin
    Explanation
    The functional site for effector movements in a C-3 level quadriplegic/tetraplegic would be the head, neck, or chin. This is because the C-3 level of injury typically results in paralysis from the neck down, leaving the person with limited or no movement in their arms and hands. However, they may still have some control over their head, neck, or chin muscles, allowing them to perform certain movements and actions.

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  • 17. 

    According to Piaget's Stages of Human Development, the action that is not present during a child's Sensorimotor Period of Development is:

    • A.

      Find objects hidden behind/under a screen

    • B.

      Uses one object as a container for another

    • C.

      Begins to think logically but om\nly with reference to concrete objects and activities

    • D.

      Uses a tool as extension of body to obtain object

    Correct Answer
    C. Begins to think logically but om\nly with reference to concrete objects and activities
    Explanation
    During Piaget's Sensorimotor Period of Development, which occurs from birth to about 2 years old, children are not yet capable of thinking logically or abstractly. They primarily focus on concrete objects and activities in their environment. They are able to use tools as extensions of their bodies to obtain objects and can find objects hidden behind or under a screen. They also demonstrate the ability to use one object as a container for another. However, they have not yet developed the cognitive ability to think logically with reference to abstract concepts or ideas, which is why the action of "begins to think logically but only with reference to concrete objects and activities" is not present during this period.

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  • 18. 

    The purpose os Assistive Technology interventions is to_______________ an individual to perform funtional activities.

    • A.

      Rehabilitate

    • B.

      Enable

    • C.

      Remediate

    • D.

      Cure

    Correct Answer
    B. Enable
    Explanation
    Assistive Technology interventions aim to enable individuals to perform functional activities. This means that the purpose of these interventions is to provide tools, devices, or strategies that assist individuals in overcoming their limitations and allowing them to engage in daily tasks and activities effectively. The focus is on empowering individuals and promoting independence rather than curing or rehabilitating them.

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  • 19. 

    In a service delivery model, the implementation phase includes:

    • A.

      Order and set-up

    • B.

      Delivery and fitting

    • C.

      Training

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The implementation phase in a service delivery model includes order and set-up, delivery and fitting, and training. This means that during this phase, the service provider will not only take the necessary steps to process the order and set up the required equipment or resources but also ensure the smooth delivery and fitting of the service. Additionally, they will provide training to the client or end-users to ensure they can effectively use and benefit from the service. Therefore, all of the mentioned options are part of the implementation phase in a service delivery model.

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  • 20. 

    When identifying consumer needs using the HAAT model, the practitoner should:

    • A.

      Obtain functional position

    • B.

      Identify potential anatomical sites

    • C.

      Perform comparative testing of interaces

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. None of the above
    Explanation
    The HAAT model is a framework used to identify and address consumer needs in the field of assistive technology. It stands for Human, Activity, Assistive Technology, and Context. In this model, the practitioner should not obtain functional position, identify potential anatomical sites, or perform comparative testing of interfaces to identify consumer needs. Instead, they should consider the human factors, the activities the individual wants to engage in, the assistive technology options available, and the specific context in which the technology will be used.

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  • 21. 

    Which would not be a private funding source for AT services:

    • A.

      Volunteer organizations

    • B.

      Private foundations

    • C.

      Worker's Compensation

    • D.

      Various service clubs and organizations

    Correct Answer
    C. Worker's Compensation
    Explanation
    Worker's Compensation would not be a private funding source for AT services because it is a type of insurance that provides benefits to employees who are injured on the job. It is not a source of funding specifically designated for assistive technology services.

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  • 22. 

    Although outcomes and benefits will vary, the overall goal of every intervention is to:

    • A.

      Maximize the individual's function

    • B.

      Maintain midline alignment in the chair

    • C.

      Reduce contractures

    • D.

      Obtain the best cushionpossible to minimize the risk of developing pressure ulcers

    Correct Answer
    A. Maximize the individual's function
    Explanation
    The overall goal of every intervention is to maximize the individual's function. This means that the aim of any intervention or treatment is to help the individual improve their ability to perform daily activities and tasks to the best of their ability. By maximizing their function, the intervention aims to enhance their independence, quality of life, and overall well-being. This goal focuses on optimizing the individual's physical, cognitive, and emotional capabilities, and may involve various strategies such as therapy, assistive devices, and adaptive techniques.

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  • 23. 

    A physical evaluation of an individual for a seating assessment would include all of the following except:

    • A.

      Orthopedic condition

    • B.

      Verbal skills

    • C.

      Neuromotor skills

    • D.

      Respiratory and circulatory factors

    Correct Answer
    B. Verbal skills
    Explanation
    A physical evaluation for a seating assessment focuses on assessing the individual's physical abilities and conditions that may affect their seating needs. Verbal skills, on the other hand, refer to the individual's ability to communicate verbally and are not directly related to their physical condition or seating requirements. Therefore, verbal skills would not be included in a physical evaluation for a seating assessment.

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  • 24. 

    Which is not an example of a type of force on the body:

    • A.

      Tension

    • B.

      Compression

    • C.

      Shear

    • D.

      Rotation

    Correct Answer
    D. Rotation
    Explanation
    Rotation is not an example of a type of force on the body because it is a type of motion rather than a force. Tension, compression, and shear are all types of forces that can act on an object, causing it to deform or move in a particular way. Rotation, on the other hand, refers to the circular movement of an object around a fixed point. While rotation can be caused by a force, it is not considered a type of force itself.

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  • 25. 

    Which would best describe the rotation of the pelvis when sitting if there is an increase in lumbar lordosis?

    • A.

      Anterior pelvic tilt

    • B.

      Posterior pelic tilt

    • C.

      Left pelvic obliquity

    • D.

      Right pelvic obliquity

    Correct Answer
    A. Anterior pelvic tilt
    Explanation
    An increase in lumbar lordosis refers to an excessive inward curvature of the lower spine. This causes the pelvis to tilt forward, leading to an anterior pelvic tilt. Therefore, the best description for the rotation of the pelvis when sitting with an increase in lumbar lordosis is an anterior pelvic tilt.

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  • 26. 

    When describing pelvic obliquity, the obliquity is named for the side that is:

    • A.

      Higher

    • B.

      Less affected by the deformity

    • C.

      Lower

    • D.

      Rotating anteriorly

    Correct Answer
    A. Higher
    Explanation
    In medical terminology, pelvic obliquity refers to a condition where one Anterior Superior Iliac Spine (ASIS) is elevated higher than the other. Specifically, in left pelvic obliquities, the left ASIS is positioned at a higher level, while in right pelvic obliquities, the right ASIS assumes a higher position.

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  • 27. 

    When fixed pelvic deformities are present, the seating system should:

    • A.

      Correct the deformity

    • B.

      Accommodate the truck

    • C.

      Immobilize the trunk

    • D.

      Cure the deformity

    Correct Answer
    B. Accommodate the truck
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Accommodate the trunk". When fixed pelvic deformities are present, the seating system should be designed to accommodate the trunk, providing support and stability to the individual. It should help maintain proper alignment and prevent further deformity or discomfort. Immobilizing the trunk may restrict movement and cause additional issues, while curing the deformity is often not possible with a seating system alone. Therefore, accommodating the trunk is the most appropriate approach in this situation.

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  • 28. 

    Which is not an element of the human/technology interface ?

    • A.

      Control interface

    • B.

      Selection set

    • C.

      Seating selection

    • D.

      Selection methods

    Correct Answer
    C. Seating selection
    Explanation
    Seating selection is not an element of the human/technology interface. The human/technology interface refers to the interaction between humans and technology, typically through control interfaces, selection sets, and selection methods. Seating selection, on the other hand, is unrelated to this interface and pertains to the act of choosing seats in a physical space rather than interacting with technology.

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  • 29. 

    Mechanical controls interfaces represent the largest category of control interfaces. These include the folowing except:

    • A.

      Radio frequency

    • B.

      Keyboard keys

    • C.

      Joysticks

    • D.

      Latch switches

    Correct Answer
    A. Radio frequency
    Explanation
    Mechanical control interfaces typically involve physical components that require manual manipulation or activation, such as keyboard keys, joysticks, and latch switches. Radio frequency, on the other hand, is a wireless communication technology that does not involve physical manipulation. Therefore, radio frequency does not fall under the category of mechanical control interfaces.

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  • 30. 

    When considering augmentative and alternative communication intervention, what is not considered a speech and language disability?

    • A.

      Dysarthia

    • B.

      Apraxia

    • C.

      Ataxia

    • D.

      Aphasia

    Correct Answer
    C. Ataxia
    Explanation
    Ataxia is a neurological condition that affects coordination and movement, but it does not directly affect speech and language abilities. Dysarthria, apraxia, and aphasia are all speech and language disabilities. Dysarthria is a motor speech disorder that affects the muscles used for speech production. Apraxia is a motor speech disorder that impairs the ability to plan and execute the movements necessary for speech. Aphasia is a language disorder that affects the ability to understand and produce language.

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  • 31. 

    Conversational needs served by augmentative communication systems should include all of the following except:

    • A.

      Expression of needs and wants

    • B.

      Information transfer

    • C.

      Functional Assistive Augmentative Communication systems

    • D.

      Social closeness

    Correct Answer
    C. Functional Assistive Augmentative Communication systems
    Explanation
    Functional Assistive Augmentative Communication systems should not be excluded when considering the conversational needs served by augmentative communication systems. These systems are designed to assist individuals with communication disabilities in expressing their needs and wants, transferring information, and fostering social closeness. Thus, the statement that functional assistive augmentative communication systems should be excluded is incorrect.

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  • 32. 

    The following would be (a) reason(s) to use a tilt system:

    • A.

      Poor upright tolerance

    • B.

      Needs frequent position changes

    • C.

      Functional position is difficult to maintain for long periods

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    A tilt system would be used for individuals with poor upright tolerance, who need frequent position changes, or who find it difficult to maintain a functional position for long periods.

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  • 33. 

    Recent studies have demonstrated that children as young as ______________ can safely operate powered wheelchairs.

    • A.

      18 to 24 months

    • B.

      2 to 4 years old

    • C.

      4 to 6 years old

    • D.

      6 to 8 years old

    Correct Answer
    A. 18 to 24 months
    Explanation
    Recent studies have shown that children as young as 18 to 24 months can safely operate powered wheelchairs. This indicates that even at such a young age, children have the cognitive and physical abilities required to operate these devices safely. It is important to note that proper supervision and training should be provided to ensure the child's safety while using a powered wheelchair.

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  • 34. 

    A hemi manual wheelchair is characterized by:

    • A.

      Ability to be driven with only one arm

    • B.

      Adjustable height to allow for foot assisted propulsion

    • C.

      A taller base to allow for greater function in the home

    • D.

      Adjustable armrests and footplates

    Correct Answer
    B. Adjustable height to allow for foot assisted propulsion
    Explanation
    A hemi manual wheelchair is designed to accommodate individuals who have limited or no use of one leg. The adjustable height feature allows the user to position their feet comfortably on the ground for foot assisted propulsion. This enables them to use their leg strength to move the wheelchair forward. By adjusting the height, the user can find the most suitable position for optimal propulsion and maneuverability.

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  • 35. 

    The Sip and Puff switich array utilized in power wheelchairs is an example of:

    • A.

      Momentary control

    • B.

      Switich array control

    • C.

      Joystick control

    • D.

      Latch control

    Correct Answer
    D. Latch control
    Explanation
    The Sip and Puff switch array utilized in power wheelchairs is an example of latch control. Latch control refers to a type of control mechanism where the user activates a switch or button to initiate a specific action, which then remains in that state until the user activates the switch again to deactivate it. In the case of the Sip and Puff switch array, the user can sip or puff into the switches to control the movement of the wheelchair, and the movement will continue until the user sips or puffs again to stop it.

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  • 36. 

    There are several different ways to connect EADL devices for an individual. Th least practical for multiple use is:

    • A.

      Direct wiring

    • B.

      Infared transmission

    • C.

      Radio frequency transmission

    • D.

      Ultrasound transmission

    Correct Answer
    A. Direct wiring
    Explanation
    Direct wiring is the least practical method for connecting EADL devices for multiple use because it requires physically connecting each device to a central control unit using wires. This can be time-consuming, difficult to manage, and limits the flexibility and mobility of the devices. In contrast, infrared transmission, radio frequency transmission, and ultrasound transmission allow for wireless communication between devices, providing greater convenience and ease of use for multiple users.

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  • 37. 

    A characteristic not found in Duchene's Muscular Dystrophy is:

    • A.

      Lumbar hyper-lordosis

    • B.

      Congenital onset

    • C.

      Symmetrical and progressive muscle weakness

    • D.

      Poor sitting posture

    Correct Answer
    B. Congenital onset
    Explanation
    Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy is a genetic disorder that typically manifests in early childhood. It is characterized by symmetrical and progressive muscle weakness, poor sitting posture, and in some cases, lumbar hyper-lordosis, which is an excessive inward curvature of the lower spine. However, one characteristic that is not found in Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy is congenital onset, meaning that the condition is not present at birth. Instead, it usually becomes noticeable around the age of 3-5 years.

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  • 38. 

    With a spinal cord injury, function is dependent on:

    • A.

      Positioning

    • B.

      Level of lesion

    • C.

      Client's attitude

    • D.

      Fatigue threshold

    Correct Answer
    B. Level of lesion
    Explanation
    The level of lesion refers to the specific location along the spinal cord where the injury has occurred. This is important because different levels of the spinal cord control different functions of the body. For example, a lesion in the cervical region can result in paralysis of the arms and legs, while a lesion in the lumbar region may only affect the legs. Therefore, the level of lesion is a crucial factor in determining the extent of functional impairment in individuals with a spinal cord injury.

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  • 39. 

    An individual who had a CVA may have the following condition(s):

    • A.

      Decreased sensation

    • B.

      Decreased vision

    • C.

      Aphasia

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    An individual who had a CVA (cerebrovascular accident or stroke) may experience decreased sensation, decreased vision, and aphasia. A CVA can cause damage to the brain, leading to various neurological deficits. Decreased sensation can occur due to damage to the sensory pathways in the brain. Decreased vision may result from damage to the visual pathways. Aphasia is a language disorder that can occur when the areas of the brain responsible for language are affected by a stroke. Therefore, all of the given conditions can be seen in individuals who have had a CVA.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following would not be associated with Cerebral Palsy?

    • A.

      Progressive involvement

    • B.

      Abnormal muscle tone

    • C.

      Decreased range of motion

    • D.

      Poor coordination

    Correct Answer
    A. Progressive involvement
    Explanation
    Progressive involvement would not be associated with Cerebral Palsy. Cerebral Palsy is a non-progressive neurological disorder that affects movement, muscle tone, and coordination. It is caused by damage to the developing brain, usually before birth. While individuals with Cerebral Palsy may experience changes in their symptoms over time, the condition itself does not progress. Therefore, progressive involvement is not a characteristic of Cerebral Palsy.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following would not be recommended for documenting outcome measures when evaluating the end result of Assistive Technology?

    • A.

      Avoid opinions and vague summaries

    • B.

      Use measures that can be quantified with numbers and concrete data

    • C.

      Use subjective rather than objective terms

    • D.

      Obtain measurements before and after intervention

    Correct Answer
    C. Use subjective rather than objective terms
    Explanation
    Using subjective terms instead of objective terms would not be recommended for documenting outcome measures when evaluating the end result of Assistive Technology. Objective terms provide clear and measurable information, while subjective terms are based on personal opinions and can be vague and open to interpretation. To ensure accurate and reliable documentation, it is important to use measures that can be quantified with numbers and concrete data, avoid opinions and vague summaries, and obtain measurements before and after intervention.

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  • 42. 

    When using a keyboard for use with a computer or for typing, what is the best position for the person's wrists and hands to reduce the stain during repetitive motions of keying?

    • A.

      15 degrees

    • B.

      30 degrees

    • C.

      Neutral position

    • D.

      45 degrees

    Correct Answer
    C. Neutral position
    Explanation
    The best position for the person's wrists and hands to reduce strain during repetitive motions of keying is the neutral position. This means that the wrists should be straight and aligned with the forearms, and the hands should be relaxed and not bent or twisted. This position helps to minimize the risk of developing repetitive strain injuries such as carpal tunnel syndrome, as it allows for proper blood flow and reduces unnecessary tension on the muscles and tendons in the hands and wrists.

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  • 43. 

    The following are examples of alterative keyboards for direct selection except:

    • A.

      Tongue Touch Keypad

    • B.

      Expanded keyboards

    • C.

      Row Column Scanning Matrix

    • D.

      Touch Screens/Touch Tablets

    Correct Answer
    C. Row Column Scanning Matrix
    Explanation
    The question asks for examples of alternative keyboards for direct selection, and the given options include Tongue Touch Keypad, Expanded keyboards, and Touch Screens/Touch Tablets. The correct answer is "Row Column Scanning Matrix" because it is not an example of an alternative keyboard for direct selection. Row Column Scanning Matrix is a technique used for scanning physical keyboards to determine which key is being pressed, rather than being a type of alternative keyboard itself.

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  • 44. 

    Based on information acquired from the needs identification and physical-sensory components of the evaluation process, the ATP makes a decision to pursue futher evaluation using which method below when selecting control interfaces for the user:

    • A.

      Recommendations from manufacturer reps

    • B.

      Interfaces for direct or indirect selection

    • C.

      Funding availability

    • D.

      Scan versus keypad selection

    Correct Answer
    B. Interfaces for direct or indirect selection
    Explanation
    The ATP makes a decision to pursue further evaluation using the method of "Interfaces for direct or indirect selection" based on the information acquired from the needs identification and physical-sensory components of the evaluation process. This suggests that the ATP considers the options of control interfaces that allow the user to directly or indirectly select their desired actions. This could involve interfaces such as touchscreens, voice recognition, or switch-based systems. By evaluating and selecting these interfaces, the ATP aims to provide the user with effective and accessible control options.

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  • 45. 

    Selection techniques for Scanning include the following except:

    • A.

      Automatic scanning

    • B.

      Inverse scanning

    • C.

      Alternative scanning

    • D.

      Step scanning

    Correct Answer
    C. Alternative scanning
    Explanation
    The given options are different techniques for scanning. Automatic scanning, inverse scanning, and step scanning are all valid techniques for scanning. However, alternative scanning is not a recognized technique for scanning.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following is an example of a Single-Switch interface?

    • A.

      Pneumatic switches

    • B.

      Mechanical switches

    • C.

      Phonation switch

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the options mentioned in the question are examples of a Single-Switch interface. A Single-Switch interface is a type of assistive technology that allows individuals with limited mobility to control electronic devices using a single switch. Pneumatic switches, mechanical switches, and phonation switches are all examples of devices that can be used as single switches to control various electronic devices.

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  • 47. 

    The initial assessment step of an ATP in providing assistive technology is:

    • A.

      To perform an initial skills evaluation of the client

    • B.

      To determine funding sources

    • C.

      To perform a cognitive skills evaluation of the client

    • D.

      To carefully determine the client's needs

    Correct Answer
    D. To carefully determine the client's needs
    Explanation
    The initial assessment step of an ATP in providing assistive technology is to carefully determine the client's needs. This is important because it allows the ATP to understand the specific requirements and challenges faced by the client. By assessing their needs, the ATP can then tailor the assistive technology solutions to best meet the client's individual requirements and improve their quality of life. This step helps ensure that the assistive technology provided is appropriate and effective for the client's specific situation.

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