Resna Practice Exam

47 Questions | Total Attempts: 5103

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Practice Exam Quizzes & Trivia

Practice questions are provided to associates who are preparing for the certification exam for the sole purpose of supplementing their study and review materials, as well as their efforts for exam preparation.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The Rehabilitation Act of 1973 included a term known as "Least Restrictive Environment". This caused employers and institions to:
    • A. 

      Make architectural changes to buildings

    • B. 

      Add elevators to buildings

    • C. 

      Add ramps and curb cuts

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 2. 
    There are several attributes that set direct consumer service programs apart from one another. The most distinguishing factor is:
    • A. 

      The administrative setting

    • B. 

      The type of Assistive Technology being supplied

    • C. 

      The type of funding that is available

    • D. 

      The cost of the Assistive Technology

  • 3. 
    Which is not an example of Direct Consumer Service?
    • A. 

      Rehab Setting

    • B. 

      DME Supplier

    • C. 

      Client's home

    • D. 

      V.A.

  • 4. 
    Any loss or abnormality of psychological, physical, or anatomical structure or functions is: 
    • A. 

      Disability

    • B. 

      Impairment

    • C. 

      Handicap

    • D. 

      Functional limition

  • 5. 
    ______________ results when one's impairment leads to their inability to perform activity considered normal for human beings.
    • A. 

      Disability

    • B. 

      Impairment

    • C. 

      Handicap

    • D. 

      Functional limitation

  • 6. 
    ___________________results when individual with an impairment or disability is unable to fulfill normal role.
    • A. 

      Disability

    • B. 

      Impairment

    • C. 

      Handicap

    • D. 

      Functional limitation

  • 7. 
    The ATP's role in direct service include all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Assessment

    • B. 

      Cognitive ability

    • C. 

      Evaluation

    • D. 

      Implementation

  • 8. 
    Which are contexts for the HAAT Model that is considered essential when considering Assistive Technology and the person's needs?
    • A. 

      Setting, social, curltural, and physical

    • B. 

      Use, mobility, ease, and competency

    • C. 

      Blend of hard and soft technologies

    • D. 

      Availibility of equipment , make and model, and funding

  • 9. 
    Another term for Assistive Technology is:
    • A. 

      Human support component

    • B. 

      Extrinsic enables

    • C. 

      Hard technology

    • D. 

      ADA

  • 10. 
    In an information processing model of the Assistive Technology system user, amajor goal of assessment for the purpose of designing AT systems is to identify the disabled person's skills in the following areas:
    • A. 

      Sensory funtion, central processing, and motor output and control

    • B. 

      Kinesthetic awareness

    • C. 

      Rehabilitative objectives

    • D. 

      Ability to perform tasks

  • 11. 
    The typical range of frequencies that can be heard by the human ear is:
    • A. 

      10 to 10,000 Hertz

    • B. 

      20 to 20,000 Hertz

    • C. 

      30 to 30,000 Hertz

    • D. 

      40 to 40,000 Hertz

  • 12. 
    A fundamental requirement for the effective use of AT is that the user be:
    • A. 

      Positioned correctly

    • B. 

      Able to move his arms

    • C. 

      Able to shift weight

    • D. 

      Made aware of their disability

  • 13. 
    To achieve distal mobility and function, a client being evaluated for seating and positioning must have:
    • A. 

      Good visual acuity

    • B. 

      Kinesthetic awareness

    • C. 

      Proximal stability

    • D. 

      Adequate room for movrment

  • 14. 
    Apraxia is the inablility to:
    • A. 

      Execute physical activity

    • B. 

      Plan motor movements

    • C. 

      Complete a verbal command

    • D. 

      Sit in an upright position

  • 15. 
    The folowing is not a characteristic of functional effector movements:
    • A. 

      Resolution

    • B. 

      Range

    • C. 

      Strenght and versatility

    • D. 

      Environment

  • 16. 
    On a C-3 level quadraplegic/tetraplegic, where would be a funtional site for effectors movements?
    • A. 

      Head, neck, or chin

    • B. 

      Elbow or forearm

    • C. 

      Arm and hands

    • D. 

      Elbow to forearm

  • 17. 
    According to Piaget's Stages of Human Development, the action that is not present during a child's Sensorimotor Period of Development is:
    • A. 

      Find objects hidden behind/under a screen

    • B. 

      Uses one object as a container for another

    • C. 

      Begins to think logically but om\nly with reference to concrete objects and activities

    • D. 

      Uses a tool as extension of body to obtain object

  • 18. 
    The purpose os Assistive Technology interventions is to_______________ an individual to perform funtional activities.
    • A. 

      Rehabilitate

    • B. 

      Enable

    • C. 

      Remediate

    • D. 

      Cure

  • 19. 
    In a service delivery model, the implementation phase includes:
    • A. 

      Order and set-up

    • B. 

      Delivery and fitting

    • C. 

      Training

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 20. 
    When identifying consumer needs using the HAAT model, the practitoner should:
    • A. 

      Obtain functional position

    • B. 

      Identify potential anatomical sites

    • C. 

      Perform comparative testing of interaces

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 21. 
    Which would not be a private funding source for AT services:
    • A. 

      Volunteer organizations

    • B. 

      Private foundations

    • C. 

      Worker's Compensation

    • D. 

      Various service clubs and organizations

  • 22. 
    Although outcomes and benefits will vary, the overall goal of every intervention is to:
    • A. 

      Maximize the individual's function

    • B. 

      Maintain midline alignment in the chair

    • C. 

      Reduce contractures

    • D. 

      Obtain the best cushionpossible to minimize the risk of developing pressure ulcers

  • 23. 
    A physical evaluation of an individual for a seating assessment would include all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Orthopedic condition

    • B. 

      Verbal skills

    • C. 

      Neuromotor skills

    • D. 

      Respiratory and circulatory factors

  • 24. 
    Which is not an example of a type of force on the body:
    • A. 

      Tension

    • B. 

      Compression

    • C. 

      Shear

    • D. 

      Rotation

  • 25. 
    Which would best describe the rotation of the pelvis when sitting if there is an increase in lumbar lordosis?
    • A. 

      Anterior pelvic tilt

    • B. 

      Posterior pelic tilt

    • C. 

      Left pelvic obliquity

    • D. 

      Right pelvic obliquity