Resna Practice Exam

47 Questions

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Practice Exam Quizzes & Trivia

Practice questions are provided to associates who are preparing for the certification exam for the sole purpose of supplementing their study and review materials, as well as their efforts for exam preparation.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The Rehabilitation Act of 1973 included a term known as "Least Restrictive Environment". This caused employers and institions to:
    • A. 

      Make architectural changes to buildings

    • B. 

      Add elevators to buildings

    • C. 

      Add ramps and curb cuts

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 2. 
    There are several attributes that set direct consumer service programs apart from one another. The most distinguishing factor is:
    • A. 

      The administrative setting

    • B. 

      The type of Assistive Technology being supplied

    • C. 

      The type of funding that is available

    • D. 

      The cost of the Assistive Technology

  • 3. 
    Which is not an example of Direct Consumer Service?
    • A. 

      Rehab Setting

    • B. 

      DME Supplier

    • C. 

      Client's home

    • D. 

      V.A.

  • 4. 
    Any loss or abnormality of psychological, physical, or anatomical structure or functions is: 
    • A. 

      Disability

    • B. 

      Impairment

    • C. 

      Handicap

    • D. 

      Functional limition

  • 5. 
    ______________ results when one's impairment leads to their inability to perform activity considered normal for human beings.
    • A. 

      Disability

    • B. 

      Impairment

    • C. 

      Handicap

    • D. 

      Functional limitation

  • 6. 
    ___________________results when individual with an impairment or disability is unable to fulfill normal role.
    • A. 

      Disability

    • B. 

      Impairment

    • C. 

      Handicap

    • D. 

      Functional limitation

  • 7. 
    The ATP's role in direct service include all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Assessment

    • B. 

      Cognitive ability

    • C. 

      Evaluation

    • D. 

      Implementation

  • 8. 
    • A. 

      Setting, social, curltural, and physical

    • B. 

      Use, mobility, ease, and competency

    • C. 

      Blend of hard and soft technologies

    • D. 

      Availibility of equipment , make and model, and funding

  • 9. 
    Another term for Assistive Technology is:
    • A. 

      Human support component

    • B. 

      Extrinsic enables

    • C. 

      Hard technology

    • D. 

      ADA

  • 10. 
    • A. 

      Sensory funtion, central processing, and motor output and control

    • B. 

      Kinesthetic awareness

    • C. 

      Rehabilitative objectives

    • D. 

      Ability to perform tasks

  • 11. 
    The typical range of frequencies that can be heard by the human ear is:
    • A. 

      10 to 10,000 Hertz

    • B. 

      20 to 20,000 Hertz

    • C. 

      30 to 30,000 Hertz

    • D. 

      40 to 40,000 Hertz

  • 12. 
    A fundamental requirement for the effective use of AT is that the user be:
    • A. 

      Positioned correctly

    • B. 

      Able to move his arms

    • C. 

      Able to shift weight

    • D. 

      Made aware of their disability

  • 13. 
    To achieve distal mobility and function, a client being evaluated for seating and positioning must have:
    • A. 

      Good visual acuity

    • B. 

      Kinesthetic awareness

    • C. 

      Proximal stability

    • D. 

      Adequate room for movrment

  • 14. 
    Apraxia is the inablility to:
    • A. 

      Execute physical activity

    • B. 

      Plan motor movements

    • C. 

      Complete a verbal command

    • D. 

      Sit in an upright position

  • 15. 
    The folowing is not a characteristic of functional effector movements:
    • A. 

      Resolution

    • B. 

      Range

    • C. 

      Strenght and versatility

    • D. 

      Environment

  • 16. 
    On a C-3 level quadraplegic/tetraplegic, where would be a funtional site for effectors movements?
    • A. 

      Head, neck, or chin

    • B. 

      Elbow or forearm

    • C. 

      Arm and hands

    • D. 

      Elbow to forearm

  • 17. 
    • A. 

      Find objects hidden behind/under a screen

    • B. 

      Uses one object as a container for another

    • C. 

      Begins to think logically but om\nly with reference to concrete objects and activities

    • D. 

      Uses a tool as extension of body to obtain object

  • 18. 
    The purpose os Assistive Technology interventions is to_______________ an individual to perform funtional activities.
    • A. 

      Rehabilitate

    • B. 

      Enable

    • C. 

      Remediate

    • D. 

      Cure

  • 19. 
    In a service delivery model, the implementation phase includes:
    • A. 

      Order and set-up

    • B. 

      Delivery and fitting

    • C. 

      Training

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 20. 
    When identifying consumer needs using the HAAT model, the practitoner should:
    • A. 

      Obtain functional position

    • B. 

      Identify potential anatomical sites

    • C. 

      Perform comparative testing of interaces

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 21. 
    Which would not be a private funding source for AT services:
    • A. 

      Volunteer organizations

    • B. 

      Private foundations

    • C. 

      Worker's Compensation

    • D. 

      Various service clubs and organizations

  • 22. 
    Although outcomes and benefits will vary, the overall goal of every intervention is to:
    • A. 

      Maximize the individual's function

    • B. 

      Maintain midline alignment in the chair

    • C. 

      Reduce contractures

    • D. 

      Obtain the best cushionpossible to minimize the risk of developing pressure ulcers

  • 23. 
    A physical evaluation of an individual for a seating assessment would include all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Orthopedic condition

    • B. 

      Verbal skills

    • C. 

      Neuromotor skills

    • D. 

      Respiratory and circulatory factors

  • 24. 
    Which is not an example of a type of force on the body:
    • A. 

      Tension

    • B. 

      Compression

    • C. 

      Shear

    • D. 

      Rotation

  • 25. 
    Which would best describe the rotation of the pelvis when sitting if there is an increase in lumbar lordosis?
    • A. 

      Anterior pelvic tilt

    • B. 

      Posterior pelic tilt

    • C. 

      Left pelvic obliquity

    • D. 

      Right pelvic obliquity

  • 26. 
    When describing pelvic obliquity, the obliquity is named for the side that is:
    • A. 

      Higher

    • B. 

      Less affected by the deformity

    • C. 

      Lower

    • D. 

      Rotating anteriorly

  • 27. 
    When fixed pelvic deformities are present, the seating system should:
    • A. 

      Correct the deformity

    • B. 

      Accommodate the truck

    • C. 

      Immobilize the trunk

    • D. 

      Cure the deformity

  • 28. 
    Which is not an element of the human/technology interface ?
    • A. 

      Control interface

    • B. 

      Selection set

    • C. 

      Seating selection

    • D. 

      Selection methods

  • 29. 
    Mechanical controls interfaces represent the largest category of control interfaces. These include the folowing except:
    • A. 

      Radio frequency

    • B. 

      Keyboard keys

    • C. 

      Joysticks

    • D. 

      Latch switches

  • 30. 
    When considering augmentative and alternative communication intervention, what is not considered a speech and language disability?
    • A. 

      Dysarthia

    • B. 

      Apraxia

    • C. 

      Ataxia

    • D. 

      Aphasia

  • 31. 
    Conversational needs served by augmentative communication systems should include all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Expression of needs and wants

    • B. 

      Information transfer

    • C. 

      Functional Assistive Augmentative Communication systems

    • D. 

      Social closeness

  • 32. 
    The following would be (a) reason(s) to use a tilt system:
    • A. 

      Poor upright tolerance

    • B. 

      Needs frequent position changes

    • C. 

      Functional position is difficult to maintain for long periods

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 33. 
    Recent studies have demonstrated that children as young as ______________ can safely operate powered wheelchairs.
    • A. 

      18 to 24 months

    • B. 

      2 to 4 years old

    • C. 

      4 to 6 years old

    • D. 

      6 to 8 years old

  • 34. 
    A hemi manual wheelchair is characterized by:
    • A. 

      Ability to be driven with only one arm

    • B. 

      Adjustable height to allow for foot assisted propulsion

    • C. 

      A taller base to allow for greater function in the home

    • D. 

      Adjustable armrests and footplates

  • 35. 
    The Sip and Puff switich array utilized in power wheelchairs is an example of:
    • A. 

      Momentary control

    • B. 

      Switich array control

    • C. 

      Joystick control

    • D. 

      Latch control

  • 36. 
    There are several different ways to connect EADL devices for an individual. Th least practical for multiple use is:
    • A. 

      Direct wiring

    • B. 

      Infared transmission

    • C. 

      Radio frequency transmission

    • D. 

      Ultrasound transmission

  • 37. 
    A characteristic not found in Duchene's Muscular Dystrophy is:
    • A. 

      Lumbar hyper-lordosis

    • B. 

      Congenital onset

    • C. 

      Symmetrical and progressive muscle weakness

    • D. 

      Poor sitting posture

  • 38. 
    With a spinal cord injury, function is dependent on:
    • A. 

      Positioning

    • B. 

      Level of lesion

    • C. 

      Client's attitude

    • D. 

      Fatigue threshold

  • 39. 
    An individual who had a CVA may have the following condition(s):
    • A. 

      Decreased sensation

    • B. 

      Decreased vision

    • C. 

      Aphasia

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 40. 
    Which of the following would not be associated with Cerebral Palsy?
    • A. 

      Progressive involvement

    • B. 

      Abnormal muscle tone

    • C. 

      Decreased range of motion

    • D. 

      Poor coordination

  • 41. 
    • A. 

      Avoid opinions and vague summaries

    • B. 

      Use measures that can be quantified with numbers and concrete data

    • C. 

      Use subjective rather than objective terms

    • D. 

      Obtain measurements before and after intervention

  • 42. 
    When using a keyboard for use with a computer or for typing, what is the best position for the person's wrists and hands to reduce the stain during repetitive motions of keying?
    • A. 

      15 degrees

    • B. 

      30 degrees

    • C. 

      Neutral position

    • D. 

      45 degrees

  • 43. 
    The following are examples of alterative keyboards for direct selection except:
    • A. 

      Tongue Touch Keypad

    • B. 

      Expanded keyboards

    • C. 

      Row Column Scanning Matrix

    • D. 

      Touch Screens/Touch Tablets

  • 44. 
    • A. 

      Recommendations from manufacturer reps

    • B. 

      Interfaces for direct or indirect selection

    • C. 

      Funding availability

    • D. 

      Scan versus keypad selection

  • 45. 
    Selection techniques for Scanning include the following except:
    • A. 

      Automatic scanning

    • B. 

      Inverse scanning

    • C. 

      Alternative scanning

    • D. 

      Step scanning

  • 46. 
    Which of the following is an example of a Single-Switch interface?
    • A. 

      Pneumatic switches

    • B. 

      Mechanical switches

    • C. 

      Phonation switch

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 47. 
    • A. 

      To perform an initial skills evaluation of the client

    • B. 

      To determine funding sources

    • C. 

      To perform a cognitive skills evaluation of the client

    • D. 

      To carefully determine the client's needs