2A374

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1. What defensive store from the A–10 aircraft may lodge in your skin or eyes and cause permanent damage when deployed?

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2A374 - Quiz

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2. Which hazardous liquid has a hazard of extreme cold temperature when exposed to air?

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3. Which major aircraft system is responsible for cockpit pressurization and crewmember anti-g suit pressurization?

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4. Which major aircraft system does the master caution system fall under?

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5. Which F-15 APG-63 radar scan mode can maintain up to 10 target track files while continuing to detect and display up to 18 more (half-intensity) observation targets?

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6. The additional hole in the bottom of the F-15 pitot-static probes is designed to

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7. What hazard is present for personnel standing in the area of an A–10 aircraft if a canopy is jettisoned on the ground?

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8. The A–10 stick shaker activation warns the pilot of

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9. On the F–16, what is the amount of control surface movement in relation to the amount of pressure applied to the side-stick or rudder pedals called?

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10. What is the purpose of the vibrator installed on the rear of the U–2 standby altimeter?

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11. Under which major aircraft system does the Sniper XR targeting pod fall?

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12. On the F–16C/D, the antennal elevation (ANT ELEV) control and radar CURSOR/ENABLE switches are located on the

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13. When the F–16 multifunction information distribution system (MIDS) achieves a fine synchronization, what is displayed?

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14. On the F–16 multifunction information distribution system (MIDS), which color and shape is used to identify a LINK–16 friend?

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15. Which test set is used to perform an operational checkout of the A–10 infrared countermeasures AAR–47 system?

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16. On the F-15, what types of data transfer modules (DTM) can be used by the DTM receptacle?

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17. Which F-15E digital map system (DMS) built-in test (BIT) suspends normal digital map processor operations to test all circuits?

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18. On the F-15C/D/E aircraft, the fuel quantity system requires calibration after replacement of the

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19. What action must be taken before flight when any internal countermeasures system (ICMS) component is not installed in bay 5?

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20. On the F–16 multifunction information distribution system (MIDS) system, the LINK–16 participants must be

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21. On the U–2 aircraft, the fuel sump tank quantity indicating system utilizes a reluctance-type probe containing

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22. Which A–10 aircraft control surfaces are used with aft or forward movement of the control stick?

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23. Which F-15C, D, and E fuel quantity indicating system line replaceable unit (LRU) provides power to the tank units?

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24. The F-15 rudder limiter actuator is used to prevent commanded excessive rudder travel when the aircraft is traveling above what Mach?

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25. What is the standard barometric setting in inches of mercury (Hg) used above altitudes of 18,000 feet?

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26. What type inputs are provided to the F-15 air data computer (ADC)?

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27. What U–2 PIIG inertial navigation unit internal component provides a reference for the measurement of aircraft attitude and keeps the platform level?

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28. The gyroscopic drift is measured to improve the gyro biases during which U–2 PIIG inertial navigation system (INS) alignment?

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29. When the U–2 ARC–217 high frequency (HF) radio system is powered on, the HF radio be in the mode

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30. Which inherent error results from the imperfect flexing of aneroid capsules and springs within the pitot-static system, and is present during rapid altitude changes and for a short time afterward?

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31. What page on the A–10 multifunction color display (MFCD) displays threat symbology to alert the pilot of potential threat?

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32. On the F-15 APG-63 radar system, which component provides manual control of radar set power, operating modes, and mode parameters?

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33. Which F-15E line replaceable unit (LRU) is basically a combination of pitch and roll/yaw computers?

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34. Why is the 1553 multiplex (MUX) connection to the left F-15E air data processor (ADP) used?

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35. On the U–2, what feature is unique to the right pitot tube compared to the left pitot tube?

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36. Which A–10 central interface control unit (CICU) built-in test must be performed while the aircraft is on the ground?

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37. Which A–10 remote control panel switch position will cause the color cockpit television sensor/ digital video airborne data recorder (CCTVS/DVADR) system to stop recording?

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38. Which A–10 infrared countermeasures AAR–47 system component senses in-band ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the rocket motor exhaust of a missile?

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39. Which F-15C/D APG-70 radar set component combines the functions of the APG–63 receiver and radio frequency oscillator (RFO) into one line replaceable unit (LRU)?

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40. Which F-15 video tape recording system component causes a rectangle to be displayed on the multiple indicator control panel (MICP) and head-up display (HUD) recorded video displays?

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41. The altimeter setting is defined as a setting on the altimeter to indicate

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42. Which U–2 aircraft up-front control display (UFCD) core key provides the capability to modify modes and codes, zeroize the system, and transmit an emergency message?

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43. Which A–10 low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (LASTE) related component contains the WEAPONS RELEASE button, NOSE WHEEL STEERING button, and MASTER MODE CONTROL button?

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44. On the A–10 aircraft, at what knots indicated airspeed (KIAS) is the yaw stability augmentation system (SAS) authority limited?

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45. On the A–10 aircraft, which component prevents the situation awareness data link (SADL) radio and ARC–210–2 radio from interfering with one another?

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46. Which operational flight program (OFP) function interfaces with all other program functions?

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47. The F-15 pitot-static probes are located on the

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48. On an F-15, operation of the angle-of-attack (AOA) probe heaters is controlled by the

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49. Which F-15E air data processor section performs most of the built-in test (BIT) function?

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50. On the F-15E, what component provides the operator interface for the radar altimeter, terrain following radar (TFR) system and NAV FLIR (navigation forward looking infrared) sensor?

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51. Which U–2 aircraft up-front control display (UFCD) core function key provides radial and range information from a reference point to aircraft position?

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52. On the U–2 aircraft, what is the sump quantity indicator measured in for the fuel sump tank quantity system?

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53. What test set replaced the portable data transfer system (PDTS) when reconnaissance avionics maintainability program (RAMP) modified U–2 aircraft hit the flight line?

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54. Which position is the A–10 FUEL DISPLAY SELECT switch set to if the fuel quantity indicator's (FQI) left pointer has a fuel reading and the right pointer reads zero?

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55. On the A–10 aircraft, what does the countermeasures set (CMS) deploy for missile warning set (MWS) threats?

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56. Which F-15E APG-70 radar set component converts the intermediate frequency (IF) analog data to digital information which is then sent to the programmable signal processor (044) for processing?

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57. On the F-15 APG-63(V)1 radar, which component stores the radar operational flight program (OFP) and protects the radar from overheating?

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58. Which F-15 longitudinal flight control subsystem component is used to help neutralize the effect of acceleration on the control stick during maneuvers?

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59. Which is not part of the F-15 air data computer (ADC) system?

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60. On the F–16C/D, what component ensures there will be no arcing within the waveguide during operational flight conditions?

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61. Which F–16 advanced identification friend or foe (AIFF) system mode enables traffic identity operation?

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62. On the U–2 aircraft, how is flight time remaining displayed on the fuel totalizer indicator?

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63. How many separate pitot static systems are on the U–2 aircraft?

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64. Which section of the A–10 aircraft consists of a horizontal and two vertical stabilizers?

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65. What does the A–10 central interface control unit (CICU) provide to allow the targeting pod to operate properly?

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66. The A–10 cockpit color television video sensor (CCTVS) records a video of the

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67. What does the U–2 dual oil quantity (analog) indicator left analog liquid crystal diode (LCD) indicate?

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68. Which U–2 automatic direction finding (ADF) system component compensates for the deflection of arriving radio signals caused by the wings and fuselage of the aircraft?

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69. What A–10 low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (LASTE) related component senses aircraft pitch, yaw, and roll rates?

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70. What is the recording time of the A–10 removable mass memory device?

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71. On the A–10, what is the turbine engine monitoring system's (TEMS) vertical accelerometer operating range?

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72. On the A–10, pitot icing can occur at a relatively slow rate and cause a gradual

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73. On the A–10 aircraft, to determine the stall margin, the alpha/Mach computer compares wing lift inputs received from the lift transducer with inputs from the

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74. On an F-15, what information does the air data computer (ADC) provide to the identify friend-or-foe (IFF) transponder?

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75. What component is used to combine band 3 forward amplifier continuous wave (CW) radio frequency radiation (RF) and pulse RF signals into a single signal, split the combined signal, and send the split signal to the forward up and forward down band 3 internal countermeasures system (ICMS) antennas?

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76. Which F–16 advanced identification friend or foe (AIFF) system transponder and interrogator mode is used for altitude reporting?

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77. The A–10 fuel quantity alternating current (AC) filter is necessary because it

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78. On an A–10, the Stability Augmentation System (SAS) computer will drive the elevators trailing edge down between 0° and –3.5° to counteract a nose up pitch during

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79. On the F-15C/D APG-70 radar set, which built-in test (BIT) history matrix contains the latest known test results?

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80. What is displayed in window 8 on the F-15 head-up display (HUD) if the overload warning system (OWS) is not operational?

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81. What F–16 flight environmental pressure is sensed by small holes located on the sides of the pitot and air data probes?

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82. The F–16 pitot-static probe pneumatic system supplies air data to the central air data computer (CADC), airspeed Mach indicator (AMI), altimeter, and

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83. What is the maximum azimuth scan limits of the F–16C/D radar antenna?

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84. What does the U–2 PIIG inertial navigation system require for the inertial navigation system (INS) alignment to begin?

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85. Which section of the A–10 aircraft extends from approximately 2 feet aft of the canopy to approximately 18 inches aft of the trailing edge of the wings?

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86. Which F-15 APG-63 radar search mode locks on to the first target that falls within the scan pattern out to a range of 10 nautical miles (NMI) and is considered the primary automatic acquisition mode?

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87. At what F-15 overload warning system (OWS) percentage of maximum allowable load will the voice warning (OVER-G, OVER-G) be heard?

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88. What F-15E digital map system (DMS) tactical situation display is displayed as circles centered on a point where the aircraft is potentially vulnerable to a defined threat?

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89. Which section of the F-15E air data processor (ADP) conditions and converts all received inputs to the ADP?

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90. On the F-15, what system has all signals passed through the fighter data link (FDL) receiver/transmitter?

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91. On the F-15E LANTIRN navigation pod system, what is the primary display format used?

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92. The F–16 angle-of-attack (AOA) indicator is considered a

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93. Which symbology will be displayed when the F–16 advanced identification friend or foe (AIFF) system receives a friendly response?

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94. On the A–10 aircraft, which component provides Tactical Data Network (TDN) communication, utilizing the variable message format (VMF) message set?

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95. The F-15 overload warning reset switch is used with the navigation control indicator (NCI) to clear overload conditions from the memory of which component?

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96. Which F-15E nozzle position indicating system component drives the engine exhaust nozzle position transmitter through a mechanical interface?

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97. Which F-15 ramps, doors, or actuators are hydraulically powered and controlled by the air inlet controllers (AIC)?

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98. How is the final amplified band 1 radio frequency (RF) signal transmitted to the band 1 antenna?

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99. How many fuel probes are in each F–16's external wing tank?

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100. On the F–16 aircraft, two low-level sensors and two air ejector control sensors are found on the fuel probes of the

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101. What F–16 component supplies it with altitude data when in ELEC (electric) mode?

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102. The data transfer system (DTS) is part of which major aircraft system?

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103. During the A–10 low altitude safety targeting enhancement (LASTE) precision attitude control (PAC)–2 engagement, LASTE is able to stabilize the aircraft for up to

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104. On an F-15, the operation of the air data computer (ADC) is divided into

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105. What do the band 1 and band 2 amplifiers use to produce leveled high power radio frequency (RF) signals?

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106. What is the purpose of the F-15E data link pod (DLP)?

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107. On F–16s, the speed brake panels open symmetrically to a maximum of

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108. Which A–10 heading attitude reference system (HARS) mode is selected on the compass system controller (CSC) and allows the heading to be sensed by the magnetic azimuth detector (MAD) and corrected for errors?

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109. How can you perform an operational checkout of the A–10 improved data modem (IDM)?

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110. On the F-15 APG-63 radar system, ASP 25 will latch when the waveguide pressure falls below how many pounds per square inch absolute (PSIA)?

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111. Which F-15 component sends flight data consisting of angle of attack (AOA), Mach number, pressure ratio, and barometric corrected altitude across MUX bus channels 1 and 3?

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112. Which F-15E digital map system (DMS) component stores data loaded from the Air Force mission support system (AFMSS) in battery-backed static random access memory?

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113. What type(s) of inputs are required by the F–16 central air data computer (CADC) to do its job?

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114. The selected roll autopilot mode on the F–16 will only engage when either pitch attitude hold or

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115. Which U–2 component performs bus control for the U–2 aircraft 1553B NAV and 1553 C&D bus?

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116. On the U–2 aircraft, what is connected to a pushrod that moves the rudder surface in the autopilot air data system (APADS)?

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117. What is the U–2 ARC–217 high frequency (HF) radio's amplitude output in watts when MEDIUM is selected?

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118. On the A–10, what turbine engine monitoring system (TEMS) detected event occurs with core speed above 99.4 percent but less than 102 percent?

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119. What size fuse does the A–10 heading attitude reference system (HARS) fuse box use to fuse protect the electronic control amplifier (ECA) and displacement gyro (DG) from the excess current of a defective magnetic azimuth detector (MAD)?

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120. Which A–10 stability augmentation system (SAS) function is disengaged by the heading attitude reference system (HARS)/SAS power detector?

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121. Which A–10 multifunction color display (MFCD) page is used to receive, transmit, and manage tactical data link (TDL) text messages?

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122. Which F-15 component sends signals telling the central computer (CC) whether wing tanks and/or conformal fuel tanks (CFT) are loaded on the aircraft?

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123. How many dipole elements does the F-15 antenna array have?

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124. The F–16 digital flight control computer (DFLCC) can communicate on which avionics multiplex bus(s)?

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125. On the F–16C/D fire control radar (FCR), what component provides high-power amplification of the transmit signal?

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126. In which two modes does the U–2 aircraft multifunction display (MFD) operate?

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127. Which U–2 aircraft component provides a heads-forward capability to monitor and control critical and frequently used communication navigation aids and identification (CNI) systems?

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128. Which U–2 autopilot control panel (APCP) switch provides a way to manually change the heading of the aircraft when the autopilot is engaged?

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129. Where is the U–2 automatic direction finding (ADF) receiver located?

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130. What navigation (NAV) operating mode does the A–10 head-up display low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (HUD LASTE) system default to as its backup?

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131. On the A–10, which turbine engine monitoring system (TEMS) detected level event will always ground the aircraft until the event is resolved?

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132. Which F-15 APG-63 radar system component stores the radar operational flight program (OFP)?

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133. What supplies the F-15 directional feel trim actuator position to the limit level detectors to prevent the actuator from driving beyond its limit?

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134. How many internal fuel tanks does the F–16 aircraft have?

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135. What is the F–16 digital flight control system angle-of-attack (AOA) transmitter probe's travel rotation?

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136. On the F–16, flap position will vary between 2 degrees (1 inch) up and 25 degrees (12–1/2 inches) down with the leading edge flaps switch in which position?

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137. On the F–16, how many different levels of modular mission computer (MMC) degradation exist?

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138. During the F–16C/D fire control radar (FCR) power down sequence, how is the antenna positioned?

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139. Which A–10 low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (LASTE) component's function is to turn on the radar altimeter, arm the enhanced attitude control (EAC) function, and control the low altitude autopilot (LAAP)?

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140. Which type of stability is around the longitudinal axis?

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141. Which F-15 directional flight control subsystem component contains centering springs, providing an artificial feel used to keep the rudder pedals centered?

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142. How are the left and right F-15E air data processors mounted and where are they located?

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143. The F–16 speed brakes receive hydraulic pressure from which hydraulic system(s)?

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144. On the A–10 aircraft, what component commands the attitude director indicator (ADI) to display the course warning flag?

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145. What F-15C/D APG-70 radar air-to-ground (A/G) mode does the pilot utilize prior to making a bomb run?

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146. Which F-15 video tape recording system light will come on/flash when moisture is detected inside video tape recorder?

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147. Which F-15 longitudinal flight control subsystem component has built-in centering springs which resist stick movement giving the pilot a stick feel force?

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148. Which F-15 directional flight control subsystem component transmits the input force from the aileron rudder interconnect (ARI) into two separate push-pull cables?

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149. The F-15 diffuser ramp actuator's Mach blocking valve solenoid prevents the actuator from retracting when aircraft speed is above Mach

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150. The range of movement of the F–16 rudder is how many degrees left or right of streamline?

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151. On the U–2 aircraft, what is the fuel flow scale of the fuel totalizer indicator?

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152. On a U–2, control surface (elevator) feedback comes from

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153. When the U–2 automatic direction finding (ADF) control panel MODE CONTROL switch is held in the TEST position, a

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154. What assumes control of the A–10 digital data bus if the master bus controller (MBC) fails?

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155. How many output video interfaces does the A–10 central interface control unit (CICU) provide to drive high resolution multifunction color displays (MFCD)?

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156. The F-15 central computer (CC) sends overload warning system (OWS) information to which line replaceable unit (LRU)?

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157. Which F-15E fuel flow indicating system component provides a synchro signal to the engine monitor display (EMD) to drive the liquid crystal display (LCD) window FF PPH (fuel flow pounds per hour)?

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158. At what airspeed does the F-15's air data computer (ADC) unlock the diffuser ramp?

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159. On the F-15 air-to-air interrogator (AAI) display, what is a low confidence target displayed as?

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160. What data bus does radar warning receiver (RWR) use to control the F-15C internal countermeasures set (ICMS) band 1 and band 2 oscillators?

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161. On the F–16, what allows pitch and roll attitude adjustments to be made while either autopilot attitude (ATT) mode is engaged?

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162. Which F–16 digital video recorder system component controls the electrical power to the digital video recorder (DVR)?

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163. Which U–2 inertial navigation component can also act as an emergency backup, supplying position, velocity, and time data to the position solution?

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164. On the U–2 standby flight display, the NAV button allows selection of how many instrument landing system (ILS) functions?

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165. What is the operating voltage of the U–2 disciplined rubidium oscillator (DRO)?

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166. On the A–10, which turbine engine monitoring system (TEMS) component contains two externally mounted batteries used to retain stored data?

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167. Which F-15 APG-63(V)1 radar air-to-ground (A/G) mode provides general navigation?

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168. Into which component of the internal countermeasures system (ICMS) are the band 3 operational flight program (OFP) and preflight message (PFM) loaded?

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169. The range of movement for the F–16 leading edge flaps (LEF) is limited to

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170. On the U–2 ALQ–221 electronic warfare suite (EWS) system, what is the total number of receive antennas?

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171. On the F-15E aircraft, which component within the advanced display core processor (ADCP) services the multipurpose display processing and central computer processing functions?

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172. Which one do you like?

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173. Which F–16 multifunction information distribution system (MIDS) component is installed in the upper antenna path and blocks tactical air navigation (TACAN) transmissions in the identify friend or foe (IFF) transmit frequencies?

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174. What is the frequency reference generated by the internal rubidium oscillator of the U–2 disciplined rubidium oscillator (DRO)?

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175. Which F-15E APG-70 air-to-ground (A/G) radar mode provides a slant range measurement used for target altitude determination, for target designation, or for position updates?

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176. Which component would be used to zeroize the F-15C/D fighter data link (FDL) crypto code?

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177. What component performs the final traveling wave tube (TWT) amplification of band 3 oscillator signals?

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178. What F–16 component develops the vertical velocity indicator's (VVI) vertical velocity signal?

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179. On F–16s, what deflects simultaneously with the flaperons in response to roll command signals?

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180. On the F–16 advanced identification friend or foe (AIFF) system, which switch is used to command a SCAN interrogation?

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181. What will the U–2 fuel totalizer indicator fuel remaining quantity automatically default to when the STEP/INC and SET/SHIFT pushbuttons are pushed at the same time?

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182. On the U–2 ALQ–221 electronic warfare suite (EWS) system, which component does the low band (LB) processor interface with for threat identification for detected threats?

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183. On the U–2 ALQ–221 electronic warfare suite (EWS) system, what light illuminates when the high band (HB) processor detects an emitter?

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184. The A–10 stick shaker will activate when angle of attack (AOA) is 16° or more and the landing gear is up and locked with

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185. Which F-15E digital map system (DMS) component uses present position information and scale select information to determine which map to display?

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186. Which F-15 acceleration indicating/G exceedance system component is designed to provide a visual indication of −5 to +10 g-forces imposed on the cockpit of the aircraft during climbs, dives, and turns?

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187. Where is the aft amplifier pulse radio frequency (RF) signal sent during band 3 operation?

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188. What F–16 device measures impact pressure?

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189. On the F–16, the modular mission computer (MMC) multiplex (MUX) bus architecture incorporated the addition of which MUX buses?

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190. Which U–2 ALQ–221 electronic warfare suite (EWS) system component sends the incoming emitter signals to the wingtip receiver processor (WTRP)?

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191. On the A–10 aircraft, pitch stability augmentation system (SAS) authority is mechanically limited to between

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192. Pressure being applied to the front of the airplane as it moves through the air is represented by

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193. The F-15 #1 and #2 modular relay panels provide logic signals to the pitch computer for changing conditions such as

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194. The F-15E flight control computer (FCC) produces the output discrete signals to control what?

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195. Which section on the F-15E air data processor (ADP) conditions the ADP signals for interfacing with the indicators and other onboard systems?

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196. What F–16 fuel level sensing component(s) provides for control and operation of the air ejector valves?

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197. On the F–16 fire control radar (FCR), the field of view (FOV) display may be expanded while in ground-map (GM) mode by using the

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198. On a U–2, why do the four mode select servo switches (lights) on the autopilot control panel (APCP) come on?

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199. How many command modes does the yaw axis have in the U–2 autopilot?

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200. On the U–2 ALQ–221 electronic warfare suite (EWS) system, which built-in-test (BIT) runs every 5 seconds on a non-intrusive basis and does not affect system performance?

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What defensive store from the A–10 aircraft may lodge in your...
Which hazardous liquid has a hazard of extreme cold temperature when...
Which major aircraft system is responsible for cockpit pressurization...
Which major aircraft system does the master caution system fall under?
Which F-15 APG-63 radar scan mode can maintain up to 10 target track...
The additional hole in the bottom of the F-15 pitot-static probes is...
What hazard is present for personnel standing in the area of an...
The A–10 stick shaker activation warns the pilot of
On the F–16, what is the amount of control surface movement in...
What is the purpose of the vibrator installed on the rear of the...
Under which major aircraft system does the Sniper XR targeting pod...
On the F–16C/D, the antennal elevation (ANT ELEV) control and...
When the F–16 multifunction information distribution system...
On the F–16 multifunction information distribution system...
Which test set is used to perform an operational checkout of the...
On the F-15, what types of data transfer modules (DTM) can be used by...
Which F-15E digital map system (DMS) built-in test (BIT) suspends...
On the F-15C/D/E aircraft, the fuel quantity system requires...
What action must be taken before flight when any internal...
On the F–16 multifunction information distribution system (MIDS)...
On the U–2 aircraft, the fuel sump tank quantity indicating...
Which A–10 aircraft control surfaces are used with aft or...
Which F-15C, D, and E fuel quantity indicating system line replaceable...
The F-15 rudder limiter actuator is used to prevent commanded...
What is the standard barometric setting in inches of mercury (Hg) used...
What type inputs are provided to the F-15 air data computer (ADC)?
What U–2 PIIG inertial navigation unit internal component...
The gyroscopic drift is measured to improve the gyro biases during...
When the U–2 ARC–217 high frequency (HF) radio system is...
Which inherent error results from the imperfect flexing of aneroid...
What page on the A–10 multifunction color display (MFCD)...
On the F-15 APG-63 radar system, which component provides manual...
Which F-15E line replaceable unit (LRU) is basically a combination of...
Why is the 1553 multiplex (MUX) connection to the left F-15E air data...
On the U–2, what feature is unique to the right pitot tube...
Which A–10 central interface control unit (CICU) built-in test...
Which A–10 remote control panel switch position will cause the...
Which A–10 infrared countermeasures AAR–47 system...
Which F-15C/D APG-70 radar set component combines the functions of the...
Which F-15 video tape recording system component causes a rectangle to...
The altimeter setting is defined as a setting on the altimeter to...
Which U–2 aircraft up-front control display (UFCD) core key...
Which A–10 low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (LASTE)...
On the A–10 aircraft, at what knots indicated airspeed (KIAS) is...
On the A–10 aircraft, which component prevents the situation...
Which operational flight program (OFP) function interfaces with all...
The F-15 pitot-static probes are located on the
On an F-15, operation of the angle-of-attack (AOA) probe heaters is...
Which F-15E air data processor section performs most of the built-in...
On the F-15E, what component provides the operator interface for the...
Which U–2 aircraft up-front control display (UFCD) core function...
On the U–2 aircraft, what is the sump quantity indicator...
What test set replaced the portable data transfer system (PDTS) when...
Which position is the A–10 FUEL DISPLAY SELECT switch set to if...
On the A–10 aircraft, what does the countermeasures set (CMS)...
Which F-15E APG-70 radar set component converts the intermediate...
On the F-15 APG-63(V)1 radar, which component stores the radar...
Which F-15 longitudinal flight control subsystem component is used to...
Which is not part of the F-15 air data computer (ADC) system?
On the F–16C/D, what component ensures there will be no arcing...
Which F–16 advanced identification friend or foe (AIFF) system...
On the U–2 aircraft, how is flight time remaining displayed on...
How many separate pitot static systems are on the U–2 aircraft?
Which section of the A–10 aircraft consists of a horizontal and...
What does the A–10 central interface control unit (CICU) provide...
The A–10 cockpit color television video sensor (CCTVS) records a...
What does the U–2 dual oil quantity (analog) indicator left...
Which U–2 automatic direction finding (ADF) system component...
What A–10 low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (LASTE)...
What is the recording time of the A–10 removable mass memory...
On the A–10, what is the turbine engine monitoring system's...
On the A–10, pitot icing can occur at a relatively slow rate and...
On the A–10 aircraft, to determine the stall margin, the...
On an F-15, what information does the air data computer (ADC) provide...
What component is used to combine band 3 forward amplifier continuous...
Which F–16 advanced identification friend or foe (AIFF) system...
The A–10 fuel quantity alternating current (AC) filter is...
On an A–10, the Stability Augmentation System (SAS) computer...
On the F-15C/D APG-70 radar set, which built-in test (BIT) history...
What is displayed in window 8 on the F-15 head-up display (HUD) if the...
What F–16 flight environmental pressure is sensed by small holes...
The F–16 pitot-static probe pneumatic system supplies air data...
What is the maximum azimuth scan limits of the F–16C/D radar...
What does the U–2 PIIG inertial navigation system require for...
Which section of the A–10 aircraft extends from approximately 2...
Which F-15 APG-63 radar search mode locks on to the first target that...
At what F-15 overload warning system (OWS) percentage of maximum...
What F-15E digital map system (DMS) tactical situation display is...
Which section of the F-15E air data processor (ADP) conditions and...
On the F-15, what system has all signals passed through the fighter...
On the F-15E LANTIRN navigation pod system, what is the primary...
The F–16 angle-of-attack (AOA) indicator is considered a
Which symbology will be displayed when the F–16 advanced...
On the A–10 aircraft, which component provides Tactical Data...
The F-15 overload warning reset switch is used with the navigation...
Which F-15E nozzle position indicating system component drives the...
Which F-15 ramps, doors, or actuators are hydraulically powered and...
How is the final amplified band 1 radio frequency (RF) signal...
How many fuel probes are in each F–16's external wing tank?
On the F–16 aircraft, two low-level sensors and two air ejector...
What F–16 component supplies it with altitude data when in ELEC...
The data transfer system (DTS) is part of which major aircraft system?
During the A–10 low altitude safety targeting enhancement...
On an F-15, the operation of the air data computer (ADC) is divided...
What do the band 1 and band 2 amplifiers use to produce leveled high...
What is the purpose of the F-15E data link pod (DLP)?
On F–16s, the speed brake panels open symmetrically to a maximum...
Which A–10 heading attitude reference system (HARS) mode is...
How can you perform an operational checkout of the A–10 improved...
On the F-15 APG-63 radar system, ASP 25 will latch when the waveguide...
Which F-15 component sends flight data consisting of angle of attack...
Which F-15E digital map system (DMS) component stores data loaded from...
What type(s) of inputs are required by the F–16 central air data...
The selected roll autopilot mode on the F–16 will only engage...
Which U–2 component performs bus control for the U–2...
On the U–2 aircraft, what is connected to a pushrod that moves...
What is the U–2 ARC–217 high frequency (HF) radio's...
On the A–10, what turbine engine monitoring system (TEMS)...
What size fuse does the A–10 heading attitude reference system...
Which A–10 stability augmentation system (SAS) function is...
Which A–10 multifunction color display (MFCD) page is used to...
Which F-15 component sends signals telling the central computer (CC)...
How many dipole elements does the F-15 antenna array have?
The F–16 digital flight control computer (DFLCC) can communicate...
On the F–16C/D fire control radar (FCR), what component provides...
In which two modes does the U–2 aircraft multifunction display...
Which U–2 aircraft component provides a heads-forward capability...
Which U–2 autopilot control panel (APCP) switch provides a way...
Where is the U–2 automatic direction finding (ADF) receiver...
What navigation (NAV) operating mode does the A–10 head-up...
On the A–10, which turbine engine monitoring system (TEMS)...
Which F-15 APG-63 radar system component stores the radar operational...
What supplies the F-15 directional feel trim actuator position to the...
How many internal fuel tanks does the F–16 aircraft have?
What is the F–16 digital flight control system angle-of-attack...
On the F–16, flap position will vary between 2 degrees (1 inch)...
On the F–16, how many different levels of modular mission...
During the F–16C/D fire control radar (FCR) power down sequence,...
Which A–10 low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (LASTE)...
Which type of stability is around the longitudinal axis?
Which F-15 directional flight control subsystem component contains...
How are the left and right F-15E air data processors mounted and where...
The F–16 speed brakes receive hydraulic pressure from which...
On the A–10 aircraft, what component commands the attitude...
What F-15C/D APG-70 radar air-to-ground (A/G) mode does the pilot...
Which F-15 video tape recording system light will come on/flash when...
Which F-15 longitudinal flight control subsystem component has...
Which F-15 directional flight control subsystem component transmits...
The F-15 diffuser ramp actuator's Mach blocking valve solenoid...
The range of movement of the F–16 rudder is how many degrees...
On the U–2 aircraft, what is the fuel flow scale of the fuel...
On a U–2, control surface (elevator) feedback comes from
When the U–2 automatic direction finding (ADF) control panel...
What assumes control of the A–10 digital data bus if the master...
How many output video interfaces does the A–10 central interface...
The F-15 central computer (CC) sends overload warning system (OWS)...
Which F-15E fuel flow indicating system component provides a synchro...
At what airspeed does the F-15's air data computer (ADC) unlock the...
On the F-15 air-to-air interrogator (AAI) display, what is a low...
What data bus does radar warning receiver (RWR) use to control the...
On the F–16, what allows pitch and roll attitude adjustments to...
Which F–16 digital video recorder system component controls the...
Which U–2 inertial navigation component can also act as an...
On the U–2 standby flight display, the NAV button allows...
What is the operating voltage of the U–2 disciplined rubidium...
On the A–10, which turbine engine monitoring system (TEMS)...
Which F-15 APG-63(V)1 radar air-to-ground (A/G) mode provides general...
Into which component of the internal countermeasures system (ICMS) are...
The range of movement for the F–16 leading edge flaps (LEF) is...
On the U–2 ALQ–221 electronic warfare suite (EWS) system,...
On the F-15E aircraft, which component within the advanced display...
Which one do you like?
Which F–16 multifunction information distribution system (MIDS)...
What is the frequency reference generated by the internal rubidium...
Which F-15E APG-70 air-to-ground (A/G) radar mode provides a slant...
Which component would be used to zeroize the F-15C/D fighter data link...
What component performs the final traveling wave tube (TWT)...
What F–16 component develops the vertical velocity indicator's...
On F–16s, what deflects simultaneously with the flaperons in...
On the F–16 advanced identification friend or foe (AIFF) system,...
What will the U–2 fuel totalizer indicator fuel remaining...
On the U–2 ALQ–221 electronic warfare suite (EWS) system,...
On the U–2 ALQ–221 electronic warfare suite (EWS) system,...
The A–10 stick shaker will activate when angle of attack (AOA)...
Which F-15E digital map system (DMS) component uses present position...
Which F-15 acceleration indicating/G exceedance system component is...
Where is the aft amplifier pulse radio frequency (RF) signal sent...
What F–16 device measures impact pressure?
On the F–16, the modular mission computer (MMC) multiplex (MUX)...
Which U–2 ALQ–221 electronic warfare suite (EWS) system...
On the A–10 aircraft, pitch stability augmentation system (SAS)...
Pressure being applied to the front of the airplane as it moves...
The F-15 #1 and #2 modular relay panels provide logic signals to the...
The F-15E flight control computer (FCC) produces the output discrete...
Which section on the F-15E air data processor (ADP) conditions the ADP...
What F–16 fuel level sensing component(s) provides for control...
On the F–16 fire control radar (FCR), the field of view (FOV)...
On a U–2, why do the four mode select servo switches (lights) on...
How many command modes does the yaw axis have in the U–2...
On the U–2 ALQ–221 electronic warfare suite (EWS) system,...
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